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Mutation in the oxidative enzymes could lead to: | [
"Zellweger's syndrome",
"Gaucher's disease",
"Epidermolysis bullosa",
"Leber's neuropathy"
] | A | Ans. A. Zellweger's syndromePeroxisome biogenesis disorders are a group of diseases involving the enzyme activities of peroxisomes. The most severe form is Zellweger's syndrome characterized by the absence of functional peroxisomes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following vessels transverse mesocolon seen ? | [
"Right colic aery",
"Left colic aery",
"Middle colic aery",
"Iliocolic aery"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Middle colic aeryMesentery of gutVessels contained by mesenteryMesentery proper (Mesentery of small intestine)Jejunal and Ileal branches of superior mesenteric vesselsTransverse mesocolonMiddle colic vesselMesoappendixAppendicular vesselsSigmoid mesocolonSigmoid vessels | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which muscle is irritated by retrocecal appendicitis? | [
"Psoas",
"Obturator",
"Gluteus maximus",
"Quadratus"
] | A | Ans. (a) PsoasRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition, Page 1303On hyperextension of hip by putting psoas muscle into action -- retrocecal appendicitis pain is exhibited. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Flaring of Anterior ends of ribs are seen in? | [
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Rickets",
"Coarctation of Aoa"
] | C | Rachitic Rosary is Flaring Of anterior ends of ribs at the costochondral junctions seen in Rickets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which branch of fascial nerve supplies muscles of lower lip (FMGE Dec 2018) | [
"Temporal",
"Cervical",
"Buccal",
"Mandibular"
] | D | -TEMPORAL BRANCH-Supply upper pa of orbicularis oculi and frontalis -ZYGOMATIC BRANCH-Supply lower pa of orbicularis oculi -BUCCAL BRANCH-Supply upper orbicularis oris, zygomaticus minor/major -MARGINAL MANDIBULAR BRANCH-Supply lower lip-Mentalis, lower orbicularis oris, depressor labii inferioris -CERVICAL BRANCH -Supply Platysma | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are associated with decreased sense of smell Except | [
"Head trauma",
"Influenza B",
"Parkinsonism",
"Tobacco smoking"
] | B | Ref: Harrison's principles of Internal Medicine; 20th edition; Chapter 24; Disorders of smell and taste | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Most probable organism responsible is - | [
"Stahylococcus aureus",
"Streptococcus viridans",
"Staphylococcus epidermidis",
"HACEK"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about hyaline cartilage - | [
"Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surface of Synovial joints.",
"Hyaline cartilage is present in all synovial joints",
"Articular cartilage may undergo ossification with ageing",
"Articular cartilage limits the mobility of the joint"
] | A | Cartilage which covers the articular surface of synovial joints is articular cartilage, a type of hyaline cartilage.
Hyaline cartilage is present in most of the synovial joints, i.e. articular cartilage of most of the synovial joints is hyaline cartilage. But not all synovial joints have hyaline cartilage; temporomandibular, sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints have fibrocartilage.
All hyaline cartilages have a tendency for ossification, except articular cartilage.
Articular cartilage enhances the mobility of joint by providing a smooth frictionless surface. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Point A in radiotherapy for Ca cervix corresponds to | [
"Lateral pelvic lymph nodes",
"Urinary bladder",
"Rectum",
"Uterine vessel crossing ureter"
] | D | Manchester-Point A SystemThe Manchester System was designed for use with LDR radium brachytherapy. It is the most commonly used technique. Point A - Representing the paracervical triangle (where the uterine aery crosses the ureter). This is the commonly repoed dose point. The position has varied several times, but the most modern definition is 2 cm along the most inferior source within the tandem (alternatively 2 cm along the tandem from the external cervical os), and 2 cm lateral to the tandem. Point A is recorded for all brachytherapy treatments, even those that use image-guided techniques.Point B - Representing the pelvic sidewall/obturator nodes, Point B is located 5 cm lateral to the midline at the same level as point A. It also gives a guide as to the lateral spread of the radiation dose.ICRU Repo 38The ICRU released repo 38 regarding dosimetry of cervical cancer brachytherapy. It discouraged the use of Point A and Point B.It also recommended that bladder and rectal point doses be included.Bladder Point - After inseion of a Foley catheter, the balloon is inflated with 7 ml of contrast. The catheter is then pulled until the balloon rests against the urethra. The bladder point is the most posterior pa of an anteroposterior line drawn through the center of the balloon.Rectal Point - The rectal point is located 5 mm posterior to the posterior vaginal wall, along with a line perpendicular to the midpoint of the activity of the ovoids.The ICRU also recommended repoing of multiple other dose points, including pelvic wall points. These are not commonly repoed. The repoing of the dose delivered to the treatment volume was based on the length, width, and depth of the pear-shaped volume generated by the treatment.(Diagnosis and Management of Cancer by Asok Metha,page73) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following Plain radiograph showing both chest and abdomen. The diagnosis is | [
"Pneumoperitoneum",
"Pleural effusion",
"Pneumonia",
"Volvulus"
] | A | (A) Pneumoperitoneum # PNEUMOPERITONEUM is pneumatosis (abnormal presence of air or other gas) in the peritoneal cavity, a potential space within the abdominal cavity. When present, it can often be seen on radiography, but small amounts are often missed, and CT scan is nowadays regarded as a criterion standard in the assessment of a pneumoperitoneum. CT can visualize quantities as small as 5 cm3 of air or gas.> Causes:> Perforated duodenal ulcer- The most common cause of rupture in the abdomen. Especially of the anterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. Perforated peptic ulcer Bowel obstruction Ruptured diverticulum Penetrating trauma Ruptured inflammatory bowel disease (e.g. megacolon)> Necrotising enterocolitis/Pneumatosis coli Bowel cancer Ischemic bowel Steroids> After laparotomy After laparoscopy Breakdown of a surgical anastomosis Bowel injury after endoscopy Peritoneal dialysis Vaginal insufflation (air enters via the fallopian tubes, e.g. water-skiing, oral sex) Colonic or peritoneal infection From chest (E.g. Bronchopleural fistula) Non-invasive PAP (positive airway pressure) can force air down duodenum as well as down trachea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about osteoclasts except | [
"Derived from monocytes",
"PTH acts directly on osteoclasts",
"Associated with bone demineralisation",
"Can phagocytose foreign bodies"
] | B | Ans b: (PTH acts directly onosleoclasts) Ref: Harrisson 17th edition p 2367OsteoblastsSynthesize & secrete matrixMesenchymal originSeen on surface of new boneOsteoblast derived matrix when mineralized is osteocyteMineralisation depends on osteoblast derived ALP (marker of blast)Controls1. CBFA1 (Runx 2)- Transcription factor regulating osteoblast function. Heterozygous inactivating mutation Icleidocranial dysplasia2 Indian hedgehog3 Wnt family members. Deficiency of Wnt family co receptor LRP 5- osteoporosis4 TGF beta, FGFs 2 & 18, PDGF, IGF 1 $ 25 PTH & l,25 dihydroxyD activate receptors expressed by osteoblastOsteoclastResorption of boneMultinucleated giant cell (2-5nuclei) from monocyte/macrophage lineage.Macrophage colony stimulating factors (M-CSF) plays a crucial role Osteoblasts control osteoclast activityRANK ligand expressed over osteoblast progenitor & stromal cells bind to RANK receptor on osteoclast progenitor to stimulate osteoclast differentiation.Osteoprotegerin binds to RANK ligand and inhibit osteoclast differentiation1L 18 is also an inhibitor of osteoclast differentiationPTH & 1,25 dihydroxyD increases osteoclast number & activityEstrogen decreases osteoblast number and activity}Both indirectly through RANK L and M CSF.Calcitonin has direct inhibitory effect on osteoclast formation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actin filament is not present in which of the band zones? | [
"H band",
"I band",
"M band",
"Z band"
] | A | The myosin and actin filaments overlap in peripheral regions of the A band, whereas a middle region (called the H zone) contains only myosin. H-band is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post-exposure prophylaxis against HIV infection should not be delayed beyond | [
"8 hours",
"24 hours",
"48 hours",
"72 hours"
] | D | Pre Initiation in NACP PEP needs to be standard as soon as possible after the exposure and within 72 hours In animal studies, initiating PEP within 12,24 or 36 hours of exposure was more efficient than initiating PEP 48 hours off 72 hours following exposure PEP is not effective when given more than 72 hours after exposure A baseline rapid HIV testing should be done before staing PEP HIV+ Asymptomatic HIV+ Symptomatic HIV status unknown Mild exposure Consider 2-drug PEP Sta 2-drug PEP Usually no PRP/ Consider 2-drug PEP Moderate exposure Sta 2-drug PEP Sta 3-drug PEP Usually no PEP/Consider 2-drug PEP Severe exposure Sta 3-drug PEP Sta 3-drug PEP Usually no PEP/Consider 2-drug PEP Ref: Antiretroviral Therapy Guidelines for HIV infected Adults and Adolescents Including Post-exposure prophylaxis, MOHFW, GOI. Pgno : 78 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Predisposing factors for development of oral carcinoma | [
"Smoking",
"Alcohol",
"Syphilis",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indication for Adenoidectomy in children include | [
"Recurrent rhinosinusitis",
"Chronic otitis media with effusion",
"Dental malocclusion",
"All of the above"
] | D | ADENOIDECTOMY INDICATIONS :- 1. Adenoid hyperophy causing snoring, mouth breathing, sleep apnoea syndrome or speech abnormalities, i.e. (rhinolalia clausa). 2. Recurrent rhinosinusitis. 3. Chronic otitis media with effusion associated with adenoid hyperplasia. 4. Recurrent ear discharge in benign CSOM associated with adenoiditis/adenoid hyperplasia. 5. Dental malocclusion. Adenoidectomy does not correct dental abnormalities but will prevent its recurrence after ohodontic treatment. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-431 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha-keto acid is done by which of the following enzymes? | [
"Transaminases",
"Oxidases",
"Transketolases",
"Deaminases"
] | A | Transaminase is the enzyme which transfer alpha amino group from one alpha amino acid to another alpha keto acid forming a new alpha amino acid. Ref: Textbook of biochemistry by DM Vasudevan3rd edn/page 161. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a feature of heroin (smack) withdrawal - | [
"Yawning",
"Muscle cramps",
"Hypersomnia",
"Hypertension"
] | C | There is insomnia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pregnenolone is not in the biosynthetic pathway of which substance? | [
"Coisol",
"Estrogen",
"DHEA",
"1,25(OH)2D"
] | D | All the steroids listed include pregnenolone early in their biosynthetic pathway. 1,25(OH)2D is derived from vitamin D and does not include pregnenolone in its biosynthetic pathway. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inonizing radiation affects which stage of cell cycle | [
"G2S",
"G1G2",
"G2M",
"G0G1"
] | C | Ref Robbins 8/e p 286, Harrison 17/e p516; 9/e p289 The G2/M checkpoint ministers the completion of the DNA replication and checks whether the cell can safely intiates the mitosis and separate sister chromatids,this checkpoint is paicularly impoant in cells exposed to inonizing radiation , cells damaged by inonizing radiation activates G2M Check point and. Arrest in G2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antibody class specific for infectious mononucleosis is: March 2003 | [
"IgA",
"IgD",
"IgM",
"IgG"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. IgM | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common presentation of Meckels diveculum? | [
"Lower GI bleeding",
"Upper GI bleeding",
"Diarrhorea",
"Abdominal pain"
] | A | .Presentations in Meckel's Diveiculum * Asymptomatic - in majority cases. * Severe haemorrhage most common, seen in children aged 2 years or younger (Maroon coloured blood). * Intestinal obstruction due to bands/adhesions/ intussusception. * Perforation. * Intussusception, volvulus of small bowel. * Peptic ulceration. * Diveiculitis--features mimic acute appendicitis. * Littre's hernia--It is presence of Meckel's diveiculum in hernial sac as content. It is observed in inguinal/femoral hernia. * Silent Meckel's diveiculum found during laparotomy or laparoscopy or by radioisotope study. * Carcinoid or GIST can occur in Meckel's diveiculum. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 798 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Relapse after orthodontic tooth movement is due to | [
"Supracrestal gingival fibers",
"Abnormal pressure habits",
"Improper angulation of the teeth",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not included in carcinoma in-situ category ? | [
"DCIS",
"Paget's disease of nipple",
"LCIS",
"None of the above ."
] | C | 8thAJCC (Tis - in situ) It includes DCIS and Paget's disease of nipple . LCIS is removed from Tis . It is now considered as benign disease . | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with a recent history of convulsions, presented to emergency in subconscious state with blood pressure 60/90 mm/Hg, bradycardia & slow gasping respiration. There is increased lacrimation, salivation & sweating. On examination there is pin point pupil. Which of the following poisoning should be suspected? | [
"Opioids",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Organophosphorus",
"Dhatura"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Organophosphorus [Ref Parikh 6Th /e p. 10.43; Reddy 33`d% p. 5231Organophosphorus poisoning compounds are irreversible inhibitors of enzyme cholinesterase, an enzyme which hydrolyzes acetylcholine.Thus organophosphates inhibit cholinesterase and protect acetylcholine from hydrolysis. This results in increased concentration of acetylcholine and excessive cholinergic activity.They inhibit cholinesterase by phosphorylating the catalytic site of enzyme. Less than 50% of cholinesterase activity is indicative of poisoning.Clinical features of poisoning are due to excessive cholinergic activity. Local muscarinic manifestations at the site of exposure (skin, eye, GIT) occur immediately and are followed by complex, systemic effects due to muscarinic, nicotinic and central actions | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis? | [
"Hemoptysis",
"Eosinopenia",
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage"
] | B | Eosinopenia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following group of lymph nodes are known as 'delphic nodes'? | [
"Prelaryngeal",
"Paratracheal",
"Supraclavicular",
"Posterior triangle"
] | A | Juxta visceral chain of anterior cervical lymph nodes consists of prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes. Prelaryngeal node (Delphian node) lies on cricothyroid membrane and drains subglottic region of larynx and pyriform sinuses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fully humanized antibodies used in the treatment of RA? | [
"Anakinra",
"Adolimumab",
"Infliximab",
"Leflunamide"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e., Adolimumab Etanercept: TNF type II receptor fused to IgG 1 o Infliximab: Chimeric human-mouse monoclonal antibody to TNF o Adolimumab: Fully human anti-TNF antibody | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are natural estrogens EXCEPT: | [
"Estradiol",
"Ethinylestradiol",
"Estriol",
"Estrone"
] | B | Ethinylestradiol is a synthetic steroidal estrogen. All others are natural estrogens. (Ref.Essentials of medical pharmacology 7th edition page no.306) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a method for providing enteral nutrition? | [
"PEG",
"PICC",
"Sip feeding",
"Nasojejunal tube"
] | B | PICC stand for Peripherally inseed central venous catheter It is not a method for providing enteral nutrition instead it provides parenteral nutritionthrough an peripherally inseed catheter in one of the central veins. Enteral feeding refers to delivery of nutrients into the GIT by means of following techniques: Sip feeding Nasogastric/Ryle's tubes Surgical or Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are natural family planning methods except :- | [
"Basal body temperature",
"Cycloprovera",
"Bilings method",
"Symptothermic method"
] | B | Natural family planning methods The term . "natural family planning" is applied to three methods: Basal body temperature (BBT) method Cervical mucus method, and Symptothermic method Cycloprovera: is a form ofcombined injectable bih control | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following therapies would be safe in a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis having markedly abnormal liver function : | [
"Streptomycin + isoniazid",
"Ethambutol + isoniazid",
"Rifampicin + isoniazid",
"Streptomycin + ethambutol"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs causing pyridoxine deficiency are the following except | [
"Hydralazine",
"Griseofulvin",
"Cycloserine",
"Penicillamine"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-month-old baby came with rashes over groin & lower abdomen, esp. affecting the countours of buttocks. The erythema, edema and erosion spare the flexures. Mother gives h/o diaper use. Diagnosis? | [
"Irritant contact dermatitis",
"Seborrheic dermatitis",
"Candidiasis",
"Atopic dermatitis"
] | A | Ans. a. Irritant contact dermatitisDue to contact to diaper, infants may develop contact irritant dermatitis over contours of buttocks. Seborrheic dermatitis in infants is commonly over scalp known as cradle cap.Candidiasis presents with satellite lesions.Atopic dermatitis involves flexures and face. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not included among major criteria in acute rheumatic fever is | [
"Erythema marginatum",
"Chorea",
"Polyarthralgia",
"Pancarditis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old woman presents with endometrial carcinoma. Her family history reveals that her mother died of endometrial cancer at age 50, while her 42-year-old brother was recently diagnosed with coloncancer. You begin to suspect a familial cancer syndrome. What gene is most likely to be mutated in this family | [
"WT-1",
"APC",
"MSH2",
"p53"
] | C | The answer is C. This family likely has hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) syndrome or Lynch syndrome. This syndrome is due to defects in DNA mismatch repair genes, with MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, and PMS2 representing the primary culprits. -WT-1 mutations predispose patients to Wilms tumors and a variety of other defects -APC is mutated in familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) -Germline mutations in p53 are seen in Li Fraumeni syndrome -BRCA-1 mutations predispose women to breast carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female of 30 years complains of chord like structures on her arm and breast without any history of injury and infection, these cords are best demonstrated on elevation of the hand, what is the most possible diagnosis? | [
"Poland syndrome",
"Teitz disease",
"Mondor's disease",
"Ductectasia"
] | C | Ans. (c) Mondors disease.This is condition is seen in females due to thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast and anterior chest wall. In the absence of any previous injury and infection if there is thrombosed subcutaneous cord s that's highly suggestive of mondor's disease.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infancy is seen in: | [
"Gilbe syndrome",
"Crigler Najjar syndrome",
"Dubin Johnson syndrome",
"Erythroblastosis fetalis"
] | C | Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infancy is seen in: Dubin Johnson syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
ECT causes | [
"Antegrade amnesia",
"Retrograde amnesia",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | C i.e. Both | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which prosthesis is shown below in the X-ray? | [
"Austin Moore's prosthesis",
"Thompson prosthesis",
"Articular resurfacing",
"Birmingham hip replacement"
] | A | Ans. (a) Austin Moore prosthesis.Note the fenestrations in stem of Austin Moore's prosthesis for ingrowth of bone and initiation of self-locking process. This is used when the calcar femorale is sufficient. When the calcar femorale is deficient, Thompson prosthesis is used with bone cement.Image source - style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Powders of dental plaster and dental stone differ
mainly in: | [
"Solubility",
"Shelf life",
"Chemical formula",
"Particle porosity"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following set is termed as epidemiological triad: | [
"Endemic, epidemic and outbreaks",
"Agent, host and environment",
"Incidence, prevalence and disease load",
"Agent, man and disease"
] | B | Ans (b) Agent, host and environmentRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 33-34, Park 19th/ 30A broad concept of disease causation that synthesized the basic factors of agent, host and environment (see adjacent figure)This model--agent, host and environment-- has been in use for many years. It helped epidemiologists to focus on different classes of factors, especially with regards to infectious diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old woman comes to the psychiatry outpatient with complaints of constricting headaches and neck pain as well. The patient repos that her symptoms have worsened in last 6 months after she joined a new job. Her husband repos that she always had a tendency to worry excessively, even about the small things. The patient describes that she feels that her mind never stops working and that she is alway worried about either her job, or her kids or her parents. She repos feeling of irritability and fatigue. Family history is significant for major depressive disorder in her mother. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Acute stress disorder",
"Adjustment disorder",
"Generalized anxiety disorder",
"Obsessive-compulsive disorder"
] | C | This patient has symptoms of 'excessive worries' and somatic symptoms of anxiety such as irritability, and somatic symptoms of anxiety such as muscle tension (headaches and pain in neck), irritability and fatigue. The symptoms are suggestive of generalised anxiety disorder. The symptoms were present before this job too. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bradykinin causes: | [
"Vasoconstriction",
"Pain at the site of inflammation",
"Bronchodilation",
"Decreased vascular permeability"
] | B | Bradykinin acts in the early stage of inflammation and its effects include:
Smooth muscle contraction
Vasodilatation
Increased vascular permeability
Pain.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Page: 126 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about beta blockers are true except? | [
"Nebivilol is a cardioselective beta blocker",
"Cardio selective beta blockers are relatively safe in asthma",
"Beta blockers are contraindicated in acute CHF",
"Atenolol is safe in renal failure"
] | D | Cardio selective beta blockers: Esmolol (shoest acting, metabolized by pseudo cholinesterase) Betaxolol (reduces IOP, used in glaucoma) Atenolol (water soluble beta blocker, C/I in renal failure) Acebutolol & celiprolol (paial agonist) Metoprolol (cardio selective beta blocker) Cardio selective beta blockers are safe in asthma, PVD & DM Uses of cardio selective beta blockers:- Hypeension- Classical angina (C/I in variant angina)- MI- Chronic CHF (C/I in acute CHF)- Arrhythmia | train | med_mcqa | null |
The normal brown red colour of feces results from the presence of | [
"Heme",
"Stercobilin",
"Biliverdin",
"Bilirubin diglucuronide"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blow out fracture refers to - | [
"Fracture of orbit",
"Fracture of nasal septum",
"Fracture base of skull",
"Fracture of mandible"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture of orbit o Isolated fractures of orbital floor, when a large blunt object strikes the glob, are called "blow out fractures". Fractures of the floor of the orbito Zygomatic fracture and Le fort II maxillary fractures are always accompanied by fractures of orbital floor,o Isolated fractures of orbital floor, when a large blunt object strikes the globe, are called "blow out fractures".Clinical featureso Ecchymosis of lid, conjunctiva and sclera.o Endophthalmos with inferior displacement of the eye-ball. This becomes apparent when oedema subsides,o Diplopia, which may be due to displacement of the eyeball or entrapment of inferior rectus and inferior oblique muscles.o Hypoaesthesia or anaesthesia of cheek and upper lip, if infraorbital nerve is involved.Diagnosiso Water's view show a convex opacity bulging into the antrum from above, i.e., Tear drop opacity.o CT scan is diagnostic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Persistent low C3 complement level is not found in | [
"Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis",
"Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis",
"Cryoglobulinemia",
"SLE"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis In post streptococcal glomerulonephritis the serum complement level is decreased transiently (not persistently)They classically return to normal within 6-8 weeks.Persistently decreased complement level after this period should suggest another disease.Also knowMembranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized histologically by alterations in the basement membrane, proliferation of glomerular cells and leucocyte infiltration.Because the proliferation is predominantly in the mesangium a frequently used synonym is mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thyrotoxic patient with nodule is treated with: | [
"Surgery",
"Medical therapy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Anti thyroid drugs followed by surgery"
] | C | Ans: c (Radiotherapy) Ref: Bailey, 24th ed, p. 793, Harrison, 16th ed, p. 2122, Davidson, 20th ed, p. 760Treatment of toxic nodule"Surgery or radioiodine treatment is appropriate. Resection is easy, and without morbidity. Radio iodine is a good alternative for people over 45 years of age because the suppressed thyroid tissue does not take up the iodine and thus there is no risk of delayed thyroid malignancy."- Bailey"A solitary autonomously functioning nodule is toxic adenoma. Treatment of solitary nodule is radioiodine ablation. Here the normal thyroid function is suppressed. I131 will concentrate in the hyperfunctioning nodule with minimal uptake and damage to the normal surrounding thyroid tissue."- Harrison"In toxic MNG the treatment of choice is Il31. The iodine uptake is lower than in Graves disease. So a higher dose is employed."- DavidsonFrom the above texts, it is clear that the treatment is radiotherapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In cirrhosis in space of disse which type of collagen accumulates- | [
"Type 1 & type II",
"Type III & IV",
"Type IV",
"Type I & IV"
] | B | Space of Disse has :-
Collagen type III, IV and VI
Laminin
Fibronectin
"Space of Disse, collagen III and VI are found, collagen III in discontinuous deposits and collagen VI arranged homogenously. Although, collagen IV is present, it is in discontinuous deposits not associated with laminin or perlecan"
—www.gastrohep.com. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about facial colliculus EXCEPT | [
"Raised by axons of facial nerve (internal genu)",
"Abducent nucleus lies deep to it",
"Located at the floor of fouh ventricle",
"Present on the dorsal aspect of upper pons"
] | D | Facial colliculus is present on the dorsal aspect of lower (not upper) pons. It is raised by axons of facial nerve (internal genu) It is located in the floor of fouh ventricle. Abducent nucleus (6th N. ) lies deep to it. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of : | [
"Ceftriaxone",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Ampicillin",
"Sulfonamide"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is true about sinus tachycardia? | [
"Fixed PR interval",
"Gradual in onset",
"Uniform p wave",
"All of the above"
] | D | (D) All of the above > In the adult, sinus tachycardia is said to be present when the heart rate exceeds 100 beats/min. Sinus tachycardia rarely exceeds 200 beats/min and is not a primary arrhythmia; instead, it represents a physiologic response to a variety of stresses, such as fever, volume depletion, anxiety, exercise, thyrotoxicosis, hypoxemia, hypotension, or CHF. Sinus tachycardia has a gradual onset and offset. The ECG demonstrates P waves with sinus contour preceding each QRS complex. Carotid sinus pressure usually produces modest slowing with a gradual return to the previous rate upon cessation. This contrasts with the response of PSVTs, which may slow slightly and terminate abruptly. The PR interval and the presence of 1:1. AV conduction properties are AV nodal and His purkinje conduction and therefore PR interval is dramatically prolonged while sinus tachycardia remains the mechanism of Atrial activity, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neovascular glaucoma may be associated with all of the following except: | [
"Diabetes",
"Hypeension",
"Central retinal vein occlusion",
"Intraocular tumours"
] | B | Ans. Hypeension | train | med_mcqa | null |
After 3 days of fever patient developed maculo erythematous rash lasting for 48 hrs diagnosis is: | [
"Fifth disease",
"Rubella",
"Measles",
"Roseola infantum"
] | D | D i.e. Roseola infantum Roseola infantum/ Exanthema subetum/ Sixth disease Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth disease) Rubella/ Third disease Rubeola/ First disease (Measles) Eto HHV - 6 Human parvo virus B-19 Toga virus Paramyxovirus ciF * Affects < 3 yrs old child - Involves mostly 3-12 - Forchheimers - Koplik's spots - Maculopapular lesions years age group spots - Discrete lesions that sparing face - Bright red slapped cheek - Spreads from hair become confluent as - Resolve with in 2 days appearance f/b diffuse lacy line down-ward & rash spreads from hair (48 hrs) reticular rash that waxes and cleaning as it line downwards wanes over 3 weeks. spreads sparing palms and sole, lasts >=3 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dorsal column relay in which nucleus: | [
"Substantia gelatinosa",
"Nucleus proprius",
"Accessory cuneate nucleus",
"Gracile nucleus"
] | D | Ans. D. Gracile nucleusa. The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway is a sensory pathway of the central nervous system that conveys sensations of fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination, and proprioception (position) from the skin and joints.b. The pathway receives information from sensory receptors throughout the body, and carries this in nerve tracts in the white matter of the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, to the medulla where it is continued in the medial lemniscus, on to the thalamus and relayed from there through the internal capsule and transmitted to the somatosensory cortex.c. There are three groupings of neurons that are involved in the pathway: first-order neurons, second-order neurons, and third-order neurons. The first-order neurons are sensory neurons located in the dorsal root ganglia, that send their afferent fibers through the two dorsal columns - the gracile fasciculus, or gracile tract, and the cuneate fasciculus or cuneate tract. The first-order axons make contact with second-order neurons at the gracile nucleus and the cuneate nucleus in the lower medulla. The second-order neurons send their axons to the thalamus. The third- order neurons are in the ventral nuclear group in the thalamus and fibres from these ascend to the postcentral gyrus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are indicators of Physical Quality of life index except | [
"Infant moality rate",
"Life expectancy at 1 year",
"Level of living",
"Literacy"
] | C | PQLI Consists of basic literacy rate, infant moality, and life expectancy at age one, all equally weighted on a 0 to 100 scale. Level of living is a parallel term for standard of living, and is used in United Nations documents. Health is the most impoant component of it. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition; Pg no: 16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Differential diagnosis in a case of fever with vesicular rash for two days are all except | [
"Candida-albicans",
"Infectious monocleosis",
"Klabsiella pneumonia",
"Influenza"
] | A | Cutaneous candidosis is caused by candida albicans. - it may be interiginous or paronychial -the former is an erythematous, scaling or moist lesions with sharply demarcated borders, where papular lesions are most prominent. - paronychia is seen in occupations that lead to frequent immersion of hands in water. * In infectious mononucleosis a maculopapular rash is seen . *Vesicular rash is also seen in varicella ,HSV ,HFMD ,papulonecrotic TB . Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker&;s 9th edition, pg no: 611 op ghai pg 208 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through: | [
"Foramen lacerum",
"Foramen rotundum",
"Foramen spinosum",
"Foramen ovale"
] | D | Accessory meningeal artery is a branch of 1st part of Maxillary artery.
It enters the cranium by passing through foramen ovale.
It supplies meninges and infratemporal fossa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigor mois not seen in: AIIMS 13 | [
"Fetus < 7 months of age",
"Full term fetus",
"Elderly",
"Anemic person"
] | A | Ans. Fetus < 7 months of age | train | med_mcqa | null |
Labour is said to be prolonged when the first and second stage extend arbitrarily beyond: | [
"12 hours",
"18 hours",
"24 hours",
"6 hours"
] | B | Ans: (b) 18 hoursWilliams' Obstetrics, 24th editionFirst Stage of LaborTwo phases of cervical dilatation are defined:Latent phaseActive phaseThe latent phase corresponds to the preparatory division, and the active phase, to the dilatational division.Friedman subdivided the active phase into the:Acceleration phasePhase of maximum slope o Deceleration phaseLatent PhaseThe onset of latent labor, as defined by Friedman (1972), is the point at which the mother perceives regular contractions. The latent phase for most women ends at between 3 and 5 cm of dilatation.Prolonged Latent PhaseFriedman and Sachtleben (1963) defined this by a latent phase exceeding 20 hours in the nullipara and 14 hours in the multipara.Active LaborCervical dilatation of 3 to 5 cm or more, in the presence of uterine contractions, can be taken to reliably represent the threshold for active laborProtraction as a slow rate of cervical dilatation or descent:For nulliparas was less than 1.2 cm dilatation per hour or less than 1 cm descent per hour,For multiparas, protraction was defined as less than 1.5 cm dilatation per hour or less than 2 cm descent per hour.Second Stage of LaborThis stage begins when cervical dilatation is complete and ends with fetal delivery.The median duration it is highly variable but is approximately:50 minutes for nulliparas20 minutes for multiparasThe mean length of first- and second-stage labor was approximately:9 hours in nulliparous women without regional analgesia, and that the 95th percentile upper limit was 18.5 hours.Corresponding times for multiparous women were a mean of 6 hours with a 95th percentile maximum of 13.5 hours.Prolonged LabourLabour is said to be prolonged when the combined duration of first and second stage is more than 18 hoursCauses:Abnormal uterine actionMalpositionMalpresentationMacrosomiaFetal malformationContracted pelvisCephalopelvic disproportionProlonged latent phase-in primi more than 20 hours and in multi more than 14 hoursProlonged active phase-this is the most common. Cervical dilatation less than 1.2 cm/hour in nullipara and less than 1.5 cm/hour in multiparaSecondary arrest of dilatation-there is arrest in cervical dilatation for atleast 2 hoursArrest of descent-there is arrest of descent of fetal head for atleast one hour | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fleischer's ring is seen in; | [
"Keratoconus",
"Keratomalacia",
"Keratoglobus",
"Trachoma"
] | A | KERATOCONUS Non -Inflammatory central corneal thinning Young male with constantly changing power of glasses with myopia & high cylinder SIGNS IN KERATOCONUS Munson sign. Scissor reflex on retinoscopy (Earliest Clinical Sign) Enlarged corneal nerves-lower lid indentation on downgaze. Oil droplet reflex. Rizutti's sign Acute Hydrops - aqueous accumulated in stroma Fleischer ring-Paial or complete iron deposition ring in deep epithelium encircling the base of the cone. Characteristic in eyes with keratoconus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rubor in inflammation is due to- | [
"Decreased tissue oncotic pressure",
"Decreased hydrostatic pressure in aerioles",
"Constriction of the capillaries",
"increased blood flow"
] | D | four cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), calor (heat), and dolor (pain). A fifth clinical sign, loss of function (functio laesa), was added later The vascular and cellular reactions account for the signs and symptoms of the inflammatory response increased vascular permeability leading to the accumulation of extravascular fluid rich in plasma proteins, known as edema The redness (rubor), warmth (calor), and swelling (tumor) of acute inflammation are caused by the increased blood flow pain due to the release of chemicals such as bradykinin and histamine ref robbins 9th ed page 93 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The chemotherapeutic agents "Cyclophosphamide" is associated with which side effects (SELECT 1 SIDE EFFECT) | [
"Hemorrhagic cystitis",
"Renal failure",
"Tympanic membrane fibrosis",
"Necrotizing enterocolitis"
] | A | Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent that cross-links DNA and also inhibits DNA synthesis. Hemorrhagic cystitis and alopecia are common side effects. Cisplatin causes renal damage and neural toxicity. Patients must be well hydrated. Its mode of action does not fit a specific category. Taxol can produce allergic reactions and bone marrow depression. Bleomycin and doxorubicin are antibiotics whose side effects are pulmonary fibrosis and cardiac toxicity, respectively Vincristine arrests cells in metaphase by binding microtubular proteins and preventing the formation of mitotic spindles. Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not the karyotype of Turners syndrome | [
"46 XX, i(Xq)",
"45 XO",
"46 XX, i(Xp)",
"46 XX, r(X)"
] | C | A chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosome Turner syndrome (TS), also known 45,X, or 45,X0, is a genetic condition in which a female is paly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a sho and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, sho stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen. Refer robbins 166-167 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superantigen causes - | [
"Polyclonal activation of T-cells",
"Stimulation of B cells",
"Enhancement of phagocytosis",
"Activation of complement"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
For viewing superior orbital fissure, the best view is: | [
"Plain AP view",
"Caldwell view",
"Towne view",
"Basal view"
] | B | Superior orbital fissure can be seen by caldwell view and water's view. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Hebra' nose is caused by - | [
"Frisch bacillus",
"Staphaureus",
"Pseudomonas",
"C.diphtheriae"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Frisch bacillus Rhinoscleromao The causative organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis or Frisch bacillus, which can be cultured from the biopsy material. The disease is endemic in several parts of world. In India, it is seen more often in northern than in the southern parts. Biopsy shows infiltration of submucosa with plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells & Russell bodies. The latter two are diagnostic features of the disease. The disease starts in the nose & extends to nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, trachea & bronchi. Mode of infection is unknown. Both sexes of any age may be affected.Clinical features of rhinoscleromao The disease runs through the following stagesa) Atrophic stage: It resembles atrophic rhinitis and is characterised by foul smelling purulent nasal discharge and crusting.b) Granulomatous stage: Granulomatous nodules form in nasal mucosa. There is also subdermal infiltration of lower part of external nose and upper lip giving a 'woody' feel. Nodules are painless and non-ulcerative.c) Cicatricial stage: This causes stenosis of nares, distortion of upper lip, adhesions in the nose, nasopharynx and oropharynx. There may be subglottic stenosis with respiratory distress.o Involvement of ulnar margin and nasal tip produces specific deformity - 'Hebra' nose or Tapir noseo Biopsy of rhinoscleroma shows infiltration of submucosa with plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies. The latter two are the diagnostic features of the disease.Treatmento Both streptomycin & tetracycline are given together for minimum of 4-6 wks. Steroid can be combined to reduce fibrosis. Surgical treatment may be required to establish the airway and correct nasal deformity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of local anaesthetic is: | [
"Stabilization of membrane",
"Inhibition of Ca",
"Inhibition of Mg+",
"Increasing dopamine"
] | A | Stabilization of membrane | train | med_mcqa | null |
Autonomic fibres are rich in which type of neurotransmitter | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Noradrenaline",
"GABA",
"Epinephrine"
] | A | The principal transmitter agents involved in autonomic nervous system are acetylcholine and norepinephrine. The neurons that are cholinergic are 1)all preganglionic neurons, 2) all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, 3) sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervate sweat glands and 4)sympathetic postganglionic neurons that end on blood vessels in some skeletal muscles and produce vasodilation when stimulated. The remaining sympathetic postganglionic neurons which is only minimal are noradrenergic ( ie, release norepinephrine). Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg: 265-266. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with senile cataract the macular functions can be tested by all except: | [
"Two-light discrimination test",
"Swinging flash light test",
"Maddox rod test",
"Laser interferometry"
] | B | Ans. Swinging flash light test | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sullivan index denotes: September 2006 | [
"Life expectancy at bih",
"Life expectancy excluding disability free period",
"Contraceptive failure rate",
"Hookworm density in stool"
] | B | Ans. B: Life expectancy excluding disability free period This index (expectation of life free of disability) is computed by subtracting from the the life expectancy the probable duration of bed disability and inability to perform major activities, according to cross-sectional data from the population surveys. It is one of the most advanced indicators of disability rates currently available. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Streptococcal glomerulonephritis is best diagnosed by: | [
"ASO titre",
"Anti DNAse",
"Hyaluronidase",
"Culture"
] | B | In streptococcal glomerulonephritis, ASO titre is often low. So, retrospective diagnosis is made by anti DNAase and antihyaluronidase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false regarding suspended animation | [
"Can be produced voluntarily",
"Patient can be resuscitated",
"It is state of apparent death",
"It usually lasts for 6 hours"
] | D | Suspended animation is a state of apparent death in which signs of life are not found as functions of life are interrupted or reduced to minimum for some time.
Resuscitation is possible. It can be voluntarily produced in yogis.
Involuntarily it is seen in newborns, electrocution, cholera, shock, etc. It lasts for few seconds to half an hour or more.
It can be revived by cardiac massage or electric stimulator and artificial respiration | train | med_mcqa | null |
strand Hydrophobic amino acid is ? | [
"Alanine",
"Tyrosine",
"Glycine",
"Histidine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Alanine Polar (hydrophilic) amino acidsNegatively charged (acidic) :- Aspaic acid (aspaate), glutamic acid (glutamate)Positively charged (basic) :- Histidine, lysine, arginineUncharged (neutral) :- Asparagie, Cysteine, glycine, glutamine, serine, threonine, tyrosineNon-polar (hydrophobic) amino acidsWith aliphatic chain :- Alanine, isoleucine, leucine, methionine, proline, valineWith aromatic side chain :- Phenylalanine, tryptophanTyrosine and cysteine may show hydrophobic (non-polar) character when present in the interior of protein | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a monovalent cation that can reverse a digitalis induced arrhythmia ? | [
"Digibind antibodies",
"Lignocaine",
"Magnesium",
"Potassium"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of small intestinal obstruction is: | [
"Intussusception",
"Iatrogenic adhesion",
"Trauma",
"Carcinoma"
] | B | Adhesion secondary to previous surgery are by far the most common cause for small bowel obstruction. Adhesions paicularly after pelvic surgery are responsible for more than 60% of cause of small bowel obstruction. Causes of small bowel obstruction in order of frequency: Adhesions (Approximately 60%) commonest Malignant tumors (approximately 20%) second most common cause. Most commonly these tumors are metastatic lesions. Hernias (Approximately 10%) Crohn's disease (approximately 5%) Ref: Sabiston 18/e, Page 1290. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spring catarrah is: | [
"Type I hypersensitivity reaction",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | A | Ans. Type I hypersensitivity reaction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Late complication ofAcetabular fracture -a) Avascular necrosis of head of femurb) Avascular necrosis of lilac crestc) Fixed deformity of the hip jointd) Secondary osteoarthritis of hip joint | [
"b",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | D | Early complications include sciatic nerve injury and iliofemoral venous thrombosis.
Among late complications, the common problem is development of secondary osteoarthritis. Other possible problems include avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis) of femoral head, Heterotopic ossification and joint stiffness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to ICMR the most common cause of infant mortalilty is – | [
"Prematurity",
"Diarrhoea) diseases",
"Congenital anomalies",
"Acute repiratory infection"
] | A | The most common causes of Infant death are :
Prematurity & low birth weight (51%)
Acute respiratory infection (17%)
Diarrheal diseases (4%)
Congenital malformations (5%)
Birth injuries (3%)
Cord infection (2%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old woman with Crohn's Disease reports multiple bowel movements with frequent stools. She was previously treated with a mesalamine derivative "Pentasa" and in the latest episode of the disease flare up she didn't tolerate the oral steroid therapy with budesonide. What is the next appropriate step in her treatment? | [
"Hydrocortisone (I.V)",
"Prednisolone (oral)",
"Azathioprine",
"Sulfasalazine"
] | C | Answer: c) AzathioprineAzathioprine can be used to control the flare ups in Crohn's disease without any steroid related side effects | train | med_mcqa | null |
Advantage of desmopressin over vasopressin in the treatment of diabetes insipidus is that desmopressin: | [
"Causes less formation of factor VIII",
"Causes less hypernatremia",
"Is more selective for V2 receptor subtype",
"Provides greater relief of excessive thirst the patient is experiencing"
] | C | Desmopressin is selective agonist of V2 receptors of vasopressin. V2 receptors are present in kidney and on endothelium whereas V1 receptors are present in blood vessels. Therefore, -Desmopressin is less likely to cause vasoconstriction than vasopressin. -Desmopressin has similar risk of causing hyponatremia due to retention of water. -Desmopressin can release of factor VIII and vWF similar to vasopressin. -Both desmopressin and vasopressin can provide similar relief of excessive thirst. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Forward movement of mandible is done by: | [
"Lateral pterygoid",
"Medial pterygoid",
"Tern poralis — anterior fibers",
"Temporalis — posterior fibers"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Caries tetrad was given by: | [
"Keyes",
"Newbrun",
"Hyatt",
"Bowen"
] | B | Caries triad was given by Keyes and caries tetrad was given by Newbrun. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Moclobemide is: | [
"SSRI",
"Antipsychotic drug",
"MAO inhibitor",
"Tricyclic antidepressant"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
How many net ATPs are generated per glucose molecule upon undergoing TCA cycle? | [
"10 ATPs`",
"20 ATPs",
"7 ATPs",
"2 ATPs"
] | B | 10 ATPs are generated per 1 pyruvate molecule. 1 Glucose yields 2 pyruvate molecules. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in : | [
"Australia",
"Asia",
"Noh America",
"Western Europe"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e. Asia 'Incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease varies widely with figures as high as 1 in 120 in some areas of Asia and South America, compared to 1 in 1200 in the united states." Incidence and Risk factors for H. molc? Incidence is maximum in Asia and South America and least in U.S. Risk is more in women too elderly (> 35) or too younger (< 18 years). Low socioeconomic status. History of molar pregnancy. Diet deficient in protein, folic acid and carotene. Blood group A women married to group 0 men. Note : Maternal age > 35 years and dietary deficiencies are risk factors for complete mole whereas paial mole is linked to the use of oral contraceptive pills and history of irregular menstruation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Random is Randomization Implies | [
"Unequal and known chances",
"Equal and known chances",
"Unequal and unknown chances",
"Equal and unknown chances"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest manifestation of retinoblastoma is - | [
"Pseudohypopyon",
"Leukocoria",
"Squint",
"Nystagmus"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Leukocoria o Leukocoria or amauratic cat's eye reflex this is the most common manifestation. The leukocoria or the white glow in the pupil is caused by reflection of light from the white intraocular tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wavelength of carbon dioxide laser is? | [
"10600 nm",
"1082nm",
"2940 nm",
"1064 nm"
] | A | Ans- A 10600 nm Ref- CO2 Lasers Definition: infrared lasers based on a gas mixture in which light is amplified by carbon dioxide molecules The CO2 laser (carbon dioxide laser) is a molecular gas laser based on a gas mixture as the gain medium, which contains carbon dioxide (CO2), helium (He), nitrogen (N2), and possibly some hydrogen (H2), water vapor and/or xenon (Xe). Such a laser is electrically pumped via a gas discharge, which can be operated with DC current, with AC current (e.g. 20-50 kHz) or in the radio frequency (RF) domain. Nitrogen molecules are excited by the discharge into a metastable vibrational level and transfer their excitation energy to the CO2 molecules when colliding with them. Helium serves to depopulate the lower laser level and to remove the heat. Other constituents such as hydrogen or water vapor can help (particularly in sealed-tube lasers) to reoxidize carbon monoxide (formed in the discharge) to carbon dioxide. Figure 1: Schematic setup of a sealed-tube carbon dioxide laser. The gas tube has Brewster windows and is water-cooled. CO2 lasers typically emit at a wavelength of 10.6 mm, but there are other lines in the region of 9-11 mm (particularly at 9.6 mm). In most cases, average powers are between some tens of watts and many kilowatts. The power conversion efficiency can be well above 10%, i.e., it is higher than for most gas lasers (due to a particularly favorable excitation pathway), also higher than for lamp-pumped solid-state lasers, but lower than for many diode-pumped lasers. - Laser Types The family of CO2 lasers is very diverse: For laser powers between a few watts and a several hundred watts, it is common to use sealed-tube or no-flow lasers, where the laser bore and gas supply are contained in a sealed tube. Such lasers are compact and rugged, and reach operation lifetimes of several thousands of hours. High-power diffusion-cooled slab lasers (not to be confused with solid-state slab lasers) have the gas in a gap between a pair of planar water-cooled RF electrodes. The excess heat is efficiently transferred to the electrodes by diffusion, if the electrode spacing is made small compared with the electrode width. Several kilowatts of output are possible. Fast axial flow lasers and fast transverse flow lasers are also suitable for multi-kilowatt continuous-wave output powers. The excess heat is removed by the fast-flowing gas mixture, which passes an external cooler before being used again in the discharge. Transverse excited atmosphere (TEA) lasers have a very high (about atmospheric) gas pressure. As the voltage required for a longitudinal discharge would be too high, transverse excitation is done with a series of electrodes along the tube. TEA lasers are operated in pulsed mode only, as the gas discharge would not be stable at high pressures. They often produce average output powers below 100 W, but can also be made for powers of tens of kilowatts (combined with high pulse repetition rates). There are gas dynamic CO2 lasers for multi-megawatt powers (e.g. for anti-missile weapons), where the energy is not provided by a gas discharge but by a chemical reaction in a kind of rocket engine. The concepts differ mainly in the technique of heat extraction, but also in the gas pressure and electrode geometry used. In low-power sealed-tube lasers (used e.g. for laser marking), waste heat is transported to the tube walls by diffusion or a slow gas flow. The beam quality can be very high. High-power CO2 lasers utilize a fast forced gas convection, which may be in the axial direction (i.e., along the beam direction) or in the transverse direction (for the highest powers). - Applications CO2 lasers are widely used for material processing, in particular for cutting plastic materials, wood, die boards, etc., exhibiting high absorption at 10.6 mm, and requiring moderate power levels of 20-200 W cutting and welding metals such as stainless steel, aluminum or copper, applying multi-kilowatt powers laser marking of various materials. Other applications include laser surgery (including ophthalmology) and range finding. CO2 lasers used for material processing (e.g. welding and cutting of metals, or laser marking) are in competition with solid-state lasers (particularly YAG lasers and fiber lasers) operating in the 1-mm wavelength regime. These shorter wavelengths have the advantages of more efficient absorption in a metallic workpiece, and the potential for beam delivery via fiber cables. (There are no optical fibers for high-power 10-mm laser beams.) The potentially smaller beam parameter product of 1-mm lasers can also be advantageous. However, the latter potential normally cannot be realized with high-power lamp-pumped lasers, and diode-pumped lasers tend to be more expensive. For these reasons, CO2 lasers are still widely used in the cutting and welding business, particularly for parts with a thickness greater than a few millimeters, and their sales make more than 10% of all global laser sales (as of 2013). This may to some extent change in the future due to the development of high-power thin-disk lasers and advanced fiber cables in combination with techniques which exploit the high beam quality of such lasers. Due to their high powers and high drive voltages, CO2 lasers raise serious issues of laser safety. However, their long operation wavelength makes them relatively eye-safe at low intensities. - Bibliography C. K. N. Patel, "Continuous-wave laser action on vibrational-rotational transitions of CO2", Phys. Rev. 136 (5A), A1187 (1964) C. K. N. Patel, "Interpretation of CO2 optical maser experiments", Phys. Rev. Lett. 12 (21), 588 (1964) A. Robinson and D. Johnson, "A carbon dioxide laser bibliography, 1964-1969", IEEE J. Quantum Electron. 6 (10), 590 (1970) P. T. Woods et al., "Stable single-frequency carbon dioxide lasers", J. Phys. E: Sci. Instrum. 9, 395 (1976) A. L. S. Smith and J. Mellis, "Operating efficiencies in pulsed carbon dioxide lasers", Appl. Phys. Lett. 41, 1037 (1982) K. M. Abramski et al., "Power scaling of large-area transverse radiofrequency discharge CO2 lasers", Appl. Phys. Lett. 54, 1833 (1989) O. Svelto, Principles of Lasers, Plenum Press, New York (1998) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about 'secondary apnea' in a neonate EXCEPT: | [
"The baby is not breathing",
"HR may become < 100/min",
"It may be present even at bih",
"Baby may respond to tactile stimulation"
] | D | Primary apnea Secondary apnea Baby is not breathing Baby is not breathing HR may become < 100/min HR may become < 100/min Baby may respond to tactile stimulation Infant is unresponsive to stimulation & does not spontaneously resume respiratory effos unless PPV is initiated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about incidence of retinoblastoma except: | [
"Is the most common intraocular tumour of childhood",
"Occurs in 1 in 14000-34000 live bihs",
"No sex predisposition",
"More common in negroes than whites"
] | D | Ans. More common in negroes than whites | train | med_mcqa | null |
Side effects of clomiphene citrate include all, EXCEPT: | [
"Multiple pregnancy",
"Increase risk of ovarian ca",
"Multiple polycystic ovary",
"Teratogenic effect on offsprings"
] | D | There is no evidence of teratogenicity observed in humans when the drug used to induce ovulation. Clomiphene increases gonadotropin secretion and stimulates ovulation. It increases the amplitude of LH and FSH pulses without changing pulse frequency. It acts largely at the pituitary level to block inhibitory actions of estrogen on gonadotropin release from the gland and causing the hypothalamus to release larger amounts of GnRH per pulse. Side effects of clomiphene include; Multiple gestation Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) Ovarian cysts Hot flashes Blurred vision Risk of ovarian cancer Ref: Levin E.R., Hammes S.R. (2011). Chapter 40. Estrogens and Progestins. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A man presents to a dermatologist because of a severe mucocutaneous rash that involves most of his body,including his palms and soles. Questioning reveals that he is a merchant marine who several months previously had an encounter with a prostitute in Southeast Asia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent of this rash? | [
"Herpes simplex I",
"Herpes simplex II",
"HIV",
"Treponema pallidum"
] | D | The rash described is that of secondary syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum. Involvement of palms and soles by a rash is unusual, and secondary syphilis should come to mind. Not all patients with secondary syphilis have a severe form of the rash, and consequently some cases are missed. Primary syphilis takes the form of a painless, button-like mass called chancres. Teiary syphilis, which is now rare, has a propensity for involving the aoa and central nervous system and can also cause "gummas" (granulomatous-like lesions) in many sites, notably including liver and bone. Herpes simplex I usually causes perioral Herpes simplex II usually causes genital vesicular lesions. HIV does not itself cause a rash, although coinfection with other organisms can result in a rash. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 37. Spirochetes. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior orbital fissure syndrome involves which of the following cranial nerves? | [
"II, III, IV, V and VI",
"Ill, IV, and first division of V and VI",
"VII and VIII",
"IX, X and XI"
] | B | Ans. b (III, IV, and first division of V and VI) (Ref: Harrison 18thJCh. 26)Major Openings of the Skull BaseApertureContentsCribriform plateOlfactory nerves, ethmoid arteriesOptic canalOptic nerve-sheath complex; Ophthalmic arterySuperior orbital fissureCranial nerves III, IV, VI and VI (ophthalmic nerve), Superior ophthalmic veinForamen ovaleV3 (mandibular nerve)Foramen rotundumV2 (maxillary nerve)Foramen spinosumMiddle meningeal arteryVidian canalVidian artery, Vidian nerveCarotid canal^Internal carotid arterySympathetic plexusJugular foramen, pars nervosa; CN IX and inferior petrosal sinusJugular foramen, pars vascularisInternal jugular vein; CN X and XIStylomastoid foramenCN VIIHypoglossal canalCN XIISupraorbital Fissure:Structures that pass through it:# Lacrimal nerve# Frontal nerve# Trochlear nerve# Superior branch of oculomotor nerve# Nasociliary nerve# Inferior branch of oculomotor nerve# Abducent nerve# Ophthalmic veins# Sympathetic nerves Cavernous Sinus content and veins drain with Rule of 3# 3 Afferent veins: Sphenoparietal sinus (Vault veins), Supf Middle cerebral Vein (Brain), Ophthalmic vein# 3 Efferent Veins: Superior petrosal sinus, Inferior Petrosal Sinus, Communicating vein to pterygoid plexus# 3 Contents; Cranial Nerves (III, IV, V1, V2 & VI)# 3 Areas Drain into it: Vault Bones, Brain (Cerebral Hemisphere), Orbit# 3 Nerves: Motor (III, IV,VI),Sensory (V1,V2), Sympathetic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Blount's disease? | [
"Genu valgum",
"Genu varum",
"Coxa vara",
"Coxa valga"
] | B | Ans. B. Genu varumBLOUNT'S DISEASEa. It is named after Walter Putnam Blountb. It is also known as: Tibia vara, Mau-Nilsonne Syndrome, Blount-Barber syndrome, Erlacher-Blount syndrome, Osteochondrosis deformans tibiaec. It is a growth disorder of the tibia resulting in progressive bow leg deformityd. It is also associated with internal tibial torsion and genu recurvatume. It is mainly seen in children and adolescentsf. Treatment is by bracing and/or surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24-year-old woman delivers a 3.5-kg baby and begins breastfeeding her infant. The patient presents 2 weeks later with a fever of 38degC (101degF). Physical examination shows no abnormal vaginal discharge or evidence of pelvic pain but does reveal redness on the lower side of the left breast. The patient stops nursing the infant temporarily, but the symptoms persist, and the entire breast becomes swollen and painful. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Acute mastitis",
"Chronic mastitis",
"Duct ectasia",
"Granulomatous mastitis"
] | A | Acute mastitis is a bacterial infection of the breast. It may be seen at any age, but by far the most frequent setting is in the postpartum lactating or involuting breast. This disorder is usually secondary to obstruction of the duct system by inspissated secretions. The other choices are not typically associated with fever.Diagnosis: Acute mastitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secretory proteins are synthesized in | [
"Cytoplasm",
"Endoplasmic Reticulum",
"First in cytoplasm and then in Endoplasmic Reticulum",
"First in Endoplasmic Reticulum and then in cytoplasm"
] | B | ER is a network of interconnecting membranes enclosing channels or cisternae, that are continuous from outer nuclear envelope to outer plasma membrane. This will be very prominent in cells actively synthesizing proteins,e.g.immunoglobulin secreting plasma cells. The proteins , glycoproteins and lipoproteins are synthesised in the ER. REFERENCE:DM.VASUDEVAN.Textbook. SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO 12 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Efferent from cerebellum is through | [
"Granule cells",
"Golgi cells",
"Purkinje cells",
"Basket cells"
] | C | The outgoing Purkinje axons constitute the sole output from the cerebellar coex and exe an inhibitory influence on intracerebellar nuclei.granule cells are the only intrinsic neurons. of cerebellum which is excitatory.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 116) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colon carcinogenesis is associated with all except | [
"APC",
"kRAS",
"B-catenin",
"None"
] | D | Etiology & Risk factors of Ca Colon 1)DIETARY FACTORS Low intake of dietary fibres High intake of carbohydrates and fat Diet deficient of cruciferous vegetables and vitamin A 2) PROTECTIVE EFFECT OF ASPIRIN 3) HNPCC 4) RISK FACTORS- age above 50, family history of colonic cancer, prior colorectal cancer, inflammatory bowel disorders, physical inactivity, smoking, alcohol consumption 5) GENETIC PATHWAY APC-beta catenin pathway K-RAS mutation SMAD2 and SMAD4 mutation Mutation of p53 Activation of telomerase Microsatellite instability pathway GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK FIRST EDITION PAGE: 418,419 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigor mortis first sets in | [
"Face muscles",
"Muscles of eyelid",
"Neck muscles",
"Small muscles of hand"
] | B | (B) Muscles of eyelid # Rigor mortis first appears in the involuntary muscle - Heart first affected.> In the voluntary muscle - Eyelid muscles appears first.> It first appearance in involuntary and then in voluntary muscles.> It is not dependent on the nerve supply as it also develops in the paralysed limbs.# Rigor mortis is tested by: Attempting to lift the eyelids. Depressing the jaw. Gently bending the neck and various joints of the body. Sequence: Eyelid - face neck and trunk - upper extremity - legs - small muscles of fingers & toes. In India rigor mortis commences in 2- 3 hours, the time since death would be within about 12-24 hours. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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