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APC gene is located on which chromosome | [
"Chromosome 5",
"Chromosome 6",
"Chromosome 9",
"Chromosome 11"
] | A | Ref Robbins 9/e p296 APC is classified as a tumor suppressor gene. Tumor suppressor genes prevent the uncontrolled growth of cells that may result in cancerous tumors. The protein made by the APC gene plays a critical role in several cellular processes that determine whether a cell may develop into a tumor. The APC protein helps control how often a cell divides, how it attaches to other cells within a tissue, how the cell polarizes and the morphogenesis of the 3D structures, or whether a cell moves within or away from a tissue. This protein also helps ensure that the chromosome number in cells produced through cell division is correct. The APC protein accomplishes these tasks mainly through association with other proteins, especially those that are involved in cell attachment and signaling. The activity of one protein in paicular, beta-catenin, is controlled by the APC protein (see: Wnt signaling pathway). Regulation of beta-catenin prevents genes that stimulate cell division from being turned on too often and prevents cell overgrowth. The human APC gene is located on the long (q) arm of chromosome 5 in band q22.2 (5q22.2). The APCgene has been shown to contain an internal ribosome entry site. APC ohologs have also been identified in all mammals for which complete genome data are available. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Testosterone inhibitor is- | [
"Spironolactone",
"Clomiphene",
"Bremelanotide",
"Sildenafil"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Spironolactone | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following organism does the capsule does not act as a virulence factor? | [
"H. influenzae",
"Strep pneumoniae",
"N. meningitidis",
"Bordetella peusis"
] | D | Ans. (d) Bordetella peussis Antigenic constituents and Virulence factor of Bordetella Peussis toxin (most impoant) Tracheal cytotoxin Dermonecrotic toxin Lipo oligosoccharide Adenylate cyclase toxin Fimbriae Filamentous hemagglutinin (a component of cell wall) Peactin (an outer membrane protein) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In diabetic pregnancy least common is: | [
"Caudal regression syndrome",
"Anencephaly`",
"VSD",
"Spina bifida"
] | A | Caudal regression syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bacitracin acts on : | [
"Cell wall",
"Cell membrane",
"Nucleic acid",
"Ribosome"
] | A | Bacitracin acts by inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall.
Other polypeptide antibiotics like polymyxin B, colistin and tyrothricin act by an affecting membrane. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sense of gravity is detected by | [
"Horizontal semicircular canal",
"Lateral semicircular canal",
"Superior semicircular canal",
"Utricle and saccule"
] | D | Utricle and saccule are stimulated by displacement of the otolithic membrane during the head tilts.They are concerned with acceleration and deceleration. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE and THROAT by PL Dhingra; 6th edition; page no.18) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hutchinson triad includes all Except | [
"Sabre shin",
"Eighr nerve deafness",
"Upper incisor teeth",
"Interstitial keratitis"
] | A | It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis and consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis, malformed teeth (Hutchinson incisors and mulberry molars), and eighth nerve deafness. There may also be a deformity on the nose known as saddle nose deformity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dupuytren's contracture is seen in | [
"Peyronie's disease",
"Hypospadias",
"Epispadias",
"Exostrophy"
] | A | Dupuytren's contracture refers to localised thickening of palmar aponeurosis and later formation of nodules with severe permanent changes in metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. It is often associated with the following conditions : * Plantar fasciitis 5%-Ledderhose's disease * Mediastinal and retroperitoneal fibrosis * Peyronie's disease of penis 3% * Nodules in the face and ear * Pellegrini-Stieda's disease. Reference : page 163 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which type of memory are basal ganglia involved? | [
"Conditioning",
"Procedural",
"Explicit",
"None"
] | B | Procedural Memory includes skills and habits, which, once accquired, become unconscious and automatic. This type of memory is processed in the striatum. Implicit Memory/Non-declarative memory: It doesnot require being conscious or awareness. Eg., Remembering how to brush your teeth. They are of 4 types: Procedural memory (skills and habits) in striatum, cerebellum, motor coex Priming in neocoex Non-associative learning (includes habituation and sensitization, e.g., Byheaing facts) Associative learning: Classical and operant conditioning. Exlicit/Declarative memory: Memory of words, rules, language etc., Associated with consciousness/awareness. Eg., recalling first day in school. They are of two types: Semantic Memory: (Facts) E.g., Knowing capital of India: Pas of brain involved are temporal coex and pre frontal coex. Episodic Memory: (Events) E.g., Recalling first day in college: hippocampus, medial temporal lobe and neocoex. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 25th edition Pgno: 283-285 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mother brings a 3 year old child that he cannot walk without support, do not indicates wet pants and do not scribble anything. She also tells that he can walk with support, Plays peek a boo and speaks 2-3 words with meaning. What is the developmental quotient of this child? | [
"33%",
"66%",
"50%",
"25%"
] | A | As child can walk with support, Play peek-a-boo and speak 2-3 words with meaning, developmental age of this child is 1 year.
Chronological age = 3 year | train | med_mcqa | null |
NADPH in extramitochondrial site helps in the production of: | [
"Ketone bodies",
"Steroids",
"Glycogen",
"None"
] | B | NADPH in extramitochondrial site helps in the production of steroids NADPH Formed mainly by HMP in cytoplasm Used in biosynthesis reactions like synthesis of Steroids, Fatty acids, Cholesterol Destruction of H2O2 in RBCs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DNA synthesis occurs in phase- | [
"G1",
"G2",
"S",
"M"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., S o In the cell, the replication of the DNA occurs only at a specific time during the life of the cell. This period is referred to as the synthetic phase. The various phases of cell cycle are (in sequence) G0 - G1 - S - G2 - M. G1 : Presynthetic phase/interval. S : Synthetic phase (DNA synthesis). G2 : Post-synthetic phase/premitotic phase/interval. M : Mitotic phase: Cells are produced which either directly reenter next cycle or pass into non-proliferative G0 phase. G0 : the Quiescent state. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about case control study, EXCEPT: | [
"Relatively cheap",
"Relative risk can be calculated",
"Used for rare cases",
"Odd's ratio can be calculated"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Relative risk can be calculated Relative Risk = (Incidence among exposed / Incidence among non-exposed ) x 100A typical case control study does not provide incidence rates from which Relative Risk can be calculated directly because there is no appropriate denominator or population at risk to calculate these rates.In General, the Relative Risk can be exactly determined only from a cohort study.From case control we can derive what is known as odd's ratio which is a measure of strength of association between Risk factor and outcome.Advantages and disadvantages of case control studiesAdvantagesRelatively easy to carry outRapid and inexpensiveRequire comparatively few subjectsParticularly suitable to investigate rare diseaseNo Risk to subjectsAllow study of several aetiological factorsRisk factors can be identifiedDoes not require follow upEthical problems minimalDisadvantagesProblem of bias relies on memory or past recordsSelection of control difficultWe cannot measure incidence, only estimate Relative RiskDo not distinguish between cause and associated factorsNot suited to the evaluation of therapy or prophylaxis of disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Repetition of movements, act, words and phrases; beyond the point of relevance - | [
"Fusion",
"Mannerism",
"Perseveration",
"Stereotypy"
] | C | Perseveration:- repetition of words, or motor activity beyond the point of relevance. You should keep in mind that in perseveration, there may be a repetition of speech (words, phrases) or motor activity (movement) or both.
Stereotype: -A continuous mechanical repetition of speech or physical activity which is not goal oriented and occurs in the absence of any external stimulus.
Now, you must be thinking that both perseveration and stereotypy are a repetitive motor activity or speech, Then what is the difference between them ? Read below -
Perseveration is goal-directed (However, it is repeated beyond the fulfillment of goal), on the other hand, stereotypy is not goal-directed.
Perseveration requires an external stimulus, but stereotypy does not.
For example:-
If you ask the person `QI - What is your name?' Ansi- Ramesh'. Q2 - 'Where are you'. Ans2 - 'Ramesh'. Q3 'What is the Day'. Ans 3 - 'Ramesh'. This is an example of perseveration. Here the external stimulus is given by asking the Question and the person gave a goal-directed answer. However, he repeated the same answer again, i.e. repetition beyond the fulfillment of a goal.
In stereotypy, a person continuously repeats speech eg. by saying 'you are old & sick', 'you are old & sick', 'you are old & sick', without any external stimulus. The speech is not goal-directed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osteoporosis is caused by all except | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Old age",
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Steroid therapy"
] | C | Steroid medications have major effects on the metabolism of calcium, vitamin D and bone. This can lead to bone loss, osteoporosis, and broken bones. When steroid medications are used in high doses, bone loss can happen rapidly. ... Bone loss occurs most rapidly in the first 6 months after staing oral steroid medication. A woman's estrogen levels drop after menopause, and bone loss speeds up. That's why osteoporosis is most common among older women. But men get osteoporosis, too. Women younger than age 65 who are at high risk for fractures should also be screened For patients with sarcoidosis at risk of developing osteoporosis due to prolonged intake of coicosteroids, bisphosphonates can prevent or reverse bone loss. ... In sarcoidosis, studies have demonstrated that bisphosphonates can successfully prevent osteoporosis in coicosteroid-treated patients Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 366 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carha's notch is associated with: | [
"Otosclerosis",
"ASOM",
"CSOM",
"Choesteatoma"
] | A | The hallmark of bone conduction thresholds in otosclerosis is the Carha notch. This is characterized by the elevation of bone conduction thresholds of approximately 5, 10, and 15 dB at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hz, respectively. The Carha notch is thought to result from the disruption of normal ossicular resonance, which is approximately 2000 Hz. It is therefore a mechanical phenomenon and not a true reflection of cochlear reserve | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ability of a test to detect true negatives is: | [
"Sensitivity",
"Specificity",
"PPV",
"NPV"
] | B | Ref: 21st edition Park. Pg 128Explanation:SensitivityAbility of the test to identify true positivesSpecificityAbility of the test to identify true negativesPositive predictive valueProbability that a patient with positive test result truly has the diseaseNegative predictive valueProbability that a patient with negative test result truly does not have the disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
A common cause of Cushing syndrome is - | [
"Cancer producing ectopic ACTH",
"Pituitary adenoma",
"Adrenal tuberculosis",
"None of the above"
] | B | 75% cases of Cushing's syndrome is caused by ACTH-producing pituitary adenomas (Cushing's disease); Ectopic ACTH syndrome - 15%; adrenocoical adenomas-5 to 10% and adrenocoical carcinoma-1% and other rare causes-<1%. Reference : page 2314 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a formal thought disorder? | [
"Delusion",
"Neologism",
"Derailment",
"Tangentiality"
] | A | Delusion is a disorder of content of thought. Neologism, derailment, and tangentiality are formal thought disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One millimeter increase in the radius of curvature of cornea leads to hypermetropia of: | [
"3 dioptres",
"4 dioptres",
"5 dioptres",
"6 dioptres"
] | D | Ans. 6 dioptres | train | med_mcqa | null |
Visual field defect seen in Optic chiasma damage is | [
"Bitemporal hemianopia",
"Pie in the floor (inferior Quadrantanopia)",
"Pie in the sky (superior Quadrantanopia)",
"Binasal Hemianopia"
] | A | Bitemporal Hemianopia Saggital chiasma lesion Bitemporal hemianopia Paial descending optic atrophy Causes *Suprasellar aneurysm *Tumors of pitutory gland *Craniopharyngioma *Suprasellar meningioma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old male underwent a lung transplant 1 year ago. Initially, he had an episode of acute rejection requiring increased immunosuppression. He now presents with symptoms of low-grade fever and generalized fatigue, fever, and weight loss. Chest x-rays are obtained.The most likely diagnosis of this patient is | [
"Posttransplant lymphomatoid disorder (PTLD)",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Aspergilloma",
"Phantom tumor or pseudotumor"
] | A | The PA view shows a rounded opacity in the right lower zone. The horizontal fissure is seen distinctly through and separate from this opacity, suggesting that this is not a pseudotumor, i.e., fluid in the fissure. A double density shadow is seen in the subcarinal area. A band of linear atelectasis is seen in the right lower zone. The patient has posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD) confirmed by a needle biopsy. The incidence of PTLD in lung transplant recipients is approximately 2% to 5% and is higher than in other solid organ transplants. It is closely associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection, and children are more prone to develop this disorder. The majority of PTLDs are non-Hodgkin's lymphomas and B-cell tumors. Typical radiographic features include multiple nodules, mediastinal adenopathy, airspace disease, and pleural effusions. Aspergilloma or mycetoma is a fungus ball that occurs in cystic or cavitary disease and is unrelated to lung transplant. Pseudotumor or fluid in the horizontal or oblique fissure occurs in cases of congestive hea failure and is seen radiographically within the confines of these fissures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the characteristic finding of Nutritional Rehabilitation syndrome seen after 1 Week of starting refeed | [
"Hyperphosphatemia",
"Hypervolemia",
"Hypophasphatemia",
"Decreased insulin levels."
] | C | Nutritional Rehabilitation syndromw / Refeeding syndrome
Intake of excess carbohydrates
↓
Increase in serum insulin levels
a) Hypophosphatemia (Characteristic)
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypomagnesemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adrenaline is added to Lignocaine injection for: March 2007 | [
"Less bleeding at the site",
"Higher doses can be given",
"Prolonged duration of action",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D: All of the above Adrenaline is a local vasoconstrictor, so using adrenaline only with sho acting agents such as Lignocaine has advantages, like: Less bleeding at the site (local infiltration). Less systemic absorption, and consequently lower toxicity and possibility of giving a higher dose. Prolonged duration of action. | train | med_mcqa | null |
How long can blood stored with CPD - A ? | [
"12 days",
"21 days",
"28 days",
"48 days"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 28 days Blood can stored with CPD -A --> upto 35 days Blood can stored with CPD ---> 21 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following would most likely be observed in the lung during an autopsy of a 2 week old infant who died of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome? | [
"Alveoli filled with neutrophils",
"Dense fibrosis of the alveolar walls",
"Enlarged air space",
"Hyaline membranes and collapsed alveoli"
] | D | Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is a disease of immaturity. The immature lung is not able to produce sufficient surfactant to prevent collapse of many alveoli. Severe diffuse damage to alveoli causes precipitation of protein ("hyaline membranes") adjacent to many alveolar walls. In infants that survive, paicularly if oxygen was used for therapy, the lungs eventually become heavily fibrotic (misnamed bronchopulmonary dysplasia). Abundant neutrophils would not be seen unless the patient had also developed pneumonia. Fibrosis is a late, not early, feature of respiratory distress syndrome. The air spaces are collapsed, not enlarged, in this condition. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 29. Diseases and Injuries of the Fetus and Newborn. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stage in which disease is easily recognized and high titre of antibodies are found: | [
"Prodromal stage.",
"Fastigium",
"Defervescence stage",
"Convalescence"
] | B | Incubation: This period elapsed from invasion of the tissue by pathogens and appearance of clinical features
Prodromal stages: Signs and symptoms are not specific for disease. Antibody titre is rising
Fastigium: Disease is easily recognized. In this phase high titres (Peak) of antibodies are found
Defervescence stage: Body defense mechanisms dominate and patient feels better
Convalescence (recovery stage): In convalescence the antibody titres decrease. The patients may act as carrier also | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coomb&;s positive hemolytic anemia associated with - | [
"TTP",
"PAN",
"SLE",
"HUS"
] | C | <p>Warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia may occur as a complication of an underlying disease of immume system such as SLE.In this condition ,human red cells are coated with Ig G antibodies which are reactive at room temperature.In SLE, direct & indirect coomb&;s test will be positive suggesting presence of warm antibodies on the red cell, best detected at 37 degree celsius .</p><p>Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 312</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
In RDS which is damaged? | [
"Type 2 pneumocytes",
"Type 1 pneumocytes",
"Clara cells",
"Clara cells"
] | B | In ARDS, alveolar capillary endothelial cells & type 1 pneumocytes(alveolar epithelial cells) are damaged/injured, leading to the loss of the normally tight alveolar barrier to fluid and macromolecules.
As a result, oedema fluid rich in protein accumulates in the interstitial & alveolar spaces. Condensed plasma proteins aggregate in the air spaces with cellular debris and dysfunctional pulmonary surfactant to form hyaline membrane whirls. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial maneuver done in congenital dacryocystitis: | [
"Probing",
"Massaging",
"Ointments",
"Observation"
] | B | Congenital Acute Chronic Cause Non -Canalization Of NLD S.Aureus S.Aureus C/F Epiphora and Discharge Epiphora and Discharge Epiphora and Discharge Treatment <9 months=CRIGLER massage + antibiotic drops when needed (acute infections) 9 mon.- 4 years=probing >4 years= DCR Antibiotics + NSAIDS | DCR DCR Sequelae None Lacrimal fistula Rx:-DCR Mucocele-> pyocele-> fibrosis Rx:- DCT | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not included in identified goals under Bharat Nirman Scheme? | [
"Irrigation",
"Roads",
"Housing",
"Sanitation"
] | D | The identified goals under Bharat Nirman Scheme are meant for improvement of rural infrastructure in six selected areas: Irrigation Roads Housing Water supply Electrification Telecommunications Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 393 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zenker's diveiculum is called as | [
"Prepharyngeal diveiculum",
"Pharyngobasilar diveiculum",
"Pharyngotympanic diveiculum",
"Hypopharyngeal diveiculum"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypopharyngeal diveiculum Hypopharyngeal diveiculum or Zenker's diveiculum or pharyngeal pouchIt is a pulsion diveiculum where pharyngeal musoca herniates through the killian's dehiscence, a weak area between two pas of the inferior constrictor.It is the most common esophageal diveiculum.The diveicula arises posteriorly in the midline of neck. The mouth of the diveicula is in the midline but the sacprojects laterally (usually left laterally )Zenker's diveicula are rarely seen below 30 yrs of age, most patients are over 50. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Holstein Lewis sign6is related which nerve | [
"Median",
"Radial",
"Ulnar",
"Axillary"
] | B | Refer ebnezar 4th/e p 142 Radial nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in fracture shaft humerus It is paicularly common in oblique fracture at the junction of middle and distal third bone | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old P2L2 female has CIN extending to vaginal fornix, confirmed on colposcopy. Best management: | [
"Conization",
"LEEP",
"Cryosurgery",
"Laser"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. LaserManagement of CIN-confirmed on colposcopy|||||CIN 1 persisting for >=2 years in female >=25 yearsCIN 2 and 3 at any age and any parityRecurrent CINCIN extending to vagina||||CryosurgeryLEEP/LLETZHysterectomyLaser | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are recognised signs any symptoms of raised intracranial tension in a 9 month old infant, except – | [
"Bulging fontanel",
"Diplopia",
"Papilloedema",
"Increase in head size"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Opening of the aoic valve takes place during which of the following phase of the cardiac cycle? | [
"Beginning of isovolumetric contraction",
"End of isovolumetric contraction",
"During protodiastole",
"At the end of diastasis"
] | B | Opening of the aoic valve takes place during ventricular systole, especially during the phase of ventricular ejection which occur at the end of isovolumetric contraction. Duration of each cardiac cycle is 0.8seconds. Each cardiac cycle consist of an atrial and ventricular cycle. Atrial cycle consist of atrial systole and diastole. Ventricular cycle consist of ventricular systole (0.3s) and diastole (0.5s). Ventricular systole consist of isovolumetric contraction and phase of ventricular ejection. Ventricular diastole consist of protodiastole, isovolumetric relaxation, rapid filling phase, diastasis and last rapid filling phase. Ref: Essentials of Medical Physiology By Khurana Page 154-7. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Various biomedical tools are used for DNA technology. Which test uses oligomer with single base pair substitution? | [
"PCR",
"RFLP",
"Error coded mutation analysis",
"FISH"
] | B | An inherited difference in the pattern of restriction enzyme digestion (eg, a DNA variation occurring in more than 1% of the general population) is known as a restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP). RFLPs result from single-base changes (eg, sickle-cell disease) or from deletions or inseions (CNVs) of DNA into a restriction fragment (eg, the thalassemias) and have proved to be useful diagnostic tools. Ref: Weil P. (2011). Chapter 39. Molecular Genetics, Recombinant DNA, & Genomic Technology. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about end plate potential (EPP) is:- | [
"It occurs as a result of altered permeability for Na+ and K+",
"It is a self-regenerative change",
"It results from release of a single transmitter vesicle",
"It exhibits all-or-none propey"
] | A | Non-specific cation channel (same channels allow Na+ to come in & same channel allows K+ to go out) are acetylcholine-gated channels which opens and causes the electrical potential inside the fiber at the local area of the end plate to increase in the positive direction as much as 50 to 75 millivolts, creating a local potential called the end plate potential. EPP is a graded response. It doesn't obey all or none propey. Its amplitude decreases over distance and it can be summated. EPP develops conves into one AP. This action potential then travels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total number of genes in Human genome is:- | [
"12000",
"19000-20000",
"24000-25000",
"30000"
] | B | Total number of genes in Human genome is 19000-20000. Human genome project (HGP): HGP is an international scientific project The project began in 1990 initially by James D. Watson Ongoing sequencing led to the announcement of the determine more than 3 billion base pairs in the human genome, but also to identify all the genes in this vast amount of data This pa of the project is still ongoing, although a preliminary count indicates about 19,000 - 20,000 genes in the human genome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
FALSE statement regarding Hirschprung disease is | [
"Aganglionosis always involves distal rectum",
"Non passage of meconium in first 24 hours is a cardinal feature",
"Diagnosis is established by Suction rectal biopsy",
"No passage of stools after per rectal examination"
] | D | Ans. (d) No passage of stools after per rectal examination style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: )Most cases of Hirschsprung disease are diagnosed in the newborn period. Hirschsprung disease should be considered in any newborn that fails to pass meconium within 24-48 hours of birth-option b trueDistal intestinal segment that lacks both the Meissner submucosal and the Auerbach myenteric plexus. - option a is trueProximal to aganglionic segment, colon undergoes progressive dilationRectal examination may demonstrate a tight anal sphincter and explosive discharge of stool and gas - option d is falseA rectal suction biopsy can detect hypertrophic nerve trunks and the absence of ganglion cells in the colonic submucosa, confirming the diagnosis.- option c is trueDown syndrome (trisomy 21) is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with the disease, accounting for approximately 10 percent of patients | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fracture of distal tibial epiphysis with anterolateral displacement is called: | [
"Pott's",
"Cotton's",
"Triplane fracture",
"Tillaux Fracture"
] | D | Tillaux fracture is an eponym describing a fracture of the anterolateral tibial epiphysis with anterolateral displacement that is commonly seen in adolescents. Because the ligament gives way instead of avulsing the tibial fragment from its epiphyseal attachment, resulting in a ligament injury known as a Tillaux lesion. It commonly is associated with skateboard and baseball (sliding) injuries. Bimalleolar ankle fracture is known as Pott's fracture. Cotton's fracture is the trimalleolar ankle fracture. A triplane fracture is a type IV Salter-Harris fracture of the closing physis of the distal tibia in adolescents with fracture lines occurring in the axial, sagittal, and coronal planes. It comprises of: Veical fracture through the epiphysis Horizontal fracture through the physis Oblique fracture through the metaphysis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acoustic dip occurs at: | [
"2000 Hz",
"4000 Hz",
"500 Hz",
"1500 Hz"
] | B | Acoustic dip is dip seen in pure tone audiometry due to noise trauma, which is seen typically at 4 kHz i.e. 4000 Hz. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cesarean delivery is must in which of the following types of placenta pre | [
"Type 1",
"Type 2",
"Type 3",
"All of the above"
] | C | Cesarean section is done for all women with sonographic evidence of placenta pre where placental edge is within 2cm from internal os. It is indicated if it is posterior or thick Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 235. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case fatality rate is | [
"1%",
"0.25%",
"5%",
"25%"
] | D | (Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24thedition, pg no: 63) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indications for use of Anticholinergics include all, Except: | [
"Glaucoma",
"Parkinsonism",
"Refraction testing",
"Organophosphorus poisoning"
] | A | Glaucoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alcohol absorption leads to deficiency of which
vitamin? | [
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin B2",
"Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin B3"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not A sexually transmitted disease- | [
"Pinta",
"Candidiasis",
"HBV",
"Trichomonisis"
] | A | Pints, yaws and endemic syphilis constitute a group of distinct spirochetal infection that are known as the endemic non venereal treponematoses. Transmission occurs from skin to skin contact rather than sexual contact. All the other drugs given can be transmitted sexually. From Fitzpatrick dermatology in general medicine7th edition page no 1977 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which anticonvulsive agent would be MOST appropriate as first-line therapy for a 21-year-old woman recently diagnosed with complex paial seizures? | [
"Lamotrigine",
"Carbamazepine",
"Topiramate",
"Phenytoin"
] | A | Since the women is in reproductive age group so option B (Carbamazepine) is C/I as it may l/t neural tube defects. Therefore, option A | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amongst the following fats and oils, highest propoion of poly unsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is found in - | [
"Groundnut oil",
"Coconut oil",
"Safflower oil",
"Butter"
] | C | <p> Essential fatty acids: Those that cannot be synthesised by humans.They can be derived from food only. The most impoant essential fatty acid is linoleic acid, which serves as the basis for production of other essential fatty acids( linolenic and arachidonic acid) . Not all PUFA are essential fatty acids. Linoleic acid:- dietary source and per cent content . Safflower oil- 73 Corn oil- 57 Sunflower oil-56 Soyabean oil-51 Sesame oil-40 Ground nut oil-39 Mustard oil -15 Palmoil- 9 Coconut oil- 2 Eichosapentanoic acid: Fish oil: 10 % present. Linolenic acid : Soyabean oil-7 {Reference: Park&;s textbook of community medicine 23 rd edition, pg no. 611} | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ringer lactate true is | [
"Cl- - 111",
"Na+ - 45",
"K+ - 5",
"Lactate – 29"
] | D | • Composition of Ringer Lactate:
– Sodium ion: 130 mmol/L
– Potassium ion: 4 mmol/L
– Chloride ion: 109 mmol/L
– Calcium ion: 1.5 mmol/L
– Lactate ion: 28 mmol/L | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following will be seen in Eisenmenger syndrome, EXCEPT? | [
"Pruning of peripheral pulmonary aeries",
"Pulmonary veins not distended",
"Return of left ventricle & right ventricle to normal size",
"Dilatation of central pulmonary aeries"
] | C | The right ventricular size will ceainly not return to normal once eisenminger syndrome develops. Dilated central pulmonary aeries and rapid tapering of the peripheral pulmonary vasculature (pruning) are the radiographic hallmarks of Eisenminger's syndrome. Ref: Kligman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 433, "Pulmonary Hypeension", In the book, "Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Pages 1936-1937 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mucocele are rarely seen in the: | [
"Lower lip",
"Upper lip",
"Buccal mucosa",
"Floor of the mouth"
] | B | The mucous retention phenomenon is restricted almost entirely to the lower lip, seldom found on the upper lip, while accessory salivary gland neoplasms of the lips are almost universally found on the upper lip and only rarely on the lower lip. This could imply that trauma plays no role in the development of salivary gland tumours in this location.
Reference: Shafer’s Textbook of ORAL PATHOLOGY Eighth Edition page no 90 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In translation process, proof reading of mRNA done by | [
"RNA polymeraes",
"Amino acyl t-RNA synthetase",
"Leuicine zipper",
"DNA"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wernicke's area is located in | [
"Inferior frontal gyrus",
"Superior temporal gyrus",
"Inferior temporal gyrus",
"Cingulate gyrus"
] | B | Wernicke's area (area 22) is located in superior temporal gyrus behind area 41. It is concerned with comprehension i.e. interpretation and understanding of auditory and visual information. The Wernicke's area sends information arcuate fasciculus to the Broca's area, where detailed and coordinated pattern for vocalization occurs. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:841,842,843 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dermatophytes involve - | [
"Stratum corneum",
"Stratum lucidum",
"Stratum malpighi",
"Stratum basal"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Stratum comeum o Dermatophytes are keratinophilic fungi, living only on the superficial dead keratin. That is why they infect skin, hair and nail. In skin they infect most superficial layer of the epidermis i.e. stratum corneum. They do not penetrate living tissues. Dermatophytes cause a variety of clinical conditions, collectively known as dermatophytosis, tinea or ringworm. Dermatophytes have been classified into 3 genera:- trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton:Trichophyton affects;- skin, hair, nails.Microsporum affects - skin, hair (nails are not affected)Epidermophyton affects:- skin, nails (hair are not affected)o Deep fungal infections (eg:- mycetoma, chromoblastomycosis, pheohyphomycosis, sporotrichosis, lobomycosis, rhinosporidiosis) involve subcutaneous tissue.o Dermatophytosis is itchy and scaly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in A/E - | [
"HIV",
"DM",
"Hypeension",
"CMV"
] | C | Cotton wool spots are fluffy white lesions and represent the areas of infarcts in the nerve fibre layer. These occur due to ischaemia caused by capillary obliterations in severe hypeensive retinopathy. Due to their cotton wool feathery appearance they are also termed as soft exudates (misnomer) Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 274 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to Mahler's theory, normal autistic phase is: | [
"5 - 36 months",
"4 weeks - 4 years",
"0 - 1 year",
"2 - 3 years"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dying declaration comes under: | [
"Section 33 IEA",
"Section 32 IEA",
"Section 60 IEA",
"291 CrPC"
] | B | Section 32 IEA | train | med_mcqa | null |
The superficial retinal hemorrhage is seen in which layer of retina: March 2010 | [
"Inner plexiform layer",
"Nerve fibre layer",
"Inner nuclear layer",
"Outer nuclear layer"
] | B | Ans. B: Nerve fiber layer Flame-shaped hemorrhages (NFL hemorrhages) Located within the NFL Flame shape is the result of the structure of the NFL Typically located in the posterior pole Tend to resolve within a 6 weeks Associated with retinal vasculature pathology affecting the superficial and peripapillary capillary beds | train | med_mcqa | null |
IVC filter is used in following except - | [
"Massive emboli",
"Negligible size of emboli",
"Repeated emboli",
"None"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is most commonly seen in | [
"Elderly males",
"Females",
"Young males",
"Infants"
] | C | Ans. (c) Young malesRef: Dhingra's ENT 5th ed.l 261"Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is seen almost exclusively in ADOLESCENT males in the age group of 10-20 years."ABOUT NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA* It is a vascular tumor with lots of fibrous tissue without muscular coat. Hence it causes severe bleeding because of inability to contract.* Most common benign tumour of nasopharynx.* Arises from the posterior part of nasal cavity close to superior margin of sphenopalatine foramen.* Frog face deformity- if tumor Extends to orbit and causes proptosis* Antral/Holman-Millar sign -- Anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus is pathognomonic.* Investigation of choice is C.E.C.T, scan* Treatment of choice is surgical excision. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Denominator in MMR- | [
"1000 live birth",
"1000 women of reproductive age",
"Mid year population",
"Mid year women population"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1000 live birthMaternal mortality ratio (MMR)* Maternal mortality ratio is defined as total number of maternal deaths i.e. deaths due to complications of child birth, pregnancy or within 42 days of delivery from 'puerperal causes* in the area during a given year Per 1000 or (100,000) live births in the same area during the same year.MMR =Total no. of female death due to complications of pregnancy, childbirth or with 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in an area during a given year--------------------------------------------------------------Total no. of live birth in the same area & yearx 1000 (or 100,000)* Maternal death occuring after 42 days (7 weeks) of birth is not included in maternal mortality ratio.* It is called late maternal death -> Death of women from direct or indirect obstetric causes more than 42 days but less than 1 year after termination of pregnancy.Maternal mortality rate* It is the number of maternal death in a given period per 1000 (or 100,000) women of reproductive age during same period.Maternal mortality rate =Total no. of female death due to complication of pregnancy, childbirth or within 42 days of delivery------------------------------------------Total no. of women of reproductive agex 1000 (or 100,000)Therefore* Denominator in maternal mortality ratio -> 1000 live birth (or 100,000 live birth)* Denominator in maternal mortality rate 1000 (or 100,000) women of reproductive age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following base is not found in nucleic acids? | [
"Adenine",
"Guanidine",
"Uracil",
"Cytosine"
] | B | Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil are Nucleic acids Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p380 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following muscle relaxants causes maximal pain on injection | [
"Succinyl choline",
"Vecuronium",
"Rocuronium",
"Cistracurium"
] | C | The major disadvantage of rocuronium is the pain associated with its injection, the cause of which is not clear. With a subparalysing dose, 50-100% of patients repo discomfo.Even after induction of anaesthesia with propofol or thiopental, rocuronium causes hand or limb withdrawal in 85% of patients, suggesting the presence of intense nociception, even during anaesthesia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schiller Duval bodies are a feature of: | [
"Arrhenoblastorna",
"Granulosa cell tumour",
"Choriocarcinoma",
"Endodermal sinus tumour"
] | D | Schiller-Duval body Consists of a central capillary surrounded by tumor cells, present within a cystic space, lined by flat to cuboidal tumor cells. When present, pathognomic for Yolk sac tumor( Endodermal sinus tumor), They may be few in number, absent, or have atypical morphologic features. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Major blood supply of pectoralis major muscles is | [
"Thoracoacromial trunk",
"Lateral thoracic aery",
"Internal mammary aery perforating branches",
"Axillary aery"
] | A | Major blood Supply of Pectoralis major muscles is thoracoacromial trunk. The intercostal perforators arising from the internal mammary aery provide a segmental blood supply BD CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY.VOLUME 1. 6TH EDITION.PAGE NO 180. TABLE A1.5:aeries of upper limb | train | med_mcqa | null |
The disposable plastic syringes are best sterilized by? | [
"Formaldehyde",
"Ethylene oxide",
"Hexachloride",
"UV radiation"
] | B | ETHYLENE DIOXIDE its action is due to alkylating the amino, carboxy, hydroxyl and sulphydryl groups in protein molecules. In addition, it reacts with DNA and RNA. It is used as a disinfectant presents potential toxicity to human beings including mutagenicity and carcinogenicity. It diffuses through many types of porous materials and readily penetrates some plastics. It is especially used for sterilizing hea-lung machines, respirators sutures dental equipment books and clothing. It is unsuitable for fumigating rooms because of its explosive propey. It has been successfully used to sterilize a wide range of materials such as glass surfaces clothing, plastics, soil, some foods and, tobacco. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:37 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Guineaworm disease was a common public health problem which was attributed to the use of:- | [
"Dug well",
"Sanitary well",
"Aesian well",
"Step well"
] | D | Guineaworm disease is quite a public health problem in areas where step wells are in use STEP WELLS are a kind of pucca wells which are becoming obsolete, founately. In these wells, there is considerable personal contact between the user and the water. Some people may even wash their faces, hands and feet which is a common Indian custom. The open dug wells and step wells are a health hazard to the community. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Woodruff's area is: | [
"Floor of the nose",
"Posterior end of inferior turbinate",
"Ethmoidal pa of roof of nose",
"Atrium of middle meatus"
] | B | Woodruff's area is present under the posterior end of inferior turbinate on the lateral nasal wall which is also called nasopharyngeal plexus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Myocardial contractility is increased by: | [
"Atropine",
"Decreased end diastolic volume",
"Increased heart rate from 70 to 150 beats/min",
"Reduced arterial pH to 7.3"
] | C | Option A: Atropine is a muscarinic receptor antagonist that is used to inhibit the effects of excessive vagal activation on the heart, which is manifested as sinus bradycardia and AV nodal block. Effect on contractility is negligible.
Option B: Decrease EDV decreases contractility by Frank Starling law.
Option D: Acidosis, hypercapnoea and hypoxia inhibit myocardium contractility.
Option C: This effect is known as Bowditch Effect (Myocardial tension increases with an increase in heart rate). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biomicroscopic examination of the fundus is performed with the help of: | [
"-58.6 D Hruby lens",
"+78 D small diameter lens",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. Both of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
In body Plethysmography, a person is asked to expire against a closed glottis. Whiat will be the change in the pressure in the lung and the box | [
"Increase in both",
"Decrease in both",
"Increase in lung decrease in box",
"Decrease in lung increase in box"
] | C | C i.e. Increase in lung decrease in boxBecause of Boyle's law (P1V1 = P2V2), during expiration when lung volume decreases, the pressure inside the lung increases and pressure inside the air tight box decreases because the gas volume in box increases - in body plethysmography in which the subject sits in an air tight chamber. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with type 1 diabetes self-injected insulin prior to their evening meal, but then was distracted and forgot to eat. A few hours later, the individual fainted, and after the paramedics arrived, they did a STAT blood glucose level and found it to be 45 mg/dL. The blood glucose level was so low because which one of the following tissues assimilated most of it under these conditions? | [
"Brain",
"Liver",
"Red blood cells",
"Adipose tissue"
] | D | Insulin stimulates glucose transport into muscle and adipose cells through mobilization of GLUT4 transporters from internal vesicles to the cell surface. Insulin does not significantly stimulate glucose transport into tissues such as liver, brain, or red blood cells, which utilize different variants of the glucose transporters. Only GLUT4 is insulin responsive. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Safe period is : | [
"1 -- 5 days",
"8 -- 11 days",
"16 -- 20 days",
"21 -- 28 days"
] | D | 21 -- 28 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman died within 5 years of marriage under suspicious circumstances. Her parents complained that her in laws used to frequently demand for dowry. Under which of the following sections can be a magistrate authorize autopsy of the case? | [
"Section 302 IPC",
"Section 174 Cr Pc",
"Section 174 Cr Pc",
"Section 304 IPC"
] | C | ref: The Essentials Forensic Medicine & Toxicology Dr.K.S. Narayana Reddy 32nd edition pg no 280 S.174 (3)Cr.P.C. Procedure in dowry (suicide,suspected murder ,request by a relative; doubt of cause of death, police consider necessary ) police has to enqire and repo.dowry death occur either by mmurder of a married woomenor she herself commiting suicide being unable to bear harassement or cruelty for not fulfiling the promises by her parents or her relatives or of those interested in her marriage. such murders are invariably commited secretely either in the house or at a place where outsiders may not witness it. the bride may killed or burnt by various methods.the usual defence in all dowry death cases is that either the women commited suicide or death occured accidently due to burns while cooking food. the doctor should make a record of the history of the injuries and the persons responsible for it,when the victim is brought to the hospital,noting the time and the name of the person who give the history.the condition of the patient should be recorded at frequent intervals. care should be taken that no person has discussion with the victim before doctors record the statement of the victim to avoid any undue influence being exeed on her. a magistrate may be called to record the dying declaration. inquest should be conducted by a magistrate or police officer not below the rank of deputy suoerintendent of police and autopsy should be carried out by two doctors in case of dowry death or if age of the wome is less than 30 years who dies in suspicious circumstances. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phleboliths are seen in | [
"Dental Pulp",
"Salivary Gland duct",
"Cavernous Hemangiomas",
"Subepithelial Bulla"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following features if present in a woman is suggestive of the fact that she has been leading a sexually active life for sometime? | [
"Torn fourchette",
"Torn hymen",
"Disappearance of vaginal rugae",
"Exposed labia minora"
] | C | Though all the features mentioned above are signs of defloration, disappearance of vaginal rugae willl occur only after repeated intercourese. The vaginal also grows in length after repeated intercourse. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, Edition 21, Page 330 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary Hyperaldosteronism can be diagnosed by all of the following criteria, except: | [
"Diastolic Hypeension without edema",
"Hyperaldosteronism which is not supressed by volume expansion",
"Low Plasma Renin Activity",
"Metabolic Acidosis"
] | D | Class,Triad of Biochemical Criteria for diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldoteronism Hypokalemia with inappropriate kaliuresis (Metabolic alkalosis) Suppressed plasma renin activity Elevated Aldosterone levels that do not fall appropriately in response to volume expansion or sodium load. REF: Harrison book of internal medicine 21ST EDITION | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common acid-base disturbance in patients with cirrhosis and poal hypeension? | [
"Metabolic acidosis.",
"Respiratory alkalosis.",
"Metabolic alkalosis.",
"Respiratory acidosis."
] | C | - Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia are common in patients with cirrhosis because they often have associated secondary hyperaldosteronism (especially those with ascites), diarrhea, and frequent emesis. - Hyperaldosteronism enhances H+ and K+ exchange for Na+ in the distal tubule of the kidney. - The cause of diarrhea in patients with cirrhosis is unknown, but malabsorption secondary to splanchnic venous hypeension may be a contributing factor. - Emesis is common in alcoholic cirrhotics & patients with tense ascites. - Deleterious effects of metabolic alkalosis include impaired tissue oxygen delivery secondary to shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left & conversion of ammonium chloride to ammonia, which may contribute to encephalopathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except : | [
"Increased waist - hip ratio",
"Hyperhomocysteinemia",
"Decreased fibrinogen levels",
"Decreased HDL levels"
] | C | Answer is C (Decreased fibrinogen levels) Increased levels of .fibrinogen (and not decreased fibrinogen levels) are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis. Fibrinogen Levels 'Fibrinogen levels correlate with coronary risk and provide information regarding coronary risk independent of lipoprotein profile. Elevated fibrinogen levels might promote a thrombotic diathesis'. Waist Hip Ratio : This refers to a characteristic 'male' distribution of adipose tissue i.e. excess of fat in the abdomen compared with that in hips. `An elevated waist/hip ratio has been associated with symptomatic cardiovascular disease and cerebrovascular disease in both men and women. - Pubmed (NCBI - website) Hyperhomocvsteinemia and low HDL levels are known risk factors for Atherosclerosis (as depicted in the following table). Major risk Factors for Atherosclerosis Cigarette smoking Hypeension (BP > 140/90mm/hg) or (on Antihypeensive medication) Low HDL cholesterol Diabetes mellitus Family history of CHD Age (Men > 45 years; Women > 55 years) Life style risk factors Obeity (BMI > 30 kg/m2) Physical inactivity Atherogenic diet Emerging risk factors Lipoprotein (a) Homocystine * Prothrombotic factors (Fibrinogen) Pro inflammatory factors Impaired fasting glucose Subcl inical atherogenesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The given ECG shows | [
"Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy",
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Pericardial effusion",
"Anterior wall MI"
] | B | Ans. B. Pulmonary embolism* The given ECG shows changes corresponding with pulmonary embolism.* Changes are- Sinus tachycardia- S1Q3T3 pattern (T-wave inversion in III)- Incomplete RBBB- Right precordial T-wave inversions* Consistent with acute RV overload in a patient with pulmonary emboli | train | med_mcqa | null |
In muscles, how many ATPs are produced from the conversion of one glucose residue in the linear chain of glycogen to lactic acid i.e ,anaerobic glycolysis ? | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | C | In any cell or tissue other than muscle, glycogen give rise to glucose which is phosphorylated by hexokinase to glucose-6-phosphate using ATP and then undergo fuher glycolysis. However, Muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase which conves glucose-6-P produced for glycogen to glucose in other cells. So, the glucose-6-phosphate formed in glycogen degradation in muscles can directly enter the glycolysis without the need for ATP-requiring hexokinase reaction (See fig above). Thus, one less ATP is required for the investment stage of glycolysis in muscles only. Hence, net yield of ATP increases by 1. If staing material is ATPs Obtained glucose 2 ATPs glucose-6-phosphate 3 ATPs | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common malignant neoplasm of the kidney is the hypernephroma or renal cell carcinoma. Which of the following statement is true concerning renal neoplasms? | [
"Most common mode of spread is lymphatic .",
"Gleason Grading is used in RCC .",
"A \"tumour deformity\" on IVP is diagnostic of a renal cell carcinoma",
"Renal cell carcinomas can produce a variety of hormone or hormone-like substances"
] | D | Most common route of spread- Hematogenous Lymphatic spread occurs when tumor extends beyond renal capsule Renal carcinomas can produce a variety of hormone or hormone-like substances (e.g., erythropoietin, renin, and parathormone) and may present with a variety of symptoms including anaemia, hypeension, fever and erythrocytosis. Renal masses such as benign cysts or renal cell carcinomas will both appear as "tumour deformities", distoing the renal outline or the collecting system on IVP .Renal cysts are far more common than renal cell carcinoma and the diagnosis can be confirmed by renal ultrasound. Named staging & Grading Robson staging , Fuhrman Grading - RCC Jackson staging - Ca Penis Gleason Grading - Ca Prostate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs does not have active metabolite | [
"Diazepam",
"Lisinopril",
"Propanolol",
"Allopurinol"
] | B | Lisinopril - It is a lysine derivative of enalaprilat, doesn't require hydrolysis to become active ACE inhibitor. It's oral absorption is slow and incomplete, but unaffected by food. | train | med_mcqa | null |
On mammogram all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except – | [
"Spiculation",
"Microcalcification",
"Macrocalcification",
"Irregular mass"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5-year-old boy presented with history of focal seizures which are associated with episodes of impaired consciousness. Patient also gave history of episodic behavioral changes which include agitation and dream like state with thrashing movements of his limbs. The child doesn't recall these episodes and there is no apparent precipitating factor. There is also a history of seizures in the family. Seizures are often intractable. Lab studies revealed Unilateral or bilateral anterior temporal spikes on EEG, Hypometabolism on interictal PET, Hypoperfusion on interictal SPECT and Material-specific memory deficits on intracranial amobarbital (Wada) test. MRI of the brain was also done. Which of the following structures is commonly affected in the above condition: - | [
"PA C",
"PA B",
"PA A",
"PA D"
] | B | THIS IS A CLASSICAL CASE OF MESIAL TEMPORAL LOBE EPILEPSY IN WHICH TEMPORAL LOBE AND HYPOTHALAMUS ARE AFFECTED MOST COMMONLY. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Molluscum contaglosum is a : | [
"Adenovirus",
"Flavi virus",
"Rubi virus",
"Pox virus"
] | D | Pox virus Molluscum contagiosum Pearly white umblicated nodule over the skin / genitals +nt Caused by MCV 1,2,3,4 On biopsy, Henderson Peterson Rx - podopphylin resin + cryosurgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ventral mesogastrium derivatives includes all, except | [
"Falciform ligament",
"Coronary ligament",
"Lesser omentum",
"Gastrosplenic ligament"
] | D | DORSAL MESOGASTRIUM is divided by the development of spleen in to a pa between stomach and spleen ( gastro splenic ligament) and A pa between spleen and posterior abdominal wall( lienorenal ligament) VENTRAL MESOGASTRIUM derivatives: Falciform ligament Right and left triangular ligaments Superior and inferior layers of coronary ligament Lesser omentum REFERENCE: TEXTBOOK OF CLINICAL EMBRYOLOGY..VISHRAM SINGH SECOND EDITION...PAGE NO: 158 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Example of physiological atrophy is | [
"Senile atrophy",
"Disuse atrophy",
"Post pregnancy uterine atrophy",
"All of the above"
] | C | Answer- C. Post pregnancy uterine atrophyAtrophy is reduced size of an organ or tissue resulting from a decrease in cell size and number.Atrophy may be1. Physiologicalatrophy of notochord and thyroglossal duct during fetal developmentDecrease in uterus size after delivery2. Pathological | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urine analysis of patient associated with hematuria and glomerulonephrosis shows: | [
"Isomorphic red cell",
"Red cell cast",
"WBC cast",
"Hyaline cast"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cyanosis NOT improving with 100% oxygen in case of- | [
"Cardiac asthma",
"Interstitial lung disease",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Greatest amount of cranial growth occurs by: | [
"Birth to five years",
"5 — 6 years",
"6 — 7 years",
"7 — 10 years"
] | A | The head of a newborn is about 55%–60% of adult head breadth, 40%–50% of adult height and 30%–35% of adult depth. The cranium to-face ratio in a newborn is 8:1. With continued development, especially of the lower face, the ratio changes to 1:2 in adulthood.
By the age of 8 years, the brain is nearly 95% of its adult size. This rapid growth spurt is followed by a plateau phase of slow but steady growth that continues till adulthood. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not heterophile agglutination test? | [
"Weil-Felix test",
"Widal test",
"Paul-Bunnel, test",
"Streptococcus MG"
] | B | Ans. (b) Widal Test Ref. Ananthanarayan 8/e, p 93 The same or closely related antigen may sometimes occur in different biological species/classes, etc. It is called heterogenetic or heterophile antigen, e.g. Forssman antigen for Pneumococcus, Salmonella. Weil Felix reaction (between proteus and Rickettsia). Paul Bunnell test in infectious mononucleosis. Cold agglutination test in primary atypical pneumonia. Streptococcus MG agglutination. Antigen between E. coli and human RBC of B. Remember Widal test is tube agglutination test. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Gastrochisis is ? | [
"Herniation through umbilical cord",
"Herniation from right of umbilical cord from obliteration of right umbilical vein",
"Covered with amniotic sac",
"Associated with multiple anomalies"
] | B | .GASTROSCHISIS (Belly Cleft) * It is a defect of the anterior abdominal wall just lateral to the umbilicus. It is common in premature babies.* Umbilicus is normal. The defect is almost always to the right of an intact umbilical cord. Evisceration of the bowel occurs through the defect during intrauterine life. There is no peritoneal sac and the irritating effect of amniotic fluid causes chemical peritonitis with formation of a thick, oedematous membrane. * Non-rotation and intestinal atresia are common associations. Cardiac anomaly is not common as in omphalocele. * After delivery, these infants are more prone for fluid loss, hypothermia, hypovolaemia, sepsis, metabolic acidosis. * Necrotising enterocolitis is also common in such infants (20%). They are also more prone for paralytic ileus. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 674 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of amoebic lung abscess is ? | [
"Direct extension from liver",
"Hematogenous spread",
"Lymphatic spread",
"By inhalation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Direct extension from liver Amoebic lung abscess is a result of direct spread of infection from liver to lung. The infection spreads directly through the diaphragm. The most common area of the lung involved is right lower lobe. The amoebic liver abscess ruptures and then it can involve any of the following structures. i) Right lung (Most commonly) iv) Left pleural cavity ii) Right pleural cavity v) Pericardium iii) Left lung iv) Peritoneal cavity Also know "Pleuropulmonary involvement is seen in 20-30 % of cases and is the most frequent complication of Amoebic liver abscess"- Harrison | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commando operation is - | [
"Abdomino-perineal resection of the rectum for carcinoma",
"Disaiculation of the hip for gas gangrene of the leg",
"Extended radical mastectomy",
"Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Excision of carcinoma of the tongue, the floor of the mouth, pa of the jaw and lymph nodes enbloc | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to- | [
"B lymphocytes",
"T lymphocytes",
"Monocytes",
"Histiocytes"
] | B | Tuberculin test is type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Delayed or cell mediated hypersensitivity is a cell mediated response. The antigen activates specifically sensitised CD4 & CD8 T lymphocytes leading to the secretion of lymphokines and phagocyte accumulation. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 162 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindications to pregnancy are following except: | [
"WPW syndrome",
"Eisenmenger's syndrome",
"Pulmonary arterial hypertension",
"Marfan's syndrome with aortic root dilatation"
] | A | Ans. A. WPW syndromeTachyarrhythmias are relatively common and should prompt consideration of underlying cardiac disease. Wolff- Parkinson-White syndrome may first appear during pregnancy, but some women with previously diagnosed arrhythmias have an increased incidence of tachycardia during pregnancy. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is encountered most frequently. Half of these women are Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Women with Wolff- Parkinson-White syndrome have supraventricular tachycardia during pregnancy. If vagal maneuvers do not stimulate conversion, treatment consists of digoxin, adenosine, or calcium-channel blocking drugs. Experience is accruing that adenosine is effective for cardioversion in hemodynamically stable pregnant women. Most of these drugs do not appear to do fetal harm, however, reported fetal bradycardia in response to intravenous adenosine has been described. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most probable cause of death is: | [
"Strangulation",
"Hanging",
"Mugging",
"Bansdola"
] | B | Ans. (B). HangingThe photograph shows ligature mark in the neck.On dissection, the tissue under skin is pale, white & glistening.This appearance of ligature mark is seen in hangingQ.Ligature mark in hanging: Oblique, located above the thyroidal cartilage and incomplete. Base is paleQ, white, hard & parchment like. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with complaints of dysphagia. On UGI Endoscopy a diagnosis of esophageal candidiasis was made. The organism obtained from the sample was cultured on a specialized media and the below findings were visible on microscopy of the culture. What phenomenon is shown below? | [
"Germ tube formation",
"Spore formation",
"Mould to yeast formation",
"Budding"
] | A | (a) Germ tube formationCandidiasis* Candidiasis MC fungal infection in humans both in HIV and non-HIV infected people.* Caused by Candida, a yeast like fungus that produces pseudohyphae.Various species of Candida include:* Candida albicans: The most common and most pathogenic species* Other rare species are C. tropicalis, C. Glabrata, C. Krusei, C. parapsilosis, C. dubliniensis, C. kejyr, and C. viswanathii.Predisposing factors that are associated with increased risk of infection with Candida include-* Physiological state: Extremes of age (infancy, old age), pregnancy* Low immunity: Patients on steroid or immunosuppressive drugs, post transplantation, malignancy, HIV* Patients on broad spectrum antibiotics suppresses the normal flora* Diabetes mellitus, febrile neutropenia and zinc or iron deficiency.Clinical ManifestationsCandida species are a part of normal flora of the skin and mucosa including gut flora. In presence of opportunistic conditions, they can cause various infections.1. Mucosal candidiasis:* Oropharyngeal candidiasis (oral thrush) presents as white, adherent, painless patches in the mouth* Candidal vulvovaginitis thin whitish curd like vaginal discharge* Balanitis and balanoposthitis (occurring in uncircumcised males)* Esophageal candidiasis* Angular stomatitis and denture stomatitis* Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis: Seen in infants with deficient CMI, resistant to treatment.2. Cutaneous candidiasis:* Intertrigo, Paronychia and onychomycosis (fungal infection of nail)* Diaper candidiasis in infants, Perianal candidiasis* Erosio interdigitalis blastomycetica, an infection between the digits of the hands or toes* Generalized disseminated cutaneous candidiasis, seen in infants.3. Invasive candidiasis: Results from hematogenous or local spread of the fungi. Various forms are:* UTI, Pulmonary candidiasis, meningitis, osteomyelitis and Hepatosplenic and disseminated candidiasis* Septicemia (C.albicans and C.glabrate).* Ocular: Keratoconjunctivitis and endophthalmitis* Nosocomial candidiasis (mainly by C. glabrata)4. Allergic candidiasis include:* Candida Vesicular lesions in the web space of hands, similar to that of dermatophytid reaction (both conditions are together called 7D' reaction)* Other allergic reactions include: Gastritis, irritable bowel syndrome and eczema.Laboratory Diagnosis* Direct microscopy: Gram-positive oval budding yeast cells (4-6 pm size) with pseudohyphae.* Culture on SDA: Colonies are described as creamy white, smooth, and pasty with typical yeasty odor.Tests for species identification:* Germ tube test: It is also called Reynolds Braude phenomenon, specific test for C. albicans.* It is differentiated from pseudohyphae as there is no constriction at the origin.* Though the test is specific for C.albicans, it may also be positive for C. dubliniensis.Note from Author: "The germ tube formation of Candida albicans was shown in the AIIMS Question PseudohyphaeTrue hyphaeSeptaConstrictedNo constrictionOrigin of branchesConstricted and SeptateNo constriction, No septum presentGrows byBuddingApical elongationTreatment* Cutaneous candidiasis or oral thrush- DOC is topical azole* Esophageal and vulvovaginal candidiasis- DOC is oral flucconazole* Disseminated candidiasis- DOC is Amphotericin B* C.glabrata and C.krusei exhibit intrinsic resistance to azoles and are refractory to treatment with azoles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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