question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The dentist who first used Nitrous oxide for the abolition of pain due to dental extraction was | [
"Harper David",
"Harvey william",
"Horace wells",
"Hunter John"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is seen in the infant of a diabetic mother: | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Macrocytic anemia",
"Polycythemia"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of Extradual/Subdural Hemorrhage in children is | [
"A-V malformation",
"Skull fracture",
"Aneurysms",
"Atherosclerosis"
] | B | (B) Skull fracture | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study design: | [
"Coho study",
"Case control study",
"Cross-sectional study",
"Randomized controlled trial"
] | B | Case control study Recall bias is associated with Case-control studies. Park writes- "When cases and controls are asked questions about their past history, it may be more likely for the cases to recall the existence of ceain events or factors than the controls who are healthy persons. For example, those who have had a myocardial infarction might be more likely to remember and recall ceain habits or events than those who have not. Thus cases may have a different recall of past events than controls" Recall bias is an error due to the differences in accuracy or completeness of recall to memory of past events or experiences. As a hypothetical example, suppose one is studying the possible relationship of congenital malformations to prenatal infections. A case-control study is conducted and interview is done of mothers of children with congenital malformations (cases) and mothers of children without malformations (controls). Each mother is questioned about infections she may have had during the pregnancy. A mother who has had a child with a bih defect tries to identify some unusual event that occurred during her pregnancy with that child. She wants to know whether the abnormality was caused by something she did. Why did it happen? Such a mother may even recall an event, such as a mild respiratory infection, that a mother of a child without a bih defect may not even notice or may have forgotten completely. This type of bias is known as recall bias. Bias is said to have occurred when there is a systematic difference between the results from a study and the true state of affairs. Bias may be introduced at all stages of the research process, from study design, through to analysis and publication. Bias can create a spurious association (i.e. overestimation of an effect) or mask a real one (underestimation of an effect). While appropriate statistical methods can reduce the effect of bias, they may not be able to eliminate it entirely. Innumerable number of bias have been listed. Bias associated with coho study: Selection Confounding Interviewer's bias Bias associated with Case-control study: Selection Confounding Recall bias Berkesonian bias Interviewer's bias Interviewer bias is a type of information bias that arises when an interviewer consciously or unconsciously elicits inaccurate information from study subjects. Interviewer bias can result in differential error, which can seriously disto disease-exposure associations, if the interviewer is aware of the disease status and exposure hypothesis in a case-control study, or if the interviewer is aware of the exposure status and outcome hypothesis in a coho study. In the former case, the interviewer may probe more deeply for evidence of exposure among cases than among controls. In the latter case, the interviewer may try to elicit evidence of health effects more assiduously in exposed than in unexposed coho members. Selection bias occurs when patients included in the study are not representative of the population to which the results will be applied. Confounding bias occurs when we find a spurious association between a potential risk factor and a disease outcome or miss a real association between them because we have failed to adjust for any confounding variables. A confounding variable or confounder is an exposure variable that is related to both the outcome variable (e.g. disease) and to one or more of the other exposure variables. For example in the study of the role of alcohol in the etiology of esophageal cancer, smoking is the confounding factor because it is associated with the consumption of alcohol and it is also an independent risk factor for esophageal cancer. Thus the effects of alcohol consumption on esophageal cancer can only be determined when the influence of smoking is neutralized by matching. Berkesonian bias: It occurs when patient admission rates vary between the experimental and control groups, especially in studies that use hospitalized patients for both groups. For example, this type of bias is present when hospitalized patients with the risk factor (experimental group) are admitted at a higher rate than the control group. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A ceain commuity has 100 children out of whom 28 are immunuzed against measles; 2 of them acquire measles simultaneously; Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the efficacy of vaccine to be 100%. What is the sec. Attack rate - | [
"5%",
"10%",
"20%",
"21.50%"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 20% o The impoant features of SAR : - i) The primary case is excluded from both the numerator and denominator. ii) Denominator is restricted to susceptible contacts of primary case. iii) In denominator, person should be suscetible ---> Immune person (to disease) are not susceptible to develop the disease, So they are excluded. iv) Disease should develop within the range of incubation period. | train | med_mcqa | null |
79 yrs old lady had fall, the following X-ray was taken. Which of the following is treatment? | [
"Hemiahroplasty",
"Hip spica",
"Total Hip Replacement",
"Nailing"
] | A | X-ray shows fracture in the neck of Femur. The treatment for neck of femur fracture is based on age: < 65 years old - Fixation > 65 years old- Hemiahroplasty Total hip replacement is done for ahritis of any age group. X- ray shows no ahritis. Nailing is used for shaft of femur fracture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a common side effect for ACE inhibitors and Angiotensin receptor blockers | [
"Postural hypotension",
"Dry cough",
"Hyperkalemia",
"None of the above"
] | B | Normally Bradykinin is Metabolized by Angiotensin converting enzyme and increased levels of Bradykinin is seen with after administration of ACE inhibitors, which leads to dry cough.
And it is not seen with APB's as they directly block the Angiotensin receptor, without inhibiting enzyme. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about Antistreptolysin ‘O’ titre is: | [
"In normal people the titre is <200",
"In acute glomerulonephritis the titre is low",
"ASO titre >200 indicate rheumatic fever",
"Streptozyme test is an active haemagglutination test"
] | B | Retrospective Diagnosis of Streptococcal infection
ASO (Anti Streptolysin ‘O’) titre :
– Estimation of antibody aganist streptolysin is a standard serological test for retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection.
– ASO titre > 200 are indicative of prior streptococcal infection.
– Raised after throat infection only
– Acute rheumatic fever :
- High level of ASO titre are usually found
- Titres > 300 or 350 are taken as significant.
– Acute glomerulonephirits :
- ASO titres are often low.
Streptozyme test – Passive slide hemaglutination test
Becomes positive after nearly all types of streptococcal infection whether of throat or skin.
Anti DNA ase B and Antihyaluronidase – Useful for retrospective diagnosis of Streptococcal Pyoderma or for acute glomerulogephritis for which ASO titre is of much less value | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which enzyme is not seen in urea cycle? | [
"Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II",
"Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I",
"Argininosuccinate Synthetase",
"Arginase"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II* Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I is an enzyme of Urea cycle* Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II is an enzyme of Pyrimidine synthesis* Enzymes of Urea cycle are:# Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I# Ornithine Transcarbamoylase# Argininosuccinate synthetase# Argininosuccinate Lyase# Arginase | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding IMNCI, when should refer the clild to higher centre? | [
"Pneumonia",
"Severe pneumonia",
"Persistent diarrhea",
"All of above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Severe pneumonia Refer urgently to hospital afte giving instruction in following cases :? Possible serious bacterial infection Severe jaundice Diarrhoea with severe dehydration Severe persistent diarrhoea (not PERSISTENT DIARRHOEA) Severe dysentry Not able to feed or severe malnutritions Severe pnumonia or very severe disease Severe complicated measls Mastoiditis Severe malnutrition Severe anemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
The immunohistochemical marker used to label basal cells in suspected prostate carcinoma | [
"Alpha Fetoprotein",
"Alpha-Methylacyl-coenzyme Racemase",
"Annexin",
"AgNOR"
] | B | AFP is an oncofetal antigenAnnexin is an anti-inflammatory moleculeAgNOR is silver-stained nucleolar organizer Region | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a mycobacterium tuberculosis complex organism? | [
"M. Africanum",
"M. Tuberculosis",
"M. Bovis",
"M. Kansasii"
] | D | Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex organisms are obligate pathogens which display >95% DNA / DNA homology: M.tuberculosis, M.bovis, M. bovis bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG), M.africanum, M.microti, and M.canettii. Like all microbacteria, members of the M.tuberculosis complex are aerobic, non-spore-forming, non-motile, slightly curved or straight roads. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sympathetic stimulation causes | [
"Pupillary constriction",
"Contraction of bladder detrusor",
"Bronchial smooth muscle contraction",
"Vasoconstriction of skin and mucus membranes"
] | D | Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction in all blood vessels except those in skeletal muscles. And causes pupillary dilatation, bronchial smooth muscle dilation, relaxation of detrussor muscle of bladder Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:556 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis- | [
"Pruritis",
"Pain",
"Jaundice",
"Fever"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are clinical features of chalcosis except | [
"Kayser - Fleischer ring",
"Sun - flower cataract",
"Deposition of golden plaques at the posterior pole",
"Dalen- fuch's nodules."
] | D | Dalen - fuch's nodules are formed due to proliferation of the pigment epithelium ----- sympathetic ophthalmitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT a content of Deep perineal pouch among the following is | [
"External urethral sphincter",
"Prostatic urethra",
"Bulbourethral gland",
"Deep transverse perineal muscle"
] | B | Membranous urethra is a content of Deep perineal pouch, not prostatic urethra. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Microsomia" is defined as: | [
"Birth weight below 90th percentile",
"Birth weight below 10th percentile",
"Birth weight below 20th percentile",
"Birth weight below 5th percentile"
] | B | b. Birth weight below 10th percentile(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 789-791, Ghai 8/e p 124-125)Microsomia is another name for a small for date (SFD) or small for gestational age (SGA) baby.SFD baby is a baby whose birth weight is less than 10th centile of expected according to the gestational age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diatom test is to determine death due to: | [
"Drowning",
"Strangulation",
"Hanging",
"Burns"
] | A | A i.e. Drowning Diatoms test & Gettler's testQ are for drowning deaths. Cutis anserina (goose skin), Washerwoman hand & Paltauf's haemorrhageQ are seen in drowning. Gettler's testQ is also for drowning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cell rich zone is rich in | [
"Fibroblasts",
"Mesenchymal cells",
"Odontoblast",
"Ameloblast"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a cause of generalized increase in bone density in adults? | [
"Myelosclerosis",
"Renal osteodystrophy",
"Fluorosis",
"Caffey's disease"
] | D | Ans- D Ref- The causes of generalised increase in bone density in adult patients can be divided according to broad categories: myeloproliferative disorders: myelosclerosis marrow cavity is narrowed by endosteal new bone patchy lucencies due to persistence of fibrous tissue (generalised osteopenia in the early stages due to myelofibrosis) hepatosplenomegaly metabolic renal osteodystrophy poisoning fluorosis with periosteal reaction, prominent muscle attachments and calcification of ligaments and interosseous membranes changes are most marked in the innominate bones and lumbar spine neoplastic (more commonly multifocal than generalised) osteoblastic metastases: most commonly prostate and breasts lymphoma mastocytosis sclerosis of marrow-containing skeleton with patchy areas of radiolucency urticaria pigmentosa can have symptoms and signs of carcinoid syndrome idiopathic (more commonly multifocal than generalised) Paget disease: coarsened trabeculae, bony expansion and thickened cortex osteopetrosis There are several mnemonics for dense bones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12-year-old male kidney transplant recipient. Multiple brown keratotic papules are seen on the forehead and scalp. Which of the following is the common cause? | [
"HPV subtype 6,11",
"HPV subtype 2,4",
"HPV subtype 3,10",
"HPV subtype 16,18"
] | C | Patient is on immunosuppressive therapy prone to infections, according to question most probably patient suffers HPV infection Lesions are plane topped (viral lesions are verrucous) Therefore image shows verruca plana. Mnemonic: "DSP-CELB" Types of Viral wa HPV subtype- 1. Deep plantar wa/ (myermecia) 1 (MC) 2. Superficial plantar wa/(mosaic) 2(MC) 3. Plane wa (verruca plana) 3, 10 4. Common wa (verruca vulgaris) 4 <2 (MC) 5. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis 5, 8 6. Laryngeal was/anogenital 6 >11 7. Butcher wa. 7 MC | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest chromosomal anomaly leading to spontaneous aboions is : | [
"Trisomy 16",
"Trisomy 21",
"Tetraploidy",
"Turner's syndrome"
] | A | Trisomy 16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dr. Nitin decided to give oral iron therapy to a patient of iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following adverse effects leads to poor compliance of medicine by the patient? | [
"Epigastric pain and bowel upset",
"Black stools",
"Staining of teeth",
"Metallic taste"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding Metanafysis is/Systematic review: (Question stem - incomplete) | [
"Systematic review is same as narrative review",
"RCT is better design than Met analy si ^systematic review",
"Top of study design pyramid",
"Not applicable for case-control study"
] | C | Ans: C (Top of study design pyramid) Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> and Evidence-Based Medicine is the integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values. (Sackett DL, Straus SE, Richardson WS,, etal. Evidence-based medicine: How to Practice and teach EBM, 2nd ed, Edinburgh: Churchill Livingstone, 2000)Explanation:All the study designs can have metaanalysis and systematic reviewIn ail those designs, metanalysis forms top of the evidence pyramid.Among basic study designs RCT is at the top of evidence pyramid.However, metanalysis of RCTs would result in better conclusion than single small RCT.Systematic review is different from narrative review as narrative review will not have analytical points.Systematic reviews vs. non-systematicFeatureSystematic reviewNarrative reviewQuestionOften a focused one questionOften broad in scopeSources and searchComprehensive sources and explicit search strategyNot usually specified, potentially biasedSelectionCriterion-based selection, uniformly appliedNot usually specified, potentially biasedAppraisalRigorous critical appraisalVariableQualitative summary that includes statistical synthesis (meta-analysis)SynthesisOften a qualitative summaryInferencesUsual! y evidence-basedSometimes evidence-basedSystematic Reviews Vs Meta-AnalysesSystematic ReviewsMeta-analyses# Identify and critique relevant research studes# Identify relevant research studies using a defined protocol# Discuss factors that may explain heterogeneity# Statistical test study heterogeneity and investigate explanatory variables# Synthesize the knowledge# Statistically summarize results to obtain an overall estimate of treatment effect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following test is the best diagnosis in a patient with typhoid? | [
"Blood culture",
"Widal",
"Stool culture",
"Urine culture"
] | A | Other than a positive blood culture, no specific laboratory test is diagnostic for enteric fever. Option 2- The possible presence of cross reactive antibodies limits the use of serological test in the diagnosis of Salmonella. Option 3, 4: Stool/Urine culture can be used for typhoid carriers. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following resection of 2/3 of the liver, regeneration is complete within - | [
"2-3 months",
"8-10 weeks",
"4-6 months",
"4-5 weeks"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug most useful in the treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder is | [
"Amoxapine",
"Fluoxetine",
"Doxepin",
"Dothiepin"
] | B | Fluoxetine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pavor nocturnus is - | [
"Sleep terror",
"Sleep apnea",
"Sleep bruxism",
"Somnambulism"
] | A | Pavor nocturnus is the other name for sleep terror. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Myelofibrosis leading to a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration is seen with which of the following conditions? | [
"Burkitts lymphoma",
"Acute erythroblastic leukemia",
"Acute megakaryocytic leukemia",
"Acute undifferentiated leukemia"
] | C | In some acute megakaryocytic leukemias blasts show megakaryocytic differentiation,which is often accompanied by bone marrow fibrosis caused by the release of fibrogenic cytokines. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia is the most common variant of AML associated with Downs syndrome. The release od PDGF is responsible for marrow fibrosis.( ref Robbins 8th/622,9/e p612, Wintrobe12th/1857-8) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mononucleosis in the blood is associated with what? SELECT ONE. | [
"Human papillomavirus (HPV)",
"Epstein-Barr virus",
"HIV",
"Varicella zoster virus"
] | B | Nasopharyngeal cancer is most closely associated with Epstein-Barr virus. This virus is also associated with infective mononucleosis and Burkitt's lymphoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Finkelstein's test is done for diagnosis of: | [
"De quervain's tenosynovitis",
"Trigger finger",
"Carpel tunnel syndrome",
"Compartment syndrome"
] | A | Ans: A (De quervain's tenosynovitis) Ref: Apley's System of Orthopaedics and Fractures. 9th EditionExplanation:DE QUERVAIN'S DISEASEThis condition, first described in 1895. is caused by reactive thickening of the sheath around the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons within the first extensor compartment.It may be initiatedby overuse but it also occurs spontaneously, particularly in middle-aged women, and sometimes during pregnancy.The pathognomonic sign is elicited by Finkelstein's test.The examiner places the patient's thumb across the palm in full flexion and then, holding the patienf s hand firmly, turns the wrist sharply into adduction.In a positive test this is acutely painful; repeating the movement with the thumb left free is relatively painless.Resisted thumb extension (hitch-hiker's sign) is also painful. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In HIV positive patient with pneumocystis jiroveci infection, which of the following is used for prevention? | [
"Azithromycin",
"Acyclovir",
"C. Levofloxacin",
"Sulfomethoxazole+ trimethoprim"
] | D | Ans. (d) Sulfomethoxazole and trimethoprimRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 492* Prophylaxis with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPSMZ) prevents many opportunistic infections, including infection with P. carinii, Toxoplasma gondii, and community-acquired respiratory, gastrointestinal, and urinary tract pathogens.* Intolerance of TMP-SMZ is common; desensitization is useful less often in transplant patients than in patients with AIDS. Alternative agents provide a narrower spectrum of protection than does TMP-SMZ and less adequate protection against Pneumocystis species | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 64 year old man, has had recurring nasal hemorrhages following surgery to remove nasal polyps. To control the bleeding, the surgeon is considering ligating the primary aerial supply to the nasal mucosa. This aery is a direct branch of which of the following aeries? | [
"Facial aery",
"Maxillary aery",
"Superficial temporal aery",
"Superior labial aery"
] | B | The major source of blood supply to the nasal mucosa is the sphenopalatine aery, which is the terminal branch of the maxillary aery. The sphenopalatine aery enters the nasal cavity from the pterygopalatine fossa by passing through the sphenopalatine foramen in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Median Nerve supplies all EXCEPT: | [
"Opponens pollicis",
"Adductor pollicis",
"Flexor pollicis brevis",
"Abductor pollicis brevis"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Adductor pollicisREF: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Median_nerve, Grays anatomy, 39th edition, P 931,932 See chart of previous question for explanation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dowry death is covered under which IPC - | [
"304-B",
"304-A",
"498",
"376"
] | A | Ans .is 'a' i.e., 304 - B o 304-B IRC: Dowry death: 10 years of imprisonment which can extend to life,o 498-A I PC : Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives.Dowry deatho In some cases newly married girls are abused, harassed, cruelly treated and tortured by the husband, in-laws and their relatives for or in connection with any demand for dowry. In extreme cases, the woman is killed by burning or some other method. Law in relation to dowry death are :- Low prescribing punishment and definition (section 304 BIPC)o Husband or (his any) relative wi 11 be tried under section 304Br IPC and shall be deemed to have caused her death, if a woman dies due to bodily injury or bums or otherwise in suspicious circumstances with in 7 years of marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to harassment or cruelty by them, in connection with, any demand for dowry. Such death shall be called dowry death. Punishment includes imprisonment of not less than 10years, but which may extend to life imprisonment.Low prescribing punishment for causing cruelty to a married women (Sec. 498A, IPC)o Husband or (his any) relative will be tried under section 498A, IPC for causing cruelty to a married woman. Cruelty is defined as any willful conduct which drives the woman to commit suicide or grave physical or mental injury to her or harassment of the women with a view to coerce (intimidate) her for dowry. Punishment includes imprisonment which may extend upto 3 years and fine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In burns , back constitutes how much %- | [
"9%",
"18%",
"36%",
"13.50%"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 18% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Period of isolation in salmonella infection is till | [
"72 hours after chemotherapy",
"Widal negative",
"3 consecutive stool cultures are negative",
"Urine culture is negative twice"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coloboma is a defect in | [
"Cornea",
"Lens",
"Choroid",
"Iris"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic subdural haematonia is caused by | [
"Fracture skull bones",
"Hypertension",
"Rupture of bridging veins",
"Subarachnoid haemorrhage"
] | C | (C) Rupture of bridging veins # Subdural hematoma also known as a subdural haemorrhage (SDH), is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury.> Blood gathers between the inner layer of the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.> Usually resulting from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, subdural hemorrhages may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP), which can cause compression of and damage to delicate brain tissue.> Subdural hematomas are often life-threatening when acute.> Chronic subdural hematomas, however, have a better prognosis if properly managed.> A remarkable macroscopic characteristic of an organized subdural hematoma is that the lesion is firmly attached by fibrous tissue only to the inner surface of the dura and is not at all adherent to the underlying smooth arachnoid, which does not contribute to its formation.> Lesion can eventually retract as the granulation tissue matures.> Lesions that evolve to this stage of healing are referred to as chronic subdural hematomas.> A common finding in subdural hematomas, however, is the occurrence of multiple episodes of re-bleeding, presumably from the thin-walled vessels of the granulation tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle not paralysed in retrobulbar block- | [
"Superior oblique",
"Lateral rectus",
"Superior rectus",
"Medial rectus"
] | A | *A retrobulbar block is a regional anaesthetic nerve block in the retrobulbar space, the area located behind the globe of the eye. Injection of local anaesthetic into this space constitutes the retrobulbar block. This injection provides akinesia of the extraocular muscles by blocking cranial nerves II,III, VI, thereby preventing movement of the globe. Cranial nerve IV lies outside the muscle cone, but is blocked by diffusion of the local anaesthetic. *Superior oblique is supplied by cranial nerve IV. Ref: Delhi Ophthalmic society aicle | train | med_mcqa | null |
The disease which permanently alters the finger prints is: | [
"Leprosy",
"Tuberculosis",
"Diabetes",
"Dermatitis"
] | A | Permanent impairment of the fingerprint pattern occurs in leprosy, electrical injury and after exposure to radiation. Ref: Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By R.N. Karmakar, Page 115; The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Page 77 | train | med_mcqa | null |
While doing sigmoidoscopy, if the rectum is inflated with gas, increased peristalsis is seen in | [
"Whole colon",
"Proximal colon",
"Distal colon",
"Whole intestine"
] | C | Defecation reflex - When the rectum is distended, a reflex propulsive movement from descending colon to rectum occurs. Along with that, the internal anal sphincter relaxes. The same happens when the rectum is distended by gas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
As the glomerular filtrate passes through the uriniferous tubule, ions and water are exchanged (actively and passively) with the renal interstitium. These exchanges result in the filtrate being isotonic, hypotonic or hypeonic relative to blood plasma. What would be the tonicity of the filtrate passing through the renal capsular (Bowman's) space? | [
"Isotonic",
"Hypotonic",
"Hypeonic",
"Hyposmotic"
] | A | Filtration in the renal corpuscle provides an isotonic (= isosmotic) ultrafiltrate of blood plasma that enters Bowman's space. Filtrate leaving the coical collecting tubules, because of the presence of ADH (= antidiuretic hormone) becomes hypeonic (= hypoosmotic) by the time it reaches medullary collecting tubules. The filtrate approaching the distal convoluted tubules from the loop of Henle, on the other hand, even in the presence of ADH, becomes hypotonic (= hyperosmotic). Ref: Reilly R.F., Jackson E.K. (2011). Chapter 25. Regulation of Renal Function and Vascular Volume. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds),Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The benefits of stopping smoking before surgery are all except | [
"Better wound healing",
"Better mucociliary clearance",
"Better bone healing",
"Less risk of malignancies associated with smoking"
] | D | Answer- D. Less risk of malignancies associated with smokingAcute smoking has been associated with increased ST depression during anesthesia.Decreased risk ofgraft failure.Decreased wound related complications such as dehiscence and infection.Increased rate ofbone healing.Reduced length of admission.Permanent smoking cessation reduces the risk ofhea disease, stroke, cancer and premature death | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is - | [
"Aspergillus fumigatus",
"Aspergillus clavatus",
"Aspergillus flavus",
"Aspergillus niger"
] | A | Pulmonary aspergillosis is most likely to develop in people who have chronic lung disorders or damaged lungs. These people are likely to have abnormal spaces in their lungs where the fungus can grow. The fungus can also rarely infect sinuses and ear canals. The mold spores can colonize (grow) inside lung cavities that developed as a result of chronic diseases, such tuberculosis, emphysema, or advanced sarcoidosis. The fibers of fungus might form a lump by combining with white blood cells and blood clots. This lump or ball of fungus is called an aspergilloma or mycetoma. In some cases, a fungus ball may be present in other organs of the body. Invasive aspergillosis, the most severe type, occurs when the infection travels from the lungs into the bloodstream. Other organs, such as the kidneys, liver, skin or brain, may become infected. This is a very serious condition that may result in death if not treated. People with very weakened immune systems are more susceptible to invasive aspergillosis. Other risk factors include a low white blood cell count, long-term use of coicosteroids, or hospitalization. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is an allergic reaction that happens to some people after exposure to Aspergillus fungus. The fungus causes inflammation in the lungs and air passages. ABPA is more common in people with cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis and/or asthma because they tend to have more mucus in their airways. Although it is unclear exactly why the allergic reaction occurs, the mucus in their airways may provide a good environment for the mold to grow. Unfounately, the allergic reaction may produce symptoms similar to those associated with asthma, including wheezing, coughing and difficulty with breathing Aspergillosis is an infection or allergic reaction caused by various kinds of mold (a type of fungus). Mold is often found outdoors on plants, soil, or rotting vegetable matter. Mold can also grow indoors on household dust, food items such as ground spices, and building materials. Aspergillus fumigatus is the type of mold that is most likely to cause aspergillosis in ceain people when they inhale (breathe in) its spores. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1018 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the reason for the thyroid storm after total thyroidectomy | [
"Due to rough handling during surgery",
"Due to inadequate preparation of the patient",
"Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury",
"Parathyroid damage"
] | B | It is a condition of hypehyroidism accompanied by fever, CNS agitation or depression, Cardiovascular dysfunction that may be precipitated by infection, surgery or trauma and occasionally by amiadarone administration It is common in inadequately prepared patients for surgery accompanied by excess thyroid hormone release Ref: Surgery sizer, 3rd edition Pgno: 229 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial manoeuver done in congenital dacryocystitis: September 2007 | [
"Probing",
"Massaging",
"Ointments",
"Observation"
] | B | Ans. B: Massaging Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstructions spontaneously resolve in 90% of cases during the first year of life. Massage with digital pressure is considered as an aid in speeding up this natural resolution. Other than massage, topical antibiotics are useful for mucopurulent discharge, but the only treatment of efficacy for those patients who do not resolve spontaneously is surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit | [
"Blow on back of head",
"Blow on parietal bone",
"Blow on the forehead",
"Blow on the upper jaw"
] | C | "Orbital roof fracture should be suspected in any child presenting with blunt injury to the brow or forehead with subsequent development of a hematoma of the upper lid in the hours following injury ". — Pediatric ophthalmology | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following test is most useful in diagnosing <img src=" /> | [
"Brainstem involvement in stroke",
"A clinically occult lesion in multiple sclerosis",
"Large hemispheral strokes",
"Spinal cord compression"
] | B | The testing of evoked potentials is of the greatest utility in detecting subclinical spinal cord and optic nerve lesions. Up to two-thirds of persons with multiple sclerosis have neurologic deficits that are evident on visual or personal somatic evoked potentials but not on physical examination. A "second lesion" of this type frequently establishes the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. Evoked potentials may be abnormal in the other conditions listed in the question. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 3191-3192, 3192t, 3193f, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Killer cells & helper cells are part of - | [
"B cells",
"T cells",
"Monocytes",
"Macrophage"
] | B | Option b is partially correct :
Helper cells are CD-4 T cells
Killer cells are antibody dependent cytotoxic cells, which belong to large granular lymphocytes (not T cells). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of gangrene of foot of 30-years old farmer who is a chronic smoker | [
"Raynaud’s disease",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Atherosclerosis",
"Thromboangitis obliterans"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Collagen paicularly seen in corneal epithelium is | [
"Type II",
"Type X",
"Type XX",
"Type XXV"
] | B | Type X is present in many tissues but paicularly seen in the corneal epithelium Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 628 Table no: 50-1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are indication of total parental nutrition except - | [
"Post-operative ileus",
"Enterocolic fistula",
"Acute pancreatitis",
"none"
] | D | Ans. is None Schwaz Surgery gives a list of conditions for which TPN has been used. It includes patients with prolonged paralytic ileus (>7 to 10 days) following major surgeries. Use of TPN in acute pancreatitis has been mentioned in Sabiston I 8/e p1602 and Schwaz 9/e p45. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6 year old female child reported with a chief complaint of proclined upper anteriors. Parents give a history of prolonged bottle-feeding and a persistent thumb sucking habit. Clinical examination reveals anterior open bite with proclined upper anterior and retroclined lower anterior teeth and associated tongue thrusting.
In thumb sucking, protraction of the maxillary teeth is seen: | [
"When the pollex is held upward against the palate",
"When the pollex is held downward against the tongue",
"When the pollex is held inward against the cheek",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The alcohol content in 'Absolute alcolol' - | [
"90%",
"95%",
"99.95%",
"100%"
] | C | Ans-C | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a 'nootropic' drug? | [
"Rivastigmine",
"Tacrine",
"Amantadine",
"Piracetam"
] | D | Nootropic drugs are newer class of drugs to improvr the cognitive capacity in alzheimers patient. aThey include piracetam and aneracitam REFR: ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased ICT is associated with all of the following except - | [
"Disc - oedema",
"Macular oedema",
"Normal vision",
"Afferent pupillary defect"
] | D | Pupillary reactions usually remain fairly normal until late stages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The H3 receptor agonist exhibits all of the following actions except | [
"Inhibition of H1 receptors induced wakefulness",
"Increase in H1 mediated gastric secretion",
"Inhibition of H1 mediated bronchoconstriction",
"Negative chronotropic effect on atria"
] | B | H3 receptors act as presynaptic receptors and decrease the release of histamine and other neurotransmitters. this antagonize H1 mediated wakefulness and bronchoconstriction. these also decrease gastrin release and produced negative chronotropic effect inverse agonist and H3 receptor(tiprolisant) is proved for narcolepsy. Refer KDT 6/e p153 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following timelines would be included in the perinatal period? | [
"37th week of gestation to 28 days after bih",
"19th week of gestation to 7 days after bih",
"32nd week of gestation to 28 days after bih",
"22nd week of gestation to 7 days after bih"
] | D | These are diverse definitions for perinatal period, but the WHO states that the perinatal period commences at 22 completed weeks and ends seven completed days after bih. The neonatal period is defined as the first 28 days after bih. Infancy is defined as the first year of life. This should not be confused the period used for calculation of perinatal moality rate. The actual perinatal period is defined as the period from the 22nd week of life to 7 days after bih, when the fetus weighs about 500g However, the calculation of perinatal moality rate primarily considers fetal weight above 1000g, which if acheived at 28 weeks of gestation. Therefore, for all statistical purposes, international comparisions and calculations of perinatal moality rate, the period from the 28th week of life is considered. Hence, Perinatal Period: From the 22nd week Perinatal moality rate calculation: From the 28th week Ref: World Health Organisation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gynaecomastia may be associated with administration of- | [
"Ranitidine",
"Cimetidine",
"Terfenadine",
"Omeprazole"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cimetidine Cimetidine (but not other H2blockers) o Has anti-androgenic action (by displacing DHT from receptor) o Increases plasma prolactin levels --> Galactorrhea in female o Inhibits degradation of Estradiol by liver. Therefore it cause gyaenecomastia, loss of libido, impotence & temporary decrease in sperm count. Other adverse effects of cimetidine o CNS effects --> confusional state (Delirium), restlessness, convulsions, coma, headache, dizziness, hallucination. o Bowel upset, rashes, dry mouth. o Bolus i.v. injection can cause histamine release --> arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. o Transient elevation of plasma aminotransferases. o Cimetidine inhibits several cytochrome P-450 isoenzymes --> inhibits metabolism of many drugs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of floaters in DM is: (PGI May 2010) | [
"Vitreous hemorrahage",
"Vitreal detachment",
"Maculopathy",
"Infarction"
] | A | Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage) "Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to Vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by advanced Diabetic retinopathy"- Parson 20th/88Vitreous detachment also cause floaters (But as Q is specifically asked about cause in MD, so should not be marked as answer)Floaters20th/88-89& www.diife.com/diabetes/information//.../chous_ march06It occur when the vitreous, a gel-like substance that fills about 80 percent of the internal eye, slowly shrinks. As the vitreous shrinks, it becomes somewhat stringy, and the strands can cast tiny shadows on the retina.In most cases, floaters are part of the natural aging process and simply an annoyance. Over time, they tend to settle to the bottom of the eye, becoming less bothersomeFloaters are more likely to develop as we age and are more common in people who are very nearsighted, have diabetes, or who have had previous eye surgeryQ.There are other, more serious causes of floaters, including infection, inflammation (uveitis), hemorrhaging, retinal tears, and injury to the eye.People with diabetes tend to have more floaters because high blood glucose alters the chemical composition of the vitreous, causing it to shrink more rapidly. Also, people with diabetes are more likely to have bleeding inside the eyes as a result of diabetic retinopathy, and patients will sometimes visualize individual red blood cells floating around within their vitreous (sort of looks like hundreds of discrete, little peppercorns.)Patients with severe diabetic retinopathy (proliferative diabetic retinopathy) are especially at risk for a retinal detachment, as abnormal blood %ressels growing into the vitreous are more firmly attached to the retina, pulling it away as the vitreous shrinks (like wall paper being pulled off a wall). If left untreated, a retinal detachment can lead to permanent visual impairment or blindness within a few' days or even hours.Sometimes, a section of the vitreous pulls away (detaches) from the retina all at once, rather than gradually, causing many new floaters to appear suddenly. This is called a vitreous detachment, w'hich in most cases is not sight- threatening and requires only close observation, not treatment.However, a sudden increase in floaters, possibly accompanied by light flashes or peripheral (side) vision loss, could indicate a retinal detachmentFig.: illustration of a floater within the vireousposterior vitreous detachment (PVD) is a condition of the eye in which the vitreous humour separates from the retina | train | med_mcqa | null |
In renal cell cancer gene involved in mutation | [
"VHL",
"TP53",
"NF1",
"BRCA-1"
] | A | (A) (VHL) (953-Robbins pathologic Basis of disease) (681- Harsh mohan 7th)* VHL, MET geneRenal cell carcinoma* WTI gene (1 lpl3)Wllm's tumour* NFI and NF2 geneNeurofibromatosis* BRC1 and BRCA 2 geneBreast cancers* BRCA 1i. BRCA-1 is located on chromosome 17q21ii. BECA -2 is located on chromosome 13q 12Breast cancer (85%) and ovarion cancer 40%)* P53 gene (TP53)(pretector of the genome)Carcinoma of the lung, head and neck, colon and breastMutated p 53 is also seen in the sequential development stages of cancer from hyperplasia to carcinoma in situ and into invasive carcinomaThe normal p53 gene (wild type) functions as a tumor suppressor gene * and functions as a critical gatekeeper against the development of cancer (Molecular policeman/Guardian of the genome)RB- geneRetinoblastoma, osteosarcoman MYC- HSRNeuroblastomaOver expression of BCL-2 proteinsFollicular LymphomaBCR-ABL hybrid geneCML and some ALL* The most common gene defect in idiopathic steroid resistant nephritic syndrome is NPHS1, NPUS 2* Finish of nephritic syndrome is caused by defect in Nephrin proteinTUMOR MARKERSEpithelial cell carcinomaCytokeratinLymphoid cell carcinomaCD45MelanomaSI00, HMB45Mesenchymal markersVimantineNeuroendocrine markersChromagranin, Neuron specific enolaseGastro intestinal stromal tumors (GIST)CDl 17Granulosa cell tumorInhibinEwing's sarcomaCD. 99* c ANCA is typical of wegner's granulomatosis * *** p ANCA is found in most cases of Microscopic polyangitis and churg- straus syndrome** | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about carcinoid syndrome are true except | [
"Atypical carcinoid syndrome is usually produced by foregut carcinoids",
"Plasma serotonin levels are normal in Atypical carcinoid syndrome",
"Midgut carcinoids have high serotonin content",
"Foregut carcinoids are usually argentaffin positive"
] | D | Answer is D (Foregut carcinoids are usually argentaffin positive): Foregut tumors (carcinoids) have low serotonin levels and are argentaffin negative. Carcinoid Syndrome Typical Carcinoid Syndrome Elevated levels of plasma serotonin Elevated levels of urinary 5HIAA Atypical Carcinoid Syndrome Plasma serotonin levels are normal Plasma and urinary levels of 5HTP are increased (Urinary 5HIAA may he normal or mildly elevated) Typical carcinoid syndrome is charachteristic of Midgut carcinoids Midgut Carcinoids: Typical Carcinoid Syndrome Midgut tumors have high serotonin content are Argentaffin positives Most frequently cause a 'typical' carcinoid syndrome when they metastize. Release serotonin and tachykinins (neuropeptide K. substance K, substances P) Rarely secrete 5HTP or ACTH Metastatis to bone is uncommon (less common) Atypical carcinoid syndrome is charachteristic of foregut carcinoids Foregut Carcinoids: Atypical Carcinoid Syndrome Foregut tumor have low serotonin content, are argentaffin negative but argyrophillicQ Usually do not produce carcinoid syndrome but when they produce a carcinoid syndrome it is charachtristically usually an Atypical carcinoid syndrome Occasionally secrete ACTH or 5HTP May metastize to bone Are often multihormonal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Capnography is useful for: | [
"determining Vaporizer malfunction or contamination",
"determining circuit hypoxia",
"determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube.",
"detetcing concentration of oxygen in the anesthetic circuit"
] | C | Ans. C. Determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tube. (Ref. Clinical Anesthesia by Paul 5th/pg. 670-671)Clinical Anesthesia by Paul 5th Edition/pg. 671.........."Capnography is an essential element in determining the appropriate placement of endotracheal tubes. The presence of a stable ETCO2 for three successive breaths indicates that the tube is not in the esophagus. A continuous, stable CO2 waveform ensures the presence of alveolar ventilation but does not necessarily indicate that the endotracheal tube is properly positioned in the trachea. For example, the tip of the tube could be located in a main-stem bronchus. Capnography is also a monitor of potential changes in perfusion or dead space, is a very sensitive indicator of anesthetic circuit disconnects and gas circuit leaks, and is a method to detect the quality of CO2 absorption".Endotracheal intubation or laryngeal mask airway insertion requires qualitative identification of carbon dioxide in the expired gas. During general anesthesia, capnography and end-tidal carbon dioxide analysis are encouraged. Capnometry is the measurement and numeric representation of the C02 concentration during inspiration and expiration. A capnogram is a continuous concentration-time display of the C02 concentration sampled at a patient's airway during ventilation.Capnography# is the continuous monitoring of a patient's capnogram.# The capnogram is divided into four distinct phases (Fi. The first phase (A-B) represents the initial stage of expiration. Gas sampled during this phase occupies the anatomic dead space and is normally devoid of CO2. At point B, CO2- containing gas presents itself at the sampling site, and a sharp upstroke (B-C) is seen in the capnogram. The slope of this upstroke is determined by the evenness of ventilation and alveolar emptying. Phase C-D represents the alveolar or expiratory plateau. At this phase of the capnogram, alveolar gas is being sampled. Normally, this part of the waveform is almost horizontal. Point D is the highest CO2 value and is called the end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2). ETCO2 is the best reflection of the alveolar CO2 (PACO2). As the patient begins to inspire, fresh gas is entrained and there is a steep downstroke (D-E) back to baseline. Unless rebreathing of CO2 occurs, the baseline approaches zero.# The utility of capnography depends on an understanding of the relationship between arterial CO2 (PaCO2), alveolar CO2 (PACO2), and ETCO2. If the PaCO2-PACO2 gradient is constant and small, capnography provides a noninvasive, continuous, real-time reflection of ventilation. During general anesthesia, the ETC02-PaC02 gradient typically is 5 to 10 mm Hg.# Maldistribution is a common cause of an increased PaCO2-PACO2 gradient. Other patient factors that may influence the accuracy of ETCO2 monitoring by widening the PaCO2-ETCO2 gradient include shallow tidal breaths, prolongation of the expiratory phase of ventilation, or uneven alveolar emptying.# Increases in ETCO2 can be expected when CO2 production exceeds ventilation, such as in hyperthermia or when an exogenous source of CO2 is present# A sudden drop in ETCO2 to near zero followed by the absence of a CO2 waveform is a potentially life-threatening problem that could indicate malposition of an endotracheal tube into the pharynx or esophagus, sudden severe hypotension, pulmonary embolism, a cardiac arrest, or an artifact resulting from disruption of sampling lines. During life-saving cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the generation of adequate perfusion can be assessed by the restoration of the CO2 waveform.# Whereas abrupt decreases in the ETCO2 are often associated with an altered cardiopulmonary status (e.g., embolism or hypoperfusion), gradual reductions in ETCO2 more often reflect decreases in PaCO2 that occur after increases in minute ventilation where ventilation overmatches CO2 production.# Several methods for the quantification of CO2 have been applied to patient monitoring systems. One of the most commonly used methods is based on infrared absorption spectrophotometry (IRAS).Additional Educational points:# ETCO2 is the best reflection of the alveolar CO2 tension.# Increase in ETCO2 is the most sensitive early sign of malignant hyperthermia.6Most Sensitsive|||||Transesophageal echocardiographyPrecordial DopplerPulmonary artery catheter (| PAP)Capnography (|ETCO2)Mass spectrometry (| ETN2 most specific and quantitative)Least SensitivePAP= pulmonary artery pressure; ETCO2= end-tidal carbon dioxide; ETN2=end-tidal nitrogen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old male patient is hospitalised with huge splenomegaly, marked sternal tenderness, and a total leucocyte count of 85,000 per cubic millimetre with large percentage of myeocytes and meta myelocytes, which one of the following drugs is best indicated for his disease ? | [
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Chlorambucil",
"Melphation",
"Hydroxyurea"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bile is concentrated in the gallbladder to _______ times | [
"5",
"10",
"20",
"50"
] | A | Functions of Gallbladder Reservoir of bile Concentration of bile 5-10 times Secretion of mucus, 20ml/day by tubuloalveolar glands Acidification of bile Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1482 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of fundus examination using direct ophthalmoscope, EXCEPT: | [
"Less useful in myopic patients",
"Image formed is erect and viual",
"Field of vision is about 35 degrees",
"Provides a magnification of 15 times"
] | C | Field of vision with a direct ophthalmoscope is about 10-15 degrees, whereas with an indirect ophthalmoscope it is 35 degrees. Characteristics of direct and indirect ophthalmoscopy: Direct ophthalmoscopy Indirect ophthalmoscopy Magnification About 15 x About 2.5 x Depth of field Small Large Field of vision 10 - 15 degree 35 degree Stereopsis Absent Present Type of image Erect and viual Inveed and reversed real View of periphery Not clear Clear Value in myopia and other ametropias Less More REF: Textbook of Ophthalmology edited by Sunita Agarwal, PAGE 199 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement about Bacillary angiomatosis is not true? | [
"Caused by B.henslae",
"Can cause Peliosis hepatis",
"Aminoglycosisdes useful",
"Brain is involved in AIDS patient"
] | C | Bacillary angiomatosis and peliosis hepatis occur primarily in HIV infected personsCaused by B.henselae and B.quintanaTreatment consists of erythromycin or doxycyclineRef: Harrison; 18/e p1318, 1319 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In smokers the incidence of periodontal disease are | [
"2-6 times",
"6-10 times",
"10-14 times",
"No effect"
] | A | Cigarette smokers are up to five times more likely than nonsmokers to develop severe periodontitis, and the risk of the disease increase with the amount of cigarettes smoked. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of leprosy a/c to WHO is done by all drugs, except | [
"Dapsone",
"Clofazimine",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Rifampicin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most impoant stimulant for bile secretion is : | [
"Cholecystokinin",
"Secretin",
"Bile acid",
"Bile salt"
] | D | D i.e. Bile salt | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary osteosarcoma is associated with | [
"Paget's disease",
"Osteogenesis imperfect",
"Melhoreostosis",
"Anklyosing spondylitis"
] | A | Causes of secondary osteosarcomaPaget&;s DiseaseFibrous dysplasiaRadiationEnchondromatosisHereditary multiple exostosesChronic osteomyelitisBone infarction (Refer: Manish Kumar Varshney's Essential Ohopedics Principles & Practice, 1st edition, pg no. 191, 192) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most commonly varicose veins are seen in | [
"Sho saphenous vein",
"Long saphenous vein",
"Popliteal vein",
"None of the above"
] | B | The usual distribution of varicose veins is below the knee in branches of the greater saphenous system. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anteroposterior diameter of normal adult eyeball is: | [
"25 mm",
"24 mm",
"23.5 mm",
"23 mm"
] | B | Ans. 24 mm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital laryngeal stridor is also known as: | [
"Laryngomalacia",
"Quinsy",
"Laryngotracheobronchitis",
"Laryngeal web"
] | A | (a) Laryngomalacia(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 481; Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 333)Quinsy is Peritonsillar abscess.Laryngotracheobronchitis also known as croup is a viral infection most commonly caused by parainfluenza virus.Laryngeal web is a rare congenital malformation characterised by incomplete canalisation of larynx. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hirschsprung colon is due to - | [
"Muscle atrophy in muscularis mucosa",
"Loss of intrinsic enteric plexuses",
"Loss of extrinsic nerve supply",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Loss of intrinsic enteric plexuses Pathogenesis of Hirchsprung diseaseo The entric neuronal plexuses develops from neural crest cells, which migrate into the bowel wall during development, mostly in a cephalad to caudad direction.o Hirschsprung disease results when the migration of neural crest cells arrests at some point before reaching the anus - inappropriate premature death.o This produces an intestinal segment that lacks both meissner submucosal and aurebach myenteric plexus, o Loss of enteric neural coordination leads to functional obstruction and intestinal dilation proximal to the affected segment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of basal ganglia include | [
"Emotions",
"Skilled movements",
"Coordination of movements",
"Maintenance of equilibrium"
] | B | Basal ganglia are involved in planning and programming of movement or more broadly in the process by which an abstract thought is conveed into voluntary action which is required for skilled movements. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:251 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 29-year-old woman has had a fever and sore throat for the past 3 days. On physical examination, her temperature is 38degC. The pharynx is erythematous, with yellowish tonsillar exudate. She is treated with ampicillin and recovers fully in 7 days. Two weeks later, she develops fever and a rash and notices a slight decrease in urinary output. Her temperature is 37.7degC, and there is a diffuse erythematous rash on the trunk and extremities. Urinalysis shows a pH of 6; specific gravity, 1.022; 1+ proteinuria; 1+ hematuria; and no glucose or ketones. Microscopic examination of the urine shows RBCs and WBCs, including eosinophils, but no casts or crystals. What is the most likely cause of her disease? | [
"Deposition of immune complexes with streptococcal antigens",
"Formation of antibodies against glomerular basement membrane",
"Hematogenous dissemination of septic emboli",
"Hypersensitivity reaction to ampicillin"
] | D | An acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis can be caused by ampicillin. This is an immunologic reaction, probably caused by a drug acting as a hapten. Pharyngitis with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis with deposition of immune complexes is unlikely to be accompanied by a rash or by eosinophils in the urine. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies occur in Goodpasture syndrome, with hemorrhages in the lungs as well. Acute pyelonephritis is an ascending infection; it is uncommonly caused by the hematogenous spread of bacteria from other sites. Acute tubular injury can cause acute renal failure. It is caused by hypoxia resulting from shock or toxic injury caused by chemicals such as mercury, and only rarely, if ever, by bacterial toxins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice in DVT is - | [
"Venogram",
"Colordoppler",
"Plethysmography",
"X-ray"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Color doppler | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a component of the crush syndrome. | [
"Myohemoglobinuria",
"Massive crushing of muscles",
"Acute tubular necrosis",
"Bleeding diathesis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bleeding diathesis Crush syndrome results from massive crushing of muscles. Crushing of muscles leads to release of large amounts of my haemoglobin into the circulation. which is excreted in urine (Myohaemoglobinuria).Myohemoglobin is an endogenous nephrotoxin. It can cause acute tubular necrosis particularly in hypovolemic or acidotic pts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Klatskin tumor resembles- | [
"Adenoma of liver",
"Cholangio CA",
"GB CA",
"Hepatic CA"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cholangiocarcinoma o Extrahepatic adenocercinoma of bileducts, when proximal, is referred to as hilar cholangiocarcinoma (Klatskin's tumor). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following if seen on Day 10 of life, is worrisome? | [
"Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia",
"Dolls Eye Reflex",
"No weight gain",
"Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia"
] | A | Discussing about the options one by one, a. Presence of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is abnormal at any time of life including neonatal period b. A neonate may fixate on face or light in line of vision and "Doll's-eye" movement of eyes is seen c. Physiological weight loss is seen in neonates and bih weight is regained by day 10 of life in term neonates, after which weight gain begins d. Jaundice is seen in 60% of term infants and 80% of preterm infants; Physiological jaundice is always unconjugated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In 13–15 year female child, Recommended daily Protein Intake is – | [
"0.68",
"0.95",
"1",
"1.33"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tattoo is not visible on autopsy. But the presence of tattoo was informed by relative. What is the next site to check? | [
"Regional lymph node",
"Liver",
"Skin",
"Vessel"
] | A | * The regional lymph nodes near a tatoo mark show a deposit of a pigment.* A faded tattoo mark becomes visible by the use of ultraviolet lamp or rubbing the part and examining with magnifying lens.* Infrared photography makes old tattoos readily visible.* The marks are recognised even in decomposed bodies when the epidermis is removed by wiping the area with a moist paper towel or a piece of cloth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following drugs cause methemoglobinemia: | [
"Aniline",
"Dapsone",
"Nitrates",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. (D) All of the above(Ref: KDT 8th/e p587,832, Harrison 17th/e p35.4)Drugs causing Methemoglobinemia areAniline derivativesDapsonePrilocaineNitratesNitritesNitrogen oxidesNitro and nitrosohydrocarbonsPhenazopyridinePrimaquineSulfonamides | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ovaries develop from which of the following : | [
"Genital Ridge",
"Mullerian duct",
"Endoderm of Urogenital sinus",
"Genital tubercle"
] | A | Genital Ridge | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common complication of acute and chronic pancreatitis is: | [
"Pancreatic abscess",
"Poal vein thrombosis",
"Pseudocyst",
"Pancreatic head mass"
] | C | Pseudocysts occur in up to 10% of patients with acute pancreatitis, and in 20 to 38% of patients with chronic pancreatitis, and thus, they comprise the most common complication of chronic pancreatitis." Ref Schwaz 9/e p1200 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common motility disorder leading to dysphagia: | [
"Nut cracker esophagus",
"Esophageal web",
"Diffuse esophageal spasm",
"Achalasia cardia"
] | D | Ans. (d) Achalasia cardiaRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Pagesl015-1018* Most common motility disorder -- Achalasia* Most common hypermotility disorder: Nut cracker esophagus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of juvenile CML? | [
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Lymphadenopathy",
"Presence of Philedelphia chromosome",
"High HbF"
] | C | Philedelphia chromosome positivity is a feature of adult CML. Juvenile CML is commonly seen in children between 1-2 years of age. It is characterised by enlarged lymphnodes, spleen and liver. Lab findings includes thrombocytopenia, leukocyte count lower than classic CML, and in increase in propoion of fetal hemoglobin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which histologic variety of Breast carcinoma is associated with best prognosis ? | [
"Medullary",
"Colloid",
"Lobular",
"Tubular"
] | D | Tubular and mucinous type of breast carcinomas are least aggressive cancers and carries best prognosis. Infiltrating and pure medullary carcinomas have intermediate outcome. Infiltrating ductal carcinomas (NOS) is the most common form of breast carcinoma and carries worst outcome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False regarding levels of cardiac biomarkers following ischemic injury to the heart | [
"Troponin peaks earlier than CK-MB",
"Troponin returns to normal in three days",
"CK-MB is less sensitive than troponin",
"CK-MB returns to normal in 48-72 hours"
] | B | Answer: b) Troponin returns to normal in three days (HARRISON 19TH ED, P-1600)SERUM CARDIAC BIOMARKERSCKCardiac Troponins* CK-MB - most sensitive early marker (but overall less sensitive than troponin), but not specific* Starts to rise within 4-12 hrs, peaks at 24 hrs, falls to normal in 48-72 hrs* CK(but not CK-MB) also rises in i.m injection, exercise, skeletal muscle disease and trauma* CK-MB often rises after cardiac surgery, myocarditis, electrical cardioversion* Test of choice to diagnose re infarct* cTnT and cTnl - contractile proteins normally not present in serum* Most sensitive and specific markers of myocardial damage* cTnl - highly sensitive for damage to cardiac tissue* Rise within 2-6 hrs* peaks at 12-18 hours; normalizes at 5-10 days* The risk of death from an acute coronary syndrome is directly related to troponin level and patients with no detectable troponins have a good short-term prognosis* Minor troponin elevations seen in: CHF, myocarditis, pul. embolism* Elevated levels of CPK-MB and Troponins distinguish patients with NSTEMI from those with UA* 99th percentile cutoff point for troponin T (cTnT) is - 0.01 ng/mLMyoglobin is released more rapidly (within 2 hrs) from infracted myocardium; useful for detection of early reinfarctionB-type Natriuretic peptide(BNP) levels also rise after acute coronary syndromesMRI with gadolinium contrast enhancement - most sensitive to detect and quantitate extent of infarctionUp to 80% of patients with acute Ml will have an elevated troponin level within 2-3 hours of emergency department (ED) arrival, versus 6-9 hours or more with CK-MB and other cardiac markers ( style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">) | train | med_mcqa | null |
For Sudden, Unilateral or bilateral weakness, sensory loss, disorder of ocular motility, loss of facial sensation, ataxia select the site of the lesion of cerebrovascular disease, | [
"Internal carotid aery",
"Middle cerebral aery",
"Midbasilar aery",
"Penetrating branch, middle cerebral aery"
] | C | Sudden, painless monocular blindness is a sign of carotid disease. The symptom is also called amaurosis fugax . The patient may describe a shade dropping in front of the eye or describe vision like looking through ground glass. If a thrombus propagates up the carotid to the middle cerebral aery, then symptoms seen in middle cerebral aery occlusion or embolization (hemiparesis with sensory symptoms, aphasia depending on hemispheric dominance) will also occur. Midbasilar aery disease produces weakness and sensory loss with diplopia, loss of facial sensation or movement, and ataxia. Branches of the basilar aery supply the base of the pons and superior cerebellum. The symptoms described suggest disease in the posterior circulation, whichincludes paired veebral aeries, the basilar aery, and the paired posterior cerebral aeries. The basilar aery divides into two posterior cerebral aeries that provide branches to the cerebellum, medulla, pons, midbrain, thalamus, and temporal and occipital lobes. A midbasilar aery occlusion could cause ataxia of limbs by involving pontine nuclei; paralysis of the face, arm, and leg by involving coicospinal tracts; and impairment of facial sensation by involvement of fifth nerve nucleus. Occlusion of the entire middle cerebral aery results in contralateral hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, and homonymous hemianopsia. When the dominant hemisphere is involved, aphasia is present. When the nondominant hemisphere is involved, apraxia and neglect are produced. When only a penetrating branch of the middle cerebral aery is affected, the syndrome of pure motor hemiplegia is produced, as the infarct involves only the posterior limb of the internal capsule, involving only motor fibers to the face, arm, and leg (lacunar infarct). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Costimulatory factor for T cell include all except | [
"B7-1",
"B7-2",
"B7-3",
"CD40"
] | C | CD80 - B7-1 CD86 - B7-2 Co-stimulatory signal Helps in self-tolerance if this signal is impaired: high risk of autoimmune diseases Impoant in pathogenesis of rheumatoid ahritis. Drug - Abatacept blocks co-stimulatory signal CD 40 - CD40L interaction (T-cell) | Class switching of antibodies IgM - Ig G/A/E If CD40-CD40L interaction is impaired= Hyper IgM syndrome Anergy: Lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens may be rendered functionally unresponsive this phenomenon is called as Anergy. Activation of Ag-specific T-cells requires 2 signals. Recognition of peptide-ag in association with self MHC molecules on surface of APCs & a set of co-stimulatory signals from APCs. If Ag is presented to T-cell without adequate levels of co-stimulatory signals the cells become anergic. . | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goal, expect: | [
"Refractive errors",
"Cataract",
"Trachoma",
"Glaucoma"
] | D | Ans. Glaucoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sumatriptan is used in - | [
"Glaucoma",
"Migraine",
"Hypeension",
"Opioid withdraw"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Migraine o Administered at the onset of an attack sumatriptan is as effective and better tolerated than ergotamine. o It tends to suppress nausea and vomiting of migraine, while ergotamine accentuates these symptoms. o Mechanism of action : 1. In migraine, there is throbbing headache due to dilatation of pain sensitive aeries outside the brain (extracerebral) Sumatriptan provides relief by 5-HT 1D/1B receptor mediated constriction of dilated cranial extracerebral vessels. 2. In migraine, there is perivascular neurogenic inflammation occurs due to realease of endogenous neurotransmitter -->sumitriptan inhibit neurotransmitter release. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old man develops an excruciating headache. On examination he has nuchal rigidity. NCCT performed after 4 hours shows blood in the Sylvain fissure. What does the ECG show? | [
"T-wave inversion",
"Aifact",
"Premature ventricular complexes",
"Prominent U wave"
] | A | Case of SAH:- Hypothalamic stimulation Autonomic dysregulation ECG changes with SAH are: Left axis detion U waves T-wave- Deep symmetrical T wave inversion R-wave abnormalities Non-specific ST-T changes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Topical antifungal used in corneal fungal infection – | [
"Silver sulfadiazine",
"Neomycin",
"Natamycin",
"Griseofulvin"
] | C | Natamycin eye drops are the DOC for filamentous fungi (Aspergillus, Fusarium) and amphotericin B is the DOC for candida. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sample of spinal cord is preserved in suspected poisoning with | [
"Arsenic",
"Strychnine",
"Alcohol",
"Oleander"
] | B | Preservation of viscera: In ceain cases of poisoning, the following are preserved. (1) Hea: strychnine, digitalis, yellow oleander. (2) Brain: 100 gm. of cerebrum or cerebellum: alkaloids, organophosphorus compounds, opiates, CO, cyanide, strychnine, barbituratesanaesthetics and volatile organic poisons. (3) Spinal cord entire length: strychnine and gelsemium. (4) C.S.F.: alcohol. (5) Bile: It is best removed by puncturing the gall bladder in situ. Narcotic drugs, cocaine, methadone, glutathione, barbiturates and some tranquilisers. (6) Vitreous humour: alcohol, chloroform, cocaine, morphine, tricyclic antidepressants, etc. (7) Lung: one lung in gaseous poisons, hydrocyanic acid, alcohol, chloroform. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-125 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is earliest and shortest acting skeletal muscle relaxant? | [
"Rocuronium",
"Vecuronium",
"Atracurium",
"Suxamethonium"
] | D | (D) Suxamethonium# Classification of non depolarising NM blocking drugs (according to time from inj. to 90% recovery of twitch tension of adductor pollicis).1. Short acting: 10-20 min. -- Mivacurium2. Intermediate acting: 20-30 min.-- Atracurium, Vecuronium, Rocuronium3. Long acting: 30-60 mins.-- Alcuronium, Gallamine.# SUXAMETHONIUM CHLORIDE> Pharmacokinetics: Is two molecules of Ach linked back to back through the acetate methyl groups (Dicholine ester of succinic acid). Provides profound relaxation with rapid onset of action (30-60 sec) & short duration of action (<10 mins.) & Half life of drug is 2-4 mins. Rapid hydrolysis by pseudocholinesterase, an enzyme of liver & plasma, initial metabolite Succinylmonocholine is weaker neuromuscular blocker, metabolised slowly to succinic acid & choline. 90% of Suxamethonium given intravenously is destroyed & 10% reaches Neuromuscular junction. Distribution limited to extracellular space.> Succinylmonocholine can be prolonged by: Reduced quantity of normal enzyme; A typical form of Pseudocholinesterase.> Low Pseudocholinesterase levels are seen in: Liver disease, Renal disease; Pregnancy; Phenelzine; Echothiophate; Cytotoxic drugs; Hexafluorine, Trimethaphan; Cancer; Ache inhibitors, Metoclopramide. Dibucaine, a local anaesthetic inhibits normal pseudocholinesterase activity by 80%. Percentage of inhibition of pseudocholinesterase activity is termed the Dibucaine number (Proportional to pseudocholin-esterase function).> Shortest acting depolarization agent is Succinylcholine (duration - 3 to 6 mm).> Shortest acting non-depolarizing agent is - Mivacurium (duration -12-20 min). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mouth temperature waxes are: | [
"IOWA wax",
"Modeling wax",
"Green stick wax",
"None of the above"
] | A | Corrective Impression Waxes
• These waxes are designed to flow at mouth temperature.
• Four types of waxes can be used for this technique:
IOWA Wax, white, by Dr. Smith.
Korecta Wax No.4, Orange, by Dr, O.C. Apllegate.
11-1 physiologic paste, yellow-white, by Dr.C.S.Harkins.
Adaptol, green, by Dr. N.G.Kaye. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.