question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
True statement about the external nose is | [
"Upper 2/3 is bony",
"Lower 1/3 is cailaginous",
"Single lateral cailage",
"Two nasal bones"
] | D | External nose has an osteocailaginous framework of which upper one-third is bony and lower two-thirds is cailaginous. Bony pa- Consists of two nasal bones Cailaginous pa: - Consists of two upper lateral cailages, two lower lateral cailages, two or more lesser alar (or sesmoid) cailages anda septal cailage. So, there are 3 paired and 1 unpaired cailages. Ref: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 149 | train | med_mcqa | null |
UMN lesion causes all EXCEPT | [
"Spastic paralysis",
"Hyperactive stretch reflex",
"Babinski's sign positive",
"Muscle atrophy"
] | D | (Muscle atrophy) (862-CMDT-09) (148-H17th)EffectsUMN lesionsLMN lesionsMuscle toneHypertoniaHypotoniaParalysisSpastic typeFlaccid typeWastage of muscleNo wastage of muscleWastage of muscleSuperficial reflexesLostLostPlanter reflexesAbnormal-Babinski's signAbsentDeep reflexesExaggerated (Hyperactive stretch reflex)LostClonusPresentlost | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endometrial hyperplasia is seen in | [
"Endodermal sinus tumour",
"Dysgerminoma",
"Polycystic ovarian disease",
"Carcinoma of cervix"
] | C | Polycystic ovarian disease - endometrial hyperplasia due to high content of estrogen, largely estrone, by extraglandular aromatization of circulating androstenedione. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stapes footplate covers | [
"Round window",
"Oval window",
"Inferior sinus tympani",
"Pyramid"
] | B | B. i.e. Oval window | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased insulin is charachterized by all of the following, except: | [
"Increased Glucagon secretion",
"Increased Intracellular potassium",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Enhanced fatty acid synthesis"
] | A | Answer is A (Increased Glucagon secretion): Insulin Inhibits glucogon release by pancreatic alpha cells. Insulin facilitates increased cellular uptake glucose into most tissues (insulin sensitive tissues) with a resultant lowering of serum glucose (Hypoglycemia). Insulin enhance fatty acid synthesis and inhibits lipolysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the shoest acting mydriatic? | [
"Atropine",
"Tropicamide",
"Cyclopentolate",
"Homatropine"
] | B | Ref:KD Tripathi pharmacology 6th edition (page.no: 111) Tropicamide has the quickest (20-40 min) and briefest (3--6 hours) action but is a relatively unreliable cycloplegic. However, it is satisfactory for refraction testing in adults and as sho acting mydriatic for fundoscopy. for infants and children, atropine must be used for fundoscopy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chepuwa is: NEET 15 | [
"Beating the soles",
"Compressing the thigh after putting between two rods",
"Force-feeding unpalatable substances",
"Submerging the head repeatedly under water"
] | B | Ans. Compressing the thigh after putting between two rods | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cricoid cartilage is a derivative of which branchial arch? | [
"IIIrd arch",
"IVth arch",
"VIth arch",
"Hypobranchial eminence"
] | C | Cricoid is derived from VIth arch. Other cartilages of VIth arch derivation are arytenoids and corniculate.Thyroid and cuneiform cartilages are derived from IVth arch.Epiglottis is derived from hypobranchial eminence and possibly also from ventral ends of IVth arch. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following disorders, administration of barbiturate is contraindicated - | [
"Anxiety disorder",
"Acute intermittent porphyria",
"Kernicterus",
"Refractory status epilepticus"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Acute intermittent porphyria Contraindications o Acute intermittent porphyria o Severe pulmonary insufficiency, eg - emphysema o Liver and kidney disease o Obstructive sleep apnea | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chemically steroids are derivatives of | [
"Cholesterol",
"Ergosterol",
"Fatty acids",
"Perhydrocyclopentanophenantherene"
] | A | Cholesterol is first acted upon by desmolasw and a 6 carbon unit is cleaved off, forming pregnenoloneProgesterone is the first steroid hormone formed from pregnenoloneProgesterone is fuher conveed in to glucocoicoids, mineralocoicoids and sex steroids Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 664, 665 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old woman with active lupus nephritis falls forward and lands on her left hand. She has immediate pain. On examination, there is crepitus at the wrist. A radiograph shows radial and navicular fractures along with marked osteopenia. Which of the following medications most likely contributed to the fracture? | [
"Hydrocortisone",
"Ibuprofen",
"Lisinopril",
"Losartan"
] | A | Corticosteroids may be needed to treat severe lupus nephritis, and continuing therapy increases the risk for Cushing syndrome with osteoporosis. Corticosteroids stimulate RANKL expression, inhibit osteoblast osteoprotegerin (OPG) synthesis, and thereby enhance osteoclast proliferation to promote bone resorption. Ibuprofen and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should not be used with renal failure. Lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, and losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), may be used to treat hypertension with renal disease, but they do not directly affect bone density. Methotrexate is a chemotherapy agent that is best used with rheumatoid arthritis, not systemic lupus erythematosus, and at low doses is less likely to lead to osteoporosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is ideal to ensure similarity between experimental & control groups | [
"Randomization",
"Stratified randomization",
"Matching",
"Cross over study"
] | B | Stratified randomization: Study population is ‘first stratified’ by each variable which is considered important, and then randomization is done to each treatment groups within each stratum.
- Comparison groups become similar as possible as regards participant characteristics that might influence the response to the intervention
- Equal numbers of participants with a characteristic thought to affect prognosis or response to the intervention will be allocated to each comparison group.
- Stratification increase the likelihood that two groups will be more comparable. | train | med_mcqa | null |
AML transformation common in - a) Aplastic anemia b) MDS c) Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia d) None | [
"ab",
"bc",
"d",
"ca"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements refers to propaganda? | [
"Appeals to emotion",
"Develops individuality",
"The process is behaviour centred",
"Makes people think for themselves"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Appeals to emotion o Propaganda is neutrally defined as a systemic form of purposeful persuasion that attempts to influence emotions, attitudes, opinions and actions of specified target audiences for ideological, political or commercial purposes through the controlled transmission of one-sided messages mass and direct media channels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasopharyngeal angiofibromas are most frequently seen - | [
"In the second decade",
"In the third decade",
"In the fourth",
"In the fifth and sixth decades"
] | A | Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a highly vascular tumor that occurs almost exclusively in adolescent males. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intravenous induction is preferred to inhalation induction because: | [
"Causes less side effects",
"Blood pressure and cardiac output are better maintained",
"There is less danger of respiratory obstruction",
"It is quicker"
] | D | Intravenous induction is faster, smoother and less anxiety causing mode of induction. inhalational induction is only done when intravenous is not possible. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phagocytosis discovered by- | [
"Metchnikoff",
"Ehrlich",
"Ruska",
"Pasteur"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are seen in adrenal insufficiency except | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Fever",
"Weight gain",
"Postural hypotension"
] | C | Refer Harrison 19th/ p 2325 Adrenal insufficiency results in weight loss | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 37-year-old man develops pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis. Lung biopsy with immunofluorescence demonstrates IgG deposition along the basement membrane. These antibodies are most likely directed against which of the following types of collagen? | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | D | Goodpasture syndrome Autoimmune disease Ceain domains of type IV collagen are intrinsic to the basement membranes of renal glomeruli and pulmonary alveoli. Resulting in necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. The characteristic linear pattern of immunoglobulin deposition (usually IgG) is the hallmark diagnostic | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following tumors alpha-feto protein is elevated | [
"Choriocarcinoma",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Seminoma"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Hepatocellular carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wilms tumor has the following markers positive except? | [
"Desmin",
"Vimentin",
"TTF-1",
"Cytokeratin"
] | C | Ans. (c) TTF-1Wilm's tumor being mixed tumor has Desmin, Vimentin and Cytokeratin positive. Thyroid transcription factor-1 (TTF-1) is a sensitive marker for pulmonary and thyroid adenocarcinomas | train | med_mcqa | null |
Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except? | [
"Tissue culture",
"Embryonated eggs",
"Animals",
"Chemically defined media"
] | D | 3 methods are employed for the cultivation of viruses -inoculatiin into animals ,embryonated eggs and tisaue cultures. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:434 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The CT chest of the patient shows the presence of | [
"Pneumatoceles",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Normal scan",
"Loculated empyema"
] | B | The CT Chest shows left lung having cystic dilation of large airways with peribronchial thickening suggestive of bronchiectasis.
Pneumatoceles are small cystic cavities seen after staff. Aureus pneumonia which is few in number and doesn't have any peribronchial thickening. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is used in overactive bladderaEUR' | [
"Duloxetine",
"Darfinacin",
"Flavoxate",
"Oxybutynin"
] | B | Darfinacin; 'C' i.e., Flavoxate; `d' i.e., Oxybutynin Detrusor instability (Overactive bladder) Detrusor is a smooth muscle which forms the body of the bladder. Its contraction causes micturition. The other smooth muscle that plays an impoant role in micturition is the internal sphincter. Internal sphincter is a concentraction of smooth muscle at the bladder neck. It is well developed only in males and its principal. function is to prevent retrograde .flow of semen during ejaculation. When detrusor relaxes and the sphincters close urine is stored. Whereas voiding requires contraction of destrusor accompanied by relaxation of sphincters. Detrusor is innervated mainly by parasympathetic nerves which are excitatory and cause the muscle to contract where as internal sphincter is rich in aI adrenoreceptor (sympathetic nerves). Thus the mechanisms of urine voiding involves:? - Increased parasympathetic drive Contracts the detrusor - Decreased sympathetic drive Relax the sphincter Detrusor instability or unstable bladder is characterized by uninhibited, unstable contractions of the detrusor which may be of unknown etiology or secondary to an upper motor neuron lesion or bladder neck obstruction. Since detrusor contracts under parasympathetic influence, Anticholinergic (specifically antimuscarinic) drugs are used to treat overactive bladder disease or detrusor instability. These agents lower intravesical pressure, increase capacity and reduce the frequency of contractions by antagonizing para.sympa- thetic control of bladder. These agents include: ? - Darifenacin - Solefenacin - Tolterodine - Trospium chloride - Oxybutynin - Solifenacin - Flavoxate Duloxetine is used in stress incontinence. It is a dual norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Its mechanism of action is thought to be centrally, by increasing urethral sphincter tone and contractility. It can be used in mixed incontinence. Comparison of different drugs used for treatment of Detrusor instability Drug Benefits Weaknesses * Generic oxvbutynin - Cheap - Recommended by NICE well established Poorly tolerated * Slow release oxybutynin - Improved side-effect profile - Escalating does regimen possible More expensive than immediate release * Oxyhutynin patches - Reduced side - effect profile Patches may cause skin Irritation limiting use * Flavoxate - Less side effects than Oxybutinn i Less offecting * Tolterodine - First of newer anticholinergics - Robust trial evidence Trial suggests not as effective as olifenacin * Trosplum - Does not cross blood- brain barrier - May have benefits in the elderly or patients with polypharmacy Broad spectrum anticholinergic side effects * Propiverine - Calcium antagonist action Recommended for frequency but not urge incontinence * Solifenacin - STAR study suggests some benefits over tolterodine at normal does Commonest side effect-dry mouth * Darifenacin - M3 selective Limited direct clinical experience outside of trials | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not causes invasive diarrhea? | [
"Salmonella",
"Aeromonas",
"Shighella",
"Bacillus cereus"
] | D | Bacillus cereus REF: Harrison 17th ed table 40-2 Organisms causing Invasive diarrhea: Minimal inflammation Rotavirus and Norwalk agent (cause watery diarrhea) Variable inflammation Salmonella, Campylobacter, and Aeromonas species, Vibrio parahaemolyticus (watery or bloody diarrhea) Severe inflammation Shigella species, enteroinvasive E. coli, Entamoeba histolytica | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a secretory pa of kidney? | [
"Collecting tubule",
"PCT",
"DCT",
"Loop of Henle"
] | A | The secretory poion of kidney is contained largely within the coex and consists of a renal corpuscle and the secretory pa of the renal tubule. The excretory poion of this duct lies in the medulla. The renal corpuscle is composed of the vascular glomerulus, which projects into Bowman's capsule, which, in turn, is continuous with the epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule. The secretory poion of the renal tubule is made up of the proximal convoluted tubule, the loop of Henle, and the distal convoluted tubule. The excretory poion of the nephron is the collecting tubule, which is continuous with the distal end of the ascending limb of the convoluted tubule. It empties its contents through the tip (papilla) of a pyramid into a minor calyx. Ref: Butterwoh IV J.F., Mackey D.C., Wasnick J.D. (2013). Chapter 29. Renal Physiology & Anesthesia. In J.F. Butterwoh IV, D.C. Mackey, J.D. Wasnick (Eds), Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a prokaryote? | [
"Virus",
"Archaebacteria",
"Fungi",
"Protozoan"
] | B | (B) Archaebacteria# Classification:> Old 5 Kingdom system: Monera, Protists, Plants, Fungi, Animals> New 3 Domain System: Reflects a greater understanding & molecular evidence Prokaryote: Bacteria Prokaryote: Archaebacteria Eukaryotes: Protists, Plants, Fungi, Animals# Prokaryotes are devoid of membrane bound organelles, and thus> Nucleus: devoid of nuclear membrane and nucleolus> They do not contain Deoxyribonucleoproteins i.e. nucleic DNA is not associated with basic protein The genome consists of a single molecule double stranded DNA arranged in the form of a circle Mitotic division does not occur and these divide by Binary fission> Cytoplasm: It differs from eukaryote cytoplasm in not exhibiting protoplasmic streaming. Mitochondria, Endoplasmic Reticulum, Lysosomes and Golgi apparatus are all absent.> Chemical Composition: Cell wall of Prokaryotes contains Muramic acid and peptidoglycons while cell wall of Eukaryotes contains sterols. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except - | [
"Also referred to as body cavity lymphoma",
"There is often an association with HHV-8",
"The proliferating cells are NK cells",
"Patients are commonly HIV positive"
] | C | Two variants of immunoblastic lymphoma that are seen primarily in HIV-infected patients are primary effusion lymphoma (PEL) and its solid variant, plasmacyticlymphoma of the oral cavity. PEL, also referred to as body cavity lymphoma, presents with lymphomatous pleural, pericardial, and/ or peritoneal effusions in the absence of discrete nodal or extranodal masses. The tumor cells do not express surface markers for B cells or T cells and are felt to represent a preplasmacytic stage of differentiation. While both HHV-8 and EBV DNA sequences have been found in the genomes of the malignant cells from patients with body cavity lymphoma, KSHV is felt to be the driving force behind the oncogenesis (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1566) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of? | [
"Radial nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Axillary nerve"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Median nerve Anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of median nerve. Anterior interosseous aery is a branch of ulnar aery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for treatment of epiglottitis is | [
"Ceftriaxone",
"Sulphamethoxazone",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Clindamycin"
] | A | Ampicillin or third generation cephalosporins are effective against H. influenzae and are given by parenteral route (i.m. or i.v.) without waiting for results of throat swab and blood culture. Ref: PL Dhingra 7th edition of Ear, Nose and Throat; Pg no 328 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Imaging modality in PIRAD repoing scheme for prostate glands includes all except: | [
"MR spectroscopy",
"Dynamic contrast enhancement",
"Diffusion Weighted MRI",
"T2W imaging"
] | A | Imaging modality employed in PI-RAD repoing scheme for prostate glands include Dynamic contrast enhancement Diffusion Weighted MRI T2W imaging PI - RADS classification Definition Total T2 + DWI + DCE score Total T2 + DWI + DCE + MRS score I Most probably benign 3-4 4-5 II Probably benign 5-6 6-8 III Indeterminate 7-9 9-12 IV Probably malignant 10-12 13-15 V Most probably malignant 13-15 17-20 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 67-year-old man with lung cancer notices symptoms of weakness in his arms and legs. He describes difficulty in rising out of chair or going upstairs, but no pain or discomfort. On examination, proximal muscle strength is four out of five in the upper and lower limbs, but the reflexes, tone, and sensation are normal. He has a colored rash on his eyelids, and raised papules on his knuckles.For the above patient with muscle weakness, select the most likely anatomic site for the disorder | [
"anterior horn cell",
"peripheral nerve",
"neuromuscular junction",
"muscle"
] | D | Dermatomyositis is one of the inflammatory myopathies that has a characteristic rash on the eyelids (heliotrope) and knuckles (Gottron's papules). It is associated with certain cancers as a paraneoplastic syndrome. The muscle enzyme creatine kinase (CK) is elevated is most cases, but the condition is painless. Symptoms are those of proximal muscle weakness, with normal reflexes and tone on examination. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about tubercular osteomyelitis is not true? | [
"It is a type of secondary osteomyelitis",
"Sequestrum is uncommon",
"Periosteal reaction is characteristic",
"Inflammation is minimal"
] | C | Tuberculous infection of bone (osteomyelitis) is a form of secondary osteomyelitis caused by hematogenous dissemination from a primary infected visceral focus. The primary focus may be active or quiescent, apparent or latent, either in the lungs, lymph glands or other viscera.
Periosteal reaction is minimal and abscess does not show characteristic signs of inflammation. Sequestra are also very uncommon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neonatal moality is calculated as - | [
"Number of deaths of children <28 days per 1000 live bih",
"Number of deaths of children <28 days per 1000 still bih",
"Number of deaths of children <28 days per 1000 total bih",
"None"
] | A | Neonatal moality rate is number of deaths of children <28 days per 1000 live bih. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 521 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Failure of the choroid fissure to close results in | [
"Congenital detached retina",
"Congenital aniridia",
"Congenital aphakia",
"Coloboma iridis"
] | D | Failure of the choroid (optic) fissure to close results in a cleft of the iris--called coloboma iridis (mostly in inferonasal position). This defect may extend into the ciliary body, choroid, optic nerve, or retina. Congenital aphakia--absence of the lens--may result from defective development of the lens placode. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with multisystem trauma, thepresence of hypotension along with elevated central venouspressure is suggestive of - | [
"Upper airway obstruction",
"Major abdominal bleed",
"Cardio-pulmonary problem",
"Spinal cord injury"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conversion of a complete hydatidiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, EXCEPT: | [
"Plateau HCG levels",
"Enlarged Uterine size",
"Persistence of theca Lutein cysts",
"Suburethral Nodule"
] | D | Suburethral Nodule is an unusual indicator of postmolar choriocarcinoma. All others are very well seen in the conversion of a complete hydatidiform mole into choriocarcinoma. Suburethral nodule may be a manifestation of vaginal metastasis from choriocarcinoma. Metastatic choriocarcinoma is however seen in only about 4% of patients after evacuation of a complete mole and vaginal metastasis that may present with suburethral nodule occur in only 30% of patients with such metastatic disease. Hence it is an unusual indicator. Ref: Novok's, 14th Edition, Page 1588, 1591, 1592 ; William's Gynaecology, 1st Edition, Page 764 ; COGDT, 10th Edition, Page 1890 ; Gynecological Cancer Management : Identification, Diagnosis and Treatment By Daniel Clarke-Pearson, John Soper, 2011. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 44-year-old farmer presented with high-grade fever for 4 days. On examination, an ulcer was found at the right-hand region along with painful cervical lymphadenopathy. History revealed a bite of an animal 4 days ago. A papule was formed which later progressed to form an ulcer. Erythematous, maculopapular rash all over the body along with erythema nodosum on lower limbs were present. Swabs from the ulcer and biopsy from the lymph nodes were taken and sent for examination. Gram staining was done. It showed growth on chocolate agar, BCYE agar and media supplemented with cysteine. What is the drug of choice of the above organism: - | [
"Streptomycin",
"Doxycycline",
"Amikacin",
"Gentamycin"
] | A | This is a case of Ulceroglandular tularemia (i/v/o of the clinical history and history of an animal bite) 1st image the classical ulcer seen in tularemia. Gram stain shows tiny, pleomorphic, poorly staining gram-negative coccobacillus. Tularemia is a rare infectious disease that typically attacks the skin, eyes, lymph nodes and lungs. Tularemia -- also called rabbit fever or deer fly fever -- is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. Ulceroglandular tularemia- This is the most common form of the disease. Signs and symptoms include: 1. A skin ulcer that forms at the site of infection -- usually an insect or animal bite 2. Swollen and painful lymph glands 3. Fever 4. Chills 5. Headache 6. Exhaustion The drug of choice is streptomycin. Doxycycline is a first line drug. Other aminoglycosides are reserved for severe cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thalassemia gives protection against- | [
"Filaria",
"Kala-azar",
"Malaria",
"Leptospirosis"
] | C | ROBBINS BASIC PATHOLOGY . 9/eChapter red cells and bleeding disorders .pg number413. There will be decreased synthesis of alpha or beta chains of hb. The malarial pathogens cannot survive due to decreased oxygen. Option 3 is correct. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The blobs of the visual coex are associated with: | [
"Ocular dominance",
"Orientation",
"Color processing",
"Saccadic eye movements"
] | C | Layers 2 & 3 of the visual coex contain clusters of cells; the cells contain high concentration of cytochrome oxidase. These clusters are called "pegs" or "blobs". They are concerned with color vision. Axons from interlaminar region of LGN end in layers 2 & 3. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Advent of Electrolytic etching of base metal paved a path for development of | [
"Cast perforated resin bonded fixed dental prosthesis",
"Maryland Bridge",
"Rochette Bridge",
"None of the above"
] | B | A technique for the electrolytic etching of cast base metal retainers was developed at the University of Maryland by
Thompson and Livaditis. Etched-cast retainers have definite advantages over cast-perforated restorations:
Retention is improved because the resin-to-etched metal bond can be substantially stronger than the resin-to-etched enamel. The retainers can be thinner yet still resist flexing.
The oral surface of the cast retainers is highly polished and resists plaque accumulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in A.L.S | [
"Weakness of extremities",
"Tongue Fasciculation",
"Bulbar Palsy",
"Eye involvement"
] | D | A.L.S presents with following clinical features: Weakness of extremities Fasciculation of tongue Decreased tone i.e Hypotonia Normal higher mental functions No eye involvement-->No ptosis Bulbar palsy : 9 /10 / 12th nerve palsy No bladder / Bowel involvement Most common cause for death in motor neuron disease is respiratory failure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following bone tumours is radio resistant? | [
"Osteosarcoma",
"Fibrosarcoma",
"Melanoma",
"All the above"
] | D | Renal cell carcinoma is also relatively radio resistant. Seminoma is highly radio sensitive. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug has wide therapeutic index | [
"Digoxin",
"Lithium",
"Phenytoin",
"Penicillin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Penicillin The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of the dose that produces toxicity to the dose that produces a clinic desired or effective response in population of individuals. Therapeutic index = (Toxic dose) / (Effective dose) The therapeutic index is thus a measure of the drug's safety, since a large value indicates that there is wide margin between doses that are effective and that are toxic."Phenytoin has narrow therapeutic index" page 372, 5th/e K.D.T."Lithium has narrow therapeutic index" page 416, 5th/e K.D.T."Digitalis has narrow therapeutic index" page 462, 5th/e K.D.T. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amino acid responsible for formation of histone- nucleic acid complex - | [
"Alanine",
"Threonine",
"Leucine",
"Lysine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lysine Nucleosomeso Nucleosomes are primary structural units of chromatin. It consists of DNA bound to protein histones, i.e. core of protein histones wrapped with DNA.o Histones are basic proteins rich in lysine and argininine. These positively charged amino acids interact with negatively charged phosphate group of DNA.o There are five types of histones HI, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Two molecules of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 associate one another to form histone octomer. Around histone octomer a segment of the DNA helix is wound nearly twice forming nucleosome core.o A nucleosome associated with histone H1 is called chromatosome.o A series of nucleosome ("beads on a string") form a polynucleosome or chromatin. The DNA connecting two nucleosomes is called linker (or spacer) DNA. To linker DNA, H1 histone is attached to stabilize the complex. Non-histone proteins are also attached to linker DNA. These repeating units of nucleosomes, connected with linker DNA, form chromatin fiber.A polynucleosome (chromatin)o This winding of DNA around histones produce net shortening of DNA so that it can be accommodated in the nucleus. Further shortening is brought about by further coiling of chromatin fiber to produce solenoid structure with six nucleosome per turn. The Solenoids are further folded and condensed to form chromosomes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deficiency of enzyme hexosaminidase, α subunit causes - | [
"Tay-Sach's disease",
"Hurler syndrome",
"Fabry disease",
"Pompe disease"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bone does not present at bih is | [
"Malleus",
"Incus",
"Stapes",
"Petrous temporal"
] | D | *Malleus and incus - derived from the dorsal end of Meckel&;s cailage *Stapes - from the dorsal end of the cailage of the second pharyngeal arch. *The ear ossicles ossify fully in the 4th month of IUL - 1st bones in the body to do so. *The mastoid process is not present at bih and stas developing at end of the first year and reaches its adult size at pubey. *Mastoid antrum is an air-filled sinus within petrous pa of temporal bone. Development of the mastoid air cell system doesn't occur until after bih. Reference: I B Singh&;s Embryology, 10th edition, pg 368 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are pruritic lesions | [
"Lichen planus",
"Sun burns",
"Pemphigoid",
"All of the above"
] | D | A i.e. Lichen planus; B i.e. Sun burns; C i.e. Pemphigoid In SLE skin lesions are neither itchy nor painfulQ Lesion Itching SLE Not itchyQ Psoriasis Very uncommonQ Pemphigus Mild Pemphigoid Common Sun burn Common DLE Very common Lichen planus Voilaceous (extremely itchy)Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gottron papules is seen in - | [
"Dermatomyositis",
"Scleroderma",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Behcets syndrome"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dermatomyositis Cutaneous signs of dermatomyosits1. Gottron's papules lilac or violaceous papules on knuckle, dorsa of hands.2. Gottron's sign Violaceous erythema with edema over shoulder, arms, forearms.3. Heliotrope sign Violaceous erythema with edema over eyelids, periorbital region.4. Poikiloderma Atrophy of skin, hypopigmentaion, dilated blood vessels over trunk.5. Mechanic hand Symmetric hyperkeratosis along ulnar aspect of thumb and radial aspect of fingers.6. Shawl Sign Violaceous erythema extending from dorsolateral aspect of hands, forearms, and arms to shoulder & neck.7. Calcinosis cutis Calcium deposits in skin (in Juvenile variant).8. Miscellaneous signs Photosensitivity, vasculitis, panniculitis, Nail-fold telangiectasia.Extracutaneous invplvement1. Proximal myositis2. Cardiomyopathy 3. Raynaud's phenomenon4. Arthralgia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following corynebacterium toxin is similar to that of diphtheria toxin | [
"Corynebacterium auris",
"Corynebacterium jivelai",
"Corynebacterium ulcerans",
"Corynebacterium striatum"
] | C | C.ulcerans is related to C.diptheriae and can cause diphtheria like lesions. It resembles the gravis type of the diphtheria bacillus but it liquifies gelatin, ferments trehalose slowly and does not reduce nitrate to nitrite. It produces two types of toxins, one probably identical to the diphtheria toxin and the other resembling the toxin of C.pseudotuberculosis. It is pathogenic to the guniea pigs and the produced resembling those caused by the C.diptheriae. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Editon; Pg: 246 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common extraintestinal manifestation of Inflammatory bowel disease? | [
"Dermatological",
"Rheumatological",
"Metabolic bone disease",
"Hepatobiliary"
] | B | IBD MC Extraintestinal manifestation is Rheumatological-Migratory polyahritis (Asymmetrical)-Sacroiliitis , A. Spondylitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which condition mucocutaneous candidiasis is an important clinical feature? | [
"Auto immune hypoparathyroid",
"Digeorge syndrome",
"Pseudo hypoparathyroid",
"Post-surgical hypoparathyroid"
] | A | Ans. A. Auto immune hypoparathyroidWhen immune dysfunction affects two or more endocrine glands and other non-endocrine immune disorders are present, the polyglandular autoimmune (PGA) syndromes should be considered. The PGA syndromes are classified as two main types: the type I syndrome starts in childhood and is characterized by mucocutaneous candidiasis, hypoparathyroidism, and adrenal insufficiency; the type II, or Schmidt, syndrome is more likely to present in adults and most commonly includes adrenal insufficiency, thyroiditis, or type 1 diabetes mellitus. THE type III syndrome is heterogeneous and may consist of autoimmune thyroid disease along with a variety of other autoimmune endocrine disorders.Features of Polyglandular Autoimmune (PGA) SyndromesPGA IPGA IIEpidemiologyAutosomal recessivePolygenic inheritanceMutations in APECED geneHLA-DR3 and HLA-DR4 associatedChildhood onsetAdult onsetEqual male: female ratioFemale predominanceDisease AssociationsMucocutaneous candidiasisAdrenal insufficiencyHypoparathyroidismHypothyroidismAdrenal insufficiencyGraves' diseaseHypogonadismType 1 diabetesAlopeciaHypogonadismHypothyroidismHypophysitisDental enamel hypoplasiaMyasthenia gravisMalabsorptionVitiligoChronic active hepatitisAlopeciaVitiligoPernicious anemiaPernicious anemiaCeliac disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements regarding progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy are true except - | [
"Patient commonly presents with visual disturbances and speech defects",
"It is most commonly seen in immunocompromised persons",
"Diagnosis is frequently suggested by MRI",
"It follows an indolent course and patient usually dies within 6 months"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common nerve involved in Volkamann's ischaemic contracture of forearm includes | [
"Radial",
"Ulnar",
"Median",
"Posterior interosseous"
] | C | C i.e. Median nerve Volkman's ischemic contracture most commonly involve flexor digitorum profundus muscleQ & median nerveQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Distance between nodal point and cornea in Listing's Reduced eye is- | [
"7.2mm",
"9mm",
"12mm",
"15.3mm"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 7.2 mm PointDistance in Listing's Reduced EyeNodal Point7.2mm behind the anterior corneal surfaceAnterior Focal Point15.7 mm anterior to anterior corneal surfacePosterior Focal point24.13mm behind anterior corneal surfaceAnterior focal length17.2mmPosterior Focal length22.63mmUniform Refractive Index1.336 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An increase in which of the following increases the O2 affinity of hemoglobin? | [
"Temperature",
"PCO2",
"H+ concentration",
"Carbon monoxide added to the blood"
] | D | A small amount of carbon monoxide added to blood increases its oxygen affinity, that is, it causes a leftward shift of the O2 dissociation curve . All the other choices reduce the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin, that is, they shift the dissociation curve to the right. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Localised juvenile periodontitis is ________ type of disease | [
"Atrophic",
"Inflammatory",
"Degenerative",
"None of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The earliest sign of iron deficiency anaemia - | [
"Increase in iron binding capacity",
"Decrease in serum ferritin level",
"Deorease in serum iron level",
"All the above"
] | B | <p>Plasma ferritin is a measure of iron stores in tissues & is the single test to confirm iron deficiency .It is a very specific test. In the course of development of anaemia, firstly storage iron(ferritin) depletion occurs during which iron reserves are lost without compromise of the iron supply for erythropoiesis.</p><p>Plasma iron & total iron binding capacity(TIBC) are measures of iron availability ;hence they are affected by many factors besides iron stores.Plasma iron has a diurnal & day -to-day variation & becomes very low in acute phase response .</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleeding disorders with ↑ APTT and ↑PT:a) Factor 13 deficiencyb) Severe liver diseasec) Immune thrombocytopenic purpurad) Leiden (Factor V) deficiency | [
"c",
"bd",
"ab",
"ac"
] | B | Prothrombin time assesses factor V, VII, X & II ; all of which are synthesized in liver.
PTT assess measures activity of factor V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII & II some of which (II, VIII, VII, X, V) are synthesized in liver.
So, in liver diseases both aPTT as well as PT are increased. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An enzyme that recognizes a specific (palindromic) sequence and cuts within a DNA molecule is? | [
"Exonuclease",
"Methylase",
"Modification enzyme",
"Restriction endonuclease"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) Restriction endonucleaseREF: Basic Genetics: Textbook and Activities by Ahmed Abouelmagd, Hussein M. Ageely page 117A palindromic sequence is a nucleic acid sequence {DNA or RNA) that is the same whether read 5' (five-prime) to 3' (three prime) on one strand or 5' to 3' on the complementary strand with which it forms a double helix.A restriction enzyme (or restriction endonuclease) is an enzyme that cuts DNA at specific recognition nucleotide sequences (with Type II restriction enzymes cutting double-stranded DNA) known as restriction sites. Such enzymes, found in bacteria and archaea, are thought to have evolved to provide a defense mechanism against invading viruses. Inside a bacterial host, the restriction enzymes selectively cut up foreign DNA in a process called restriction; host DNA is methylated by a modification enzyme (a methylase) to protect it from the restriction enzyme's activity. Collectively, these two processes form the restriction modification systemRestriction enzymes recognize a specific sequence of nucleotides and produce a double-stranded cut in the DNA. While recognition sequences vary betwreen 4 and 8 nucleotides, many of them are palindromic, wrhich correspond to nitrogenous base sequences that read the same backwards and forwards. In theory, there are two types of palindromic sequences that can be possible in DNA.The mirror-like palindrome is similar to those found in ordinary text, in which a sequence reads the same forward and backwards on a single strand of DNA strand, as in GTAATG.The inverted repeat palindrome is also a sequence that reads the same forward and backwards, but the forward and backward sequences are found in complementary DNA strands (i.e., of double-stranded DNA), as in GTATAC (GTATAC being complementary to CATATG). Inverted repeat palindromes are more common and have greater biological importance than mirror-like palindromes.Naturally occurring restriction endonucleases are categorized into four groups (Types I, II III, and IV) based on their composition and enzyme cofactor requirements, the nature of their target sequence, and the position of their DNA cleavage site relative to the target sequenceCategoryFunctionCofactors requiredCleavageType IMultifunctional protein with both restriction and DNA modify-cation (methylase) activityMg2+, ATP SAM (S- adenosylmethionine)Cleave DNA at non specific sites usually remote from recognition siteType IISingle function (restriction) en-zymes independent of methylaseOnly Mg2+Site specific 8t cleave writhin or at short specific distances from recognition siteType IIICombine restriction and DNA modification (methylase) activity in a single enzyme complex with different subunitsMg2+, SAM stimulates reaction but is not requiredCleave at sites a short distance from recognition siteHere are some restriction enzymes and the palindromic sequences which they recognizeEnzymeSourceRecognition SequenceCutEcoRlEscherichia coli5'GAATTC3'CTTAAG5---G AATTC---3'3---CTTAAG---5'BamH1Bacillus amylobquefaciens5'GGATCC3'CCTAGG5'---G GATCC---3'3'---CCTAG G---5'Taq1Thermus aquaticus5'TCGA3'AGCT5'---T CGA--3'3'---AGC T---5'Alul*Arthrobacter luteus5'AGCT3'TCGA5'---AG CT---3'3'---TC GA---5'* = blunt ends | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 62-year-old man reports early satiety, fatigue, and generally feeling unwell. The symptoms started gradually and are getting worse. He notes no chest discomfort, respiratory symptoms, or abdominal pain.On physical examination, he appears pale, the vital signs are normal, and the pertinent findings are a large spleen, absence of lymph nodes, and normal heart and lung.His blood count is abnormal; the WBC is 50,000/mL with increased mature granulocytes, hemoglobin is 9.5 g/dL, and platelets are 450,000/mL. Which of the following cytogenetic changes is most characteristic of his condition? | [
"deletion of chromosome 14",
"reciprocal translocation of 9 and 22 (Philadelphia chromosome)",
"translocation of the renal artery stenosis (RAS) oncogene",
"trisomy 21"
] | B | This is a case of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The reciprocal translocation involves the long arms of 22 and 9, and results in translocation of the ABL proto-oncogene from chromosome 9 adjacent to a portion of the BCR gene on chromosome 22. The resultant abnormal chromosome 22 is known as the Philadelphia (Phi) chromosome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The fibers of the coicospinal tract pass through which structure? | [
"Medial lemniscus",
"Medullary pyramid",
"Posterior funiculus",
"Medial longitudinal fasciculus"
] | B | Coicospinal fibers pass through the Medullary Pyramid Extra edge Tracts Function Lateral coicospinal and rubrospinal tracts Control distal limb muscles for fine motor and skilled voluntary movements. Anteriorcoicospinal tract and tectospinal, reticulospinal, and vestibulospinal tracts Control the postural adjustments and gross movements | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of them are usually seen as an opportunistic infection in AIDS except: | [
"Candidiasis",
"Kaposi's sarcoma",
"Rubella",
"Cytomegalovirus infection"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
FeCl3 test is used in diagnosis of: NEET 14 | [
"Hydrochloric acid",
"Acetic acid",
"Alcohol",
"Phenol"
] | D | Ans. Phenol | train | med_mcqa | null |
An endodontic reamer is least likely to fracture when inserted in a: | [
"Dry, clean canal",
"Wet, clean canal",
"Wet, debris laden canal",
"Dry, debris laden canal"
] | B | Irrigants perform physical and biologic functions. Dentin shavings get removed from canals by irrigation.
Thus, they do not get packed at the apex of root canal.
Instruments do not work properly in dry canals.
Their efficiency increases by use in wet canals.
Instruments are less likely to break when canal walls are lubricated with irrigation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mrs Rekha having her child of 2yrs of age presents to her family obstetrician with 40 pruritis vulvae and amenorrhea She gives hco severe blood loss and failure of lactation during pregnancy She is lethargic and has cold intolerance She has got multiple skin infections and anemia What is the diagnosis? | [
"Sheehans syndrome",
"Ashermann Syndrome",
"Prolactinomas",
"none"
] | A | ref : shaw gynecology | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is true about chest x-ray shown below | [
"No exudate in alveolar",
"Neutrophilic infiltrate",
"purulent sputum production",
"Alveolar pattern in chest x - ray"
] | A | The x-ray shown suggest Interstitial or atypical pneumonia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Implant tooth interface in light microscopy will appear as? | [
"Osteointegration",
"Osteosynthesis",
"Osteogenesis",
"Osseoinduction"
] | A | At light miscroscope level magnification direct contact b/w living bone and a functionally loaded implant surface is interpreted as osteointegration | train | med_mcqa | null |
First-order neurons of the anterior spinocerebellar tract: | [
"Are found in spinal ganglia at all levels",
"Give rise to the fasciculus cuneatus.",
"Project axons into the medial root entry zone.",
"Provide the afferent limb for muscle stretch reflexes."
] | D | First-order neurons of the anterior spinocerebellar tract provide the afferent limb for muscle stretch reflexes. found in the spinal ganglia from L1 to S2 and synapse on spinal border cells. First-order neurons of the anterior spinothalamic and posterior spinocerebellar tracts project axons into the medial root entry zone first-order neurons of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway gives rise to the fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus first-order neurons of the lateral spinothalamic tract project axons the posterolateral tract (of Lissauer). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman has previously have 2 anencephalic babies. What is her RISK of having a third baby with anencephaly? | [
"0%",
"10%",
"25%",
"50%"
] | B | The risk of having anencephalic baby in this patient is 13%. The recurrence risk after having one anencephalic baby is 5% and is 13% after having two affected children. Recurrence risk can be reduced with the use of folic acid. Anencephaly isone of the most frequent congenital malformation of the brain. In this condition large poions of scalp, cranial bones, brain including both cerebral coex and white matter are missing. Only hemmorhhagic nubbin of nerves, glial and connective tissue remains. Brainstem, cerebellum and spinal cord are present but they are malformed. Most common causes are chromosomal anomalies, maternal hypehermia, deficiencies of folate, zinc and copper. This condition can be detetced by elevated maternal serum levels of alpha feto protein and acetyl cholinesterase. Ref: Fernando Arias - High Risk Pregnancy, 2nd Edition ; Text Book of Pediatrics By Nelson, 16th Edition, Page 1806 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Microfilaria endemicity index is - | [
"% of a persons showing MF in blood and diseased individual",
"% of persons showing MF in blood only",
"Number of MF in the blood",
"Average no. Persons with positive slides"
] | A | <p> filarial indices 1. Microfilaria rate: percentage of persons showing microfilaria in their peripheral blood (20 cu. mm) in sample population, one slide being taken from each person. 2. Filarial endemicity rate: percentage of persons examined showing microfilaria in their blood/disease Manifestation / both. 3. Microfilarial density: number of microfilaria per unit volume of blood in samples from individual person. 4. Filarial disease rate. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.274}</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are seen in Multiple myeloma except - | [
"Visual Disturbance",
"Bleeding tendency",
"Proteinuria",
"Dystrophic calcification"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
which of the following is a SARI | [
"miazapine",
"milnacipran",
"clozapine",
"nefazadone"
] | D | SARI * IMPOANCE antidepressant with good sleep, no sexual problems and no GI side effects. It was thought this would replace SSRI but dint do well because of notorious side effects * MECHANISM Serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor * DRUGS Trazodone Nefazodone * USE low dose trazodone is used as a hypnotic * SIDE EFFECTS Trazodone----------- priapism Nefazodone ---------hepatotoxicity Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no. 955 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During TURP surgeon takes care to dissect above the verumontanum to prevent injury to | [
"External urethral sphincter",
"Urethral crest",
"Prostatic utricle",
"Trigone of bladder"
] | A | TURP Damage to the external sphincter is avoided provided one uses the verumontanum as a guide to the most distal point of the resection/vaporisation/enucleation. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pg no : 1465 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an average young adult male, water constitutes about ______ % of the body weight. | [
"40",
"50",
"60",
"70"
] | C | Body is composed of about 60-70% water.
Osmolality of the intra and extracellular fluid is the same, but there is a marked difference in the solute content. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pseudocholinesterase deficiency, a drug to be used cautiously is - | [
"Barbiturate",
"Succinylcholine",
"Halothane",
"Galiamine"
] | B | Ans: B | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 62-year-old man has had back pain for 4 months. No abnormal findings are noted on physical examination. A CBC shows a WBC count of 3700/microliter, hemoglobin 10.3 g/dL, hematocrit 31.1%, MCV 85 fL, and platelet count 110,000/microliter. His total serum protein is 8.5 gm/dl with an albumin of 4.1 gm/dl. A chest radiograph shows no abnormalities of heart or lung fields, but there are several lucencies noted in the vertebral bodies. A sternal bone marrow aspirate is performed and yields a dark red jelly-like material in the syringe. Which of the following cell types is most likely to be numerous on microscopic examination of this aspirate? | [
"Giant cells",
"Fibroblasts",
"Osteoblasts",
"Plasma cells"
] | D | The patient has multiple myeloma. The bone marrow needle was in a lytic lesion filled with plasma cells. His serum globulin is high as a result of his monoclonal gammopathy.
Incorrect 1. Giant cells may be seen in a variety of benign and malignant lesions of bone, but this does not explain the hypergammaglobulinemia.
Incorrect 2. Fibroblasts produce collagen and are more numerous with the gross appearance of firm, white scar tissue.
Incorrect 3. Osteoblasts are most numerous in repair of bone, and callus is very firm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is suspected to have vestibular Shwanomma, the investigation of choice for its diagnosis is: | [
"Contrast enhanced CT scan",
"Gadolinium enhanced MRI",
"SPECT",
"PET scan"
] | B | Ans. Gadolinium enhanced MRI | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are major symptoms of sinusitis except ? | [
"Nasal bluckage",
"Facial congeion",
"Nasal congestion",
"Halitosis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Halitosis The clinical symptoms of acute sinusitis have been classified into major and minor Major Facial pain or pressure Purulent nasal discharge Fever Nasal congestion Nasal obstruction Hyposmia or Anosmia Facial congestion or fullness Minor Headache Cough Fatigue Halitosis Dental pain Ear pain or pressure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most radio resistant phase in cell cycle – a) G1b) Early Sc) Late Sd) G2 | [
"c",
"bc",
"bd",
"ac"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Entacapone may be useful in patients being treated with levodopacarbidopa combination because it: | [
"Activates COMT",
"Decreases formation of 3-OMD",
"Inhibits monoamine oxidase type B",
"Inhibits dopamine uptake"
] | B | (Ref: KDT 6/e p421) Levo-dopa is conveed to dopamine by dopa decarboxylase (that cannot cross blood brain barrier). Carbidopa is an inhibitor of dopa decarboxylase in the periphery. It therefore increases the amount of 1-dopa that reaches the brain (due to inhibition of peripheral metabolism to dopamine). Due to inhibition of 1-dopa metabolism (by dopa decarboxylase), an alternative pathway of metabolism by catechol-o-methyl transferase (COMT) is activated.COMT metabolizes 1-dopa to 3-o-methyl dopa (3-OMD) that can complete with 1-dopa for entry in the brain. Entacapone and tolcapone is useful in Parkinsonism by inhibiting COMT. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ovarian tumours are commonly arise from | [
"Stroma",
"Surface epithelium",
"Germinal epithelium",
"Endodermal"
] | B | (Surface epithelium) (397-S) (333-S14th)Ovarian cancers* Epithelial ovarian cancers accounts for 80 to 90% of ovarian cancers* Non-epithelial cancers account for 10 to 20%These include malignancies of:I) Germ cell originII) Sex cord stromal cell originIII) Metastatic cancersIV) Rare malignancies like lipoid cell tumours sarcomas | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigor mortis starts in: | [
"Heart",
"Brain",
"Right iliac fossa",
"Left iliac fossa"
] | A | Ans: A (Heart) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010Explanation:Rigor MortisThis is the state of stiffening and sometimes shortening of muscles following deathIt occurs due to lack of ATP after birth.When the ATP is reduced to a critical levels of 85% of normal, the overlapping portions of myosin and actin Filaments combine as rigid link of actomyosin. which is viscous and inextensible causing hardness and rigidity of muscles- Order of appearance: Heart (left) - eyelids facial muscles - neck and trunk - upper extremities - legs - muscles of fingers and toes.- it passes off in the same order. In India, it commences by 2-3 hrs, develops for 12 hrs. and usually lasts for 18-36 hrs in summer, and 24-48 hrs in winter.Time of Onset: In India, it begins 1 - 2 hours after birth.Duratin of RM: In India, it usually lasts for 24 - 36 hours during w inter and 16-24 hours during summer.Medico-legal ImportanceIt is a deFinite sign of deathIts extent helps in estimating the time since deathIt indicates the position of body at the time of deathConditions Simulating RMHeat stiffeningCold stiffeningCadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigiditySecondary RelaxationFlaccidity following RM is caused by action of the alkaline liquids produced by putrefaction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gout is a disorder of: | [
"Purine Metabolism",
"Pyrimidine Metabolism",
"Ketone Metabolism",
"Protein metabolism"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common histological type of the thyroid carcinoma is: | [
"Medullary type",
"Follicular type",
"Papillary type",
"Anaplastic type"
] | C | Thyroid cancers are classified according to their histopathological characteristics and they are: ? Papillary thyroid cancer (75% to 85% of cases ) - often in young females - excellent prognosis ? Follicular thyroid cancer (10% to 20% of cases ) ? Medullary thyroid cancer (5% to 8% of cases)- cancer of the parafollicular cells, often pa of MEN-2 syndrome. ? Anaplastic thyroid cancer (Less than 5%). It is not responsive to treatment and can cause pressure symptoms. ? O thers ? ? Lymphoma ? ? Squamous cell carcinoma, sarcoma Ref: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 7th Edition, Page 1177; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2243; Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 792 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cresentic glomerular deposits are seen in - | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Polyarteritis nodosa",
"Thromboangiitis obliterans",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is used for exocytosis | [
"Calcium",
"Sodium",
"Potassium",
"All"
] | A | Calcium plays an impoant role in exocytosis Exocytosis is an active vesicular transpo system | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest site of extraintestinal amoebiasis is ? | [
"Brain",
"Liver",
"Spleen",
"Lungs"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Liver Liver abscess is the most common extra-intestinal manifestation of amoebiasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dum-Dum bullet is ? | [
"Two bullets coming out of muzzle end",
"Bullet rotates end on end during motion",
"Bullet gets fragmented and disintegrated on impact",
"Nose of the bullet is exposed"
] | D | Nose of the bullet is exposed, so it expands on striking the target, producing larger area of damage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17 year old female underwent a fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC) for a lump in the breast which was well defined, non-tender and mobile. The diagnosis of a benign lesion can be considered by which of the following pathological feature - | [
"Dyschohesive ductal epithelial cells without cellular fragments",
"Tightly arranged ductal epithelial cells with dyscohesive bare nuclei",
"Stromal predominance with hyperplasia of spindle cells",
"Polymorphism with single or arranged ductal epithelia cells"
] | B | . Tightly arranged ductal epithelial cells with dyscohesive bare nuclei | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brain is presented for study in - | [
"10% formalin",
"20% formalin",
"30% formalin",
"40% formalin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. 10% formalin 10% formalin is used as preservative for histopathological examination of tissue but not used for poisoning or chemical analysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6 year old female child reported with a chief complaint of proclined upper anteriors. Parents give a history of prolonged bottle-feeding and a persistent thumb sucking habit. Clinical examination reveals anterior open bite with proclined upper anterior and retroclined lower anterior teeth and associated tongue thrusting.
The foremost line of treatment in this patient is: | [
"No treatment. Wait and watch",
"Extraction of first premolars followed by Hawley's appliance",
"Psychiatric consultation prior to any therapy",
"Extraction of second premolars followed by Hawley's appliance"
] | C | Approach to Thumb-sucking treatment
During treatment, the child should be given an opportunity to stop the habit spontaneously before the permanent teeth erupt. Delay until the early school-age years, allows spontaneous discontinuation of the habit due to peer pressure. If it is not discontinued, the treatment should generally be undertaken from 4 to 6 years. The treatment includes the following approaches.
Phase 1 (normal and sub-clinically significant sucking):
This phase extends from birth to 3 years of age.
Children develop thumb sucking at this stage and resolve at the end of this phase.
In case of malocclusion signs, prophylactic approaches, like pacifiers or medicaments, can be used.
Phase 2 (clinically significant sucking):
This phase extends from 3 to 7 years of age.
A firm and definite treatment plan of correction that includes psychological counseling and appliance therapy is required.
Phase 3 (intractable sucking):
Thumb sucking present after 4th year poses problem for the children.
Two-fold treatment including both psychotherapy and appliances is essential. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low molecular weight neurotransmitters are all except: | [
"Glutamate",
"GABA",
"Dopamine",
"Orexins"
] | D | Low molecular weight neurotransmitters: (Small molecule transmitter) Glutamate GABA Ach NA Dopamine High molecular weight neurotransmitters: (Large molecule transmitter) NP Y Orexins Opioid CA | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of carcinoma esophagus is: | [
"Middle 1/3rd",
"Upper 1/3rd",
"Lower 1/3rd",
"Lower end of esophagus"
] | C | Answer is C (Lower 1/3rd) The lower third of the esophagus is the most common site of esophageal cancer and accounts for about 50% of all esophageal cancers. `About 15% of esophageal cancers occur in the upper third of esophagus (cervical esophagus), 35% in the middle third of esophagus and 50% in the lower third' - Harrison 16th/524 Site of esophageal cancer (All histological types) % of total Upper 1/3' 15% Middle 1/3rd 35% Lower 1/3'd 50% Note: The most common site of squamous cell (histological subtype) is middle 1/3 of esophagus The most common site of adenocarcinoma (histological subtype) is lower 1/3rd of esophaguse. | train | med_mcqa | null |
100 % cure rate for carcinoma cervix is seen in : | [
"Invasive carcinoma",
"In situ carcinoma",
"Micro invasive carcinoma",
"Extensive carcinoma"
] | B | In situ carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lymph node from a 10-year-old boy reveals large pleomorphic lymphocytes with CD30 positivity, frequent mitoses, and scattered cells bearing kidney-shaped nuclei. Which of the following statements is true? | [
"t(2;5) translocation impas a worsened prognosis.",
"ALK protein immunostaining is seen in a minority of cases.",
"This tumor occurs exclusively in children",
"Hallmark cells are a feature."
] | D | This patient has anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL). The constituent cells are positive for CD30. Scattered cells showing kidney or donut-shaped nuclei with an eosinophilic region adjacent to the nucleus are known as "Hallmark cells." The majority of cases in children shows a t(2;5) translocation which correlates with ALK positivity and improved survival. Bimodal incidence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Effective dose in radiation at 2 m, is 1 gray ; At 1 m, it will be | [
"0.25",
"0.5",
"2",
"4"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stimulation of which center produces satiety with feeling of fullness- | [
"Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus",
"Dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus",
"Peritrigonal area",
"Lateral nucleus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus * Satiety center - Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus.* Feeding center - Lateral nucleus of hypothalamus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about heterochromic uveitis- | [
"Involves posterior surface of iris",
"Involves anterior part of iris",
"Involves posterior chamber",
"Posterior synechiae"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Involves anterior part of iris o In Fush's heterochromic iridocyclitis, anterior surface is involved more commonly."Inflammatory membranes are common over the anterior surface of the iris and anterior face of the ciliary body ",.....YanoffFuch's heterochromic iridocyclitis (Fush's uveitis syndrome)o It is a form of anterior and intermediate uveitis.o The condition is usually unilateral and chronic in nature and is characterized by a chronic non-granulomatous uveitis and eventually results in iris heterochromia (a change in the colour of iris),o The disease has following characteristic features :Heterochromia of irisDiffuse stromal iris atrophyFine KPs at back of corneaFaint aqueous flareAbsence of posterior svnechiaeA fairly common rubeosis iridis, sometimes associated with neovascularisation of the angle of anterior chamber.Comparatively early development of complicated cataract and secondary glaucoma (usually open angle type). Glaucoma has been reported in 10-59% of cases.Treatmento Fuch's heterchromic uveitis responds variable to steroids and cycloplegics. The complications of long term use of these drugs may at times outweigh their potential benefits. Therefore, treatment with topical steroids is given to iritis which is sufficiently active to require the treatment, otherwise the patient is routinely followed without giving any treatment.o Cataract responds well to most forms of intraocular surgeries, including the standard IOL implantation.Hyphemia may occur because of rubeosis iridis (neovascularization of iris),o Glaucoma control may be somewhat more problematic, with surgical options indicated for later forms of disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MDG is to reduce MMR by - | [
"2-Jan",
"5-Apr",
"4-Mar",
"3-Feb"
] | C | Ans. is `c' i.e., 3/4 o Goal 5 of MDG is to reduce M MR (maternal moality ratio) by three quaers. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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