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An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by: | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Ergotamine",
"Morphine",
"Ibuprofen"
] | B | SPECIFIC ANTIMIGRAINE DRUGS
Ergotamine: It is the most effective ergot alkaloid for migraine. Given early in attack, lower doses generally suffice, and relief is often dramatic. However, when pain has become severe-larger doses are needed and control may be achieved only after few hours. Oral/sublingual route is preferred. 1 mg is given at half hour intervals till relief is obtained or a total of 6 mg is given. Parenteral administration, though rapid in action is more hazardous.
Ergotamine acts by constricting the dilated cranial vessels and/or by specific constriction of carotid A-V shunt channels. Ergotamine and DHE have also been shown to reduce neurogenic inflammation and leakage of plasma in duramater that occurs due to retrograde stimulation of periascular afferent nerves. These actions appear to be mediated through partial agonism at 5-HTID/IB receptors in and around cranial vessels.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 193 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old man presented with a flat 1 cm x 1 cm scaly, itchy clack mole on the front of thigh. Examination did reveal any inguinal lymphadenopathy. The best course of management would be | [
"FNAC of the lesion",
"Incision biopsy",
"Exicisional biopsy",
"Wide excision with inguinal lymphadenectomy"
] | C | Lymphangiomas are dilated dermal lymphatics that 'blister' onto the skin surface. The fluid is usually clear but may be blood-stained. In the long term, lymphangiomas thrombose and fibrose, forming hard nodules that may raise concerns about malignancy. If lymphangiomas are <5cm across, they are termed lymphangioma circumscriptum, and if they are more widespread, they are termed lymphangioma diffusum. If they form a reticulate pattern of ridges then it has been termed lymphoedema ab igne. Lymphangiomas frequently weep (lymphorrhoea, chylorrhoea), causing skin maceration, and they act as a poal for infection. Protein-losing diarrhoea, chylous ascites, chylothorax, chyluria and discharge from lymphangiomas suggest lymphangectasia (megalymphatics) and chylous reflux. Ulceration, non-healing bruises and raised purple-red nodules should lead to suspicion of malignancy. Lymphangiosarcoma was originally described in postmastectomy oedema (Stewa-Treves' syndrome) and affects around 0.5% of patients at a mean onset of 10 years. However, lymphangiosarcoma can develop in any long-standing lymphoedema, but usually takes longer to manifest (20 years). It presents as single or multiple bluish/red skin and subcutaneous nodules that spread to form satellite lesions, which may then become confluent. Thediagnosis is usually made late and confirmed by excision biopsy. Amputation offers the best chance of survival but, even then, most patients live for less than 3 years. It has been suggested that lymphoedema leads to an impairment of immune surveillance and so predisposes to other malignancies, although the causal association is not as definite as it is for lymphangiosarcoma. Ref : Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 998 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug is contraindicated in a patient with intersitial lung disease? | [
"Amiodarone",
"Sotalol",
"Quinidine",
"Lignocaine"
] | A | Adverse effect ofamiodarone Pulmonary alveolitis and fibrosisis the most serious toxicity of prolonged use, but is infrequent if daily dose is kept below 200 mg. Other Adverse Effects The - hyper or hypo thyroidism Periphery of - peripheral neuropathy My - myocardial depression Lung & cornea is - corneal deposits Photosensitive - photosensitivity, Sotalol, Quinidine and Lignocaine does not cause interstitial lung disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Current indicators of MCH - | [
"MMR 3 - 4 / 1,00,000",
"IMR 39 / 10,000",
"Delivery by trained personal 42%",
"All"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Delivery by trained personal 42% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pancreatic juice rich in water and electrolytes poor in enzymes is secreted in response to : | [
"Pancreatozymin",
"Cholecystokinin",
"Secretin",
"Proteins"
] | C | C i.e. Secretin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trapezius is attached to all structures except - | [
"First rib",
"Clavicle",
"Scapula",
"Occiput"
] | A | Trapezius originates from the occiput and inserts onto clavicle and scapula. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After passing his physical exam, a 19 year old army recruit gives urine and blood samples for fuher testing. Serum analysis yields elevated ALT, HBsAg, Anti-HBc, HBeAg, and bilirubin. All other values are normal. Which of the following is the hepatitis B status of this recruit? | [
"Asymptomatic carrier",
"Chronic active carrier",
"Fulminant hepatitis B",
"Recovered from acute self-limited HBV"
] | B | The presence of elevated ALT, HBsAg, anti-HBc, HBeAg, and bilirubin all point to active hepatitis B. An asymptomatic carrier does not have elevated ALT and bilirubin. The absence of findings on physical examination rules out fulminant hepatitis B. Recovery from acute self-limited HBV is associated with the presence of anti-HBs and the decrease in HBsAg and HBeAg. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 13. Hepatitis Viruses. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Henoch-Schonlein purpura is characterized by the following except? | [
"Glomerulonephritis",
"Hematochezia",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Palpable purpura"
] | C | c. Thrombocytopenia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1216-1217', Ghai 8/e p 632-633)Kidney involvement (glomerulonephritis) & bowel involvement (blood in stools, abdominal pain) can be seen in HSP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum tachycardia is seen with- | [
"Nifedipine",
"Verapamil",
"Propanolol",
"Amlodipine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nifedipine Cardiac effectsVerapamilNifedipineDiltiazamo Heart rateo AV conductiono Contractilityo Output|||-,|-,||-|||,-||,|-,|Note:o Verapamil and to a lesser extent diltiazem delay the recovery of Ca++ channel in heart - Cardiodepressant action (| heart rate, conduction, contractility).o Nifedipine (DHPs) does not delay the recovery of Ca^ channel - No cardiodepressant action,o Instead, nifedipine causes reflex sympathetic stimulation - Tachycardia and increased contractility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stridor is caused by all except: | [
"Hypocalcemia",
"Asthma",
"Epiglotitis",
"Laryngeal tumor"
] | B | i. Upper airway: The airway from the nares and lips to the lower border of larynx (includes nose, pharynx, larynx). ii. Lower airway: From the lower border of the terminal bronchioles (includes various level of bronchioles up to terminal bronchioles). Stridor usually implies upper airway obstruction, so the level of obstruction is above the level of trachea (P) (from nares to the larynx). Wheezing and ronchi are signs of lower airway obstruction. Epiglottitis and laryngeal tumors are common causes of stridor . Hypocalcemia leads to tetany which causes stridor. Asthma leads to wheezing or ronchi (lower airway obstruction) Stridor is a harsh noise produced by turbulent air flow through a paially obstructed upper airway. It can be: - Inspiratory i.e. originates from supraglottis glottis and pharynx - Expiratory i.e. originates from thoracic trachea - Biphasic i.e. originates from subglottis and cervical trachea - Hence, stridor is mainly of laryngeal and tracheal origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a ratio- | [
"IMR",
"MMR",
"Prevalence",
"Incidence"
] | B | park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *rate comprises numerator ,denominator ,time specification and multiplier.the numerator is a component of denominator in calculating rate but not in the ratio.ratio expresses a relation in size between two random quantities . *IMR, prevalence and incidence are rates . *MMR- no of female death due to complication of pregnancy ,child bih or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in an area during a given year/ total on of live bih in the same area and year multiplier by 1000. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common type in dactylography is : | [
"Wholrls",
"Loops",
"Composite",
"Arches"
] | B | B i.e. Loops | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the treatment of severe bradycardia, all of the following can be the best modality of treatment except: | [
"Atropine",
"Pacing",
"Isoproterenol",
"Diltiazem"
] | D | Answer is D (Diltiazem) Diltiazem is used in the treatment of tachvarhythmias and not in the treatment of bradvarrhEthmias. Diltiazem is a class IV antiarrhythmogenic drug, used in atrial fibrillation/flutter and supraventricular tachycardias (tachycardias) to slow the ventricular rate, by decreasing conduction velocity and increasing refractoriness in the AV nodal tissue. Atropine, lsoproterenol and pacemakers are all useful in the management of bradycardia. Atropine and isoproterenol are useful in increasing hea rate and decreasing symptoms in patients with sinus bradycardia or AV block localized to AV node.' - Harrison 16th/1339 Long term therapy of brady arrhythmias is best accomplished by pacemakers. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following combination of iron can be given both IM and IV | [
"Iron dextran",
"Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution",
"ferrous Sulphate",
"ferrous Humourate"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with autonomic dysreflexia after a spinal cord injury, supine BP of the patient is 200/100 mm Hg with hea rate of 58/min. Which of the following is required for initial management of these patients? | [
"Nicardipine",
"Sodium nitroprusside",
"Nitro-glycerine",
"Labetalol"
] | C | Management of patient with supine hypeension : Placing him in sitting position and giving him a buccal spray of NTG (nitro glycerine) followed by NTG drip if required. Trigger for Autonomic Dysreflexia in patients of spinal cord injury is blocked or kinked Foley's catheter or stool impaction. Choice A (Nicardipine) is used in Hemorrhagic stroke with hypeensive crisis. Choice B (Sodium nitroprusside) in hypeensive encephalopathy. Patient due to spinal cord injury above T6 develops massive sympathomimetic surge leading to splanchnic vasoconstriction and development of HTN. This triggered reflex bradycardia. Choice D (Labetalol) is ruled out in setting of bradycardia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keratohyaline granules are present in which layer | [
"Stratum corneum",
"Stratum spinosum",
"Stratum granulosum",
"Stratum basale"
] | C | Stratum granulosum It has flattened cells with prominent basophilic keratohyaline granules, which contain profilaggrin (conveed to filaggrin at junction of stratum granulosum and stratum corneum), loricrin, keratin intermediate filaments, and involucrin. Ref:- Review of Dermatology by Alikhan; pg num:- 2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fournier’s molars are seen in hypoplasia due to | [
"Primary syphilis",
"Secondary syphilis",
"Congenital syphilis",
"All of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
"EMA-CO regimen" is useful in Rx of | [
"Metastatic breast cancer",
"Advanced endometrial sarcoma",
"Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia",
"Ovarian tumor with peritoneal implants"
] | C | EMA-CO a cyclic non-cross-resistant combina on of etoposide, methotrexate, and dactinomycin alternating with cyclophosphamide and vincristine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug that is NOT useful in congestive hea failure | [
"Adrenaline",
"Digoxin",
"Hydrachlohiazide",
"Enalapril"
] | A | Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is a hormone, neurotransmitter, and medication. Adrenaline is normally produced by both the adrenal glands and ceain neurons. It plays an impoant role in the fight-or-flight response by increasing blood flow to muscles, output of the hea, pupil dilation response, and blood sugar level. It does this by binding to alpha and beta receptors. It is found in many animals and some single cell organisms Refer kDT 6/e p493 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A paial development of the aoicopulmonary septum will result in which of the following? | [
"Persistent truncus aeriosus (PTA)",
"Ebstein's anomaly",
"Transposition of the great aeries",
"Common ventricle"
] | A | A. Paial development of the aoicopulmonary septum due to absence of migration of neural crest cell to truncus aeriosus region will cause persistent truncus aeriosus(PTA). FIG:- PTA | train | med_mcqa | null |
The liver biopsy in acute hepatitis due to hepatitis virus is likely to show all of the following, except- | [
"Ballooning change of hepatocytes",
"Ground glass hepatocytes",
"Focal or spotty necrosis",
"Acidophil bodies"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tober Ayer test is positive in - | [
"Lateral sinus thrombosis",
"Petrositis",
"Cerebral abscess",
"Subarachnoid hemorrage"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in blood? | [
"Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency",
"Galactosaemia",
"Histidinaemia",
"Phenyl ketonuria"
] | A | Ans: a (Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 170,171,199In ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency there will be high level of ammonia in blood.Rate limiting step in urea synthesis is formation of carbomoyl phosphate. It is catalysed by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I.One molecule of ammonia condenses with CO, in the presence of 2 molecules of ATP to form carbamoyl phosphateNOTE:An entirely different cytoplasmic enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II is involved in pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis.CPS-I deficiency is related to hyperammonemia type IUrea cycle disorders:DiseaseEnzyme defectHyperammonaemia type IHyperammonaemia type IIHyperornithinaemiaCitrullinaemiaCPS-IOrnithine transcarbamoylaseDefective ornithine transporter proteinArginosuccinate synthetaseOTC deficiency leads to hyperammonaemia type II and not hyperornithinaemia- Galactosaemia is due to deficiency of galactose-1-uridyl transferase and in galactosaemia there will be increased blood galactose level and galactosuria- Histidinaemia leads to accumulation of histidine in blood and body fluids and increased excretion of imidazole pyruvic acid in urine. This is due to deficiency of histidase.- Pheny ketonuria is due to deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Perfusion pressure is | [
"Arterial pressure",
"Venous pressure",
"Arterial–venous pressure difference",
"Pressure in left ventricle"
] | C | Perfusion pressure is arterial pressure minus venous pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aicular surfaces >=3 are present which type of joint ? | [
"Compound joint",
"Synahrosis joint",
"Complex joint",
"Simple joint"
] | A | >= 3 Aicular surfaces in a joint= Compound joint. Type of joint Aiculation surface Example Simple 2 Shoulder joint, Hip joint Compound >= 3 Elbow joint, Wrist joint Complex Intra-aicular disc between the aicular surface Temporomandibular joint, Sternoclavicular joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structure without any membrane is? | [
"Mitochondria",
"Nucleus",
"Nucleolus",
"Endoplasmic reticulum"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) NucleolusREF: Guyton's 11th ed ch:2Most organelles of the cell are covered by membranes composed primarily of lipids and proteins.These membranes include the cell membrane, nuclear membrane, membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum, and membranes ofthe mitochondria, lysosomes and Golgi apparatus.The nuclei of most cells contain one or more highly staining structures called nucleoli. The nucleolus, unlike most other organelles discussed here, does not have a limiting membrane. Instead, it is simply an accumulation of large amounts of RNA and proteins of the types found in ribosomes. The nucleolus becomes considerably enlarged when the cell is actively synthesizing proteins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The largest compliance in the circulatory system is of | [
"Aeries",
"Capillaries",
"Veins",
"Aoa"
] | C | The largest compliance in the circulatory system is of veins. Vascular compliance/capacitance is the total quantity of blood that can be stored in a given poion of the circulation for each mmHg pressure rise. vascular compliance= Distensibility * Volume The compliance of a systemic vein is about 24 times that of its corresponding aery because it is about 8 times as distensible and has a volume about 3 times as aery (8*3=24) Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition Pgno: 179 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A neonate, on examination shows features of hypotonia and the following feature was observed. Probable chromosomal anomoly | [
"Patau syndrome",
"Edward's syndrome",
"Down's syndrome",
"Noonan syndrome"
] | C | Features of Down's syndrome:-
Flat face
Hypotonia at birth
Increased Intercanthal distance
Epicanthal folds
Low set ears
protruding spots
Iris - Brushfield spots
Blue dot Cataract
Simian crease (Single palmar crease)
Sandal gap. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oral contraceptive agents typically causes: | [
"Microvesicular fatty infiltration in liver",
"Cholestasis without poal inflammation",
"Peripoal inflammation",
"Perivenular fibrosis in poal circulation"
] | B | OCP has cholestatic side effect but without causing poal inflammation. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page 2560, Table - 305-1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The relapse of crowding after orthodontic treatment occurs mainly because of: | [
"Horizontal fibers",
"Oblique fibers",
"Gingival fibers",
"Transseptal fibers"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase is increased to increase purine synthesis in ? | [
"Liver",
"RBC",
"Brain",
"Polymorphs"
] | A | PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase is one of the rate limiting enzyme in de novo synthesis of purines. o The de novo synthesis of purines is most active in liver. Brain, RBCs (erythrocytes) and polymorphonuclear leokocytes (polymorphs) cannot synthesize purine nucleotides by de novo pathway. Biosynthesis of purine neucleotides Two impoant purine nucleotides are synthesized : (i) adenosine monophosphate (AMP) and (ii) guanosine monophosphate (GMP). Then AMP and GMP are conveed to other purine nucleotides like ADP, ATP, GDP, GTP etc. Purine nucleotides can be synthesized by two pathways - (I) De novo synthesis and (2) Salvage pathway. De novo pathway (De novo synthesis) In de novo pathway, the purine nucleotides are synthesized from amphibolic intermediates. Amphibolic intermediates are the intermediary metabolites of amphibolic pathways (eg. citric acid cycle) which have dual purposes, i e. they serve in catabolism as well as in anabolism. In de novo synthesis, purine ring is formed from variety of precursors is assembled on ribose-5-phosphate. Precursors for de novo synthesis are ? i) Glycine provides C4 C5 and N7 ii) Aspaate provides NI iii) Glutamine provides N3 and N9 iv) Tetrahydrofolate derivatives furnish C2 and Cs v) Carbon dioxide provides C6 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum tourniquet time for the upper limb is ? | [
"1/2 hour",
"1 hr",
"1-1/2 hrs.",
"2 hrs"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1-1/2 hr. In experiment animals tourniquets have been retained for three hours without lasting ill effect but in practice an hour and a half is probably a wise limit. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Down regulation of hormone means ? | [
"Decreased secretion of hormone",
"Decreased affinity to receptors",
"Defective regulation in secretion",
"Regulation by low concentration of hormone"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Decreased affinity to receptors Down regulation is a mechanism in which a hormone decrease the number or affinity of its receptors in target tissues. Down-regulation may occur by decreasing the synthesis of new receptors, by increasing the degradation of existing receptors or by inactivating receptors. The purpose of down-regulation is to reduce the sensitivity of the target tissue when hormone levels are high for an extended period of time. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In hereditary fructose intolerance there is defect in: | [
"Phosphofructokinase",
"Fructose 2, 6-biphosphatase",
"Fructokinase",
"Aldolase B"
] | D | Ans. D. Aldolase BDefect in hepatic fructokinase causes essential fructosuria.Defect in hepatic aldolase B causes hereditary fructose intolerance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Itchy polygonal violaceous (itchy/prusitic) palpules seen rn | [
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus",
"Lichen planus",
"Pitriasios rosea"
] | C | C. i.e. Lichen planus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urea is synthesized in all except | [
"Liver",
"Kidney",
"Brain",
"Spleen"
] | C | The ammonia from all over the body thus reaches liver.It is then detoxified to urea by liver cells, and then excreted thougth kidneys. Urea is the end product of protein metabolism. Since mammals including humanbeings excrete amino nitrogen mainly as urea , they are referred to as ureotolic.Although , ammonia is toxic and has to be immediately detoxified, in kidney cells, ammonia generated on purposefrom glutamine with the help of glutaminase. REF:DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK ;7th EDITION ;Page no:203 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of study in risk factor associated with multiple diseases - | [
"Cohort study",
"Case control study",
"Ecological study",
"Clinical trial"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cohort study o In case control study we proceed from effect to cause by taking history. It is possible to take history of exposure of multiple risk factors - multiple risk factors can be identified for a single diseaseo In cohort study we start by exposing the study cohort to a particular risk factor and then follow up the cohort for the occurence of disease. So, several possible outcomes related to exposure can be studied simultaneously - we can study the association of the suspected factor with many other disease in addition to the one under study.y Case control studyy Cohort study--can identify multiple risk factors,can identify multiple outcome (disease). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parameter which should be tested before staing heparin therapy: September 2011 | [
"Serum bleeding time",
"Serum clotting time",
"Prothrombin time",
"Activated paial thromboplastin time"
] | D | Ans. D: Activated paial thromboplastin time Monitoring of heparin therapy is done by either whole blood clotting time (kept 2-3 times the normal) or activated paial thromboplastin time (kept upto 1.5-2 times the normal) Paial thromboplastin time/ PTT/ activated paial thromboplastin time (aPTT/ APTT It is a performance indicator measuring the efficacy of both the "intrinsic" (now referred to as the contact activation pathway) and the common coagulation pathways. Apa from detecting abnormalities in blood clotting, it is also used to monitor the treatment effects with heparin, a major anticoagulant. It is used in conjunction with the prothrombin time (PT) which measures the extrinsic pathway. Kaolin cephalin clotting time (KccT) is a historic name for the activated paial thromboplastin time Blood samples are collected in tubes with oxalate or citrate to arrest coagulation by binding calcium. The specimen is then delivered to the laboratory. In order to activate the intrinsic pathway, phospholipid, an activator (such as silica, celite, kaolin, ellagic acid), and calcium (to reverse the anticoagulant effect of the oxalate) are mixed into the plasma sample . The time is measured until a thrombus (clot) forms. The test is termed "paial" due to the absence of tissue factor from the reaction mixture The typical reference range is between 25 seconds and 39 s (depending on laboratory). Shoening of the PTT has little clinical relevance. Normal PTT times require the presence of the following coagulation factors: I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII. Notably, deficiencies in factors VII or XIII will not be detected with the PTT test. Prolonged APTT may indicate: - Use of heparin (or contamination of the sample) - Antiphospholipid antibody (especially lupus anticoagulant, which paradoxically increases propensity to thrombosis) - Coagulation factor deficiency (e.g. hemophilia) To distinguish the above causes, mixing tests are performed, in which the patient's plasma is mixed (initially at a 50:50 dilution) with normal plasma. If the abnormality does not disappear, the sample is said to contain an "inhibitor" (either heparin, antiphospholipid antibodies or coagulation factor specific inhibitors), while if it does correct a factor deficiency is more likely. Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If one strand of DNA contains the sequence "ATCGCGTAACATGGATTCGG", what will be the sequence of the complementary strand using the standard convention? | [
"TAGCGCATTGTACCTAAGCC",
"CCGAATCCATGTTACGCGAT",
"ATCGCGTAACATGGATTCGG",
"None of the above"
] | B | If one strand of DNA contains the sequence " 5' ATCGCGTAACATGGATTCGG 3' " the sequence of the complementary strand will be 5' CCGAATCCATGTTACGCGAT 3' DNA and RNA are directional molecules. They are always written in the sequence of 5' to 3'. Phosphodiester bonds link the 3'- and 5'-carbons of adjacent monomers. Each end of a nucleotide polymer thus is distinct. We therefore refer to the "5'-end" or the "3'-end" of a polynucleotide, the 5'-end being that with a free or phosphorylated 5'-hydroxyl group. DNA sequences are complementary and antiparallel to each other. So, the complementary sequence of ATCGCGTAACATGGATTCGG will be CCGAATCCATGTTACGCGAT. Note: In question or answer option if nothing is mentioned about the direction of the sequence, you have to automatically assume that they are asking in 5'-3' direction as it is internationally accepted convention. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allergy to penicillin group of drugs is classified as | [
"Type 1 reaction",
"Type 2 reaction",
"Type 3 reaction",
"Type 4 reaction"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 14-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency room after receiving a gunshot wound to the head and is pronounced dead on arrival. If this child died due to an immediate "blast effect" of the penetrating wound, the autopsy would likely show herniation of the tonsils of the cerebellum into which anatomic space? | [
"Aqueduct of Sylvius",
"Central spinal canal",
"Foramen magnum",
"Foramen of Magendie"
] | C | Penetrating wounds produce hemorrhage and blast effects. The "blast effect" of a high-velocity projectile causes an immediate increase in supratentorial pressure and results in death because of impaction of the cerebellum and medulla into the foramen magnum. A low-velocity projectile increases the pressure at a more gradual rate through hemorrhage and edema. The other choices do not represent areas of herniation.Diagnosis: Bullet wound | train | med_mcqa | null |
1st formed dental tissue | [
"Enamel",
"Dentin",
"Cementum",
"Bone"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the lateral curve position of the body in strychnine poisoning? | [
"Emprostotonus",
"Opisthotonus",
"Pleurosthotonus",
"All of the above"
] | C | In strychnine poisoning, Convulsions are most marked in antigravity muscles resulting in hyperextension (opisthotonus). Sometimes, the spasm of the abdominal musclesmay bend the body forward (emprosthotonus) or sideways (pleurosthotonus). Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 522 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phlycten is due to | [
"Exogenous allergy",
"Endogenous allergy",
"viral keratitis",
"Fungal keratitis"
] | B | Endogenous allergens in Phlyctenular conjunctivitis are staphylococcus aureus and tuberculosis Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 83 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of | [
"Acetoacetate to α-keto glutarate",
"Succinyl CoA to Succinate",
"Fumarate to malate",
"Succinate to fumarate"
] | B | Substrate level phosphorylation
It is the production of ATP (or GTP) at substrate level without participation of electron transport chain.
It occurs in glycolysis and citric acid cycle, at following steps :- | train | med_mcqa | null |
ECV is contraindicated in: | [
"Primi",
"Flexed breech",
"Anemia",
"PIH"
] | D | definite indications for elective Caesarean section all complicated breech pregnancy Contracted or borderline pelvis Large babies Severe IUGR Hyper extension of fetal head Footling or knee presentation Previous Caesarean section Lack of an obstetrician experienced in assisted breech delivery can also be considered an indication for for elective Caesarean section (refer pgno:378 sheila textbook of obstetrics 2 nd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intranasal calcitonin is given for a 65 year old post-menopausal lady. What is the likely indication? | [
"Paget's disease",
"Osteoporosis",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Osteopetrosis"
] | B | Calcitonin-salmon is a hormone that decreases osteoclast activity, thereby impeding postmenopausal bone loss. It is indicated for the treatment of women who are more than 5 years post menopause and have low bone mass relative to healthy premenopausal women. It is available as an injection and as an intranasal spray. The intranasal spray is delivered as a single daily spray that provides 200 IU of the drug. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best site for collection of specimen for N. meningitides ? | [
"Oral swab",
"Nasal swab",
"Nasopharyngeal swab",
"Skin lesions"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nasopharyngeal swab Best site for specimen collection for meningococci :? For cases - CSF (by lumbar puncture) For carriers - Nasopharyngeal swab As CSF is not there in options, examiner is, most probably, asking about specimen in carrier. Laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal infection Specimens CSF - Divided into three poions : One poion is centrifuged and Gram stained smears are prepared from the deposit The second poion is inoculated on blood agar or chocolate agar plates. The third poion of CSF is incubated overnight and than subcultured on chocolate agar. Blood - for culture in patients with meningococcemia and early meningitis. Nasopharyngeal swab - for carriers Petechial lesions - In cases of meningococcemia. Autopsy specimens - from meninges, lateral ventricle, surface of brain or spinal cord. Smear will show Gram negative diplococci inside the polymorphs but often extracellularly also. They are arranged in pairs, with the adjacent sides flattened. Capsulated nonmotile Transpo medium - Stua's medium Culture Blood agar, chocolate agar and Muller-Hinton starch casein hydrolysate agar are the media commonly used for culturing meningococci. Modified Thayer - Main (with vancomycin, colistin and nystatin) is a useful selective medium. Serology Antibodies to meningococcal polysaccharides can be measured by latex agglutination or hemagglutination tests or by their bactericidal activity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After vaccination against Japanese encephalitis immunity developes in - | [
"30 days",
"7 days",
"10 days",
"21 days"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Abduction of Hand is caused by | [
"FCR",
"FCU",
"FDP",
"FDS"
] | A | The flexor carpi radialis muscle originates from the medial epicondlyle of humerus and inses into the bases of 2nd and 3rd metacarpal bones. Its action is abduction of hand at the wrist joint. BD CHAURASIA 7th edition ,page 108 table 9.2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle(s) supplied by Facial nerve is/are: | [
"Stapedius",
"Stylohoid",
"Risorius",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Stapedius; C i.e. Risorius; B i.e Stylohoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is indicated by the term 'Phon'? | [
"Psycho-acoustic index of loudness",
"Noise induced hearing loss",
"Sound spectrum",
"Octave Band Frequency Analyzer"
] | A | Noise may be expressed in psycho-acoustic terms - the phon. The phon is a psyho-acoustic index of loudness. It takes into consideration intensity and frequency. Also remember: "Octave Band Frequency Analyser," which measures the noise in octave bands. The resulting plot shows the "sound spectrum" and indicates the characteristics of the noise, whether it is mainly high-pitched, low-pitched or of variable pitch. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21stedition, page-684 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following investigations are required in initial evaluation of a chronic myeloid leukemia patient EXCEPT - | [
"Peripheral smear",
"Test for Philadelphia chromosome",
"Bone marrow testing",
"HLA typing"
] | D | CML is established by identification of the clone of hematopoietic stem cells that possesses the reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 & 22,forming Philadelphia chromosome. Peripheral smear shows metamyelocytes, myelocytes, mature segmented neutrophils , basophils.Bone marrow examination reveals hypercellularity with predominance of myeloid cells.Reference:Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 357 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Movement is socio - economic level is | [
"Social equality",
"Social mobility",
"Socio-economic upliftment",
"Social mobilization"
] | B | Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) is defined as the number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her life time assuming fixed age-specific fertility and MORTALITY.
General Fertility Rate (GFR), General Marital fertility Rate (GMFR) don't account for mortality rate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of non poisonous snakes except | [
"Usually not traiangular",
"Fangs present",
"Belly scales are small and does not cover the entire breadth",
"Head scales are large"
] | B | Features of non poisonous snakes Usually not triangular Large head scales with some exceptions Belly scales small or moderate and does not cover the entire breadth Small and sho teeth only Tail not flat and tapering Not nocturnal Scales distal to the anal plate is divided Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 509 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Provision of free medical care to the people at government expense is known as - | [
"State medicine",
"Social theraphy",
"Social medicine",
"Preventive medicine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., State medicine o State medicine Provision of free medical service to the people at government expense. o Socialized medicine Provision of medical service and professional education by the state as in state medicine, but the programme is operated and regulated by professional groups rather than by the government. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Daily dose of vitamin A in a 6–12 months old child is – | [
"500 microgram",
"200 microgram",
"300 microgram",
"700 microgram"
] | C | Daily dose of vitamin in
Infants - 300-400 microgram
Children - 400-600 microgram
Adolescents - 750 microgram | train | med_mcqa | null |
PG responsible for fever in brain is | [
"PGD2",
"PGE2",
"PGF2a",
"PGI2"
] | B | (B) PGE2 [?]Fever:-An abnormally elevation of body temperature-Pyrexia, febrile-Results from trauma, infections, drug reactions, brain tumors and other causes.oFever is an adaptive defence mechanism, in moderation, does more good than harm-Promotes interferon activity-Elevates metabolic rate and accelerates tissue repair-Inhibits reproduction of bacteria and viruses.oInitiation of fever by exogenous pyrogens - fever producing agents.-Glycolipids on bacterial and viral surfaces.-Attacking neutrophils & macrophages secrete endogenous pyrogens.-Stimulate neurons in anterior hypothalamus to secrete prostaglandin E2 .-PGE2 raises hypothalamic set point for body temperature.oStages of fever:-Onset, stadium, defervescence[?]Endogenous pyrogensoDerived from the macrophages, small molecule, can pass blood brain barrieroPyrogen cytokines trigger hypothalamus to release PGE2 resulting in resetting of thermostatic temperature, activation of vasomotor center, vasodilatation and heat production.[?]Fever pathogenesisoRegulated like body temperature, at a higher set pointoSet point is reset by endogenous pyrogens (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a, TNF-b, and IFNg)oEndogenous Pyrogens stimulate Organum Vsculosum Laminae Terminalis (OVLT) surrounding the preoptic nucleus, anterior hypothalamus and septum palusolumoTriggered OVLT synthesis of PG (PGE2 ) - preoptic nucleus - fever | train | med_mcqa | null |
Herbe's pits are seen in: | [
"Vernal conjunctivitis",
"Atopic conjunctivitis",
"Gonococcal conjunctivitis",
"Chlamydial conjunctivitis"
] | D | Trachoma Also called Egyptian ophthalmia is caused by chlamydia trachomatis. Serotypes, A, B, Ba and C are associated with hyperendemic (blinding) trachoma. Most common mode of trachoma spread is through fomites and flies. Reservoir of infection are children with active disease. It is responsible for 15-20% of world's blindness. Leading cause of preventable blindness in the world. Incubation period varies from 5 to 21 days Conjunctival reaction in trachoma is both follicular (conjunctival follicles) and papillary (papillary hyperplasia) Herbe follicles refer to typical trachoma follicles present in the limbal are (pathognomic) Herbe's pits: cicatrized follicles at the superior lumbus. Note Arlt's line: it is thick band of scar tissue in the palpebral conjunctiva of the eye, near the lid margin seen in cicatrizing trachoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
X-linked disease leading to mental retardation is - | [
"Myotonic dystrophy",
"Fragile-X syndrome",
"Tuberous sclerosis",
"Phenylketonuria"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudopelade is | [
"Alopecia steatoides",
"Alopecia mucinosa",
"Traction alopecia",
"Cicatricial alopecia"
] | D | Pseudopelade of Brocq is an idiopathic, chronic, slowly progressive, patchy cicatricial alopecia that occurs without any evidence of inflammation. It is primarily atrophy rather than an inflammatory folliculitis. The term pseudopelade was first used by Brocq to distinguish this condition from the 'pelade' of alopecia areata. In recent times, the term pseudopelade has been used to describe a generic scarring alopecia, the end result of any number of different pathological processes, and the interchangeable use by some of 'pseudopelade' and 'pseudopelade of Brocq' has led to confusion in the literature. Pseudopelade of Brocq is an unusual form of permanent hair loss from the scalp, the cause of which is unknown. This is a specific diagnosis reached after excluding known causes of patchy scarring alopecia (pseudopelade) such as lichen planopilaris and discoid lupus erythematosus. ref Robbins 9/e pg 677 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Xerophthalmia can be caused by: March 2010 | [
"Steven-Johnson syndrome",
"Vitamin A deficiency",
"Sulfa drugs",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D: All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most harmful to individual cell : | [
"X-rays",
"a - paicles",
"b - paicles",
"X- rays (gamma rays)"
] | B | B i.e. a - paicles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actinomycosis most common site- | [
"Cervicofacial",
"Thoracis",
"Abdomen",
"Brain"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cervicofacial Oral-cervicofacial type is the most common form of actinomycosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement best describes the tears seen in Mallory-Weiss syndrome? | [
"Longtitudinal tears in lower 1/3 esophagus",
"Circumferential tears in lower 1/3 esophagus",
"Longtitudinal tears in middle 1/3 esophagus",
"Circumferential tears in middle 1/3 esophagus"
] | A | Ans- A. Mallory-Weiss Tear- A Mallory-Weiss tear is a linear mucosal rent near or across the gastroesophageal junction that is often associated with retching or vomiting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which part of the brain is most commonly effected in Alzheimer's disease? | [
"Locus ceruleus",
"Entorhinal cortex",
"Frontal cortex",
"Cerebellum"
] | B | "Entorbinal cortex / Medial temporal lobe" is most commonly affected in Alzheimer's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased risk of liver adenoma is found in which of the following diseases? | [
"Lipid storage disorder",
"Mitochondrial disease",
"Glycogen storage disorder",
"Lysosomal storage disorder"
] | C | Increased risk of hepatic adenomas is a feature of glycogen storage disorder type 1 (Von Geirke's disease). NARP stands for Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa. NARP is a disease featuring weakness of the muscles near the trunk, ataxia (wobbliness), retinal disease, seizures and developmental delay. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 269 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except: | [
"Mass spectroscopy",
"RIA",
"ELISA",
"Sequencing of nucleic acid"
] | C | C i.e. ELISA Concept: ELISA (Enzyme Linked Inununoabsorbent Assay) is an enzyme based immnoassy; the similar test which uses radioactive isotope in place of enzyme is known as Radioimmunoassay (RIA) So I don't think any need of learning that- Nucleic acid sequencing, mass spectroscopy & RIA are tests using radio isotopes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with severe abdominal pain. Guaiac test on stool demonstrates occult blood. The patient is taken to exploratory laparotomy, at which a small area of infarcted small bowel is found and surgically removed. Histologic studies on the removed section of bowel demonstrate a recent thrombus occluding a small muscular aery. The adjacent vessel wall shows fibrinoid necrosis with a mixed inflammatory infiltrate containing neutrophils, eosinophils, and mononuclear cells. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the small bowel infarction? | [
"Atherosclerosis",
"Cystic medial necrosis",
"Monckeberg's aeriosclerosis",
"Polyaeritis nodosa"
] | D | The lesion described is that of polyaeritis nodosa. This condition is often considered to be the prototype for the vasculitides, and characteristically affects small or medium-sized muscular aeries, with a predilection for the gastrointestinal tract and kidney (causing hematuria, albuminuria, or renal failure). Patients are typically young adult males, although both sexes and all ages may have the condition. Characteristically, vascular lesions of different stages may be present. Coicosteroid and cyclophosphamide therapy has improved a formerly poor prognosis. Atherosclerosis can cause bowel infarction, but the histologic description would be that of a plaque. Cystic medial necrosis predisposes for dissecting aoic aneurysm. Monckeberg's aeriosclerosis is a benign condition characterized by ring-like calcifications of vessel walls. Ref: Lin P.H., Kougias P., Bechara C., Cagiannos C., Huynh T.T., Chen C.J. (2010). Chapter 23. Aerial Disease. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clinical significance of Vi antigen of S. typhi is: | [
"Helps in diagnosis",
"Highly immunogenic",
"Most impoant antigen for widal test",
"Antibody against Vi-antigen is used for diagnosis of carrier"
] | D | Ans. is. 'd' i. e., Antibody against Vi-antigen is used for diagnosis of carrier | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vaccines is most sensitive to heat? | [
"Oral Polio vaccine",
"BCG vaccine",
"DPT vaccine",
"Measles vaccine"
] | A | - Heat sensitive vaccines: OPV - most heat sensitive. Hence stored in freezer Reconstituted BCG Measles vaccine ***Note: For heat sensitivity: Reconstituted BCG > OPV > BCG -Light sensitive vaccines: Measles vaccine BCG Rota JE vaccine -Freeze sensitive vaccines: Hep B Pentavalent TT DPT vaccine | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following fractures are known for nonunion, EXCEPT: | [
"Fracture lower half of tibia",
"Fracture of neck of femur",
"Fracture of scaphoid",
"Supracondylar fracture of humerus"
] | D | The distal humeral metaphysis (supracondylar area) is a well vascularized area with remarkably rapid healing and nonunion of a supracondylar fracture is extremely rare. Non union is almost never seen without infection (open wounds) and/ or extensive soft tissue devascularization. Ref: Tachdjian's Pediatric Ohopedics 3/e, Page 2130-75, 2060; Rockwood and Green's Fracture in Children 6/e, Page 543-86. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is: | [
"p24 antigen assay",
"ELISA",
"Western blot",
"Lymph node biopsy"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., p. 24 antigen assay (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 577 - 578 and 8th/e, p. 576)* p24 antigen is the earliest virus marker to appear in blood and is the one tested for.* It may be detectable in blood after about 2 weeks.Remember: Nucleic acid tests (RT - PCR, BONA, PCR) are the earliest test to become positive (even before p24 antigen detection).TestPositive after infectionNucleic acid test12 daysp24 antigen test16 daysAntibodies test22 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about giant cell arteritis include the following except - | [
"Causes sudden bilateral blindness",
"Common in elderly",
"Females more commonly affected than males",
"Worsens on exposure to heat"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used to treat severe pulmonary hypertension ? | [
"Angiotensin I",
"Omapatrilat",
"Bosentan",
"Endothelin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Galantamine is used in? | [
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Parkinsons disease",
"Emesis",
"Chorea"
] | A | Ans. (a) Alzheimer's diseaseRef: Goodman & Gillman llthed /. 132 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Civatte bodies are found in:(1998) | [
"Lichen Planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatophytosis",
"Vitiligo"
] | A | Ans: a (Lichen planus)Ref: Robbin's Patho, 7th ed, p. 1258 & 6th ed, p. 1200 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alarm clock headache is a feature of: | [
"Trigeminal neuralgia.",
"Sphenopalatine neuralgia",
"Horner's syndrome.",
"Glossopharyngeal neuralgia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal finding in term neonate- | [
"Erythema toxicum",
"Ebstein's pearl",
"Subconjunctival hemorrhages",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erythema toxicum; 'b' i.e., Ebstein pearls; 'c' i.e., Subconjunctival haemorrhage | train | med_mcqa | null |
Flexor tendon graft repair graft is taken from - | [
"Plantaris",
"Palmaris longus",
"Extensordigitorum",
"Extensorindicis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Palmaris longus Secondary repair and reconstruction of flexor tendonso If flexor tendons cannot be repaired within the first 10 to 14 days (delayed primary repair), the repair is considered to be secondary repair.o Donor tendons for grafting, in order ofpreference, are the palmaris longus, the plantaris, and the long extensors of the toes. In rare cases, the index extensor digitorum communis, the extensor indicis proprius, and the flexor digitorum sublimis are used. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frequent suicidal tendencies are seen in which of the following: September 2009 | [
"Schizophrenia",
"Severe depression",
"Borderline personality disorder",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D: All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer is seen in | [
"Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer",
"Peutz-jeghers syndrome",
"Cowden's syndrome",
"Ataxia telangiectasia"
] | A | HNPCC or Lynch II syndrome is caused by an inherited mutation in one of the following mismatch repair genes: hMSH2, hMLH1, PMS1, PMS2, or hMSH6. The disorder is characterized by early age (average age younger than 45 years) at onset of neoplastic lesions in a variety of tissues, including the colon, uterus, stomach, ureters, ovaries, and skin. The lifetime risk of endometrial cancer in women with Lynch II syndrome is 32% to 60% and the lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is 10% to 12%. Reference: Novak's gynecology; 14th edition; Chapter 35; Uterine cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Stargardt's disease",
"Best's Vitelliform Dystrophy",
"Retinitis Pigmentosa",
"Cone- Rod Dystrophy"
] | B | Normal ERG with an abnormal EOG is charachteristic of best's vittelliform dystrophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Active form of Vitamin D3 is: | [
"Calcitriol",
"Calciferol",
"Calcidiol",
"Ergocalciferol"
] | A | Ans. A CalcitriolRef: Ganong, 25th ed. pg. 378The active metabolite of vitamin D3 is produced in kidney and is called calcitriol or 1,25 dihyroxycholecalciferol. The cells of proximal convoluted tubule produce an enzyme by name of 1 alpha hydroxylase that converts 25 hydroxycholecalciferol into 1,25 dihyroxycholecalciferol. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A newborn of 7 days old presented with meningitis. Most common cause –a) E.colib) Streptococcal pneumoniac) N. Meningitisd) Streptococcal agalactiae | [
"b",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | D | Group B streptococcus followed by E.coli are the two most common causes of neonatal meningitis.___ Nelson
Note -
For exams like AIIMS & AI, where only one options is correct, streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococcus) is best answer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fast fatigable motor unit are recruited | [
"First",
"Last",
"During active pa of contraction",
"During relaxation"
] | B | White muscle fibers are the fast fatigable motor units and are recruited last Red muscle fibers are rich in mitochondria and hence don't get fatigue soon Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:91,92,93 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about slow sand filter is | [
"Occupies less space",
"More expensive",
"Requires longer duration",
"Sand size 0.4-0.7 mm"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines - | [
"Isoflurane",
"Ether",
"Halothane",
"Propofol"
] | C | Halothane tends to sensitize the hea to arrhythmogenic action of adrenaline - contraindicated in pheochromocytoma. Ref: Manuel C Pardo Jr and Ronaldo D Miller 7th Ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of mycosis fungoides is | [
"Cladramycin",
"Adriamycin",
"FU cream",
"Full skin electron therapy"
] | D | Mycosis fungoides is a cutaneous T cell lymphoma Etio: - Unknown, sometime HTLV I virus- It is MC cutaneous lymphoma Histological findings : 1. Sezary cells - Sezary cell are malignant lymphocytes with increased cell size and convoluted nucleus aka Cerebriform nucleus 2. Epidermo tropism - affection to move towards the epidermis3. Pautrier's microabscess Prognosis: poor (fatal) T/t - Radiotherapy - full skin electron beam therapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Women with Plummer Vinson develops which cancer ? | [
"Pyriform fossa",
"Esophagus",
"Subglottis",
"Epiglottis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Viagra like medicine is given in which condition: March 2007 | [
"Pulmonary hypeension",
"Essential hypeension",
"Malignant hypeension",
"Hypeension in pregnancy"
] | A | Ans. A: Pulmonary Hypeension Since NO is an impoant regulator of pulmonary vascular resistance, PDE-5 inhibitors lower pulmonary aerial pressure. Sildenafil is more selective for pulmonary circulation than vardenafil, and is the only PHosphoDiEsteras-5 inhibitor shown to improve aerial oxygenation in pulmonary hypeension. Sildenafil has now become the drug of choice for pulmonary aerial hypeension. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following penicillins is given by oral route? | [
"Benzyl penicillin",
"Benzathine penicillin",
"Procaine penicillin",
"Penicillin V / Phenoxymethyl penicillin"
] | D | Oral Administration of Penicillin G and V
The virtue of penicillin V in comparison with penicillin G is that it is more stable in an acidic medium and therefore is better absorbed from the GI tract, yielding plasma concentrations two to five times those provided by penicillin G.
Thus, penicillin V is generally preferred for oral administration.
Absorption is rapid, and maximal concentrations in blood are attained in 30–60 min.
Ingestion of food may interfere with enteric absorption of all penicillins. Thus, oral penicillins should generally be administered at least 30 min before a meal or 2 hr after.
Reference: Goodman & Gilman’s THE PHARMACOLOGICAL BASIS OF THERAPEUTICS THIRTEENTH EDITION
Page no 1026 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Premalignant conditions of the skin include - | [
"Bowen disease",
"Paget' s disease of nipple",
"Leukoplakia",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is `d' i.e., All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
The usefulness of the long bones in stature estimation is | [
"Femur > tibia > humerus > radius",
"Tibia > femur > humerus > radius",
"Femur > Humerus > tibia > radius",
"Tibia > humerus > femur > radius"
] | A | For height estimation : (of the individual's height in life ) Humerus is 20% Tibia 22% Femur 27% Spine 35% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the major source of Vitamin D | [
"Milk",
"Oily fish",
"Egg yolk",
"Sunlight"
] | D | Vitamin D is not strictly a vitamin since it can be synthesized in the skin, and under most conditions, this is the major source of the Vitamin D. Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 123 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11kg, respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is ? | [
"Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital",
"Classify as pneumonia, sta antibiotics and advise to repo after 2 days",
"Classify as severe pneumonia, sta antibiotics and refer urgently",
"Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently"
] | C | Ans. is `c' i.e., Classify as severe pneumonia, sta antibiotics and refer urgently | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are synonyms except - | [
"Heatstroke",
"Sunstroke",
"Heat hyperthermia",
"Heat collapse"
] | D | ↵
Heat stroke is also known as heat hyperpyrexia, sunstroke, systemic hyperthermia, heat hyperthermia, and thermic fever. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensitivity of uterine musculature : | [
"Enhanced by progesterone",
"Enhanced by estrogen",
"Inhibited by estrogen",
"Enhanced by estrogen and inhibited by progesterone"
] | D | Effect of estrogen and progesterone on uterus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk factor for melanoma are all of the following EXCEPT: March 2013 | [
"Exposure to UV radiation",
"Black people",
"First degree relative with melanoma",
"Multiple or dysplastic naevi"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Black people Melanoma is commoner in fair complexion Malignant melanoma/ MM Mode of spread of MM: Lymphatic channels or hematogenous Cutaneous melanoma arises from: Epidermal melanocytes MC site involved in lentigo maligna (least common): Face MC type of MM: Superficial spreading Most malignant type of MM: Noduar melanoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A glomerulus-like structure composed of central blood vessel enveloped by germ cells within a space lined by germ cells, is seen in - | [
"Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor",
"Granulosa cell tumor",
"Endodermal sinus tumor",
"Sex cord tumor with annular tubules"
] | C | Ans. (c) Endodermal sinus tumor(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 977)Yolk sac tumor or endodermal sinus tumor show Schiller-Duval bodies or glomeruloid structures | train | med_mcqa | null |
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