question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
cAMP is the exclusive second messenger for all the following except | [
"Coicotrophin",
"Dopamine",
"Glucagon",
"Vasopressin"
] | D | cAMP is the second messenger for dopamine, coicotrophin and glucagon. Vasopressin (ADH) acts on atleast 3 kinds of receptors: V-1A, V-1B, V2. All the 3 are G-protein coupled receptors. V-1A and V-1B receptors (Gq) act through IP3 as a second messenger, to increase the intracellular calcium concentration. V2 receptors (Gs) use cAMP as a second messenger. Dopamine has 5 receptors (D1, D2, D3, D4, D5) All use cAMP as second messengers. D1, D5 act by increasing cAMP. D2, D3, D4 act by decreasing cAMP. Coicotrophin (ACTH) and glucagon use cAMP as a second messenger. Ref: Ganong's Medical physiology 26th edition PGno: 685 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following is true about amoebic liver abscess except - | [
"It is common in the left lobe of the liver",
"CT and USG are helpful for diagnosis",
"Metronidazole is the mainstay of treatment",
"Entamoeba Histolytica is acquired through the faeco oral route"
] | A | Amoebic Liver abscess Caused by Entamoeba histolytica whose cysts are acquired through the feco-oral route and their trophozoites reach the liver through poal venous system Like pyogenic abscess they are also common in . lobe of liver Clinical Picture The typical clinical picture is of a patient 20-40 yrs of age who has travelled to an endemic area, presents with fever, chills, anorexia, . upper quadrant pain. Although liver abscess results from an obligatory colonic infection, a recent history of diarrhoea is uncommon. Jaundice is rare. (c.f. in pyogenic abscess jaundice is seen in -25% of pts.) Liver function tests may show mild abnormalities, hyperbilirubinemia is uncommon CT > U/S are the mainstay of investigation. Diagnosis is confirmed by serological tests (enzyme immuno assay) for antiamoebic antibodies Cultures of amoebic abscess are usually negative Treatment Metronidazole is the mainstay of t/t and is curative in over 90% of patients, (other nitroimidazoles i.e. secnidazole, tinidazole, are also effective) Therapeutic needle aspiration is avoided. Done only when Pt. fails to respond to metronidazole High risk of rupture Abscess secondarily infected with pyogenic organism Complications may occur uncommonly; these are Rupture into the peritoneum, pleural cavity or pericardium Ref srb manual of surgery 5e Liver p596 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A postoperative patient with PH 7.25, MAP (mean arterial pressure) 60 mm of Hg treated with - | [
"I.V. sodium bicarbonate",
"Only normal saline",
"Fluid therapy with CVP monitoring",
"fluid restriction"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
You have made the diagnosis of vitamin K dependant bleeding manifestation in a neonate. You believe that a drug taken by the mother in the antenatal period is responsible for it. All the following if taken by a pregnant woman can lead to the above mentioned condition, EXCEPT: | [
"Phenytoin",
"Phenobarbitone",
"INH",
"Quinine"
] | D | The maternal medications responsible for Vit - K dependant bleeding manifestation in a neonate are phenytoin, phenobarbitone, salicylates, INH, rifampicin and dicumarol derivatives. Quinine usually causes thrombocytopenia. Salicylates and thiazides can also cause thrombocytopenia. Ref: Meharban Singh, Edition 3, Page 235 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The muzzle velocity of given firearm is : - | [
"150 m/s",
"300 m/s",
"360 m/s",
"1500 m/s."
] | A | The revolver, which tends to have a low muzzle velocity of 150 m/s, is a short barreled weapon with its ammunition held in a metal drum, which rotates each time the trigger is released.
The muzzle velocity of pistols varies between 300 and 360 m/s.
The rifle is a long-barreled shoulder weapon capable of firing bullets with velocities up to 1500 m/s.
Reference – Clinical Forensic Medicine by Margaret M. Stark - 144 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fimbriectomy is also known as? | [
"Uchida's procedure",
"Kroener procedure",
"Irving's procedure",
"Pomeroy Procedure"
] | B | Ans. B. Kroener procedureThe technique of fimbriectomy as described by Kroener employs the ligation of the distal ampulla of the tube with two permanent sutures and then division and removal of the infundibulum of the tube (Fig). Ligation and hemostasis are accomplished simultaneously. The simplicity with which this excisional procedure is performed on the distal portion of the tube accounted for its early popularity, especially when the sterilization was being performed through a colpotomy incision.Kroener fimbriectomy. Top. A suture is anchored in the mesosalpinx and placed around the tube in the distal ampulla. A second suture may be placed adjacent to the first, and the infundibulum of the tube is excised. Bottom. The tube as it appears following excision of the distal segment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient wants to scratch for itching in his amputated limb is an example of | [
"Illusion",
"Pseudohallucination",
"Phantom limb hallucination",
"Autoscopic hallucination"
] | C | The phantom limb is the most common organic somatic hallucination of psychiatric origin. In this case the patient feels that they have a limb from which in fact they are not receiving any sensations either because it has been amputated or because the sensory pathways from it have been destroyed. Reference: Fish's Clinical Psychopathology, page 29. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biological value is used for assessment of - | [
"Fat quality",
"Protein quality",
"Carbohydrate quality",
"None"
] | B | -the net protein utilisation is considered of more practical value for evaluation of protein because it is the product of biological value and digestibility coefficient divided by 100. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:610 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
YAG laser capsulotomy is used in- | [
"Retinal detachment",
"Diabetes",
"After-cataract",
"Refractive errors"
] | C | *After cataract is treated by Nd-YAG laser posterior capsulotomy. *YAG laser is used to create holes e.g. posterior capsulotomy,irototomy. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.212 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum recommended dose for non-occupationally exposed individuals should not be greater than ____µGy/week. | [
"100",
"10",
"1000",
"300"
] | A | Exposure to nonoccupationally exposed individuals (e.g., someone occupying an adjacent office) is no greater than 100 µGy per week.
White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism: March 2009 | [
"Carcinoma",
"Hyperplasia",
"Adenoma",
"Familial isolated hyperparathyroidism"
] | C | Ans. C: Adenoma Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia through the excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, usually by an adenoma (benign tumors) of the parathyroid glands (nearly 80%). Chief cell parathyroid hyperplasia accounts for nearly 15% cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigidity of facial muscles 'Risus sardonicus' is associated with: | [
"Tetany",
"Tetanus",
"Leprosy",
"Actinomycosis"
] | B | Generalized tetanus is characterized by lock-jaw or trismus due to spasm of masseter, which is the initial symptom and a dental surgeon is the first person often to be consulted. Dysphagia, stiffness or pain in the neck, shoulder or back muscles appear concurrently. Marked rigidity interferes with the movement of chest and impairs cough and swallowing reflexes. Laryngeal spasms may lead to asphyxia. The involvement of various muscles produces rigid abdomen and stiff proximal limb muscles. Hands and feet are relatively spared and sustained contraction of facial muscles results in a grimace or sneer called risus sardonicus. The contraction of muscles of the back produces an arched back called opisthotonus. The spasms occur repetitively or spontaneously or provoked by slight stimulation.
Treatment
Antitoxin is injected to neutralize circulating toxin and unbound toxin. Human tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) 3000–6000 units IM individual doses. Though the optimum dose is not known, a 500 unit dose is as effective as higher doses.
Prophylaxis - Wound debridement and booster doses of TT.
Unimmunized individuals - Anti-tetanus serum 1500 units or TIG 250 units should be given.
Ref: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology 7th edition page 328 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is | [
"Intercostal",
"Epidural",
"Brachial",
"Caudal"
] | A | The fastest route for absorption of LA is intercostal block, due to close location of blood vessel around the nerve, so that is why LA are rapidly taken by in intercostal block. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maddox rod test is used for testing ? | [
"Macular function",
"Lens opacity",
"Amount of tear production",
"Vitreous hemorrhage"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Macular function | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperosmolar agents in glaucoma acts by ? | [
"Increasing aqueous outflow",
"Decreasing vitreous volume",
"Decrease aqueous production",
"Facilitate uveoscleral outflow"
] | B | To decrease vitreous volume: Preoperative use of hyperosmotic agents like 20 percent mannitol or oral glycerol is suggested. Mechanism of action:Hyperosmotic agents increasethe plasma tonicity. Thus, the osmotic pressuregradient created between the blood and vitreousdraws sufficient water out of the eyeball, therebysignificantly lowering the IOP. Ref.AK Khurana 4th edition page no 426 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Lowe syndrome, all of the following are seen except: September 2007 | [
"Undescended testes in males",
"Cataract",
"Hypeonia",
"Low IQ"
] | C | Ans. C: Hypeonia Oculocerebrorenal dystrophy/OCRL/ Lowe syndrome is an inherited disorder linked to the X (female) chromosome. Most of the individuals affected by it, therefore, are male, since males have only one X chromosome. There are three main symptoms which are present in all individuals with OCRL: Cataracts in one or both eyes at bih Low muscle tone and weakness (hypotonia) Kidney dysfunction - the kidneys may functions normally at bih, but abnormal function is present often by 1 year old. In addition, individuals may have symptoms such as: Mental retardation ? Seizures - usually in young children with the syndrome Behavior problems Glaucoma -often in both eyes Bone weakness - Many individuals with OCRL have bone fractures, especially in the leg bones when learning to walk. About one-third of individuals have more than one fracture. Undescended testicles in boys. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False statement about post-dural puncture headache (PDPH): | [
"Breach of dura",
"Onset of headache is usually 12-72 hours following procedure",
"Commonly occipito - frontal in location",
"Headache is relieved in sitting standing position"
] | D | Post Dural puncture Headache Pathophysiology - CSF leak - ICP |es - Traction on nerve fibres originating from piamater Site - Occipital > Frontal > Retrorbital Duration - 7-10 days Pathognomic sign - Change in posture aggravates headache Predisposing conditions - Dura cutting needle (spinal needle)* Most commonly seen with 22G Quincke needle Wide bore needle * Multiple attempts * Pregnancy (In pregnancy dura mater is very fragile- venous engorgement fragility increases chances of PDPH is more) Note- Early ambulation never predispose to PDPH | train | med_mcqa | null |
A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme will? | [
"Alter the Vmax of the reaction",
"Bind to the same site as the substrate",
"Decrease the apparent Km for the substrate",
"Decrease the turnover number"
] | B | Substances that reduce the activity of an enzyme are called inhibitors. Reversible inhibitors bind to an enzyme but rapidly dissociate from it . There are several types of reversible inhibitors: Competitive inhibitors usually resemble the substrate and compete with it for binding at the active site. Thus, increasing the concentration of substrate will decrease the percent inhibition of the enzyme. The Vmax is unchanged, but the Km is increased. A noncompetitive inhibitor binds with equal affinity to both enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex. This binding leads to a distoion of the substrate binding site, so new substrate cannot bind and/or the product cannot be released. In this kind of inhibition, the Vmax is decreased (choice A), but the Km is not altered. Adding more substrate will not reverse this type of inhibition. This is the equivalent of decreasing the turnover number. An uncompetitive inhibitor does not bind to free enzyme, but binds to the enzyme-substrate complex at a site other than the catalytic site. Once bound by the inhibitor, the enzyme is trapped in the enzyme-substrate complex state until the inhibitor dissociates. In this kind of inhibition, the slope of the reaction (which is the ratio Km/Vmax) remains the same, but both Vmax and Km are reduced. Ref: Janson L.W., Tischler M.E. (2012). Chapter 5. Enzymes and Amino Acid/Protein Metabolism. In L.W. Janson, M.E. Tischler (Eds), The Big Picture: Medical Biochemistry. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Storiform pattern of fibrous tissue is seen in | [
"Fibrosarcoma",
"Malignant fibrous histiocytoma",
"Neruofibroma",
"Ameloblastic fibroma"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudomyxoma peritonie is seen with - | [
"Thecoma ovary",
"Mucin secreting ovarian carcinoma",
"Carcinoid appendix",
"Mesothelioma"
] | B | Pseudomyxoma peritonei (PMP) is a clinical condition caused by cancerous cells (mucinous adenocarcinoma) that produce abundant mucin or gelatinous ascites.The tumors cause fibrosis of tissues and impede digestion or organ function, and if left untreated, the tumors and mucin they produce will fill the abdominal cavity. This will result in compression of organs and will destroy the function of colon, small intestine, stomach, or other organs. Prognosis with treatment in many cases is optimistic,but the disease is lethal if untreated, with death by cachexia, bowel obstruction, or other types of complications This disease is most commonly caused by an appendiceal primary cancer (cancer of the appendix); mucinous tumors of the ovary have also been implicated, although in most cases ovarian involvement is ored to be a metastasis from an appendiceal or other gastrointestinal source. Disease is typically classified as low- or high-grade (with signet ring cells). When disease presents with low-grade histologic features the cancer rarely spreads through the lymphatic system or through the bloodstream The primary tumor appears to arise from the MUC2 expressing goblet cells and most commonly from these cells in the appendix. The K-Ras and p53 genes may be involved in the oncogenesis. It may be diagnosed with a range of conditions. While the majority of these cases are associated with appendiceal carcinomas,other conditions may also be found, including disseminated peritoneal adenomucinosis (DPAM), peritoneal carcinomas, several mucinous tumors (mucinous adenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, and mucinous cystadenocarcinoma), as well as other disease states.Other primary sites that have been repoed include colon, rectum, stomach, gallbladder, bile ducts, small intestine, urinary bladder, lung, breast, fallopian tubes, and the pancreas Ref Davidson edition23rd pg826 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with defective adduction of the hip joint with pain in the knee and hip joint, the nerve involved is? | [
"Obturator nerve",
"Tibial nerve",
"Femoral nerve",
"Saphenous nerve"
] | A | Obturator nerve is the largest nerve formed from the anterior divisions of lumbar plexus (L2,L3,L4).The roots unite within the posterior pa of psoas, and then descends through psoas and runs downward over sacral ala into lesser pelvis, lying lateral to ureter and internal iliac vessels. They enter the upper pa of the obturator foramen and then subsequently divides into anterior and posterior branches. Anterior Division:Muscular branches: To the following muscles;GracilisAdductor brevisAdductor longusPectineus (variable)Aicular branches: To hip jointSensory branches: To medial aspect of thigh Posterior Division:Muscular branches: To the following muscles;Obturator externusAdductor pa of adductor magnusAdductor brevis (variable)Aicular branch: To knee joint Must know:Adductor magnus has double nerve supply. Its adductor pa is supplied by the obturator nerve, while its hamstring pa is supplied by the tibial pa of the sciatic nerve. The pectineus also has a double innervation; its anterior fibres are supplied by the femoral nerve and the posterior fibres by the obturator nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhibition of glycolysis by increased supply of O2 is | [
"Crabtree effect",
"Pasteur effect",
"Lewis effect",
"Warburg effect"
] | B | uCrab Tree Effect - Increasing concentrations of glucose accelerates glycolysis (the breakdown of glucose) which results in the production of appreciable amounts of ATP through substrate level phosphorylation. uPasteur effect - Under aerobic conditions, glycolysis is inhibited. This inhibitory effect of oxygen on glycolysis.uWarburg Effect - Most cancer cells predominantly produce energy by a high rate of glycolysis followed by lactic acid fermentation in the cytosol, rather than by a comparatively low rate of glycolysis followed by oxidation of pyruvate in mitochondria as in most normal cells.Lehninger, Albe (2008). Principles of Biochemistry. 4th ed, p. 533. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iron and folic acid supplementation forms - | [
"Health promotion",
"Specific protection",
"Primordial prevention",
"Primary prevention"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Specific protection o Option 'c' is also correct because specific protection is a type of primary prevention. o But we will have to choose one option for All India enterance examination. o Option 'b' (specific protection) is the best answer (unlike previous question where more than one option can be correct for PGI). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old woman complains of recurrent episodes of sudden-onset dizziness and nausea. She notices an abrupt onset of a spinning sensation when rolling over or sitting up in bed. The symptoms last for 30 seconds and then completely resolve. She has no hearing change or other neurologic symptoms, and her physical examination is completely normal. A Dix-Hallpike maneuver reproduces her symptoms. Which of the following findings on vestibular testing favors the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) over central positional vertigo? | [
"no latency period",
"no fatigability",
"habituation occurs",
"mild vertigo"
] | C | Patients with BPPV, in contrast to those with central positional vertigo, have a latent period from the time of onset of the offending position to development of symptoms. With maintenance of the position, patients with BPPV become less symptomatic (fatigability), and repeated positioning also lessens the symptoms (habituation). As well, in BPPV, although the symptoms are usually severe, they can be quite variable from one testing period to the next. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20 years female is diagnosed to have pterygium. She does not have any clinical symptoms except for cosmetic concern. Treatment should be - | [
"Surgical excision",
"Left alone",
"Antihistaminics",
"Antibiotics"
] | B | Asymptomatic pterygium which is not a progressive is best left alone. Reference : Parson 22nd edition page 181,182; | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lateral rectus palsy is characterized by - | [
"Crossed diplopia",
"Uncrossed diplopia",
"Suppression of eye ball",
"Upward rotated eye ball"
] | B | First see the difference between phoria and tropia. Suffix phoria is used in latent squint, e.g. esophoria and exophoria. Suffix tropia is used in manifest squints (concomitant and paralytic) e.g. esotropia or exotropia.
Diplopia is a feature of paralytic esotropia or exotropia but not concomitant esotropia / exotropia or esophoria / exophoria (latent squint).
Uncrossed diplopia: - convergent squint (Esotropia) as in lateral rectus palsy.
Crossed diplopia: - Divergent squint (exotropia) as in medial rectus palsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Homicide by constriction of neck with rods is known as - | [
"Mugging",
"Garrotting",
"Bansdola",
"Throttling"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bansdola * Depending upon the method used to constrict the neck, strangulation can be divided into i) Ligature strangulation:#Neck is compressed by a ligature of which usually multiple rounds are given and no knot is tied.ii) Throttling (manual strangulation):#Neck is compressed by one or both hands.#When neck is compressed by two palms, it is known as palmar strangulation.iii) Bansdola:#Compression of neck with one or two wooden sticks or bamboo.iv) Garrotting:#It is compression of neck by a rope thrown from behind. Spanish windlass is a type of garrotting, which used to be the official mode of execution in Spain. In this, an iron collar around the neck was tightened by a screw for strangulation.v) Mugging (choke hold):#It is compression of neck by forearm or in the bend of elbow.vi) Strangulation by knee/foot:#In this, neck is compressed by knee or foot. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a premalignant condition: March 2005 | [
"Retinitis pigmentosa",
"Crohn's disease",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Leukoplakia"
] | A | Ans. A: Retinitis pigmentosaGIT premalignant conditionsOf the four major primary small-bowel tumors (adenocarcinomas, lymphomas, carcinoid, and leiomyosarcomas), adenocarcinomas and lymphomas are associated with diseases that seem to increase the risk of developing these malignancies.Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease and celiac disease, are thought to predispose patients to the development of primary lymphoma.Increased risk is also associated with conditions, such as immunodeficiency syndromes, nodular lymphoid hyperplasia, Crohn's disease, the gastrointestinal polyposis syndromes, hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, neurofibromatosis, long-standing ileostomy, and urinary diversion procedures.Patient with long standing ulcerative colitis are at risk of developing colonic epithelial dysplaia and carcinoma.Oral cavity premalignant conditionsMany oral SCCs develop from premalignant conditions of the oral cavity.A wide array of conditions have been implicated in the development of oral cancer, including leukoplakia, erythroplakia, palatal lesion of reverse cigar smoking, oral lichen planus, oral submucous fibrosis, discoid lupus erythematosus, and hereditary disorders such as dyskeratosis congenital and epidermolysis bullosaOther pre-malignant conditions include actinic keratosis, Barrett's esophagus and cervical dysplasia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In rectus sheath, branch of which aery makes an anastomosis with superior epigastric aery | [
"Subclan Aery",
"External iliac Aery",
"Internal iliac Ae",
"Common iliac aery"
] | B | Within the rectus sheath, there is anastomosis between superior epigastric aery (a branch of the internal thoracic aery) and inferior epigastric aery (a branch of the external iliac aery). The external iliac aeries are branches of the common iliac aery, which is, in turn, a branch of the abdominal aoa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aerial blood gas of a 5 year old child done at sea level gives the following results: pH 7.41, PaO2, 100 mmHg, and PaCO2, 40 mmHg. The child is being ventilated with 80% oxygen. What is the (A-a) DO2.- | [
"570.4 mm Hg",
"520.4 mm Hg",
"470.4 mm Hg",
"420.4 mm Hg"
] | D | Alveolar air equation: Using the alveolar air equation - PAO2 = - Data: Fraction of O2 in the inspired air = 80% Barometric pressure = 760 mm Hg (sea level) Water vapor pressure = 47 mm Hg Respiratory quotient = 0.8 Hence, Alveolar PO2 = - = 570.4 - 50 = 520.4 mm Hg Aerial PO2 is given = 100 mm Hg Hence, (A - a) DO2 = 520.4 - 100 = 420.4 mm Hg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Killian's dehisence is seen in: | [
"Oropharynx",
"Nasophrynx",
"Cricopharynx",
"Vocal cords"
] | C | Ans. C Cricopharynx Ref. Scott Brown's lth/ed Vol 2 Chapter 155 p 2045; Dhingra 5th/ed p 253, 6th/ed p 238 Killian's Dehiscence (Fig. 8.6) it is an area of weakness between the two pas of inferior constrictor muscle-sub thyropharyngeus and cricopha-ryngeus A pulsion diveiculum of pharyngeal mucosa can emerge posteriorly through the Killian's dehiscence called as Zenker's diveiculum or pharyngeal pouch. Since it is an area of weakness it is one of the sites of esophageal perforation during instrumentation and scopy-hence also called 'Gateway of Tears | train | med_mcqa | null |
During activation of a scaling instrument, the facial
surface of the blade and the tooth surface should form an angle of | [
"> 15 but < 45",
"> 30 but < 60",
"> 45 but < 90",
"90 but < 180"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Duroziez sign seen in | [
"AR",
"AS",
"MS",
"MR"
] | A | Duroziez's sign : Systolic and diastolic bruits while compressing femoral aery. A similar sign is Traube's sign. Reference : Davidson, 23rd page no : 524. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following from the boundary of MacEwen's triangle except | [
"Temporal line",
"Posterosuperior segment of bony external auditory canal",
"Promontory",
"Tangent drawn to the external auditory meatus"
] | C | Bounded by Temporal line, the Posterosuperior segment of a bony external auditory canal, Tangent drawn to the external auditory meatus. Impoant landmark to locate mastoid antrum in mastoid surgery. Ref: Dhingra 6th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester? | [
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Syphilis",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Rubella"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rubella * Rubella is one of the most teratogenic agents known. Eighty percent of women with rubella infection and a history of rash during the first 12 weeks have a fetus with congenital infection. At 13-14 weeks, the incidence is about 54%, and it is 25% by the end of the second trimester. As the duration of pregnancy increases, fetal infections are less likely to cause congenital malformations.* In order to prevent rubella during pregnancy and congenital rubella syndrome, ACOG recommends that the MMR vaccine should be offered to women of childbearing age who do not have evidence of immunity whenever they make contact with the health-care system. Vaccination of susceptible women should-1) Be part of routine general medical and gynecological care, including college health services.2) Take place in all family planning settings.3) Be provided routinely to unimmunized women immediately after hospitalization, childbirth, or abortion, unless there are specific contraindications.* Vaccination of all susceptible hospital personnel who might be exposed to patients with rubella or who might have contact with pregnant women is recommended. Rubella vaccination should be avoided 1 month before or during pregnancy because the vaccine contains attenuated live virus.* In toxoplasmosis, the incidence and severity of congenital infection depend on the gestational age of the fetus at the time of maternal primary infection. Infection increases with duration of pregnancy, with the risk the fetal infection rising from 6% at 13 weeks to 72% at 36 weeks. Fetal infection is more virulent the earlier the infection is acquired. Treatment of pregnant women is thought to prevent and reduce, but not eliminate, the risk of congenital infection. Spiramycin, used alone, is thought to reduce the risk of congenital infection but not to treat established fetal infection. When fetal infection in diagnosed by prenatal testing, pyrimethamine, sulfonamides and folinic acid are added to spiramycin to eradicate parasites in the placenta and fetus.* Transmission of syphilis from a syphilitic mother to her fetus across the placenta may occur at any stage of pregnancy, but the lesions of congenital syphilis generally develop after the fourth month of gestation, when fetal immunologic competence begins to develop.* Perinatal transmission of hepatitis B occurs primarily in infants born to HbsAg carrier mothers or mothers with acute hepatitis B during the third trimester of pregnancy or during the early postpartum period. Most infections occur approximately at the time of delivery and are not related to breast feeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Banka's lesion is seen in | [
"Anterior border of head of humerus",
"Posterior border of head of humerus",
"Anterior glonoid cavity",
"Posterior glenoid cavity"
] | C | C i.e. Anterior glenoid cavity Two major lesions in patients with Recurrent Anterior Dislocation Banka lesion - An anterior capsule injury associated with the tear of the glenoid labrum off the anterior (more specifically anteriorinferior) glenoid rimQ.Banka described the essential lesion as stripping off fibrocailagenous labrum from anterior glenoid which did not heal.As capsular ruptures & anterior glenoid ri m fractures usually heal rapidly these did not play significant role in recurrent dislocation. Hill- Sachs Lesion It is compression fracture of the postero lateral aicular surface of humeral headQ (more specifically on superior aspect)- With the trauma of repeated dislocation, the humeral head is forced upon glenoid rim and the relatively soft bone of humeral head is curshed. The end result is an impression of the glenoid rim that is made on the humeral head. As such these "defects are often referred to as "impression fractures".- In anterior dislocation these defects are created on the posterolateral aspect of humeral head & referred to as Hill Sachs lesion. And in posterior shoulder dislocation these defects are created on anteramedial aspect of humeral head and referred to as reverse Hill Sachs lesion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 14 year old boy having lost his father a year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to - | [
"An orphanage",
"An anganwari",
"A prison",
"A remand home"
] | D | parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition * in remand homes ,the child is placed under the care of doctors,psychiatrists and other trained personnel.every effos is made to improve mental and physical well beiing of the child .elementary schooling is given,various as and crafts are taught,gaames are played and other recreational activites are arranged. *boys over16years who are too difficult to be handled in a ceified school or have misbehavedvthere are sent to brostal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old female who had undergone a sugery under spinal anaesthesia has developed post spinal headache. How long does it take for the headache to subside? | [
"Lasts up to 10 minutes",
"Last up to 4 days",
"Last up to 2 weeks",
"Last up to 2 months"
] | C | Post spinal headache usually begins after 48 hours and can last for 2 weeks. It can be minimised if CSF loss is minimised. Headache is usually dull in nature and is fron to temporal in location. Ref: Merritt's Neurology edited By Lewis P Rowland, page 382. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a killed vaccine | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Measles",
"Yellow fever",
"Japanese encephalitis"
] | A | Live vaccines - BCG,Ty 21a (typhoid), Sabin (polio), MMR,17D(yellow fever) and Japanese encephalitis vaccine. Killed vaccines - TAB (enteric fever), Cholera vaccine, Salk vaccine (polio) and Hepatitis B Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about mosquito preventive nets are all except? | [
"Hole size < 0.0475",
"150 holes per square inch",
"Best pattern in circular",
"There should be no rent"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Best pattern is circular The best pattern of mosquito net is the rectangular net.There should not be a single rent in the net.The Size of openings in the net is of utmost impoance, the size should not exceed 0.0475 inch in any diameter.The number of holes in one square inch in usually 150.. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is Atkin's diet: | [
"Low calorie diet",
"Low carbohydrate diet",
"Low fat diet",
"Low calorie, low carbohydrate diet"
] | D | Atkin's diet is a weight loss diet which is low in calorie and also low in carbohydrates. It was originally promoted by the physician Dr. Robe C. Atkins. For weight reduction, amount of carbohydrates taken in diet should be less as carbohydrate gets conveed to fats in body, which is called endogenous fat and it gets transpoed in the form of VLDL lipoprotein. Extra information: Exogenous fat is transpoed in the form of Chylomicrons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A middle aged lady was diagnosed to incidentally have a ejection systolic murmur at the pulmonary area. A fixed wide split of the second heart sound was also noted. The diagnosis is:- | [
"Tetralogy of Fallot",
"Atrial septal defect",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Mitral valve prolapse"
] | B | Classically presents as an asymptomatic patient with a flow murmur in the pulmonary area and a fixed wide split of S2.
Atrial septal defects occur most commonly in the region of the fossa ovalis, referred to as secundum-type defects .Additional atrial septal defects include defects of the sinus venosus and atrium primum. Color flow Doppler echocardiography is usually sufficient for diagnosis of a secundum-type atrial septal defect, but agitated saline is generally needed for the diagnosis of other types of atrial septal defects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The intimal B cells of synovial membrane of temporomandibular joint are | [
"Fibroblast like",
"Macrophage like",
"Lmphocyte like",
"Plasma cell like"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lever ratio is: | [
"14:01",
"1.3:1",
"18:01",
"1.5:1"
] | B | (b) 1.3:1(Ref Cummings, 6th ed., 1996)The handle of malleus is 1.3 times longer than the long process of incus so that the lever ratio is 1.3:1.17:1 is the Areal ratio22 is the total transformer ratio of middle ear (Areal ratio x lever ratio) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following operation is the most preferred in case of otosclerosis: | [
"Stapedectomy",
"Fenestration",
"Stapedotomy",
"Sacculotomy"
] | C | (c) Stapedotomy(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2213)In mature otosclerosis when the footplate is fixed and active division has stopped the treatment consists of mobilisation of footplate of stapes. This can be done either by Stapedectomy or Stapedotomy. Fenestration operation is no longer done now.Previously Sacculotomy used to be done in Meniere's to decompress the endolymph. It is no longer done now. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sereny test is positive for | [
"ETEC",
"EPEC",
"EIEC",
"EAEC"
] | C | Sereny's test is positive in EIEC (Enteroinvasive E.coli). Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg: 285 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for non-united fracture of lower 1/4th tibia with multiple discharging sinuses & various puckered scar with 4 cm shortening of leg - | [
"Plating",
"External fixator",
"Ilizarov's fixator",
"Intramedullary nail"
] | C | Patient in question has infected non-union (multiple discharging sinuses & various pukered scar) with shortening of 4 cms. Ilizanov fixation with distraction osteogenesis will be the best option. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eutectic lignocaine-prilocaine has the following unique property | [
"It causes motor blockade without sensory block",
"By surface application, it can anaesthetize unbroken skin",
"It is not absorbed after surface application",
"It has strong vasoconstrictor action"
] | B | Lignocaine or prilocaine cannot anaesthetize intact skin.
Eutectic mixture is the combination of equal proportions of lignocaine and prilocaine at 25° C.
This mixture has a lower melting point than any of the two ingredients. It helps to make the preparation oily that can be applied on the intact skin.
Eutectic mixture can be used to anaesthetize intact skin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pontiac fever is caused by? | [
"Legionella",
"Mycoplasma",
"Rickettsia",
"Salmonella"
] | A | Ans. (a) LegionellaRef: BRS microbiology 4/e, p 50, Harrison's 17/e, chapter 141 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uveal effusion syndrome may be associated with all of the following except: | [
"Myopia",
"Ciliochoroidal detachment",
"Structural defect in Sclera",
"Nanophthalmos"
] | A | Ans. Myopia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is not an adverse effect ofACE inhibitors - | [
"Cough",
"Hypokalemia",
"Angioneurotic edema",
"Skin rash"
] | B | Ans. is 'b i.e., Hypokalemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
The circumferential clasp when used with tooth supported partial dentures: | [
"Is usually the most logical clasp to use",
"Has good retentive and stabilizing ability",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | The circumferential clasp is usually the most logical clasp to use with all tooth-supported partial dentures, because of its retentive and stabilizing ability.
Only when the retentive undercut may be approached better with a bar clasp arm or when esthetics will be enhanced, should the latter be used. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cadaveric position of vocal cords - | [
"Midline",
"1.5 mm from midline",
"3.5 mm from midline",
"7.5 mm from midline"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3.5 mm from midlinePosition of vocal cordso The position of the vocal cords may be described as being in various positions. These are : -Median positionThe vocal cords are in midline.This is the position of normal larynx during phonation and in recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy.Paramedian positionJust off midline (1.5 mm form midline)This position occurs in normal larynx during strong whisper.This is the resting position of vocal cords after long-term recurrent laryngeal nerve injury.Cadeveric (Intermediate) position (3.5 mm from midline)It is 15-20deg from midline.This is the position of immediate total denervation of both recurrent laryngeal nerve as well as superior laryngeal paralysis, as in high vagal paralysis.Gentle abduction (7 mm from midline)This position is seen during quiet respiration in normal larynx and in paralysis of adductors (very rare).Abduct position (9.5 mm from midline)It is 30-45deg from midline.This is the position of maximum adduction during deep inspiration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site for leiomyoma in GIT ? | [
"Appendix",
"Jejunum",
"Ileum",
"Stomach"
] | D | Stomach is the most common site for leiomyoma in GIT.
Most common benign tumor of oesophagus is stomach. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CT of Thorax represents: | [
"Ascending Aoic dissection",
"Descending Aoic dissection",
"Aoic aneurysm",
"Cystic fibrosis"
] | B | Aoic dissection (AD) occurs when an injury to the innermost layer of the aoa allows blood to flow between the layers of the aoic wall, forcing the layers apa. The diagnosis of aoic dissection is based on clinical suspicion combined with imaging studies. Chest x-ray will sometimes show a "widened mediastinum". This occurs because the enlarged aoa casts a larger shadow on the x-ray detector. If this is seen, and there is a high clinical suspicion of a dissection, a CT scan of the chest with intravenous contrast is ordered REF: DAVID SUTTON 7TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gynaecomastia is seen in : | [
"Klinefelter's syndrome",
"Lepromatous leprosy",
"HIV",
"All of the above"
] | D | All of the above Gynaecomastia implies presence of female type mammary glands in male. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose of I.V. adrenaline in term infant during neonatal resuscitation: | [
"0.1-0.3ml/kg of 1:1000",
"0.3-0.5 mI/kg of 1:1000",
"0.1-0.3 mI/kg of 1:10,000",
"0.3-0.5mI/kg of 1:10,000"
] | C | Epinephrine- 0.1-0.3 ml/kg of 1:10,000 concentration administered through IV route/ umbilical vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
End organ for vision is- | [
"Bipolar cell",
"Ganglion cell",
"Rods and cones",
"Lateral geniculate body"
] | C | Ans. (c) Rods and conesRef: Sunita Agrawal 2/e, p. 309"The end organ of the visual pathway is the neural epithelium of rods and cones" | train | med_mcqa | null |
The over-expression of a trinucleotide repeat causes | [
"Parkinson's disease",
"Caisson's disease",
"Addison's disease",
"Huntington's disease"
] | D | (D) Huntington's disease > Trinucleotide repeat expansions cause a number of chronic neuro degenerative disease.> Most of them are late onset and cell deaths is prominent in all of them.> The mutations occurs in open reading frames of the gene involved, with the expansions being smaller than those found in the fragile chromosome conditions.> Examples Huntington's disease. Fragile X syndrome. X-linked spino bulbar muscular atrophy. Myotonic dystrophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common side effect of inhaled corticosteroid: | [
"Pneumonia",
"Oropharyngeal candidiasis",
"Atrophic rhinitis",
"Pituitary adrenal suppression"
] | B | Ans. B. Oropharyngeal candidiasisMost common side effect seen with inhaled corticosteroid like beclomethasone is candidiasis. Pituitary suppression is likely to be seen with corticosteroids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ectopia lends is a feature of: | [
"Marfan's syndrome",
"Homocystinuria",
"Weil-marchisani syndrome",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. d (All of the above)CAUSES OF LENS DISLOCATIONDiseases that can be associated with subluxation or dislocation of the lens# Sharp and in particular blunt injuries (globe contusion)# Metabolic disorders- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Weil-Marchesani syndrome- Hyperlysinemia- Sulfite oxidase deficiency- Ehlers-Danloss syndrome- Osteogenesis imperfect- PEX syndrome, others# Overstretching of the zonular fibers by excessive corneal and / or scleral stretching- High myopia- Hydrophthalmos- Megalocornea- Staphyloma# Other causes/associations- Congenital aniridia- Mandibulofacial dysplasia- Focal dermal hypoplasia- Syphilitic uveitis- Retinitis pigmentosa- Hypermature cataract- Intraocular tumors (especially ciliary body melnoma) IncidenceManifestationDirection of the lens subluxation/ luxationOther features to noteOcular traumaVery frequentAny, mainly younger age m>>fVariable (any direction possible)Traumatic retinal detachment, traumatic secondary glaucomaPEX syndromeVery frequentOlder age m=fUsually anterior or posteriorPEX glaucoma PEX iridopathy and keratopathyIdiopathic lens dislocationNot rareUsually younger age m=fVariable Lens dislocation in high myopiaNot rareUsually younger age m=fVariableRhegmatogenous retinal detachmentMarfan syndromeNot rareyoungerage m=fUsually temporosuperior, less often naso-superiorRefer to cardiologist (caution; aortic aneurysm), arachnodactylyHomocystinuriaRareyounger age m=f(Nasal) Downward, often vitreous spaceOften spherophakia,a tendency for vascular thrombosisWeil-Marchesani syndromeRareYounger age m=fDownward, forwardOften small, spherical lens, small stature, brachycephaly | train | med_mcqa | null |
A hypeensive patient is found to have a paial obstruction of the renal aery due to an atherosclerotic plaque. The resultant decrease in blood flow causes the increased release of an enzyme from which of the following structures? | [
"Afferent aerioles",
"Arcuate aeries",
"Juxtaglomerular cells",
"Kupffer cells"
] | C | The juxtaglomerular cells are in the wall of the afferent aeriole, close to the glomerulus. In response to decreased blood pressure, they secrete renin, an enzyme that conves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin conveing enzyme, found in the lungs, conves angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II increases peripheral vascular resistance directly and stimulates aldosterone secretion, resulting in increased reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted tubules. The afferent aeriole carries blood from the interlobular aeries to the glomerulus. Filtration of blood occurs in the glomerulus, with the filtrate entering Bowman's capsule. The arcuate aeries are branches of the interlobar aeries of the kidney. The arcuate aeries lie in the coicomedullary junction of the kidney and give rise to interlobular aeries, which enter the coex of the kidney and supply the glomeruli. Kupffer cells are found in the liver, along the sinusoids. They are phagocytic cells that are pa of the reticuloendothelial system. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Swollen neurons that contain numerous lysosomes filled with lipid are typical of | [
"Amyloidosis",
"Huntington Disease",
"Kuru",
"Tay-Sachs Disease"
] | D | Swollen neurons that exhibit marked vacuolization of the perikaryon and contain lysosomes filled with lipid are found in TaySachs disease but could occur in other lipid-storage diseases as well. The correct diagnosis can be established by biochemical analysis of the stored material or identification of intermediary metabolites and missing enzymes. The other diseases listed do not produce such neuronal changes. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 3007 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient hears better in noise. The diagnosis is: | [
"Hyperacusis",
"Hypoacusis",
"Presbyacusis",
"Paracusis"
] | D | Hyperacusis - increased sensitivity to noise Hypoacusis - decreased sensitivity to noise Presbycusis - SNHL a/w old age Paracusis - a patient hears better in noisy environment. (seen in otosclerosis) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Familial amyloidosis is seen in | [
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Senile cardiac amyloidosis",
"Renal amyloidosis",
"Splenic amyloidosis"
] | B | Answer- B. Senile cardiac amyloidosisSystemic senile amyloidosis (Senile cardiac amyloidosis). Wild or non-mutant transthyretin amyloid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
38 years old Mala has Pap smear suggestive of HSIL.Colposcopy directed biopsy can reveal all, EXCEPT: | [
"CIN-1",
"CIN-2",
"CIN-3",
"Cainsitu"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CIN-1 * As per Bethesda system:# Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (L-SIL) = CIN I# High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (H-SIL) = CIN II/CIN III/CIS | train | med_mcqa | null |
About pseudocyst pancreas false statement is? | [
"Fibrous coat",
"Has mucous lining epithelium",
"Not a true cyst",
"Presents as epigastric mass"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Has mucous lining epitheliumREF: Harrison 16th e p. 1901Pseudopancreatic cyst is not a true cyst and its wall doesn't have an epithelial lining.Wall consists of necrotic tissue, granulation tissue and fibrous tissue.It presents as an epigastric mass. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal time for surgery in case of unilateral cleft lip? | [
"<3 months",
"3 to 6 months",
"6 to 9 months",
">12 months"
] | B | Ans. b (3 to 6 months) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg.637).Timing of primary cleft lip and palate procedures.Cleft lip aloneUnilateral (one side)Bilateral (both sides)One operation at 5-6 monthsOne operation at 4-5 months Cleft palate aloneSoft palate onlySoft and hard palateOne operation at 6 months two operationsSoft palate at 6 monthsHard palate at 15-18 monthsCleft lip and palateUnilateralTwo operationsCleft lip and soft palate at 5-6 monthsHard palate and gum pad with or without lip revisionat 15-18 monthsBilateralTwo operationsCleft lip and soft palate at 4-5 monthsHard palate and gum pad with or without lip revisionat 15-18 months | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false regarding placenta pre? | [
"Painful recurrent vaginal bleeding",
"Size of uterus corresponds to gestational age",
"Uterus is relaxed",
"Floating head"
] | A | Painful vaginal bleeding is not a clinical feature of placenta pre as the bleeding is painless. Clinical features of placenta pre: Sudden-onset recurrent painless vaginal bleeding: First bleeding usually appears after the end of the second trimester or later and is usually mild and not fatal. This is called &;Sentinel bleed&; The size of uterus corresponds to gestational age Uterus is relaxed, soft, no tenderness Floating head Fetal hea sound is present unless there is major seperation and the patient is exsanguinated. Slowing of fetal hea rate on pressing the head down into the pelvis which recovers promptly as pressure is relieved is suggestive of a low-lying placenta especially of posterior type: Stallwohy sign. Pervaginal Examination should not be done in suspected placenta pre, whereas it can be only done in the operation theatre with all the arrangements for CS. Ref: DC Dutta&;s textbook of obstetrics 8th edition Pgno: 284 , 285 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iron deposition line at edge of pterygium on corneal epithelium is known as? | [
"Stocker's line",
"KF Ring",
"Fleischer ring",
"Ferrys line"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Stocker's line LineLocationCausesFerry'sAt trabeculectomy margin, so usually superiorTrabeculectomyStocker'sAt pterygium margin, so usually lateralPterygiumHudson-StahliUsually horizontal inferior 1/3 of corneaDry eye syndrome (common in elderly)FleischerRing around base of cone, so usually inferocentralKeratoconus Direct versus indirect ophthalmoscopyFeatureDirect ophthalmascopyIndirect ophthalmoscopyCondensing lensNot requiredRequiredExamination distanceAs close to patients eye as possibleAt an arms lengthImageVirtual, DrectReal, InvertedMagnificationAbout 15 times4-5 timesIlluminationNot so bright; so not useful in hazy mediaBright: so, useful for hazy mediaArea of fieldAbout 2 disc dioptresAbout 8 disct diopterStereopsisAbsentPresentAccessible fundus viewSlightly beyond equatorUp to ora serrataExamination through hazy mediaNot possiblePossible | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest histological type of rhabdomyosarcoma of orbit is | [
"Embryonal type",
"Alveolar type",
"Pleomorphic type",
"None of the above"
] | A | Embryonal RMS
Occurs in children < 10 years of age.
Chr IIP involved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs produces dissociative anesthesia- | [
"Ketamine",
"Propofol",
"Thiopentone",
"Enflurane"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ketamine o Ketamine produces dissociative anaesthesia,o Ketamine is a potent bronchodilator.o Ketamine increases BP and ICT.o Airway reflexes (pharyngeal and laryngeal) are not depressed.Ketamineo The primary site of action is in the cortex and subcortical areas; not in the reticular activating system (site of action of barbiturates),o It acts on NMDA receptors.o Short duration of action (10-15 minutes) is due to redistribution from brain and blood to other tissues of the body,o Ketamine is different from most other anaesthetic induction agents in that it has significant analgesic action.o Ketamine increases IOT and cerebral metabolism - contraindicated in head injury.o It causes sympathetic stimulation with elevation of HR, CO & BP - contraindicated in hypertension and ischemic heart disease.o It also raises IOT - contraindicated in glaucoma.o It relieves bronchospasm - intravenous anaesthetic of choice in asthmatics (inhalation anaesthetic of choice in asthmatic is halothane).o Injection is not painful (All other inducing agents cause pain on injection),o It is i.v. anaesthetic of choice in children (Sevoflurane is inhalation agent of choice).o Because it causes sympathetic stimulation it is intravenous anaesthetic of choice in patients with shock and hypovolumia.o It has no muscle relaxant property rather muscle tone is increased.o Airway reflexes (pharyngeal and laryngeal) are not depressed - intravenous anaesthetic of choice for emergency anaesthesia (no starvation is required).o Ketamine produces emergence reaction during awakening from anaesthesia - vivid dreaming, illusions, extracorporeal experiences, excitment, confusion, fear and euphoria - contraindicated in psychiatric illness like schizophrenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biological oxygen demand is calculated to know wastes - | [
"Organic",
"Inorganic",
"Total solid",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Organic | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about posterior subcapsular cataract is - | [
"Late loss of visual acuity",
"It is a mature senile cataract",
"Early loss of ability to see objects in bright sunlight",
"Glare is an uncommon symptom"
] | C | Posterior subcapsular cataract (cupuliform senile coical cataract) is seen in incipient stage (not in mature cataract). There is early loss of vision, espacially in bright sunlight. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose of vitamin A for a 18 month old baby, with keratomalacia, weighing 10 kg is? | [
"50,000 IU",
"1,00,000 IU",
"2,00,000 IU",
"5,00,000 IU"
] | C | Vitamin A DEFICIENCY It is characterized by night blindness, conjunctival xerosis, Bitot spots, Keratomalacia and fundus changes in severe cases Treatment: <6 months of age - Vitamin A 50,000 IU orally/dose 6-12 months of age - Vitamin A 100,000 IU orally/dose >12 months of age - Vitamin A 2,00,000 IU orally/dose The same dose is repeated next day & 4 weeks later. - Clouding of cornea in a child with Vit A deficiency is emergency - requires parenteral administration of 50,000 - 100,000 IU Retinol - In keratomalacia - Local treatment with antibiotic drops & ointment , padding of eye - enhances healing | train | med_mcqa | null |
Housemaid's knee is bursitis of which of the following: September 2010 | [
"Olecranon bursa",
"Infrapatellar bursa",
"Prepatellar bursa",
"Subacromial bursa"
] | C | Ans. C: Prepatellar Bursa Prepatellar bursitis, also known as Housemaid's knee, is a common cause of swelling and pain above the patella, and is due to inflammation of the prepatellar bursa. This structure is a superficial bursa with a thin synol lining located between the skin and the patella. The bursa develops within the first years of life as a result of mechanical pressure and friction, and it serves the purpose of reducing friction on underlying structures and allowing maximal range of motion in the knee. Aseptic prepatellar bursitis is commonly caused by repetitive work in a kneeling position, hence the name "housemaid's knee | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20 yr old male was found dead in his home. Family claimed it as dead due to sudden MI What is the best test to distinguish antemortem from post-mortem clot? | [
"Lines of Zahn",
"Chicken fat",
"Red cells",
"White cells"
] | A | Ans. (a) Lines of ZahnLine of Zahn are due to alternate pale layers of platelets with fibrin & darker layers (marked with arrow)with more RBCs.These lines distinguish antemortem clots from the bland non-laminated clots postmortem Q clots | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are congenital infection EXCEPT: | [
"Rubeda",
"CMV",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Gonorrhoea"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) GonorrhoeaREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 299"Gonorrhoea is acquired infection, not congenital"Organisms causing intrauterine infections are:ToxoplasmosisRubellaSyphilisHerpes virusCytomegalo virusHIVHBV, HCV, HDV | train | med_mcqa | null |
In exposure and response prevention therapy which one of the following is a poor prognostic factor in OCD? | [
"Magical thinking",
"Di contamination",
"Pathological doubt",
"Hoarding"
] | D | Ans:D. Hoarding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a proactive approach to prevent unnecessary stress in a surgical patient? | [
"Using minimal access techniques",
"Nerve blocks",
"Minimal periods of starvation",
"Prolonged bed rest"
] | D | A proactive approach to prevent unnecessary aspects of the surgical stress response areMinimal access techniquesBlockade of afferent painful stimuli (e.g. epidural analgesia, spinal analgesia, wound catheters)Minimal periods of starvationEarly mobilisationRef: Bailey and love 27e pg: 11 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Huhle cell carcinoma is a variant of ? | [
"Medullary carcinoma",
"Papillary carcinoma",
"Follicular carcinoma",
"Anaplastic carcinoma"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Follicular carcinoma Follicular carcinoma Second most common type of thyroid cancer. o Huhle cells are seen. o Differentiated from follicular adenoma by capsular and/or vascular invasion. o Unlike in papillary carcinoma, lymphatic spread is rare, and vascular invasion is common in follicular cancers. o Huhle cell or oncocytic carcinoma is a varriant of follicular carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feto-maternal haemorrhage is detected by | [
"Kleihauer test",
"Benzadine test",
"Spectrophotometry",
"All of the above"
] | A | Kleihauer - Betke test : To estimate the approximate volume of fetal blood entering into the maternal circulation. Using acid elution technique to note the number of fetal red cells per 50 low power fields If there are 80 fetal erythrocytes in 50 low power fields in maternal peripheral blood films, it represents a transplacental hemorrhage to the extent of 4 ml of fetal blood. Ref:Dutta Obs 9e pg 314. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ESI progamme central, state, Govt. employee contribute to the fund. Employer's contribution is ? | [
"5.75%",
"4.75%",
"3.75%",
"2.75%"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4.75% Finance of ESI scheme The scheme is run by contribution by employees and employers and grants from central and state governments - Employers contribution - 4.75% of total wages bills Employee contribution - 1.75% of total wages bills The state government's share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8 of total cost of medical care. The ESI corporations share of expenditure on medical care is 78 of total cost of medical care. Note - Employees getting daily wages of below Rs 50 are exempted from payment contribution. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The weight of term uterus is | [
"500 grams",
"1000 grams",
"1500 grams",
"2000 grams"
] | B | Non pregnant state of uterus Weight - 60g Length - 7.5 cm Capacity - 5-10 ml Pregnant uterus Weight - 900-1000g Length - 35 cm Capacity - increased to 500-1000 times Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 42. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old driver is involved in a motor vehicle collision and sustains a pos terior dislocation of the left hip. What is the most likely concomitant injury | [
"Right knee meniscus tear",
"Left knee anterior cruciate ligament tear",
"Subdural hematoma",
"Lumbar burst fracture"
] | B | The traumatic hip dislocation in this case is due to a dashboard injury in which the forces are fi rst transmitted through the knee en route to the hip. Thus the possibility of a concurrent ipsilateral knee injury should be explored through careful clinical examination and possibly magnetic resonance imaging. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Any lesion affecting the temporal lobe result in which of the following visual defect in the eye? | [
"Bitemporal hemianopsia",
"Homonymous hemianopsia",
"Superior quadrantanopsia",
"Inferior quadrantanopsia"
] | C | The temporal lobe contains the Meyer's loop which contains geniculocalcarine fibers that curves around the lateral ventricle and reach the temporal lobe, before proceeding toward the calcarine coex. Meyer's loop carries optic radiation fibers which represent the upper pa of the contralateral visual field. So any lesion of the temporal lobe result in superior quadrantopsia.Lesion of optic nerve result in impaired vision in one eye.Lesion of optic chiasma result in bitemporal hemianopsia.Lesion behind the optic chiasm result in contralateral homonymous hemianopsia.Ref: Waxman S.G. (2010). Chapter 15. The Visual System. In S.G. Waxman (Ed),Clinical Neuroanatomy, 26e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urinary alkalinizing agents are administered in case of poisoning due to drugs which are: | [
"Weak bases",
"Weak acids",
"Strong bases",
"Strong acids"
] | B | - Strong acids and bases are ionized in all media. Weak acids ionize in alkaline media and weak bases ionize in acidic media. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are radioactive? | [
"CO 59",
"CO 60",
"Yt 90",
"None"
] | B | Ans. CO 60 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 yr old female patient presents with a history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surroundings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back.Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient - | [
"No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss",
"SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs",
"Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the durgs",
"Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs"
] | C | The patient in question is presenting with persistent classical symptoms of depression and should be managed by antidepressant medications.
There is no ideal antidepressant. The first choice is determined by the side effect profile that is least objectionable to the patient's physical status (patient preference) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the calamity with most amount of damage - | [
"Flood",
"Eahquake",
"Landslides",
"Volcanoes"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Floods | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following situation includes Agoraphobia? | [
"Fear of Public spaces",
"Fear of crowds",
"Fear of going away from home alone",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D. All of the aboveAGORAPHOBIA* Irrational & undue phobia of a particular situation is known as agoraphobia.* This is an example of irrational fear of situation.* It is commonest type of phobia encountered in clinical practice.* Women outnumber men in suffering agoraphobias* It is characterized by irrational fear of being in places away from familiar setting of homes.* Although it was earlier thought to be a fear of open spaces only now it includes fear of open space, public places, crowded places, any other place where there is no escape from public view.* In fact, patient is afraid of all the places or situation from where escape may be difficult or help may not be available if he suddenly develops embarrassing or incapacitating symptoms.* These embarrassing or incapacitating symptoms are the classical symptoms of public phobia.* A full-blown panic attack may occur (agoraphobia with panic disorder) or only a few symptoms like dizziness or tachycardia may occur (agoraphobia without panic disorder). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are example of enzyme catalysing substrate level of phosphorylation; except | [
"Physphoglycerate kinase",
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Succinate thiokinase",
"Phosphofructokinase"
] | D | Substrate level phosphorylation:
It is the synthesis of ATP without the involvement of electron transport chain.
Examples of substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis are | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mugging is compression of neck by - | [
"Wooden sticks",
"Rope",
"Forearm",
"Hand"
] | C | In Mugging, strangulation is caused by holding the neck of the victim in the bend of the elbow. Pressure is exeed either on front of the larynx or at one or both sides of the neck by the forearm and upper arm. The attack is usually made from behind Ref: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology pg: 187 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug commonly used in t/t of endometriosis - | [
"LH",
"GnRH analogues",
"MPA",
"FSH"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., GnRH [Ref: Shaw's Gynae 15th/ e p. 473) Both B and C are correct. However- Commonly used is B. Treatment of endometriosis Asymptomatic minimal cases:- Observe for 6-8 months & investigate infertility Symptomatic cases:- Drug treatment OCPs Mirena lUCD Progesterone Androgens GnRH analogues Aromatase inhibitors (eg:- letrozole) RU-486 Minimal invasive surgery (Laproscopy) Destruction by cautery, laser vaporization Excision of cyst Adhesiolysis Presacra! neurectomy LUNA (laproscopic uterosacral nerve ablation) C) Surgery (laprotomy) Incision of chocolate cyst & removal of lining Salpingo-oophorectomy Hysterectomy & unilateral or bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Excision of scar endometriosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzyme specifically raised in chronic alcoholics: September 2009 | [
"Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)",
"Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)",
"Aspaate aminotransferase (AST)",
"Ratio of AST: ALT"
] | D | Ans. D: Ratio of AST: ALT Transferases - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) or Aspaate aminotransferase (AST): These enzymes normally reside inside cells (in cytoplasm) so raised levels usually represent hepatocellular damage. ALT is more specific to the liver, as AST is also found in cardiac and skeletal muscle and red blood cells. Very high levels (>1000 IU/1) suggest drug induced hepatitis (e.g. paracetamol), acute viral hepatitis (A or B) , ischaemic or rarely autoimmune hepatitis. The ratio of AST to ALT can give some extra clues as to the cause: In chronic liver disease ALT > AST, once cirrhosis established AST > ALT. The extremes of the ratio of AST:ALT can also be helpful: >2 suggests alcoholic liver disease, and a ratio of Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) - also related to the bile ducts. Typically elevated in cholestasis (with elevated ALP), but if ALP normal suggests induction of hepatic metabolic enzymes (e.g alcohol or enzyme inducing drugs). It is not specific to alcohol, easily inducible and is elevated in all forms of fatty liver. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) - comes mainly from the cells lining bile ducts but also in bone. Marked elevation is typical of cholestasis (often with elevated GGT) or bone disorders (usually normal GGT). Isoenzymes analysis may help identify source. It is physiologically increased when there is increased bone turnover (e.g. adolescence) and is elevated in the third trimester (produced by the placenta). | train | med_mcqa | null |
During an operation for carcinoma of the hepatic flexure of the colon, an unexpected discontinuous 3-cm metastasis is discovered in the edge of the right lobe of liver. The surgeon should | [
"Terminate the operation, screen the patient for evidence of other metastases, and plan further therapy after the reevaluation",
"Perform a right hemicolectomy and right hepatic lobectomy",
"Perform a right hemicolectomy and a wedge resection of metastasis",
"Perform a cecostomy and schedule reoperation after... | C | Because approximately 5% of colorectal cancers are associated with resectable hepatic metastases, appropriate preoperative- discussion should include obtaining permission for removal of synchronous peripheral hepatic lesions if they are found. If gross tumor is removed, a 25% cure rate can be anticipated. Adequate local resection, either by wedge or by limited partial hepatectomy, may be carried out whenever no extrahepatic disease is found and the hepatic lesion is technically removable. Any option that leaves the potentially obstructing primary cancer unremoved would be unacceptable. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation? | [
"Coronary aery disease",
"Rheumatic hea disease",
"Dilatation of right ventricle",
"Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse"
] | C | Tricuspid regurgitation most commonly arise secondary to marked dilation of the tricuspid annulus from right ventricular enlargement due to pulmonary aery hypeension. Tricuspid regurgitation can also occur secondary to right ventricular enlargement from inferior wall MI, in the late stages of hea failure due to rheumatic or congenital hea disease with severe PA hypeension, as well as in ischemic and idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathies. Infarction of RV papillary muscles, tricuspid valve prolapse, carcinoid hea disease, endomyocardial fibrosis, radiation, infective endocarditis, and trauma can also produce TR. Ref: Harrisons Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 237 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitrectomy should be considered if the vitreous haemorrhage is not absorbed within: | [
"1 month",
"3 months",
"6 months",
"2 months"
] | B | Ans. 3 months | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ectopic ureter may be frequently associated with- | [
"Oliguria",
"Dysuria",
"Bilateral hydroureter",
"paradoxical incontinence"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In colles fracture not seen is: | [
"Proximal impaction",
"Lateral rotation",
"Dorsal angulation",
"Medial rotation"
] | D | D i.e. Medial rotation | train | med_mcqa | null |
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