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Diarrhoea is a feature of all the following except:
[ "Pellagra", "Diabetes mellitus", "Antibiotic therapy", "Steroids" ]
D
Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 405 for a, p. 229 for b p. 228 for c
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A 60-year-old woman with small cell carcinoma of the lung notes rounding of her face, upper truncal obesity, and muscle weakness. Physical examination reveals thin, wrinkled skin, abdominal striae, and multiple purpuric skin lesions. The patient's blood pressure is 175/95 mm Hg. Laboratory studies will likely show elevated serum levels of which of the following hormones?
[ "Aldosterone", "Coicotropin", "Epinephrine", "Prolactin" ]
B
- Given features point towards cushing syndrome - This patient most likely has paraneoplastic condition associated with coicotropin (ACTH)-producing small cell carcinoma of lung - Clinical manifestations of hypercoisolism in patients with Cushing syndrome are Emotional disturbances Moon facies Osteoporosis Hypeension Upper truncal obesity (Buffalo hump) Amenorrhea Muscle weakness, thin wrinkled skin, purpura Glucose intolerance, poor wound healing and skin ulcers. -ACTH producing cells having basophilic cytoplasm changes from granular to homogenous due to accumulation of intermediate filaments in cytoplasm : Crooke hyaline change - None of the other options given are associated with Cushing syndrome.
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In type - II respiratory failure, there is :
[ "Low pO2 and low pCO2", "Low pO2 and high pCO2", "Normal pO2 and high pCO2", "Low pO2 and normal pCO2" ]
B
Answer is B (Low PO2 and high PCO2): Type II respiratory failure (or pump failure) is characterized by decreased Pa02 and increased PaCO2 as a result of alveolar hypoventilation. There is a fall in minute ventilation which causes a rise in PaCO2 and fall in Pa02. The alveolar aerial gradient (PaO2 is normal). Type I Respiratory failure Hypoxemia with decreased PaCO2 Type II Respiratory failure Hypoxemia with increased PaCO2
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Which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure?
[ "Mivacurium", "Atracurium", "Suxamethonium", "Vecuronium" ]
C
(C) Suxamethonium # Suxamethonium chloride (Succinylcholine, Sscoline, or colloquially as Suxa) is a medication widely used in emerger cy medicine and anesthesia to induce muscle relaxation, usually to make endotracheal intubation possible> Side effects:> Side effects include muscle pains, acute rhabdomyolysis with hyperkalemia, transient ocular hypertension and increased ICT, constipation and changes in cardiac rhythm including bradycardia, cardiac arrest, and ventricular dysrhythmias.> In patients with neuromuscular disease or burns, a single injection of suxamethonium can lead to massive release of potassium from skeletal muscles with cardiac arrest.
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Common pathological changes seen in kidney in benign hypeension are:
[ "Fibronoid necrosis", "Microaneurysm", "Hyaline aeriosclerosis", "Thining of walls" ]
C
Answer is C (Hyaline Aeriosclerosis): Benign hypeension is characterized by hyaline aeriosclerosis.
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Glossopyrosis refers to:
[ "Painful tongue.", "Burning tongue.", "Paralysis of tongue.", "Black colored tongue." ]
B
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A person with prolonged usage of contact lenses presented with irritation of the left eye. After examination a diagnosis of keratitis was made and corneal scrapings revealed the growth of pseudomonas aeruginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of antimicrobial resistance in these isolated pseudomonas aeruginosa strains –
[ "Ability to transfer resistance genes from adjacent commonsal flora", "Improper contact lens hygiene", "Frequent and injudicious use of topical antibiotics", "Ability of pseudomonas to produce biofilms" ]
D
Antibiotic resistance to Pseudomonas Aeroginosa strains from contact lens wearer largely results from the ability of these strains to form 'slime enclosed microcolonies' or biofilms. Biofilm grown cells show increased resistance to biocides and antibiotics through multiple resistance mechanisms.
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Psammoma body found in -
[ "Papillary Ca thyroid", "Follicular Ca thyroid", "Medullary Ca thyroid", "Anaplastic Ca thyroid" ]
A
Ans is 'a' i.e. Papillary Ca Psammoma bodies found in: Ref. Papillary Ca of thyroid 8/e p1122 (7/e p1178) Serous cystadenoma of ovary 8/e 1044 (7/e p1096) Meningioma 8/e p1338 (7/e p1409) Papillary type of Renal cell carcinoma 8/e p966 (7/e p1018) Pitutary adenoma (Prolactinoma) 8/e p1103 (7e p1160) Appendiceal carcinoid (rarely) 7/e p868
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Kviem siltzbach test is used in the diagnosis of-
[ "Tuberculosis", "Sarcoidosis", "Histoplasmosis", "Leishmaniasis" ]
B
Ans, is 'b' i.e., Sarcoidosis Kveim-Siltzbath skin testo It is a useful intradermal diagnostic testo The antigen is prepared from involved lymph node or spleen is injected intradermallyo In a positive test, nodular lesions appears in 3-6 weeks at the inoculation site, which on microscopic examination shows presence of noncaseating granulomas (sarcoidosis like lesions)o The kviem siltzbath material is no longer available and with the use of transbronchial biopsy to obtain lung parenchym for diagnostic purposes, the kviem siltzbath test is only of historic interest.Laboratory anomaliesCommon abnormalities in the blood includeo Lymphocytopenia; mild eosinophiliao Increased E.S.R., hyperglobulinemiao Elevated level of ACEo False positive tests for rheumatoid factor or ANA'so Hypercalcemia or an elex'ated 24 hr urine calcium levelo The lung function abnormalties of sarcoidosis are typical for interstitial Lung diseaseQ and include decreased lung volumes with and diffusing capacity with a normal or supernormal ratio of the forced expiratory volume in is to the forced vital capacity.Also knowo Sarcoidosis of the lung is primarily an interstitial lung disease in which the in flammatory' process involves the alveoli, small bronchi and small blood vessesls.o Pleura is involved in 1-5% of cases almost always manifesting as unilateral pleural effusionsQ. The effusions usually clear within a few week.o Pneumothorax of hydropneumothorax is observed in sarcoidosis but is very' rare.
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Eruption of Maxillary Canine occur at
[ "8-9 year", "10-11 year", "11-12 year", "15-16 year" ]
C
null
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Cataract in galactosemia is caused by accumulation of:
[ "Sorbitol", "Galactitol", "Galactose", "None of the above" ]
B
Inability to metabolize galactose occurs in the galactosemia, which may be caused by inherited defects of galactokinase, uridyl transferase, or 4-epimerase, though deficiency of uridyl transferase is the best known. Galactose is a substrate for aldose reductase, forming galactitol, which accumulates in the lens of the eye, causing cataract. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 21.
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The nerve supply of nail bed of index finger is ?
[ "Superficial br of radial nerve", "Deep br of radial nerve", "Median nerve", "Ulnar nerve" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Median nerve
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All are impoant etiological diagnostic tests in a case of peripheral neuropathy, EXCEPT:
[ "HSV serology", "Cryoglobulins", "Westornblot for lyme disease", "CMV titer" ]
A
Impoant initial tests in case of peripheral neuropathy: Serum electrolytes, renal and hepatic function, fasting blood glucose (FBS), HbA1c, urinalysis, Thyroid function tests, B12, folate, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), Rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibodies, serum protein electrophoresis, and urine for BJP. Patients with mononeuropathy multiplex should have : Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA), cryoglobulins, hepatitis serology, Western blot for Lyme disease, HIV, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) titer. HSV has not been given as an etiological test in peripheral neuropathy. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-3450
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Non-erosive arthritis is characteristic of:
[ "SLE", "Psoriasis", "RA", "Gout" ]
A
Ans: A (SLE) Ref: Harrison s Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition, pg 2728Explanation:SLE causes non erosive polyarthritis of the hands, wrist & knees.Can cause avascular necrosis of joints increased by steroid use.Psoriasis, RA & gout cause erosive arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis (PsA):DIP involved, nail changes ( pitting, ridging, onycholysis, yellow discoloration, hyperkeratosis) dactylitisAsymmetrical oligoarthritisSymmetrical polyarthritisArthritis mutilans with destruction and telescoping of digitsCASPAR criteria used to diagnose PsATreatment: Anti-TNF-a- infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, golimumabAnti T cell- AlefaceptNewer agent- UstekinumabMethotrexate, sulfasalazine, leflunomideRheumatoid Arthritis (RA):MCP. PIP, &MTP involvedJuxta-articular osteopenia- earliest radiological findingACR & EULAR revised criteria used to diagnose RATreatment: Anti TNF- a- Infliximab. Etanercept. adalimumab, golimumab, certolizumabAbatacept, anakinra, rituximab, tocilizumabGouty arthritis:Acute, monoarthritis, 1st MTP involvedPrecipitated by diet, trauma, surgery, alcohol, stressJoint aspirate for needle shaped MSU crystals, birefringent with negative elongation. TC 2-60 thousandS.uric acid can be low /normal during attackAcute attack-NSAlDS, Colchicine, steroids, anakinraHypouricemic drugs- Allopurinol, febuxostat. Rasburicase. Pegloticase
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G-CSF and GMCSF in haematopoisis causes :
[ "Leucocytosis", "Erythrocytosis", "Leucopenia", "Thrombocytosis" ]
A
A i.e. Leucocytosis
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The general test for detection of carbohydrates
[ "Iodine test", "Molisch test", "Barfoed test", "Osazone test" ]
B
Dehydration When treated with concentrated sulfuric acid, monosaccharides undergo dehydration with an elimination of 3 water molecules. Thus hexoses give hydroxymethyl furfural while pentoses give furfural on dehydration. These furfural s can condense with phenolic compounds (a-naphthol) to form coloured products. This is the chemical basis of the popular Molisch test. In case of oligo- and polysaccharides, they are first hydrolysed to monosaccharides by acid, and this is followed by dehydration. The test solution is combined with a small amount of Molisch's reagent (a-naphthol dissolved in ethanol) in a test tube. After mixing, a small amount of concentrated sulfuric acid is slowly added down the sides of the sloping test-tube, without mixing, to form a layer. A positive reaction is indicated by appearance of a purple red ring at the interface between the acid and test layers Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 17
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In acute starvation, the feeling of intense hunger lasts-
[ "12-24 hours", "24-36 hours", "36-48 hours", "48-60 hours" ]
C
Starvation is the result of actual deprivation of food or administration of unsuitable food. Starvation may be:- Acute (complete): Sudden and complete storage of food. Chronic (partial): Gradual deficient supply of food. An acute starvation, the reserve carbohydrates, then fat and last the proteins are used up. Feeling of hunger with hunger pain lasts for 30-48 hours. After 4-5 days, there is emaciation, absorption fat and loss of weight (7-8 kg in 10 days)
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1750. Viral infection with haemolysis is seen in -
[ "Hepatitis-B", "Hepatitis-C", "Prolong fever", "Hepatiitis-A" ]
A
The hepatitis B virus consists of a core containing DNA and a DNA polymerase enzyme needed for virus replication. The core of the virus is surrounded by surface protein (Fig. 22.24). The virus, also called a Dane paicle, and an excess of its surface protein (known as hepatitis B surface antigen, HBsAg) circulate in the blood. Humans are the only source of infection. Hepatitis B is one of the most common causes of chronic liver disease and hepatocellular carcinoma worldwide. Approximately one-third of the world's population have serological evidence of past or current infection with hepatitis B and approximately 350-400 million people are chronic HBsAg carriers. Hepatitis B may cause an acute viral hepatitis; however, acute infection is often asymptomatic, paicularly when acquired at bih. Many individuals with chronic hepatitis B are also asymptomatic. The risk of progression to chronic liver disease depends on the source and timing of infection (Box 22.36). Veical transmission from mother to child in the perinatal period is the most common cause of infection worldwide and carries the highest risk of ongoing chronic infection. In this setting, adaptive immune responses to HBV may be absent initially, with apparent immunological tolerance. Several mechanisms contribute towards this: * Firstly, the introduction of antigen in the neonatal period is tolerogenic. * Secondly, the presentation of such antigen within the liver, as described above, promotes tolerance; this is paicularly evident in the absence of a significant innate or inflammatory response. * Finally, very high loads of antigen may lead to so-called 'exhaustion' of cellular immune responses. The state of tolerance is not permanent, however, and may be reversed as a result of therapy, or through spontaneous changes in innate responses, such as interferon alpha (IFN-a) and NK cells, accompanied by host-mediated immunopathology. Chronic hepatitis can lead to cirrhosis or hepatocellular , haemolysis carcinoma, usually after decades of infection (Fig. 22.25). Chronic HBV infection is a dynamic process that can be divided into five phases (Box 22.37); these are not necessarily sequential, however, and not all patients will go through all phases. It is impoant to remember that the virus is not directly cytotoxic to cells; rather, it is an immune response to viral antigens displayed on infected hepatocytes that initiates liver injury. This explains why there may be very high levels of viral replication but little hepatocellular damage during the 'immune- tolerant' phase Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 875
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Albumin is synthesized by:
[ "Liver", "Kidney", "Muscle", "Spleen" ]
A
Quick Review of plasma proteins Most abundant plasma protein-Albumin Least abundant plasma protein-Alpha-1 Globulin Plasma protein with fastest electrophoretic mobility-prealbumin (Transthyetin) followed by albumin. Plasma protein with least electrophoretic mobility-Gamma Globulin Most plasma proteins are synthesized in the liver except immunoglobulins by plasma cells of B Lymphocyte lineage Most Plasma proteins are Glycoproteins except Albumin, which is a simple protein. Many plasma proteins exhibit polymorphism. They are: α1-antitrypsin Haptoglobin Transferrin Ceruloplasmin Immunoglobulins. Key concept: Like most of the plasma proteins albumin is also synthesised in liver.
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NOT a definitive sign of pregnancy:
[ "Fetal skeleton on X-ray", "Fetal hea sounds", "Ultrasound examination", "Amenorrhea" ]
D
Amenorrhea can be due to many reasons including pregnancy but also PCOS, Tuberculosis, Hypothalamic causes like Kallman's & Sheehan's syndrome , Pseudocyesis etc Remaining 3 are the definite signs of Pregnancy
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Slit lamp examination helps in examination of-
[ "Anterior 2/3rd of choroid", "Anterior l/3rd of choroid", "Posterior l/3rd of choroid", "Posterior capsule" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Posterior capsule o Slit-lamp bimicroscopy is very useful in the diagnosis of eye diseases,o It should routinely be performed in almost all diseases of the eye.o Following structures are examined -Eyelids and lashesConjunctivaCorneaAnterior chamberIrisLens : Anterior capsule, cortex, nucleus, posterior capsularAnterior vitreous
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All are stop codon except?
[ "UAA", "UGA", "UAG", "UCA" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., UCA Stop codon (or termination codon)o In the genetic code, a stop codon is a nucleotide triplet within messenger RNA that signals a termination of translation into proteins.o Most codons in messenger RNA (from DNA) correspond to the addition of an amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain, which may ultimately become a protein. Stop codons signal the termination of this processo In the standard genetic code, there are three different stop codons:A) in RNA:i) UAG ("amber")ii) UAA ("ochre")iii) UGA ("opal")B) in DNA:i) TAG ("amber")ii) TAA ("ochre")iii) TGA ("opal" or "umber")
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Baby 'O' positive, blood group, mother Rh negative, cord bilirubin 7 mg%, conjugated 1 now treatment is -
[ "Nothing", "Stop breast feeding for 48 hours", "Continue breast feeding and phototherapy", "Stop breast feed and prepare for exchange blood transfusion" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' I.e., Stop breast feed and prepare for exchange blood transfusion Treatment of Neonatal JaundiceIn Preterm BabyWeightPhotothegrpyExchange< 1 kgStart within 24 hourTSB 10-12 mg1- 1.5 kg7-9 mg/dl12-15 mg/dl1.5-2 kg10-12 mg/dl15-18 mg/dl2-2.5 kg13-15 mg/dl18-20 mg/dlo In hemolytic disease, immediate exchange transfusion indicationCord bilirubin is > 4.5 mg/dl and Hb < 11 gm%.Bilirubin rising > 1 mg/dlfhour despite phototherapy.Hb level 11-13 gm/dl and bilirubin rising more than 0.5 mg/dl/hour.Bilirubin is rising inspite of phototherapy.
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Acetic acid staining of cervix shows following except:
[ "Squamous dysplasia", "Cervical carcinoma in situ", "Cervical polyp", "Cervical dysplasia" ]
C
null
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Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is
[ "60", "50", "90", "40" ]
C
Chicken pox Agent- Human alpha herpes virus 3 Primary infection causes chicken pox Recovery from primary infection is commonly followed by establishment of latent infection in cranial nerves, sensory ganglia, spinal dorsal root ganglia When the cell mediated immunity wanes, the virus may reactivate in 10-30% cases Incubation period -15 days Distribution of rash:- Centripetal; Axilla affected; Rash seen mostly over flexor aspect Characteristics of rash:- Superficial; Unilocular-dew drops like appearance Rash pleomorphic- different stages of rash evident at one time An area of inflammation seen around vesicle Evolution of rash : very rapid Scab begins to form 4-7 days after the rash appears Fever- temperature rises with each fresh crop of rash Secondary attack rate-90% Reference: Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 23rd edition; Page no.144
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In a patient with class III facial profile one would think of which type of genioplasty
[ "Reduction genioplasty", "Advancement genioplasty", "Straightening genioplasty", "Rotational genioplasty" ]
A
null
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O2 is given during anaesthesia to prevent-
[ "Pain", "Hypoxia", "Hypercapnia", "Hypotension" ]
B
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Therapeutic drug monitoring is not needed for?
[ "Propanolol", "Phenytoin", "Piroxicam", "Prazosin" ]
A
Beta blockers - used for treating HTN drug response- change in BP can be measured easily - so no need for TDM or therapeutic monitoring Ref; KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition (page no;56 )
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Mode of transmisstion of Q fever -
[ "Bite of infected louse", "Bite of infected tick", "Inhalation of aerosol", "Bite of infected mice" ]
C
null
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Not obtained from plant source -
[ "Cobalamine", "Riboflavin", "Thiamine", "VitaminA" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cobalamine o Vitamin B12 (cobalamin or cynocobalmin) is present only in food of animal origin,o Other three vitamins can be taken from plant source.NameActive formSourcesDaily requirementsFunctionsDeficiency manifestationsFAT SOLUBLE VITAMIN SVitamin A (Ratinol)Retinol, Retinal, Retinoic acidFish liver oils milk, milk products. Green leafy vegetables, carrots, yellow and red fruits800-1000 retinol equivalentsRetinal and retinol are involved in vision. Retinoic acid regulates the expression of gene during growth and development. AntioxidantNight blindness xerophthalmia formation of Bitot's spots, dry, rough and scally skin.Retardation of growth in children.Vitamin D (Cholecatci- ferol)l, 25-Dihydroxy- cholecaiciferolCod liver oiL sunlight induced synthesis of vitamin D3. in skin egg yolk200-400 IURegulation of the plasma! of calcium and phosphorus, calcification of boneRickets (in children) Osteomalacia (in adults)Vitamin E (a-Tocopherol)a-tocopherolSoya and com oils, germ oil, fish oil. eggs, alfalfa8-10 tngNatural antioxidant and acts as a scavenger of free radicals. Protects the RBCs from hemolysis. Prevents peroxidation of PUFA in cell membraneHemolytic anemia. Retrolental fibroplasia (RLF) in premature infantsVitamin KPhylloquinone (Vitamin K1) Menaquinone (Vitamin K2)Green leafy vegetables, tomatoes, cheese, meat egg yolk70-140 gRequired for activation of blood dotting factors Required! for g carboxylation of glutamic acid residue in clotting and oseocalcin proteinsHemorrhagic disorder, increased clotting timeSameActive formSourcesDaily-requirementsFunctionsDeficiency manifestationsWATER SOLUBLE VITAMINSThiamine (Vitamin B1)TPPCereals, meat, ruts green vegetables, eggs1.0-1.5 mgCoenzyme for oxidative decarboxylation and transketolase reactionsBeriberi, Wernicke Korsakoff syndromeRiboflavin (Vitamin B2)FMN, FADYeast, germinating, seeds green leafy vegetalbes, milk, eggs, liver, meat1.3-1.7 mgCoenzyme for oxidation reduction reactionsCheilosis, glossitis, dermatitis vascularization of corneaNiacin (Vitamin B3)NAD+ and NADP+Yeast, legumes, liver, meat15-20 mgCoenzyme for oxidation reduction reactionsPellagraPantothenic acid (Vitamin B5)Cocnzyme A, (CoA-SH)Wheat germs, cereals, yeast, liver, eggs5-10 mgAcyl carrierBurning feet syndromePyriodoxin (Vitamin B6)PLPYeast, unrefined cereals, pulses, vegetables, meat, fish, egg yolk1.6-2 mgCoenzyme for transami- nation, decarboxylation, non-oxidative deamination, trans-sulfuration reactionsEpileptic convulsions dermatitis, hypochronic microcytic anemiaBiotin (Vitamin B7.)Biocytin (Enzyme bound biotin)Liver, kidney, egg yolk vegetables150-300 gCoenzyme for carboxylation reactionsRare dermatitisFolic acid (Vitamin B9)THF (Tclrahydrofolic acid)Green leafy vegetables, liver, yeast200 gCarrier of one carbon unit. Synthesis of methionine, purines and pyrimidinesMegaloblastic anemia. Neural tube defectsCynocobalamin (Vitamin B12)Methylcobalamin.Deoxyadeno- sylcobalaminOnly animal origin, meat, egg, liver, ftsh3 gCoenzyme for reach ns: Homocysteine to Methionine. Methylmalonyl-CoA to SuccinvI-CoAPernicious anemia Megaloblastic anemia Neuropathy (dementia) Methylmalonic aciduriaAscorbic acid (Vitamin C)Ascorbic acidCitrus fruits, Amla, leafy vegetables, tomatoes60-70 mgAntioxidant, involved in hydroxy lation reactins in the synthesis collagen, steroid hormones, adrenaline, etc. facilitates absorption of iron from intestine.Scurvy
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Post exposure immunization is given in -a) Rabiesb) Pertussisc) Measlesd) Yellow fever
[ "b", "ac", "ab", "bd" ]
B
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What does MHC class III genes encode?
[ "Interleukin 2", "Beta 2 microglobulin", "Tumor necrosis factor", "Complement component C3" ]
C
MHC class III genes encodes proteins of classic and alternate complement pathways (C2 and C4, properdin factor B), soluble proteins, tumor necrosis factors (TNF alpha, beta), HSP 70 and the 21 hydroxylase producing gene. Genes coding for Class III MHC molecules are located in the class III region on chromosome 6, between HLA B locus and the HLA DR. The class III molecules are not histocompatibility antigens but are ceain soluble molecules such as complement components and tissue necrosis factor. Ref: Textbook of Immunology By Basir, Pages 93-4.
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Scolpolamine used mostly in:
[ "Hyperemesis gravidarum", "Vomiting", "Constipation", "Motion sickness" ]
D
Ans. (d) Motion sicknessRef. Katzung's pharma 12th ed. /1100* Scopolamine (hyoscine) is a prototypic muscarinic receptor antagonist, and is one of the best agents for the prevention of motion sickness.* Scopolamine has many effects in the body including decreasing the secretion of fluids, slowing the stomach and intestines, and dilation of the pupils.* Scopolamine is also used to relieve nausea, vomiting, and dizziness associated with motion sickness and recovery from anesthesia and surgery.
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Extensive spasm of the muscles of deglutition and respiration is referred to as:
[ "Bulbar tetanus.", "Cephalic tetanus.", "Chronic tetanus.", "Acute tetanus." ]
A
This condition can also result in the death of the patient due to spasm of the muscles of respiration.
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True about the epidemiology of influenza
[ "Incubation period 10-12 hrs", "Extra human reservoir not seen", "Pandemics occur", "Asymptomatic see rarely" ]
C
The incubation period is 18-72 hours.Major reservoir of influenza viruses exists in animals and birdsOccur in pandemics every 10-40 years.During pandemics, attack rates tend to be high 5-10% in adults, 20-30% in children.Infects all ages and sexes. Park 23e pg: 147
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A 25-year-old man presents with 3 months of polyuria and increased thirst. The patient suffered trauma to the base of the skull in a motorcycle accident 4 months ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows polyuria but no evidence of hematuria, glucosuria, or proteinuria. The pathogenesis of polyuria in this patient is most likely caused by a lesion in which of the following areas of the brain?
[ "Adenohypophysis", "Brain stem", "Mammillothalamic tract", "Neurohypophysis" ]
D
- Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of central diabetes insipidus. Central diabetes insipidus -May be caused by head trauma that damages posterior lobe of pituitary (neurohypophysis) which interrupts the secretion of ADH. - Decrease in ADH -Polyuria & | thirst - Associated with brain tumors, paicularly craniopharyngiomas.
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Which of the following drug is active selectively against Anaerobic and Microaerophilic organisms ?
[ "Clindamycin", "Tetracycline", "Metronidazole", "Aminoglycosides" ]
C
Metronidazole undergoes reduction reaction by receiving single electron from Microaerophilic and Anaerobes pathogens which conves into a highly reactive Nitroradical Anion and damages the pathogen DNA . Metronidazole manifests antibacterial activity against all Anaerobic cocci; Anaerobic gram-negative bacilli(incl.Bacteroides sp.); Anaerobic spore-forming gram-positive bacilli (such as Clostridium); and Microaerophilic bacteria such as Helicobacter and Campylobacter sp. So Metronidazole is less active against Aerobic organisms because of the lack of Radical-mediated mechanism. Nonsporulating gram-positive bacilli often are resistant, as they are aerobic and facultatively anaerobic bacteria.
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A 45-years old hypertensive male presented with sudden onset most severe headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn't have any focal neurological deficit. His CT scan shoed blood in the Sylvain fissure. The probable diagnosis is:
[ "Meningitis", "Ruptured aneurysm", "Hypertensive bleed", "Stroke" ]
B
Ans. (b) Rupture aneurysm* No focal neurological deficit* Sudden excruciating headache (Thunderclap headache)* Neck Stiffness* Blood in Sylvian fissureThese are the features of Berry aneurysm rupture.
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Which of the following interstitial lung diseases is not associated with smoking?
[ "Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis", "Respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial lung disease", "Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis", "Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia" ]
D
Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis, respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial lung disease, pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis, Goodpasture's disease, and pulmonary alveolar proteinosis are almost always associated with cigarette smoking. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP), or cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, is often an idiopathic syndrome that presents in the fifth to sixth decade of life with dyspnea on exeion, cough, fevers, malaise, and weight loss. The cause in most instances is unknown, although BOOP may occur concomitantly with primary pulmonary disorders as a nonspecific reaction to lung injury. BOOP usually responds to steroid therapy, which induces clinical recovery in two-thirds of patients. It is not associated with previous tobacco use.
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Thalidomide is drug of choice for -
[ "Lepra I reaction", "Lepra II reaction", "Both", "Nerve abscess" ]
B
Ans-B
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True about Mosquito preventive nets are all except
[ "Hole size <0.0475", "150 holes per square inch", "Best pattern in circular", "There should be no rent" ]
C
Mosquito Nets Material : White Best pattern : Rectangular net Hole/ rent : Not even a single one should be present Size of each hole : <0.0475 inch diameter. Number of holes /sq. Inch : 150 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 810
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Nohern blot is used for the separation of which of the following?
[ "mRNA", "DNA", "Protein", "tRNA" ]
A
Nohern blotting is used to estimate the gene expression estimating the expression of mRNA.
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Of the total amount of saliva secreted by all the salivary glands, about 60% is secreted by the
[ "Parotid glands", "Sublingual glands", "Submandibular glands", "None of the above" ]
C
null
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Treatment of transverse lies at labour is
[ "Artificial rupture of membrane", "Oxytocin infusion", "Caesarean section", "Forceps delivery" ]
C
(Caesarean section): Ref: 393, 397-DTRANSVERSE LIE: - When the long axis of the fetus lies perpendicularly to the maternal spine or centralized uterine axis it is called transverse lies* In dorso-posterior, chance of fetal extension is common with increased risk of arm prolopse, left one being common than right* Dorso-anterior is the commonest (60%) positionManagement of Transverse lie at labourEarly labourLate labour* External cephalic version* Caesarian section is the preferred method of delivery, if version fails or contraindicated* Baby alive - caesarean section prefer* Internal version - Not only it might inflect injury to the uterus (rupture uterus) but the fetal mortality is increased to the extent of about 50%In modem obstetric practice internal version is not recommended except in the case of second twin* Baby dead - caesarean section is prefer.* There is no mechanism of labour in transverse lie
train
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Which of the following antitussive can lead to hallucinations
[ "Morphine", "Dextromethorphan", "Diphenhydramine", "Aprepitant" ]
B
Dextromethorphan is a NMDA antagonist used for Mild cough, which can lead to hallucination & addiction.
train
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Macrosomia is a
[ "Large size baby", "Big mouth", "Large head", "Large tongue" ]
A
Macrosomia:- A condition where a baby is large before bihFactors causing macrosomia:Mother having diabetesMother having gestational diabetesObese mother(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 777, 897 - 899)
train
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False about Cherubism
[ "Unilocular lesion", "Bilateral", "Presence of Giant cell", "Delayed eruption of Permanent teeth" ]
A
null
train
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A female patient Chandani develops chest pain which is not associated with exercise and chest auscultation shows multiple non ejection clicks. The investigation which is used to diagnose the disease is :
[ "Echocardiography", "Pyrophosphate scan", "Thallium 201 scan", "ECG" ]
A
Answer is A (Echocardiography) The investigation of choice in MVP is echocardiography. Two dimensional echocardiography is paicularly effective in identifying the abnormal position and prolapse of mitral valve leaflets.
train
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Antigen presentating cells are which of the following
[ "Astrocytes", "Endothelial cells", "Epithelial cells", "Langerhans cells" ]
B
Ref Robbins 9/e p195 epithelial and Langerhans cells is also the answer Professional antigen presenting cells(APCs) are immune cells that specialize in presentingan antigen to a T-cell. The main types of professional APCs are dendritic cells (DC), macrophages, and Bcells Other APC are endothelial cells, Langerhans cells, epithelial cells
train
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All is exempted from oral testimony except-
[ "Dying declaration", "Medical evidence of injury as witness", "Chemical examination report", "Evidence of medical expert in lower court" ]
B
Oral testimony is not required in:- Dying declaration. Deposition of medical witness taken in lower court. Evidence given by a witness in a previous judicial proceedings. Expert opinion expressed in a treatise (ex. book). Report of a certain government scientific experts eg. chemical examiner, assistant chemical examiner, chief inspector of explosive, director of finger print bureau. Statement by persons who cannot be called as witness (the person is either dead, untraceable or has become incapable of giving evidence or cannot be called without unreasonable delay or expense to the court).
train
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Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for
[ "X-rays", "Neutrons and alpha paicles", "Electrons", "Gamma rays" ]
B
Ionizing radiation acts by two methods: Direct and IndirectDirect action is radiation directly causing DNA damage; example: neutrons and alpha paiclesIndirect action is radiation causing free radical production which acts on DNA; example: photons and gamma raysReference: Khan Physics of Radiation therapy; 5th edition
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A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end tidal CO, has decreased abruptly by 155 mm Hg. What is the probable diagnosis -
[ "Hypothermia", "Pulmonary embolism", "Massive fluid deficit", "Myocardial depression due to anaesthetic agent" ]
B
Ans is 'b' i.e. pulmonary embolism First what is end tidal CO2 - The air exhaled during normal respiration initially consists of the dead space. Then a mixture of dead space air plus alveolar air comes out. The air coming out at the end consists purely of alveolar air. - Measurement of concentration of gases in this alveolar air is useful for analysis. The CO2 concentration in the last 10m1. of tidal volume is known as end tidal CO2 In pulmonary embolism the blood supply to ceain pas of the lung is cut off due to the emboli in circulation. This reduces the exchange of gases between the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries, as a result the conc. of CO2 in alveolar air decreases (CO2 is carried from tissues to the lung by blood and is transferred to the alveoli in exchange of 02). The decrease in alveolar CO2 will lead to decrease in end tidal CO2. Other conditions in which end tidal CO decreases (i) Increase in dead space (decrease in end tidal CO2 in pulmonary embolism can be explained by this also. Pulmonary embolism causes increase in physiological dead space hence decreases the end tidal CO2) (ii) Hyperventilation (iii) Malignant hypeherinia
train
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The 'V' principle of growth is best illustrated by the
[ "Body of Mandible", "Mandibular ramus", "Mandibular syrnphysis", "Spheno-occipital synchondrosis" ]
B
null
train
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Highest maternal mortality is seen in following congenital heart disease
[ "Eisenmenger's syndrome", "Pulmonary stenosis", "Coarctation of aorta", "VSD" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Eisenmenger syndrome This syndrome is secondary pulmonary hypertension that can develop with any cardiac lesion in which pulmonary vascular resistance becomes greater than the systemic vascular resistance and there should also be some right to left shunting. The most common underlying defects are atrial or ventricular septal defects and persistent ductus arteriosus.Patients usually are asymptomatic but eventually pulmonary hypertension becomes severe enough to cause right to left shunting.The prognosis for pregnancy depends upon the severity of pulmonary hypertension.The mortality rate in Eisenmenger's syndrome is 50%. It is the maximum mortality for any cardiovascular disorder in pregnancy. So termination of pregnancy is done in most cases.Maternal tolerance to specific heart conditions;Well toleratedPulmonary stenosisAortic insufficiencyMitral insufficiencyCongenital heart blockWell tolerated if pulmonary hypertension is not presentAtrial septal defectsVentricular septal defectsPatent ductusVariable tolerance depending on the functional capacity of the heartUncomplicated Aortic coarctationAortic stenosisMitral regurgitationAortic regurgitationPoorly tolerated and source of significant problems during pregnancyMitral stenosisPeripartum cardiomyopathyPrimary pulmonary hypertensionEisenmenger's syndromeMarfan's syndrome with dilated aortic rootMetallic valve prosthesisCongenital cyanotic heart diseaseConditions listed in group C if pulmonary hypertension is present.Any class III or IV lesion.
train
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Magistrate inquest can be done by all except
[ "Collector", "Deputy collector", "Tahsildar", "Village officer" ]
D
Magistrate inquest This is conducted by Executive Magistrates They are Collector Deputy collector Revenue Divisional Officer Tahsildar Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 7
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Secondary Oocyte is :
[ "n and N", "n and 2N", "2n and N", "2n and 2N" ]
B
Primary Oocyte – 2n. Secondary Oocyte – n and 2N. Spermatid – n and N.
train
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The commonest complication of Colles fracture
[ "Stiffness of fingers", "Malunion", "Sudeck's osteodystrophy", "Rupture of EPL tendon" ]
A
In Colles fracture, Stiffness of the fingers (commonest) and malunion are common complications. Other complications seen occasionally are - Sudeck&;s osteodystrophy, carpal tunnel syndrome, and rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon. ref : Maheswari 9th edition Pg: 114
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Causative organism of acute salpingitis silently :
[ "Streptococcus", "Neisseria", "Chlamydia", "Ureaplasma" ]
C
chlamydia remains silently without any symptoms or with minimal symptoms in endocervix for a long time before noticed and hence damge with more when compared to gonoccocal infection Reference: Shaw's textbook of Gynaecology 16th edition page no 177
train
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Hansen's bacillus is cultured in:
[ "L J medium", "Robeson's cooked meat medium", "Foot pad of mice", "Sabraud's agar" ]
C
Ans. is. 'c' i. e., Foot pad of mice
train
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which of the following drug causes hyponatremia
[ "fluoxetine", "amitriptilline", "miazapine", "milnacipran" ]
A
fluoxetine is a SSRI it is called as selective serotonin reuptke inhibitor it is used of treatment of depression there are some SSRI that has some specific uses fluoxetine is only drug that is approved for childhood depression fluvoxamine is used in the treatment of OCD dapoxetine is used in the treatment of premature ejaculation there are some side effects for SSRI namely anxiy, insomnia and hyponatremia Ref.kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition , pg no.914
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Warmth sensation is sensed by
[ "Pacinian corpuscle", "Meissneir's corpuscle", "Ruffini end organ", "Krauses end bulb" ]
C
(C) Ruffini end organ # Ruffini's corpuscles are encapsulated sensory nerve endings located in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue and they mediate the sense of warmth.> Lamellar corpuscles or Pacinian corpuscles are one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor. They are nerve endings in the skin, responsible for sensitivity to vibration and pressure.> Vibrational role may be used to detect surface, e.g., rough vs. smooth.Meissner's corpuscles (or tactile corpuscles) are a type of mechanoreceptor.> They are a type of nerve ending in the skin that is responsible for sensitivity to light touch. In particular, they have highest sensitivity (lowest threshold) when sensing vibrations lower than 50 Hertz.> They are rapidly adaptive receptors. The bulboid corpuscles (end-bulbs of Krause) are cutaneous receptors that have the ability to detect low-frequency vibration.
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Degree of mental disability of a child (low IQ), who is able to speak well enough for most communication needs, is classified as:
[ "Moderate", "Mild", "Severe", "Profound" ]
B
Classification of Intellectual Disability
train
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Which of the following is not true about “dialysis dementia syndrome”?
[ "Presenting symptoms are dysarthria, apraxia and slurred speech", "Aluminum chelation with deferoxamine helps in improvement of symptoms", "Seizures and frank psychosis are early symptoms of the disease", "Its incidence has decreased with the use of aluminum free water for dialysis" ]
C
This dialysis encephalopathy has been seen related to use of aluminum in dialysis. Its incidence decreased after the use of aluminum free water for dialysis. Its presenting symptoms are dysarthria, apraxia and slurred speech and myoclonus, seizures and frank psychosis are seen after months of the disease progression. Aluminum chelation with deferoxamine helps in dramatic improvement of symptoms. (Ref : Pg 186 Clinical Practice guidelines JK Trivedi)
train
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Most common neurological disturbance in CKD patients
[ "Seizures", "Dementia", "Peripheral neuropathy", "Restless leg Syndrome" ]
B
M/C - Dementia  and sleep disturbances. Restless leg Syndrome occurs late.
train
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Karsakoff's Psychosis is diagnosed by
[ "Peripheral neuropathy", "Visual hallucination", "Impairment of long term memory", "Seizures" ]
C
C i.e. Impairment of long term memory
train
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Grievous hurt comes under which section of I PC?
[ "Section 319", "Section 320", "Section 324", "Section 326" ]
B
ANSWER: (B) Section 320REF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh Kumar Rao Page 259Section 320: Grievous hurtThe following kinds of hurt only are designated as "grievous"EmasculationPermanent privation of the sight of either eyePermanent privation of the hearing of either earPrivation of any member or jointDestruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or jointPermanent disfiguration of the head or faceFracture or dislocation of a bone or toothAny hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain, or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits,
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True about acute pancreatitis -
[ "Alcohol is the MC cause", "20-25% needs surgical treatment", "CECT is preferred over USG in diagnosis", "Serum Amylase is diagnostic" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e. CECT is preferred over USG in diagnosis Gall stones are the most common cause, alcohol being IInd most common. Ultrasound is often the first imaging investigation but CT is the best imaging investigation. Serum amylase is the most widely used laboratory test because of its simplicity. It lacks the specificity to pancreas and may be raised in a multitude of condition causing high false positive reactions. Moreover there can be cases of acute pancreatitis with normal serum amylase levels. Serum amylase level usually return to normal after 48 to 72 hrs of acute episode, fuher limiting its usefulness. Serum Lipase is now the single best enzyme to measure for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Its level remains elevated for much longer duration of time (7 to 14 days) Other specific serum markers for acute pancreatitis are: - pancreatic isoamylase - trypsinogen One more fact about serum amylase is woh mentioning - There is no significant correlation between the magnitude of serum amylase elevation and severity of pancreatitis, in fact, a milder form of acute pancreatitis is often associated with higher levels of serum amylase as compared with that in a more severe form of the disease. Surgical treatment is needed rarely in acute pancreatitis. The disease is self limited in -85% to 90% of patients and subsides within 3-7 days. Surgical management is needed in cases of necrotic pancreatitis, pancreatic abscess and intervention in gall stone pancreatitis. Grey Turners sign is bluish discolouration seen at the flanks. Bluish discolouration around the umbilicus is known as Cullen's sign.
train
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Doctor who did surgery on wrong side of the pateient is punishable under section ?
[ "S. 304 A IPC", "S. WC", "S. 305 AIPC", "S. 305 IPC" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., S. 304 A IPC Section 304 A IPC Causing death by negligence: Whosoever causes the death of any person, by doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years or with fine, or with both. Doctor doing surgery on the wrong side of the patient is an example of gross inattention and recklessness shown by the doctor and is thus an example of criminal negligence. Criminal negligence is punishable under S. 304 A IPC.
train
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What is the bond between the strands in the given diagram?
[ "Hydrogen bond", "Phosphodiester bond", "Covalent bond", "Glycosidic bond" ]
A
Ans. A. Hydrogen bonda. The bond between the base pairs in the two strands of DNA is hydrogen bond.b. Phospho diester bond is between the nucleotidesc. Glycosidic bond is between Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar
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An 18-year-old presents with a well- circumscribed 2 cm mass in her right breast. The mass is painless and has a rubbery consistency and discrete borders. It appears to move freely through the breast tissue. What is the likeliest diagnosis?
[ "Carcinoma", "Cyst", "Fibroadenoma", "Cystosarcoma phyllodes" ]
C
Fibroadenomas are most often found in teenage girls. They are firm in consistency, clearly defined, and very mobile. The typical feature on palpation is that they appear to move freely through the breast tissue ("breast mouse").
train
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Delirium and dementia can be differentiated by:
[ "Loss of memory", "Apraxia", "Delusion", "Altered sensorium" ]
D
Please remember that the hallmark of delirium is disturbance of consciousness (altered sensorium) whereas in dementia, there is no disturbance of consciousness. DELIRIUM DEMENTIA Onset Sudden onset Insidious onset Consciousness Disturbed NO Disturbance Course Fluctuating Course Progressive course
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Derivative of second pharyngeal arch is
[ "Spheno Mandibular Ligament", "Stylomandibular Ligament", "Anterior Ligament of Malleus", "Stylohyoid Ligament" ]
D
null
train
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All are true about pleomorphic adenoma except:-
[ "Malignant transformation risk is high", "Mixed tumor", "Benign tumor", "Encapsulated" ]
A
Risk of malignant transformation is low (3-5%) in pleomorphic adenoma. Malignant mixed tumors include cancers originating from pleomorphic adenomas, termed carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, and de novo malignant mixed tumors. The risk for malignant transformation of benign pleomorphic adenomas is 1.5% within the first 5 years, but risk increases to 9.5% when the benign tumor has been present for more than 15 years.
train
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True about Latzko technique of genitourinary fistula repair is
[ "Lengthens upper vagina.", "Excision of fistulous tract completely.", "Partial colpocleisis.", "Weakens surrounding tissues." ]
C
Latzko technique is partial colpocleisis of vagina, It shortens vagina.
train
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Not true about Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis among the following is
[ "Rheumatoid factor is absent", "Acute anterior Uveitis is seen in Type II pauciarticular Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis", "Intraocular lens can be used in Still's disease", "Hepatasplinomegaly is seen in Still's disease" ]
C
Intraocular lens in contraindicated in all types of Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis.
train
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The following drugs/methods are used for cervical ripening, except?
[ "Oxytocin", "PGE", "Stripping of membrane", "Ergometrine" ]
D
Prostaglandins, oxytocin, and stripping of membranes are usually done for cervical ripening. Other methods are Foley bulb catheter, early amniotomy, and late amniotomy. Ergometrine is used in promoting of contraction and involution of uterus after delivery.
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Largest diameter of pelvis:
[ "Transverse", "True conjugate", "Oblique", "Bituberous" ]
A
Ans. (a) TransverseRef.: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 99-104* If such questions are asked regardless of pelvic plain, then transverse diameter of pelvic inlet has largest diameter (13cm).If it is not in option, next best option is oblique diameter (12cm)* Smallest diameter regardless of pelvic plain- Bispinous (10cm)* For more details, please refer to above explanation.
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A 60 yrs old male comes to casualty with acute retention of urine since 12 hrs. On examination there was distended bladder. His wife gives a history of taking some drug by the patient since 2 days as he is suffering from depression. The most likely drug is:
[ "CPZ", "Amitriptyline", "Haloperidol", "Pimozide" ]
B
Anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are most common. These effects result in dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and confusion. They are more common with teiary amine TCAs such as amitriptyline and imipramine than with the secondary amine TCAs desipramine and noriptyline. The potent alpha blocking propey of TCAs often results in ohostatic hypotension. H1 antagonism by the TCAs is associated with weight gain and sedation. The TCAs are class 1A antiarrhythmic agents and are arrhythmogenic at higher doses. Sexual effects are common, paicularly with highly serotonergic TCAs such as clomipramine. The TCAs have a prominent discontinuation syndrome characterized by cholinergic rebound and flulike symptoms. Ref: DeBattista C. (2012). Chapter 30. Antidepressant Agents. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e.
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Gentamicin is not given orally because:-
[ "It has adverse effects on gastric mucosa", "It interferes with absorption of other drugs", "It is rapidly destroyed by gastric acid", "It has poor absorption" ]
D
AMINOGLYCOSIDES These include streptomycin, gentamicin, kanamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, sisomicin, netilmicin, neomycin and framycetin. These are not absorbed orally and do not cross blood brain barrier. These are excreted primarily by glomerular filtration and the dose should be decreased in renal insufficiency. These drugs exhibit CDK and have prolonged PAE, therefore are administered as single daily dose. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal inhibitors of protein synthesis. Their penetration across the cell wall is dependent on the oxygen dependent transpo, therefore these drugs are inactive against anaerobes. Resistance to these drugs develops due to the formation of inactivating enzymes
train
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Radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood is-
[ "Ghon's focus", "Normal chest Xray", "Lymphadenopathy", "Pleural effusion" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymph adenopathy Primary tuberculosis in childhoodo Primary' tuberculosis in childhood can present in 4 major ways in addition to the normal chest radiography. These are:LymphadenopathyLobar or segmental parenchymal diseasePleural effusionMilitary involvemento Lymphadenopathy with or without parenchymal abnormality' is the radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood.
train
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Airway resistance
[ "Is increased if the lungs are removed and inflated with saline.", "Does not affect the work of breathing.", "Is increased in paraplegic patients.", "Is increased in asthma." ]
D
If the air flow becomes turbulent during rapid respiration, the energy required to move the air is greater than when the flow is laminar.
train
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null
Factors precipitating Hepatic encephalopathy include all EXCEPT
[ "Infection", "Magnesium Trisilicate therapy", "Hypokalaemia", "Gastrointestinal bleeding" ]
B
null
train
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null
Which of the following is the MOST common type of staphyloma in myopia?
[ "Posterior", "Intercalary", "Equatorial", "Ciliary" ]
A
Posterior staphylomas are commonly seen in patients with high myopia. Staphylomas are defined as the ectatic cicatrisation of the outer coat of the eyeball with uveal incarceration. Anterior staphylomas can be caused by smallpox, keratomalacia, sloughing corneal ulcer and trauma. intercalary staphylomas occur due to a penetrating wound at the limbus. Ciliary staphylomas occur due to buphthalmos, long standing absolute glaucoma, scleritis, scleromalacia, rhinosporidiosis, traumatic and idiopathic reasons. equatorial staphylomas are often congenital in origin. Ref: Clinical Examination In Ophthalmology By P. K. Mukherjee page 125.
train
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Which of the following estimates blood creatinine level most accurately -
[ "Jaffe method", "Kinetic jaffe method", "Technicon method", "Enzyme assay" ]
D
Among the given options, the enzyme assay is the most accurate. Methods to measure serum creatine to assess GFR are:- i) Gas chromatography-isotope dilution mass spectroscopy (GC-IDMS):- It is the most accurate and method of choice. ii) High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC). (iii) Enzymatic creatinine method (enzyme assay). (iv)Alkaline picrate methods:- Jaffe method Accuracy in decreasing order is GC-IDMS > HPLC > Enzyme assay > Alkaline picrate (Jaffe) method.
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4 month Infant with cough, respiratory rate > 60/min, with no retraction, management (According to IMNCI protocol) -
[ "IM antibiotic & refer urgently", "Oral antibiotic, explain danger sign & follow up", "Explain danger sign & follow up", "IM antibiotic & hospitalise" ]
B
Am. is 'b' i.e., Oral antibiotic & explain danger sign & follow up In IMNCI (2 months -5 years)o Cougho Respiratory rateClassified as fast breathingCategory-I. Any Danger signSevere pneumoniaIM antibioticororRefer urgentlyChest indrawingVery severe disease or Stridor II Fast breathing - Pneumonia - Oral antibiotic, tell danger sign & follow up in 2 days.III No pneumonia - Tell danger sign & follow up.
train
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Precursor of melanin is:
[ "Phenylalanine", "Tryptophan", "Tyrosine", "Methionine" ]
C
null
train
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Length of adult trachea
[ "5-6 cm", "10-11 cm", "15-16cm", "20-21cm" ]
B
Trachea is 10-15 cm length. <img src=" /> BD CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUE1 .6 TH EDITION. PAGE NO 281
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Fasting hyperglycemia is almost always seen in
[ "Gastric carcinoma", "Pheochromocytoma", "Adrenal tumour", "Carcinoid tumour" ]
B
fasting glucose levels greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l, is frequently present in patients with phaeochromocytoma (24% in the present study) and the diabetes is reversed by removal of the tumour(pheochromocytoma). Ref - Harrison20th edition pg 99
train
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Which inhibits gastric secretion?
[ "Secretin", "High gastric pH", "Insulin", "Calcium" ]
A
A
train
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Woodruff plexus is seen at
[ "Anteroinferior pa of superior turbinate", "Middle turbinate", "Posterior pa of inferior turbinate", "Anterior pa of inferior turbinate" ]
C
It is a plexus of veins situated inferior to posterior end of inferior turbinate . It is a site of posterior epistaxis in adults . ( Ref : Diseases of ENT , PL Dhingra , 6th edition , Pg no . 176 )
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Magical thinking is seen in which type of personality disorder
[ "schizotypal", "borderline", "narcisstic", "histirionic" ]
A
* SCHIZOTYPAL PERSONALITY DISORDER * Ideas of reference (not delusions) * Odd beliefs and magical thinking * Unusual perceptual disturbances * Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness * Odd thinking and speech without coherence * SUPERSTITIONS/TELEPATHY * ODD DRESSING * ODD SPEECH LACK OF EMOTIONS Ref.KAplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no.744
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Presence of spiral grooves in the barrel of w eapon is referred to as -
[ "Rifling", "Incendiary", "Cocking", "None of the above" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' Le., Rifling Type of firearm weaponso Bore (caliber) is the inner diameter of barrel. Based on inside of barrel (i.e., bore), the firearm weapons are divided into:-Smooth bore weapons : Barrel or bore is smooth inside, e.g., shot gun, muskets, and muzzle loaders.Rifled weapons : Barrel or bore is rifled from inside, i.e., has longitudinally twised grooves. Example are : Pistals, rifles and revolvers.o Pistals and revolvers are small, so referred to as hand guns.
train
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Which is the most common material used for grafting below inguinal aeries?
[ "Saphenous vein graft (upside - down)", "PTFE", "Dacron", "Teflon" ]
A
For blockage fuher down the leg either a femoral popliteal or femoral distal procedure may be performed. Long saphenous vein is the graft of choice which may be used with its valves destroyed by a special valve cutting instrument or reversed so that the valves do not interfere with the bold flow. Ref: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 23; Surgical Talk: Revision in Surgery By Andrew Goldberg, Page 238; Mastery of Vascular and Endovascular Surgery By Gerald B. Zelenock, Page 417
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Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nerve: September 2008
[ "Trochlear", "Trigeminal", "Abducens", "Facial" ]
B
Ans. B: Trigeminal Neurotrophic keratopathy occurs in cases in which trigeminal nerve is paralyzed, typically as a result of radical treatment for trigeminal neuralgia. It does not occur in all cases of peripheral lesions of the trigeminal nerve; thus, if the gasserian ganaglion is removed or the trigeminal nerve with alcohol for trigeminal neuralgia with proper precautions, only a few cases develop neurotrophic keratitis. Neuroparalytic keratopathy is seen in facial nerve palsy as occurs in Bell's palsy, leprosy or neurological disorders leading to ectropion, lagophthalmos and exposure keratopathy.
train
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A 25 year old man presented with fever and cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enhanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis:
[ "Sarcoidosis", "Tuberculosis", "Lymphoma", "Silicosis" ]
B
Answer is B (Tuberculosis) : Most common cause of necrotic lymph nodes with peripheral rim enhancement is Tuberculosis.
train
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Calculate the prevalence if incidence is 2 cases per 1000 population per year and mean duration is 4 years -
[ "8 Cases per 1000 population", "2 Cases per 1000 population", "0.5 Cases per 1000 population", "32 Cases per 1000 population" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 8 Cases per 100 population o Prevalence = 2 x 4 = 8 Causes per 1000 populations
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The 1st stage of life cycle of bacteriophage includes
[ "Lysogenic cycle", "Maturation", "Eclipse phase", "Lytic cycle" ]
D
Life cycle of phages include lytic phase, lysogenic phase and eclipse phase Eclipse phase represents time required for synthesis of new phage components Lytic phase includes adsorption, penetration, synthesis of phage components, maturation and release of progeny phages Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 436
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The X-ray finding of small intestinal malabsorption syndrome are all except:
[ "Increased transit time", "Mucosal atrophy", "Dilatation of bowel", "Flocculation of barium" ]
A
Ans. Increased transit time
train
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Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic:
[ "Dibucaine", "Bupivacaine", "Lignocaine", "Chlorprocaine" ]
B
Ans: (b) BupivacaineRef: KDT 6th ed. 1357* Bupivacaine is a local anesthetic agent from Amide group.* It is most cardiotoxic LA.* Shortest acting LA: Chlorprocaine* Longest acting LA: Dibucaine* Most commonly used LA: Lignocaine* Local anesthetic which causes methhemoglobinemia: Prilocaine
train
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null
All of the following are the therapeutic uses of penicillin G EXCEPT :
[ "Bacterial meningitis", "Rickettsial infection", "Syphilis", "Anthrax" ]
B
Penicillin is used for: L - Listeria A - Actinomycosis S - Syphilis T - Tetanus M - Meningococcal meningitis  AN - Anthrax
train
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