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Which of the following is used to assess deafness in infants? | [
"Auditory brainstem response",
"Rinne's Test",
"SISI",
"CALORIE Test"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Auditory brainstem response Tests to assess neonatal hearing loss1) Otoacoustic emissions2) Auditory Brainstem response3) Automated Auditory Brainstem response | train | med_mcqa | null |
Agonist is having | [
"Affinity with intrinsic activity 0",
"Affinity with intrinsic activity 1",
"Affinity with intrinsic activity -1",
"None"
] | A | Ref-KDT 6/e p41 Agonist have intrinsic acriacti 1 because Intrinsic activity is a measure of the ability of a drug that is bound to the receptor to generate an activating stimulus and produce a change in cellular activity. Both agonists and antagonists can bind to a receptor. However, only agonist molecules can activate the receptor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the following except: September 2007 | [
"Syringomyelia",
"Varicose veins",
"Leprosy",
"Prolonged recumbency"
] | B | Ans. B: Varicose veinsTrophic ulcer/neurogenic ulcer have punched out edge with slough in the floor thus resembling a gummatous ulcer. Bedsore and perforating ulcers are typical examples of trophic ulcers.These ulcers develop as a result of repeated trauma to the insensitive pa of the body.They are commonly seen in the heel and the ball of the foot in ambulatory patients and on the buttock and on the back of the heel in non- ambulatory patients.These ulcers stas with callosity under which suppuration takes place, the pus comes out and the central hole forms the ulcer which gradually burrows through the muscles and tendons to the bone. The resulting is a callous ulcer with punched out corny edge.The surrounding skin has no sensation.The cause may be spinal or leprosy or peripheral nerve injury, diabetic neuropathv, tabes dorsalis, transverse myelitis or meningomyelocele. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the best time to give oral psoralen with UVA? | [
"Half n hour before UVA",
"1 hour before UVA",
"Half n hour after UVA",
"1 hour after UVA"
] | B | Ans is'b' i.e. 1 hour before UVA Psoralens (mostly 8- MOP) is given orally 1-3 hours (average 2 hours) before exposure to UVA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25 year old primigravida gave bih an infant who has clubfoot. During her pregnancy period she was diagnosed of having oligohydramnios. She didn't get a proper care for this problem. She was under ceain medications during pregnancy. Which of the following must have caused oligohydramnios in this patient? | [
"Insulin",
"Enalapril",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"None of the above"
] | B | Exposure to angiotensin-conveing enzyme inhibitors has been associated with oligohydramnios. Conditions Associated with Oligohydramnios: Fetal Chromosomal abnormalities Congenital anomalies Growth restriction Demise Postterm pregnancy Ruptured membranes Placenta Abruption Twin-twin transfusion Maternal Uteroplacental insufficiency Hypeension Preeclampsia Diabetes Drugs Prostaglandin synthase inhibitors Angiotensin-conveing enzyme inhibitors Idiopathic Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 21. Disorders of Amnionic Fluid Volume. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
M/C uterine malformation associated with infertility: | [
"Bicornuate",
"Unicornuate",
"Septate",
"Didelphys"
] | C | Ans. is c, i.e. SeptateRef: Jeffoates 8th/ed, p188"The only form of malfusion deformity which may lower fertility significantly is a fully septate vagina." - Ref: Jeffoates, 8th/ed, p188"Septate anomaly is the anomaly most highly associated with reproductive failure and obstertcial complications including first and second trimester miscarriage, preterm delivery, fetal malpresentation, IUGR and infertility. - Ref: Leon Spercoff 8th/ed, p1172 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Valvulae conniventes are seen in | [
"Jejunum",
"Ileum",
"Stomach",
"Colon"
] | A | The valvulae conniventes, also known as Kerckring folds or plicae circulares, are the mucosal folds of the small intestine, staing from the second pa of the duodenum, they are large and thick at the jejunum and considerably decrease in size distally in the ileum to disappear entirely in the distal ileal bowel loops. p Ref - radiopedia.org | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a statistical study for calculating the effect of drug on patient's sugar level the test showed significant difference when in reality there was no difference | [
"Alpha error",
"Beta error",
"Gamma error",
"Power of a test"
] | A | Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Decerebrate posture EXCEPT | [
"Exaggerated gamma motor neuron discharge",
"Reticulospinal tract is involved",
"Extension of both upper and lower extremity",
"Flexion of upper extremity and extension of lower extremity"
] | D | Ref:- Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 25th ed; pg num:- 243 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not contribute to the boundaries of facial recess? | [
"Facial nerve",
"Stapedius tendon",
"Chorda tympani nerve",
"Short process of incus bone"
] | B | Ans. b. Stapedius tendon (Ref: Dhingra 5/e p6)'Facial recess or the posterior sinus is a depression in the posterior wall lateral to the pyramid. It is bounded medially by the vertical part of Vllth nerve, laterally by the chorda tympani and above, by the fossa incudis. Surgically, facial recess is important, as direct access can be made through this into middle ear without disturbing posterior canal wall.'- Dhingra 5/e p6. Boundaries of Facial RecessMedially* Vertical part of Vllth nerveQLaterally* Chorda tympaniQAbove* Fossa incudisQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Last to undergo of putrefaction - | [
"Lung",
"Spleen",
"Prostate",
"Heart"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Prostate Order of putrefactiono Order of appearance of putrefaction from earliest to last is : larynx, trachea > stomach, intestine > spleen, liver > brain, lungs > heart > kidney, bladder > uterus/prostate > bone.o Amongst the soft tissues uterus in femaleand prostate in males are last to undergo putrefaction, as uterus and prostate resist putrefaction. Otherwise bones are last to undergo putrefaction, overall. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial staing dose of clomiphene citrate in case of infeility is - | [
"30mg/d",
"40mg/d",
"50mg/d",
"60mg/d"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 50mg/do It acts as a pure estrogen antagonist in all human tissues.Ovulation should be induced with clomipthene qtrate (CC), with a dose of 5O mgday staingfrom day 2 to day 6 of the cycle for 5 days.If the response to 50 mg CC is not satisfactory, the dose of CC should be increased to 100 mg/day from day 2 to day 6. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug should be avoided in pregnancy ? | [
"Phenytoin",
"Insulin",
"Heparin",
"All"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are true about laryngomalacia except | [
"Omega shaped epiglottis",
"Reassuarance of the patient is the treatment of choice",
"Condition is first noticed in the first few weeks of life",
"Expiratory stridor"
] | D | It is characterized by excessive flaccidity of supraglottic larynx which is sucked in during inspiration producing stridor and sometimes cyanosis. It shows inspiratory stridor. Stridor is increased on crying but subsides on placing the child in the prone position. The cry is normal. Direct laryngoscopy shows elongated epiglottis, curled upon itself (omega-shaped O), floppy aryepiglottic folds and prominent arytenoids. Ref: PL Dhingra 7th edition of Ear, Nose and Throat; Pg no 333 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic pathological finding in carcinoid of hea | [
"Fibrous endocardial thickening of right ventricle and tricuspid valve",
"Collagen deposition in wall of right ventricle and tricuspid valve",
"Interstitial fibrous thickening of right ventricle and pulmonic valve",
"Mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate in the wall of right atrium"
] | A | The characteristic cardiac pathological findings of carcinoid hea disease are endocardial thickening as a result of fibrous deposits on the endocardium. Echocardiographic examination and right hea catheterization are very useful for the diagnosis of the lesion. If more cardiac valves are affected, multiple valve replacement should be considered. The management of the pulmonary valve lesion depends on the extent of the diseased valve, either by valvulotomy, valvectomy, or valve replacement. Percutaneous valve implantations in the pulmonary and in the inferior vena cava positions have been advocated for high-risk patients. ref - pubmed.cm <a href=" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Derivative of 3rd pharyngeal arch | [
"Hyoid aery",
"On left , aoic arch; on right, proximal pa of right subclan aery",
"Common Carotid aery and proximal pa of internal carotid aery",
"Proximal pa of pulmonary aeries and (on the left only) ductus aeriosus"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
In cryptorchism histological changes appear in testis | [
"4 months",
"6 months",
"8 months",
"1 year"
] | B | Answer- B. 6 months | train | med_mcqa | null |
Period Prevalence is | [
"No of cases in a given point of time",
"No of cases in a given year",
"No of cases over a period of years mentioned",
"Incidence of no of cases during a given period"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organ is least likely to be involved in Behcet&;s disease | [
"CNS",
"Liver",
"Joints",
"Eyes"
] | B | Behcet&;s disease is an inflammatory disorder which affects multiple pas of the body. The most common symptoms include painful mouth sores, genital sores, inflammation of pas of the eye, and ahritisLess commonly there may be inflammation of the brain or spinal cord, thrombosis, aneurysms, or blindnessDiagnosis is based on at least three episodes of mouth sores in a year together with at least two of the following: genital sores, eye inflammation, skin sores, a positive skin prick test (Pathergy test).Ref: Harrison 19th pg: 2194 | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about '100 Day Cough'? | [
"Incubation period is 7-14 days",
"There is no subclinical or chronic carriers state",
"Incidence and fatality is more common in males than females",
"Erythromycin is the drug of choice"
] | C | Whooping cough Aka '100 Day cough' Causative organism- Bordetella Peusis Incubation period is 7-14 days. There is no subclinical or chronic carriers state. Erythromycin is the drug of choice. Incidence and fatality are more common in females than males. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kussumauls breathing | [
"Metabolic alkalosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis",
"Respiratory acidosis",
"Metabolic acidosis"
] | D | Rapid,deep(Kussmaul) breathing usually implies metabolic acidosis but may also occur with pontomesencephalic lesions. Ref:Harrison's medicine -18th edition,page no:2251. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pheochromocytomas are known to arise from all of the following, except: | [
"Adrenal gland",
"Mediastinum",
"Neck",
"Chest wall"
] | D | Answer is D (Chest wall): Pheochromocytomas are not found in the chest wall Pheochromocytomas may be found in the adrenal gland, neck and mediastinum (along the sympathetic chain), abdomen (paraaoic) and urinary bladder. Sites of pheochromocytoma Adrenal gland (most common) Head and Neck Thorax (mediastinum) Intra abdominal (paraaoic) Bladder | train | med_mcqa | null |
A one year old child preents with sho stature, lethargy, & constipation. Clinical examinaton shows a palpable goiter. Laboratory investigations revealed a low T4 and elevated TSH which of the following is the most likely diagnosis. | [
"Thyroid Dyshormonogenesis",
"Thyroid Dysgenesis",
"Central Hypothyroidism",
"TSH Receptor Blocking Antibody"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., Thyroid Dyshormonogenesis o This child has :? i) Thyroid swelling ii) Low T4 & High TSH iii) Abnormal weight gain and poor activities o All these suggests the diagnosis of congenital hypothyroidism due to thyroid disorder (In hypothalamic diseases, TSH levels will be low). o The most common cause of non - endemic congenital hypothyroidism is thyroid dysgenesis. i) In endemic regions Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is iodine deficiency in intrauterine and neonatal period (world wide). ii) In non-endemic regions Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is thyroid dysgenesis. o However, in thyroid dysgenesis, thyroid gland does not enlarge to produce palpable goitre. So, this option is excluded. o Dyshormogensis is an uncommon cause of congenital goitrous hypothyroidism and account only about 10-15% of cases of congenital hypothyroidism. It results from a deficiency of one or more enzymes (most commonly, thyroid peroxidase) involved in thyroid hormone synthesis or secretion. Condition Palpable Thyroid (Goitre) T4 rsH Thyroid Dysgenesis No Low Elevated Thyroid Dyshormonogenesis Yes (Goitre) Low Elevated TSH Receptor Blocking Antibody No Low Elevated Central Hypothyroidism No Low Normal/Low o So, amongst the given options, best answer is Dyshormogenesis. o You keep in mind that the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism with similar presentation (palpable goitre) is iodine deficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is neurotoxic -a) Sea snakeb) Russel viperc) Kraitd) Cobrae) Pit viper | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"de"
] | C | Kraft and Cobra are neurotoxic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Telogen phase of hair growth lasts for ? | [
"1 day",
"10 days",
"100 days",
"1000 days"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 100 days The most impoant feature of hair follicle is that their activity is cyclic. Hair grows at 0.4 mm per day and as it reaches a definitive length, it is shed to be replaced by a new hair. Hair undergoes through 3 different phases of hair cycle :? 1) Anagen phase (Phase of activity and growth) This is the phase in which growth of hair takes place -4 Cells in the root of hair are dividing rapidly. Melanogenesis also occurs during anagen phase. This phase lasts for 3 years (2-6 years). Most of the hair (75-80%) are in anagen phase at a given time. 2) Catagen phase (Transition phase) It is the transition phase between anagen and telogen. 3% of hair are in this phase. During this phase growth stops and outer root sheat shrinks and attaches to root of hair known as club hair. This phase lasts for 2-3 weeks. 3) Telogen phase (Resting or degenerative phase) This phase is the resting phase and lasts for 100 days (3 months). About 25-100 telogen hair are shed normally each day. 10-15% of hair are in this phase. After telogen phase the cycle is complete and the new hair, which stas growing in same follicle, pushes this old hair (who has completed the hair cycle) --> Old hair is lost and new hair stas growing. This hair cycle of one hair is independent of the cycle of neighboring hair, i.e., the neighboring hair follicles are not synchronized in growth, this is called Mosaic. The propoion of hair in each phase can be estimated by looking at the plucked hair called as trichogram. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old female patient presented with complaints of a swelling in the neck which moved with deglutition along with multiple episodes of diarrhoea, hoarseness, mild dysphagia and mild shoness of breath. Lab findings revealed raised serum calcitonin levels, hypercalcemia. Which of the following histology corresponds with the above disease: - | [
"<img style=\"max-width: 100%\" src=\" />",
"<img style=\"max-width: 100%\" src=\" />",
"<img style=\"max-width: 100%\" src=\" />",
"None of the above"
] | C | This is a case of medullary carcinoma thyroid. Image C shows nuclei with neuroendocrine features (round nuclei with salt-and-pepper chromatin), amyloid deposits (fluffy appearing acellular eosinophilic material) and C-cell hyperplasia. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid (MTC) accounts for less than 5% of thyroid cancer. MTC arises from the C cells of the thyroid, which do not accumulate radioiodine It secretes calcitonin (Ctn), which is used as a tumor marker. Patients with locally advanced disease may present with hoarseness, dysphagia, and respiratory difficulty Diarrhea may occur from increased intestinal electrolyte secretion secondary to high plasma calcitonin levels Image A is papillary carcinoma thyroid. Image B is follicular carcinoma thyroid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common nerve involved in cavernous sinus thrombosis is - | [
"Abducens",
"Trochlear nerve",
"Oculomotor nerve",
"Facial nerve"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Abducens Cavernous sinus thrombosis* The clinical presentation of CST can be varied. Both acute, fulminant disease and indolent, subacute presentations have been reported in the literature.* The most common signs of CST are related to anatomical structures affected within the cavernous sinus, notably cranial nerves III-VI, as well as symptoms resulting from impaired venous drainage from the orbit and eye.* Classic presentations are abrupt onset of unilateral periorbital edema, headache, photophobia, and bulging of the eye (proptosis).* Other common signs and symptoms include:* Ptosis, chemosis, cranial nerve palsies (III, IV, V, VI). Sixth nerve palsy is the most common. Sensory deficits of the ophthalmic and maxillary branch of the fifth nerve are common. Periorbital sensory loss and impaired corneal reflex may be noted. Papilledema, retinal hemorrhages, and decreased visual acuity and blindness may occur from venous congestion within the retina. Fever, tachycardia and sepsis may be present. Headache with nuchal rigidity may occur. Pupil may be dilated and sluggishly reactive. Infection can spread to contralateral cavernous sinus within 24-48 hours of initial presentation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anaesthetic agent(s) safe to use in↑ICP – | [
"Halothane",
"Thiopentone",
"Ketamine",
"Ether"
] | B | All IV inducing agents (including thiopentone) except for ketamine decrease ICT.
Ketamine increases ICT.
Inhalational agents (Ether, Halothane) increase ICT. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is classically a/an | [
"Allergic reaction",
"Type II hypersensitivity",
"Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity",
"Cell mediated hypersensitivity"
] | C | Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Allergic alveolitis TYPE III +TYPE IV HS Complement & Ig in the vessel walls - Type III Non-caseating granulomas in 2/3rd patients - Type IV | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest manifestation of retinoblastoma is | [
"Pseudohypopyon",
"Leukocoria",
"Squint",
"Nystagmus"
] | B | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 303) Leukocoria or amaurotic cat's eye reflex this is the most common manifestation. The leukocoria or the white glow in the pupil is caused by reflection of light from the white intraocular tumor Leukocoria. Leukocoria (also white pupillary reflex) is an abnormal white reflection from the retina of the eye. Because of the potentially life-threatening nature of retinoblastoma, a cancer, that condition is usually considered in the evaluation of leukocoria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Localised regional cerebral atrophy is seen in - | [
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Frontotemporal dementia",
"C.J. disease",
"Friedreich's ataxin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tension band wiring is done in all except- | [
"Fracture patella",
"Fracture alecranon",
"Fracture medial malleolus",
"Colle's fracture"
] | D | Tension band wiring is used in patella fracture, olecranon fracture, medial malleolus fractures, lateral malleolus fracture, fracture greater trochanter of femur, fracture greater tubercle of humerus, fracture tibial tuberosity and tuber calcaneus fracture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Folic acid requirement during lactation is: September 2008 | [
"100 microgram/day",
"150 microgram/day",
"200 microgram/day",
"250 microgram/day"
] | B | Ans. B: 150 microgram/day The dietary intake values of folate as recommended by ICMR are: Healthy adults: 100mcg per day In pregnancy: 400mcg per day During lactation: 150mcg per day Children: 100 mcg per day | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Collagen: | [
"Triple helix",
"Beta- pleated structure",
"Vit C is necessary for post-translational modification",
"Glycine residue at every third position"
] | A | A i.e. Triple helix | train | med_mcqa | null |
which absorbs least water | [
"Mucilage",
"Hemi cellulose",
"lignin",
"Pectin"
] | B | ref : lipincott | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neural tube defect is best detected by | [
"USG",
"Chromosomal analysis",
"Amniocentesis",
"Placentography"
] | C | C i.e. Amniocentesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is used in drug induced ulcers-a) Antacidsb) Ranifidinec) Omeprazoled) Misopristol | [
"a",
"c",
"bc",
"ad"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about nasal myiasis - | [
"Commonly occurs in ethmoidal polys patient",
"Results from the ova of fly chrysomia",
"Treated by nasal saline instillation",
"Cannot cause death of the patient"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Results from the ova of fly chrysomia Nasal myiasis (Maggots in the nose)o It results from the presence of ova of flies particularly chrysomia species in the nose which produce ulceration and destruction of the nasal structure. Mostly seen in atrophic rhinitis when the mucosa becomes insensitive to flies laying eggs inside.Clinical featureso Initial symptoms (3-4 days maggots) Intense irritation, sneezing, headache, bloodstained discharge. lacrimation.o Later Maggots may crawl out of the nose and there is a foul smell.Complicationso Destruction of nose, sinuses, soft tissues of face, palate, and eyeball. Fistulae in nose and palate. Death occurs due to meningitis.Treatmento Chloroform water or vapor must be instilled in order to anesthetize or kill the maggots and so release their grip on the skin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vector for T.cruzi is - | [
"Reduvid bug",
"Tsetse fly",
"Sand fly",
"Hard tick"
] | A | T.cruzi passes its life cycle I two host Definitive host- humans Intermediate host-triatomine bugs Humans become infectious when reduviid bug bites and the infected faecal matter is discharged near bite wound (refer pgno:49 baveja 3 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following bacteria is oxidase positive ?a) Vibriob) Pseudomonasc) Clostridiumd) E.coli | [
"ac",
"a",
"ab",
"bc"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cervical veebra is differentiated from the thoracic veerbra by the presence of | [
"Large veebral body",
"Upwards facing facets",
"Triangular for amina",
"Foramen transversarium"
] | D | Ans. d. Foramen transversarium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy: | [
"Enatapril",
"Verapamil",
"Methyldopa",
"Furosemide"
] | C | Ans. c. Methyldopa (Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24/e p100; Dutta 7/e p228, Goodman Gillman 12/e p773, 774; Katzung 12/e p176)Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy is methyldopa.Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent. It is a prodrug that exerts its antihypertensive action via an active metabolite. Although used frequently as an antihypertensive agent in the past, methyldopa s significant adverse effects limit its current use largely to treatment of hypertension in pregnancy, where it has a record for safety. " --Goodman Gillman 12/e p 773"Methyldopa is a preferred drug for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy based on its effectiveness and safety for both mother and fetus. The usual initial dose of methyldopa is 250 mg twice daily, and there is little additional effect with doses >2 g/day. "--Goodman Gillman 12/e p774"Methyldopa was widely used in the past but is now used primarily for hypertension during pregnancy. It lowers blood pressure chiefly by reducing peripheral vascular resistance, with a variable reduction in heart rate and cardiac output. " --Katzung 12/e p176Antihypertensives in PregnancySafeContraindicated* LabetaloQ* Alpha methyldopaQ* Calcium channel blockersQ* Hydralazine* Sodium nitroprusside +-* ACE inhibitorsQ* Reserpine* Loratidine Drug of Choice in PregnancyConditionDrug of ChoiceDOC for malaria in pregnancy* ChloroquineQDOC for anticoagulation in pregnancy* HeparinQAnti hypertensive of choice in pregnancy* Alpha-methyldopaQAnti hypertensive of choice for hypertensive crisis in pregnancy* LabetaloQDOC for nausea in pregnancy* Doxylamine and pyridoxineQAnalgesic of choice during pregnancy* AcitoaminophenQAnti-epileptic of choice during pregnancy* PhenobarbitoneQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
The only mood stabiliser that has anti suicide propey is - | [
"Lithium",
"Valproate",
"Carbamazepine",
"Lamotrigine"
] | A | Lithium- * Lithium is a commonly prescribed medication for aggressive behaviors in a wide array of patients, including those with bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, conduct disorder, and intellectual disability. Its effect in increasing brain 5-HT function may be relevant in anti-suicidal propey. The required plasma concentrations are: For prophylaxis: 0.5-1.0 mmol/liter, increased occasionally to a maximum of 1.2 mmol/liter; For treatment of acute mania: 0.8-1.5 mmol/liter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Accompanied MDT' in NLEP implies:- | [
"A patient will be given MDT only in the presence of a MDT provider",
"MDT should be accompanied with steroids / Clofazimine to help fight reversal reactions",
"Any responsible person from family or village can collect MDT, if patient is unable to come",
"MDT prescription should be accompanied by all the prec... | C | Accompanied MDT in NLEP : - If patient is unable to come to collect his/her MDT from clinic, any responsible person from family or village can collect it; Designed to help patients who have to interrupt their treatment due to any avoidable reason. Especially useful for irregular patients. Gives patients a choice; patients can collect entire MDT course when diagnosed after proper counseling. Extra edge: - NLEP launched Sparsh Leprosy Awareness Campaign on Anti-leprosy day, in 2017, to generate awareness, reduce stigma & improve self-repoing of the cases. - This is done through postures of a school girl called 'SAPNA' who spreads awareness in the community. - Nikusth is used for data managment of leprosy cases. - Mycobacterium Indicus Prani (MiP) vaccine is given for pts with multibacillary leprosy & their contacts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An anti-arrhythmic drug that is not proarrhythmic? | [
"Lignocaine",
"Disopyramide",
"Amiodarone",
"Moricizine"
] | A | Ans. a (Lignocaine). (Ref. KD Tripathi, Pharmacology, 6th /513)# Most anti-arrhythmic can themselves precipitate serious arrhythmias i.e., they have arrhythmogenic potential, hence called proarrhythmic.- Encainide, flecainide, moricizine have higher incidence of sudden death.# Terfenadine, astemizole, cisapride and halofantrine prolong QT interval; co-admin of class la drugs (Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide, moricizine) or sotalol carries high risk of Torsade de Pointes.Lignocaine has minimal effect on normal ECG and it has no significant autonomic action. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old boy fell from his motorcycle and complains of numbness of lateral pa of the arm. Examination reveals the axillary nerve is severed. Which of the following types of axons is most likely spared? | [
"Postganglionic sympathetic axons",
"Somatic afferent axons",
"Preganglionic sympathetic axons",
"General somatic efferent axons"
] | C | The axillary nerve contains no preganglionic sympathetic general visceral efferent (GVE) fibres, but it contains postganglionic sympathetic GVE fibres. It also contains general somatic afferent (GSA), general somatic efferent (GSE), and general visceral afferent (GVA) fibres. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cholecystokinin causes all of the following except:- | [
"Gall bladder contraction",
"Pancreatic enzyme secretion",
"Increases gastrin secretion",
"Increases small intestinal motility"
] | C | Cholecystokinin: - Stimuli for secretion Site of secretion Actions Protein, Fat, Acid -I cells of duodenum, jejunum and ileum Stimulates- Pancreatic enzyme secretions Pancreatic bicarbonate secretions Gallbladder contraction Growth of exocrine pancreas Inhibits- Gastric emptying | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amsler's grid is used to evaluate ? | [
"Central 10 degress of vision",
"Central 20 degrees of vision",
"Peripheral vision",
"Lens opacity"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Central 10 degress of vision Metamorphopsia is a phenomenon wherein the patient perceives objects to have an altered, irregular contour or shape. For example, graph paper lines may be bent or obscured in areas. This can be reviewed for any changes over time using an Amsler grid, which tests the central 10deg of vision. It is associated with diseases affecting the macula such as central serous choroidopathy, age- related macular degeneration, diabetic macular oedema and macular hole. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the CNS, where is the key regulators of sleep located? | [
"Putamen",
"Thalamus",
"Limbic coex",
"Hypothalamus"
] | D | The normal circadian rhythm is regulated by the paired suprachiasmatic nuclei of hypothalamus, one on either side above the optic chiasm. These nuclei receive information about the light dark cycle special neural pathway, the retinohypothalamic fibers that pass from the optic chiasm to the suprachiasmatic nuclei. Efferents from the suprachiamatic nuclei initiate neural and hormonal signals that entrain a variety of well known circadian rythms. These include rythms in the secretion of ACTH and other pituitary hormones, sleep wake cycle, activity patterns and secretion of pineal hormone melatonin. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 155; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Page 689, 690 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Action of i. v. thiopentone is terminated by ? | [
"Rapidly renal excretion",
"Oxidation",
"Redistribution",
"Conjugation"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Redistribution Three proceeses are involved in the termination of action of barbiturates: the relative impoance of each varies with the compound. Redistribution: it is impoant in the case of highly lipid soluble thiopentone. After iv injection the action of thiopentone is terminated in 6-10 mins by redistribution while the ultimate disposal occurs by metabolism (tl/ 2 of elimination is 9 hours). Metabolism: drugs with intermediate lipid solubility (sho acting barbiturates) are primarily metabolized in liver by oxidation, dealkylation and conjugation. Their plasma t1/2 ranges from 12 - 40 hours. Excretion: barbiturates with low lipid solubility (long acting agents) are significantly excreted unchanged in urine. The t1/2 of phenobarbitone is 80-120 hours. Alkalinization of urine increases ionization and excretion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common complication of chronic gastric ulcer is - | [
"Tea pot stomach",
"Scirrhous carcinoma (adenocarcinoma)",
"Perforation",
"Massive haematemesis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Massive haematemesis Most common complication of peptic ulcer is gastro intestinal bleeding. It is seen with both chronic and acute type of ulcers. Infact, chronic peptic ulcers are the most common cause of haematemesis and malaena. Complications of peptic ulcer ? 1) Gastrointestinal bleeding Most common complication of peptic ulcer Bleeding is more common in duodenal ulcers It is commonly seen in posterior duodenal ulcers because of erosion of gastroduodenal aery. 2) Perforation It is the second most common complication of peptic ulcer disease. Perforation occurs commonly in the ulcers located in the anterior pa of duodenum. Duodenal ulcers tend to penetrate into pancreas causing pancreatitis. Gastric ulcers tend to penetrate into left hepatic lobe. 3) Gastric outlet obstruction It is the least common ulcer related complication. It is commonly associated with duodenal ulcers. Tea pot stomach is caused due to longitudinal shoening of the gastric ulcer at the lesser curvature of the stomach (It causes the stomach to look like tea pot). Hour glass stomach is caused due to cicatricial contraction of a saddle shaped ulcer at the lesser curvature. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following cell types does not paicipate in repair after brain infarction - | [
"Microglia",
"Astrocytes",
"Fibroblasts",
"Endothelium"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fibroblasts o Fibroblasts are involved in wound healing, outside the CNS | train | med_mcqa | null |
FALSE about Triage: | [
"Red - first priority",
"Black - last priority",
"Yellow - survive if treatment given immediately",
"Green - survive even if treatment given after hours"
] | C | (C) Yellow - survive if treatment given immediately # TRIAGE is a system used by medical or emergency personnel to ration limited medical resources when the number of injured needing care exceeds the resources available to perform care so as to treat those patients in most need of treatment who are able to benefit first.> Black / Expectant: are so severely injured that they will die of their injuries, possibly in hours or days (large-body burns, severe trauma, lethal radiation dose), or in life-threatening medical crisis that they are unlikely to survive given the care available (cardiac arrest, septic shock, severe head wounds); they should be taken to a holding area and given painkillers to ease their passing.> Red / Immediate: require immediate surgery or other life-saving intervention, first priority for surgical teams or transport to advanced facilities, "cannot wait" but are likely to survive with immediate treatment.> Yellow / Observation: Their condition is stable for the moment but requires watching by trained persons and frequent re-triage, will need hospital care (and would receive immediate priority care under "normal" circumstances).> Green / Wait (walking wounded): will require a doctor's care in several hours or days but not immediately, may wait for a number of hours or be told to go home and come back the next day (broken bones without compound fractures, many soft tissue injuries).> White /Dismiss (walking wounded): have minor injuries; first aid and home care are sufficient, a doctor's care is not required. Injuries are along the lines of cuts and scrapes, or minor burns. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Relative risk of developing TB in patients already infected with TB bacilus is highest in - | [
"Diabetes",
"Recent infection",
"Post transplantation",
"Malnutrition"
] | C | Ans. is 4c' i.e., Post transplantation Relative risk of developing T.B.Post transplantation20-70HIV30Silicosis30Recent infection12Diabetes3-4Malnutrition2-3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In eukaryotes, which of the following is covalently linked to the protein that is targeted for destruction? | [
"Clathrin",
"Pepsin",
"Laminin",
"Ubiquitin"
] | D | The selective degradation of many sho-lived proteins in eukaryotic cells is carried out by the ubiquitin-mediated proteolytic system. In this pathway, proteins are targeted for degradation by covalent ligation to ubiquitin. Ref: The Ubiquitin-Proteasome Proteolytic System, By Aaron J. Ciechanover, Maria G. Masucci, 2002 ; Progress In Virus Research By Sabine Thebault, Page 79, Structural And Functional Organization Of The Synapse By Johannes W. Hell, Michael D. Ehlers | train | med_mcqa | null |
The hea lesion not found in Congenital Rubella infection is: | [
"ASD",
"VSD",
"PDA",
"PS"
] | A | Answer is A (ASD) ASD is the single best answer of exclusion. Cardiac anomalies in congenital rubella are mentioned differently in different books ! We have chosen ASD as the one to be excluded as both GHAI & CPDT mention VSD as a finding is cases of congenital rubella. Neveheless Harrison mentions ASD as well, and so you are on your own, if you wish to differ. The commonest congenital cardiac anomaly is Congenital Rubella is PDA. According to GHAI : PDA > PS> VSD According to CPDT : PDA > PS> VSD According to Harrison : PDA > PS> ASD According to Nelson : PDA > PS (ASD & VSD not mentioned) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intrapleural pressure is | [
"Transpulmonary pressure + Alveolar pressure",
"Transpulmonary pressure - Alveolar pressure",
"Transmural pressure + Alveolar pressure",
"Alveolar pressure - Transpulmonary pressure"
] | D | In physiology, intrapleural pressure (also called intrathoracic pressure) refers to the pressure within the pleural cavity. Normally, the pressure within the pleural cavity is slightly less than the atmospheric pressure, in what is known as negative pressure Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 316,317,318 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve least likely to be involved in Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus is: | [
"Chorda Tympani",
"Infraorbital",
"Nasociliary",
"Lacrimal"
] | A | Chorda Tympani | train | med_mcqa | null |
Electrical injury results in all except | [
"Gas gangrene",
"Alkalosis",
"Ventricular fibrillation",
"Always a deep burn"
] | B | Acidosis occurs in Electrical injury or burns due to renal failure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are the primary sites of acute gonococcal infection except: | [
"Urethra",
"Batholin's gland",
"Skene's gland (Paraurethran glands)",
"Ectocervix"
] | D | Ectocervix is covered by squamous epithelium and squamous epithelium is resistant to gonococcal infection. Primary genital sites of involvement of gonorrhea Endocervix Urethra Skene' gland Baholin's gland | train | med_mcqa | null |
All may be clinical feature of malignant hypehermia except- | [
"Hypercarbia",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hypotension"
] | C | Hypercalcemia does not occur, hypocalcemia occurs. Hypeension may be rapidly followed by hypotension. Clinical Manifestations of Malignant Hypehermia: Early Signs: Elevated end-tidal carbon dioxide Tachypnea and/or tachycardia Masseter spasm, if succinylcholine has been used Generalized muscle rigidity Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis Profuse sweating Mottling of skin Cardiac arrhythmias Unstable blood pressure Late Signs Hyperkalemia Rapid increase of core body temperature- body temperature rises by 10C every 5 minutes Elevated creatine phosphokinase levels Gross myoglobinemia and myoglobinuria Cardiac arrest Disseminated intravascular coagulation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post neonatal moality refers to _____ | [
"Deaths between 28 days and 1 year of life",
"Deaths within the first 7 days of life",
"Deaths between 7 days and 28 days of life",
"Deaths within the first 3 months of life"
] | A | Post-neonatal moality refers to deaths between 28 days of life and 1 yr of life. These infant deaths are a result of causes outside the neonatal period such as sudden infant death sydrome, infections (respiratory, enteric) and trauma. Perinatal moality refers to death between 28th week of gestation and 7th day after bih Neonatal moality refers to death during the 1st 28 days after bih. Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 20th edition Pgno: 792 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of short stature in children | [
"Under nutrition",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Familial short stature",
"Constitutional delay"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after a road traffic accident. Per abdomen examination is normal. After adequate resuscitation, his pulse rate is 80/min and BP is 110/70 mm Hg. Abdominal CT reveals 1 cm deep laceration in the left lobe of the liver extending from the dome more than halfway through the parenchyma.Appropriate management at this time would be | [
"Conservative treatment",
"Abdominal exploration and packing of hepatic wounds",
"Abdominal exploration and ligtation of left hepatic aery",
"Left hepatectomy"
] | B | .Specific treatment for liver injury includes * Push (direct compression); plug (plugging the deep track injuries using silicone tube or SB tube); Pringles' manoeuvre; pack (liver wound is directly packed with a mop). * Laparotomy is done through a large bucket handle abdominal incision or thoracoabdominal incision, and extent of a liver injury and also other associated injuries are looked for. * Small liver tear is sutured with vicryl or PDS mattress sutures with placing of gel foam to control bleeding. * To control bleeding on the table, from the hepatic aery and poal vein, both are temporarily occluded using fingers, compressing at the foramen of Winslow --Pringle manoeuvre. Often bull-dog clamp or vascular clamps can be used. ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery, ed 3, pg no 528 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gun barrel vision is seen in | [
"Closed angle glaucoma",
"Papillaedema",
"Nuclear cataract",
"All of the above"
] | B | (B) Papillaedema# GUN BARREL VISION that appears as when looking through a Tunnel or Gun Barrel.> Common Causes:1. Glaucoma (Late)- Chronic open angle glaucoma2. Retinitis pigmentosa3. Post-papillaedema optic atrophy4. Hyaline bodies Drusen) of optic disc5. Bilateral occipital infarcts with macular sparing6. Malingering or Hysteria7. Blood loss8. Hallucinogens9. Extreme fear10. Pituitary stalk tumour11. Severe cataract12. Migraine aura13. Altitude sickness14. Hypoxia> Less common Causes:1. Panic attack2. Exposure to hydraulic fluids3. Intense anger | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used to treat Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria ? | [
"Eculizumab",
"Avelumab",
"Natalizumab",
"Sarilumab"
] | A | Eculizumab is monoclonal antibody against C5 complement used in the treatment of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antrochoanal polyp is associated most commonly with ? | [
"Superior meatus",
"Inferior meatus",
"Middle meatus",
"Sphenoethmoidal recess"
] | C | ANTROCHOANAL POLYP Antrochoanal polyp is non-cancerous growth arising from the mucous membrane of the maxillary sinus and reaches the opening of the sinus in the nasal cavity through the opening of maxillary sinus in the middle meatus. It is single and unilateral, i.e. it occurs in one of the maxillary sinus. It arises from maxillary sinus and grows backward in the nose towards the choana and may reach the nasopharynx. Generally occurs in young age group (children and young adults) and is more common in male. Exact etiology is not known, However sinus infection has been incriminated (in contrast to ethmoidal polyp, which is considered as allergic). Clinical features of antrochoanal polyp Unilateral Nasal blockage (more on expiration than on inspiration) Obstruction may become bilateral when polyp grows into nasopharynx and stas obstructing opposite choana. Hyponasal voice Mucoid nasal discharge Conductive deafness due to eustachian tube dysfunction On examination, polyp may not be visible on anterior rhinoscopy as it grows posteriorly On posterior rhinoscopy - smooth, greyish white, spherical mass is seen in choana. Treatment of antrochoanal polyp There is no medical treatment for antrochoanal polyp. The treatment of choice is complete surgical removal of polyp along with removal of lining of maxillary sinus to prevent the recurrence. Surgeries for antrochoanal polyp include :? 1) Avulsion of a polyp The stalk of the polyp is grasped and gently moved around to tease out the antral lining. Most of the time, avulsion fails to remove the polyp and antral lining completely. 2) Intranasal polypectomy It was the treatment of choice for all age groups prior to the advent of endoscopic sinus surgery and is still the treatment of choice in those setups where endoscopic surgery is not practised. 3) Caldwell Luc operation It is indicated if there is a recurrence and the age of the patient is more than 17 years. Now a days with FESS available - Caldwell luc operation is avoided. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior mesenteric aery supplies: | [
"Colon",
"Anus",
"Rectum",
"Descending colon"
] | A | Colon | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of fatigue and swelling in her neck. Physical examination shows a goiter. A CBC discloses megaloblastic anemia and a normal reticulocyte count. Additionally, there is an elevated serum level of TSH and antithyroid antibodies. Needle aspiration of the left lobe of the thyroid reveals benign follicular cells and numerous lymphocytes. Anemia in this patient is most likely caused by antibodies directed to which of the following targets? | [
"Chief cells",
"Intrinsic factor",
"Paneth cells",
"TSH receptor"
] | B | This patient has chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto thyroiditis) and pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a megaloblastic anemia that is caused by malabsorption of vitamin B12 due to a deficiency of the intrinsic factor. In many cases, pernicious anemia is associated with other autoimmune diseases (e.g., Hashimoto thyroiditis, Graves disease, Addison disease, or diabetes mellitus type 1). Circulating antibodies to parietal cells, some of which are cytotoxic in the presence of complement, occur in 90% of patients with pernicious anemia. Two thirds of patients display an antibody to the intrinsic factor that prevents its combination with vitamin B12 thereby preventing formation of the complex that is later absorbed in the ileum. Half of all patients with pernicious anemia have circulating antibodies to thyroid tissue.Diagnosis: Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto thyroiditis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The causative agent for virulent external ear infection in a diabetic elderly is mostly by | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Streptococcus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Hemophilus influenzae"
] | C | Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the agent which is responsible for virulent external ear infection in diabetics, mainly Necrotizing otitis externa. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 55) | train | med_mcqa | null |
18-year male flat affect, odd behaviour. Diagnosis ? | [
"Hysteria",
"Schrizophrenia",
"Depression",
"Schizoid personality disorder"
] | D | Traits of schizoid personality disorder include emotional coldness, lack of pleasure from activities, limited capacity to express feelings towards others, apparent indifference to praise or criticism, little interest in sexual experiences, preference for solitary activities, excessive preoccupation with fantasy and introspection, lack of close friends, and marked insensitivity to prevailing social norms and conventions. Eliminating the other options, option A: Hysteris/ Dissociative disorder have good reactivity of mood. option B: Schizophrenia can have flat affect, but halluciantion, delusions, thought abnormality or made phenomenon should be present to reach the diagnosis. option C: Depression does not have flat affect. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 114 | train | med_mcqa | null |
To prevent porosity in self-cure acrylic resin, curing should be carried in: | [
"Cold water",
"Hot water",
"Under tap water",
"Under vacuum pressure"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased rennin activity Is seen in- | [
"Benign nephroaelarosiB",
"Malignant nephrosclerosis",
"HUS",
"MHA"
] | B | Higher-than-normal levels may indicate: Kidneys trying to raise falling blood pressure. Kidneys trying to raise falling blood pressure due to reduced cardiac output. Excessive renin is being secreted by the kidneys. Renal vascular damage leading to reduced JGA perfusion Malignant nephrosclerosis as the name implies is a serious condition. The kidney demonstrates focal small hemorrhages, which are obscuring the coicomedullary junction here. This is often due to an accelerated phase of essential hypeension in which blood pressures are very high (such as 300/150 mm Hg) renin activity is very high Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 460 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has Rinne test +ve for left ear and weber test is lateralized to right ear, what type of deafness may be seen in this case? | [
"Left conductive HL",
"Right conductive HL",
"Left sensorineural HL",
"Right sensorineural HL"
] | C | Tuning fork tests and their interpretation Test Normal Conductive deafness SN deafness Rinne AC>BC (Rinne +ve) BC>AC (Rinne -ve) AC>BC Weber Not lateralized Lateralized to poorer ear Lateralized to better ear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The gingiva is attached to the tooth by: | [
"Lamina propria",
"Periosteum",
"Epithelial attachment",
"Gingival fibers"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blue ear drum is seen in ? | [
"Serous otitis media",
"CSOM",
"Perforation",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serous otitis media Any accumulation of fluid behind tympanic membrane causes structural changes in tympanic membrane causing it to appear blue, be it pus, blood or serous fluid. The most common cause of fluid accumulation in middle ear is serous otitis media or glue ear (most common cause) and haemotympanum. Other causes of blue tympanic membrane are glomus tumor, hemangioma of middle ear, and cholesterol granuloma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conditions that increase aldosterone secretion without affecting glucocorticoid secretion includes : | [
"High potassium intake",
"Low Sodium intake",
"Constriction of inferior venacava in thorax",
"All of the above"
] | D | Conditions that increase aldosterone secretion.
Glucocorticoid secretion also increased Surgery Anxiety Physical trauma
Hemorrhage Glucocorticoid secretion unaffected High potassium intake Low sodium intake Constriction of inferior vena cava in thorax Standing Secondary hyperaldosteronism (in some cases of congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, and hephrosis) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiation caries appears in: | [
"3 weeks",
"6 months",
"3 months",
"6 weeks"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most cranial structure in the root of the left lung? | [
"Pulmonary artery",
"Bronchus",
"Pulmonary vein",
"Bronchial artery"
] | A | pulmonary artery is seen in upper part of left lung root. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Admission rate bias is - | [
"Repoing bias",
"Response bias",
"Berksonian bias",
"None"
] | C | A special type of bias is Berkesonian bias and is termed after Dr. Joseph Berkeson. The bias arises due to different types of admission to hospitals for people with different diseases. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 81 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phentom tooth pain is persistent pain after RCT, more than | [
"2 months",
"3 months",
"5 months",
"6 months"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is responsible for respiratory drive:September 2007 | [
"O2",
"CO",
"CO2",
"Bicarbonate ions"
] | C | Ans. C: CO2Although the body requires oxygen for metabolism, low oxygen levels do not stimulate breathing. Rather, respiratory centre is directly stimulated by higher carbon dioxide levels or excess hydrogen ions in the blood. As a result, breathing low-pressure air or a gas mixture with no oxygen at all (such as pure nitrogen) can lead to loss of consciousness without ever experiencing air hunger.The respiratory centers try to maintain an aerial CO2 pressure of 40 mm Hg. With intentional hyperventilation, the CO2 content of aerial blood may be lowered to 10-20 mm Hg (the oxygen content of the blood is little affected), and the respiratory drive is diminished. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antipsychotic induced "akathisia" is characterized by: | [
"Rigidity",
"Tremor",
"Spasm of muscle/muscle group",
"Restlessness"
] | D | Antipsychotic induced akathisisa is characterized by motor restlessness. It is often mistaken for anxiety and agitation. Akathisia is now observed most often in patients receiving neuroleptic drugs. The main diagnostic considerations are an agitated depression, paicularly in patients already on neuroleptic medications, and the "restless legs" syndrome--a sleep disorder that may be evident during wakefulness in severe cases. Patients with the restless leg syndrome describe a crawling or drawing sensation in the legs rather than an inner restlessness, although both disorders create an irresistible desire for movement. At times these distinctions are blurred. Many of the medications used for the restless legs syndrome are propoxyphene or clonazepam or treatment can be directed to the akathisia by selecting a less potent neuroleptic (if it is the suspected cause) or by using an anticholinergic medication, amantadine or perhaps the more effective and best tolerated--beta-adrenergic-blocking drugs. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 6. Tremor, Myoclonus, Focal Dystonias, and Tics. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most characteristic of megaloblastic anemia ? | [
"Target cell",
"Macrocyte",
"Microovalocyte",
"Macroovalocyte"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Macroovalocyte | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are used for contraception in sickle cell anaemia except | [
"Oral Pill",
"IUCD",
"Progestin only pill",
"Progesterone Impants"
] | A | Combined oestrogen progesterone should be avoided for contraception Intrauterine devices are not preferred due to risk of infection Progesterone only contraception is ideal. Prgesterone is known to prevent sickle cell crisis Reference: Textbook of Obstetrics; Sheila Balakrishnan; 2nd Edition; Page no: 291 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypertonic urine is excreted due to absorption of water in | [
"Collecting ducts",
"DCT",
"Ascending part of loop of Henley",
"Descending part of loop of Henley"
] | A | Concentrated urine is formed due to the reabsorption of water in collecting ducts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which nerve doesn't supply the laryngeal muscles? | [
"External branch of Superior laryngeal nerve",
"Recurrent laryngeal nerve",
"Hypoglossal nerve",
"Internal branch of Superior laryngeal nerve"
] | C | (C) Hypoglossal nerve# Innervation of Larynx:> Larynx is innervated by branches of the Vagus nerve (CN X) on one side.> Sensory innervation to the glottis and supra-glottis is by the Internal branch of the Superior Laryngeal nerve.> External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle.> Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx & sensory innervation to the subglottis is by Recurrent laryngeal nerve.> Injury to the external laryngeal nerve causes weakened phonation because the vocal cords cannot be tightened.> Injury to one of the recurrent laryngeal nerves produces hoarseness, if both are damaged the voice is completely lost and breathing becomes difficult.> Hypoglossal nerve is 12th cranial nerve, and innervates all the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue, except for the palatoglossus which is innervated by the vagus nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following layers are cut during fasciotomy? | [
"Skin",
"Skin + subcutaneous fascia",
"Skin + subcutaneous tissue + superficial fascia",
"Skin + subcutaneous tissue + superficial fascia + deep fascia"
] | D | - In the above image fasciotomy is being performed for the lower leg - All the following structure have been incised in fasciotomy: 1. Skin 2. Subcutaneous fat 3. Supra facial fascia 4. Deep fascia - Notice the bulged muscles Fasciotomy is done in: Compament syndrome (Pressure > 30 mmHg) Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used for cessation of smoking - | [
"Theophylline",
"Biclutamide",
"Salmeterol",
"Varenicline"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Varenicline o Varenicilline is a direct acting nicotine agonist with selective action on a4 b2 isoform of Nm receptors. It is an antismoking drug. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maize is deficient in which amino acid | [
"Leucine",
"Methionine",
"Tryptophan",
"Phenylalanine"
] | C | The proteins of maize are deficient in tryptophan and lysine; while some strains contain an excess of leucine. Excess of leucine or deficiency of tryptophan causes decreased synthesis of niacin in the body. This explains the pellagragenic action of maize. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diffuse esophageal spasm is best diagnosed by? | [
"Endoscopy",
"Manometry",
"Barium swallow",
"CT"
] | B | Manometry is used to diagnose motility disorders (achalasia, diffuse esophageal spasm) and to assess peristaltic integrity prior to the surgery for reflux disease Esophageal manometry, or motility testing, entails positioning a pressure sensing catheter within the esophagus and then observing the contractility following test swallows. The upper and lower esophageal sphincters appear as zones of high pressure that relax on swallowing while the intersphincteric esophagus exhibits peristaltic contractions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old man has developed fever, chills, and neck stiffness. Cerebrospinal fluid shows gram-negative diplococci. He has had a past episode of sepsis with meningococcemia. Select the most likely immunologic deficiency. | [
"Complement deficiency C5-C9",
"Post-splenectomy",
"Drug-induced agranulocytosis",
"Interleukin-12 receptor deficit"
] | A | Patients who have a deficiency of one of the terminal components of complement have a remarkable susceptibility to disseminated Neisseria infection, particularly meningococcal disease. This association with meningococcal disease is related to the host inability to assemble the membrane attack complex-a single molecule of complement components that creates a discontinuity in the bacteria's membrane lipid bilayer. The complement deficiency results in inability to express complement-dependent bactericidal activity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
QRS complex indicates- | [
"Atrial repolarization",
"Atrial depolarization",
"Ventricular repolarization",
"Ventricular depolarization"
] | D | Answer is D (Ventricular depolarisation) QRS complex is due to ventricular depolarization Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wheal & flare reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type 1 o Wheal and flare reaction is seen in urticaria, i.e. type I hypersensitivity reaction.HYPERSENSITIVITYTvpe I (IgE mediated)Tipe II (IeG. IeM and comnlement mediated)o Eczemao Blood transfusion reactionso Hay fevero Erythroblastosis fetaliso Asthmao Autoimmune hemolytico Atopyanemia or thrombocytopeniao Urticariaor agranulocytosiso Anaphylactic shocko Pemphigus vulgariso Acute dermatitiso Good pasture syndromeo Theobald smith phenomenono Bullous pemphigoido Pernicious anemiao Prausnitz Kusnter (PK) reactiono Acute rheumatic fevero Diabetes mellituso Casoni's testo Graves diseaseo Schultz-Dale phenomenono Myasthenia gravisType III (IeG IgM. complement and leucocyte media ted)Type IV (Cell mediated)o Local -Arthus reactiono Tuberculin testo Systemic-serum sicknesso Lepromin testo Schick testo Sarcoidosiso Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)o Tuberculosiso Rheumatoid arthritiso Contact dermatitiso SLEo Granulomatous inflammationo Acute viral hepatitiso Type I lepra reactiono Penicillamine toxicityo Patch testo Hyperacute graft rejectiono Temporal arteritiso Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)o Jones mote reactiono Hypersensitivity pneumonitis(cutaneous basophilic HSN)oRAo Graft rejectiono Infective endocarditiso Fairleys testo Henoch schonlein purpurao Frie's test | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are autoimmune diseases, EXCEPT: | [
"SLE",
"Grave's disease",
"Myaesthenia gravis",
"Sickle Cell Disease"
] | D | Sickle cell diease is not an autoimmune disease. Sickle Cell Disease is a structural hemoglobinopathy caused by a mutation in the f3-globin gene that changes the sixth ammoacid from glutamic acid to valine (HBS a2 B2 6Glu?Val), The mode of inheritance is autosomal recessive. Ref: Harrison 16th Edition, Page 678 ; Robbins Pathologic basis of disease 6th Edition, Page 611. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During Flight or Fight reaction, which of the following is responsible for increase in local blood flow : | [
"Sympathetic system mediated Cholinergic release",
"Local hormones",
"Para-sympathetic cholinergic",
"Endocrine factors only"
] | A | A i.e. Sympathetic mediated cholinergic releaseThe 'flight or fight' reaction is a sympathetic alarm reaction wherein a large poion of sympathetic nervous system discharged at the same timeQ, in response to a variety of stress. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Narcolepsy is due to abnormality in ? | [
"Hypothalamus",
"Neocoex",
"Cerebellum",
"Medulla oblongata"
] | A | Ans. A. HypothalamusNarcolepsy is unique in that those who suffer from it tyPicaly fall almost instantaneously into REM sleep.It is thought that narcolepsy is caused by a malfunctioning of the hypothalamus in brain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following concentration of lignocaine is used in epidural anaesthesia? | [
"5%",
"0.50%",
"2%",
"4%"
] | C | 1-2% lignocaine with or without adrenaline is used in epidural anaesthesia. Lignocaine in the concentration of 0.5 - 1 % is used for local infiltration anaesthesia. For surface application 4% lignocaine is used as a liquid or 5% as a gel. Reference: Textbook of Anaesthesia for Post Graduates By T.K Agasti, page 337 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erythropoietin is/are produced by - | [
"Juxtaglomerular cells",
"Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillary bed of the kidneys",
"Pars recta of PCT",
"Macula densa"
] | B | Ans. B. Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillary bed of the kidneysErythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone which stimulate erythrocyte production.In adults, about 85% of erythropoietin comes from the kidney (interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed) and 15% from liver (Perivenous hepatocytes). Small amount is also produced in brain; and uterus and oviduct. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The biological transmission of filariasis is an example of: | [
"Propagative transmission",
"Cyclical transmission",
"Cyclo-developmental transmission",
"Cyclo-Propagative transmission"
] | C | Biological transmission is of three types: Propagative: The agent merely multiplies in vector, but no change in form. e.g. plague bacilli in rat fleas Cyclo-Propagative: The agent changes in form and number. e.g. malaria parasites in mosquito Cyclo-developmental: The disease agent undergoes only development but no multiplication. e.g. microfilaria in mosquito. REMEMBER: Transovarial transmission: When the infectious agent is transmitted veically from the infected female to her progeny in the vector. e.g. dengue Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-93 | train | med_mcqa | null |
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