question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Taste sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue is supplied by | [
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Jacobson's nerve",
"Trigeminal nerve",
"Chorda tympani nerve"
] | D | D. i.e. Chorda tympani nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
In deciding on a treatment for a 60 years old patient, Golu, who has chronic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis, you wish to give him procainamide. He is already taking digoxin, hydrochlorothiazide and potassium supplementation. Which of the following is a relevant statement? | [
"A possible drug interaction with digoxin suggests that digoxin blood levels should be obtained before and after starting procainamide.",
"Hyperkalemia should be avoided to reduce the likelihood of procainamide toxicity",
"Procainamide cannot be used if the patient has asthma because it has a beta blocking effe... | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The tensile strength of the wound stas and increases after | [
"Immediately after suturing",
"3-4 days",
"7-10 days",
"1 month"
] | B | Wounds do not begin to gain tensile strength from collagen until 5 - 7 days. Wound achieves around 20 % by 3 weeks, and around 60 % by four months. Scar tissue continues to remodel for at least 6 - 12 months after an injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient underwent Bhadrenalectomy in views of B/L pheochromocytoma 1 day later developed lethargy fatigue low BP and pulse normal No signs of volume deficit likely course | [
"Addisonian Crisis",
"SIADH",
"DI",
"Cerebral salt wasting DISEASE"
] | A | ref harissons 21st ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eclampsia seizures drug of choice | [
"Diazepam",
"Phenytoin",
"Magnesium",
"Barbiturate"
] | C | Eclampsia in pregnancy can be treated by magnesium sulphate. It is given by i.m route with the monitoring of reflexes mainly the patellar refex Ref: Katzung 12th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cognitive disorders -a) Deliriumb) Depersonalizationc) Dementiad) Secondary gain | [
"ac",
"bc",
"ad",
"b"
] | A | Three groups of cognitive disorder are delirium, dementia and amnestic disorders. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common location of accessory spleen | [
"Hilum of spleen",
"Greater omentum",
"Lesser omentum",
"Duodenum"
] | A | Accessory spleen, in other words supernumerary spleens, splenunculi, or splenules, results from the failure of fusion of the primordial splenic buds in the dorsal mesogastrium during the fifth week of fetal life. Incidence of accessory spleen in the population is 10%-30% of patients in autopsy series and 16% of patients undergoing contrast enhanced abdominal CT. Although the most common location for an accessory spleen is splenic hilum (75%) and pancreatic tail (25%) , it can occur anywhere in the abdomen including gastrosplenic or splenorenal ligaments, wall of stomach or bowel , greater omentum or the mesentery, and even in the pelvis and scrotum. Accessory spleen usually measures 1 cm in diameter, but its size varies from a few milimeters to centimeters. Also the number of accessory spleens can vary from one to six . Accessory spleens are usually incidentally detected and asymptomatic, but in case of unexpected locations, accessory spleen can be of clinical impoance. Ref - radiologyassistant.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hardness of water has a beneficial effect against which one of the following- | [
"Renal diseases",
"Metabolic diseases",
"Cerebrovascular diseases",
"Cardiovascular diseases"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cardiovascular disease "Hardness of water appears to have a beneficial effect against cardiovascular disease" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Serum angiotensin conveing enzyme may be raised in all of the following,except | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Silicosis",
"Berylliosis",
"Bronchogenic carcinoma"
] | D | Serum ACE was studied to determine the effect of chronic lung disease upon the blood level of an enzyme believed to originate from the lungs. The assay was performed in approximately 200 control subjects and 200 patients with chronic lung disease using hippuryl-L-histidyl-L-leucine as substrate. Enzyme activity greater in male control subjects than in female subjects of comparable age and greater in children than in adults. Serum ACE was significantly reduced in patients with chronic obstructive lung disease, lung cancer, tuberculosis and cystic fibrosis, as compared to control subjects, and was even lower in those receiving coicosteroids. Of greatest interest, however, was that levels in patients with active sarcoidosis not receiving steroids were greater than 2 standard detions above the mean for the adult control subjects (greater than 11.6 units) whereas levels in patients with sarcoidosis receiving steroids and in those with resolved disease were normal. Ref - Conditions that may cause higher levels of ACE include: Sarcoidosis Primary biliary cirrhosis Alcoholic liver disease Hyperparathyroidism Hypehyroidism Diabetes Multiple myeloma Lung disease Amyloidosis Gaucher disease Leprosy | train | med_mcqa | null |
The role of htirnan placental lactogen is : | [
"Stimulate milk production",
"Fetal breast development",
"Growth of fetus",
"Endocrine regulation"
] | C | Growth of fetus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle relaxant of choice in patient suffering from chronic liver disease | [
"Pancuronium",
"Atracurium",
"Mivacurium",
"Vecuronium"
] | B | Atracurium is preferred in CLD patients since it is metabolised by Hoffmann elimination. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hea failure cells are | [
"Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells",
"Pigmented alveolar macrophages",
"Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells",
"Pigment cells seen in liver"
] | B | Rising pressure in the pulmonary veins is ultimately transmitted back to the capillaries and aeries of the lungs, resulting in congestion and edema as well as pleural effusion due to an increase in hydrostatic pressure in the venules of the visceral pleura. The lungs are heavy and boggy, and microscopically show perivascular and interstitial transudates, alveolar septal edema, and accumulation of edema fluid in the alveolar spaces. In addition, variable numbers of red cells extravasate from the leaky capillaries into alveolar spaces, where they are phagocytosed by macrophages The subsequent breakdown of red cells and hemoglobin leads to the appearance of hemosiderin-laden alveolar macrophages-- so-called hea failure cells--that reflect previous episodes of pulmonary edema. (Robbins Basic pathology,9th edition.pg no.367) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an aberrant conduction pathway? | [
"Bachman's bundle",
"Wenckebach's bundle",
"Thorel's bundle",
"Kent's bundle"
] | D | The 3 internodal pathways that connect SA node to AV node - (1) anterior Bachman's bundle, (2) middle Wenckebach's bundle, and (3) posterior Thorel's bundle. Bundle of Kent is an aberrant anomalous path that connects SA node directly to the ventricles, bypassing the AV node. It is found in the condition called Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. In WPW syndrome, there is no AV nodal delay. Hence, ventricular contraction stas very early, before its filling has occurs substantially. This will reduce the stroke volume In the absence of AV nodal delay, there is shoened PR interval on ECG. d ("delta") wave is seen on ECG; it results from the shoened PR interval. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lactose intolerance in a suspected patient is diagnosed by giving an oral load of lactose and measuring concentration of: | [
"CO2",
"H2",
"One/two carbon compounds",
"N2"
] | B | b. H2 (Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2870, Ghai 8/e p 297)Breath hydrogen tests can be used to determine a specific carbohydrate malabsorption.It can be used to diagnose bacterial overgrowth or lactose/fructose malabsorption. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One bullet get lodged in the barrel in the previous firing and dislodged with the second bullet in the subsequent firing in | [
"Frangible bullet",
"Piggy tail bullet",
"Incendiary bullet",
"Dum dum bullet"
] | B | Tandem bullet( Piggy tail bullet) One bullet gets lodged in the barrel in the previous firing and dislodged with the second bullet in the subsequent firing. These bullets may separate before entering the body and produce two entrance wounds on a single firing. Sometimes, they may separate after entering the body and make two exit wounds. Sometimes, two bullets may remain inside the body making no exit wound. In some cases, one bullet will go producing one exit wound and the other will remain inside. In a single catridge, one bullet is set behind the other by notching on the base and in one shot two bullets are discharged. It is called duplex or tandem catridge. These types of catridges are used in some military rifles. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 141 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of death in electric AC current burns is | [
"Cardiac arrest",
"Myoglobinuria leading to ARF",
"Hemorrhagic stroke",
"Septic shock"
] | A | Cardiac arrythmias are usually cause of death. ECG required in all electric burns pts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Yellowing of the skin occurs in hypothyroidism because of - | [
"Increased bilirubin",
"Increased cholesterol",
"Increased carotene",
"Increased"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis is | [
"Identify embryonic aneuploidy resulting from gamete meiotic errors",
"Identify genetic abnormalities in eggs or embryos prior to their transfer",
"Identify risk for transmission of non inherited diseases",
"None of the above"
] | B | Preimplantation genetic diagnosis is technique to identify genetic abnormalities in eggs or embryos prior to their transfer. Whereas, preimplantation genetic screening aims to identify embryonic aneuploidy resulting from gamete meiotic errors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has an elevated plasma thyroxine (T4) concentration, a low plasma TSH concentration, and her thyroid gland is smaller than normal. What is the most likely explanation for these findings? | [
"A lesion in the anterior pituitary that prevents TSH secretion",
"Graves' disease",
"The patient is taking propylthiouracil",
"The patient is taking thyroid extract"
] | D | Regulation of Thyroid hormone synthesis: Option A: Decreased TSH will lead to decreased T4 Option B: in Grave's disease there is formation of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI), also known as long-acting thyroid stimulator (LATS), which is not subject to negative-feedback inhibition by thyroid hormone. Thus, T4 will be increased that will cause negative feedback inhibition of TSH (i.e. TSH will be decreased). Due to continuous stimulation of thyroid gland by LATS there will glandular hyperophy or goitre. Option C: Antithyroid substances (PTU = propylthiouracil; MMI= Methimazole) Propylthiouracil will decrease T4 concentration. Option D: Thyroid extract means patient is taking exogenous T3 and T4 hence increased T4 Increased T4 causes feedback inhibition of TSH hence decreased TSH which causes hypoplasia of gland . This is known as Wolff Chaikoff effect . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spinothalamic tract carries - | [
"Proprioception",
"Kinestheis",
"Two point discrimina",
"Pain and temperature"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Factors which decrease insensible water losses are all, except – | [
"Humidified air",
"Sedation",
"Hypothermia",
"Prematurity"
] | D | Prematurity increases insensible water loss. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following fluorinated agent does not produce fluoride to produce toxicity - | [
"Sevoflurane",
"Methoxyflurane",
"Desflurane",
"Enflurane"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Desflurane o All inhalational agents depress renal function by decreasing the renal blood flow. Direct toxicity is caused by fluorinated compounds due to production of Inorganic fluoride (F ).AgentFluoride level producedo Methoxyflurane50-80 mm (maximum)o Sevoflurane30 - 50 mmo Enflurane20 - 25 mmo Isoflurane4-8 mmo HalothaneProduces only in anaerobic conditionso DesfluraneNil (minimal)o Renal threshold beyond which fluoride levels are toxic is 50 mm. Methoxyflurane is most nephrotoxic -Causes high output (Polyuric) renal failure. Desflurane has no nephrotoxicity.o Sevoflurane & enflurane does not cause renal toxicity in normal person, but should be avoided in renal diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tetracycline is used in prophylaxis of which of the following diseases? | [
"Cholera",
"Brucellosis",
"Leptospirosis",
"Meningitis"
] | A | Tetracycline is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of cholera. Ref: Preventive and Social Medicine, by K.Park, 19th edition, Page 106, 193, 194, 141, 142; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 16th edition, Page 917, 991. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 27-year-old woman occasionally uses calcium carbonate (Tums) for "heartburn" symptoms after a large meal.For the above patient with an acid-peptic disorder, select the mechanism of action of the prescribed medication. | [
"neutralizes gastric acid",
"works by binding to cysteine",
"inhibits gastrin release",
"irreversible H1-receptor blockade"
] | A | Although doctors seldom prescribe antacids because of the availability of superior medications, patients still use them extensively. As well as neutralizing acid, calcium carbonate enhances secretion in the stomach. The release of CO2 from bicarbonate can result in belching, nausea, and abdominal distension. Belching can exacerbate gastroesophageal reflex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An addict presents with increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, yawning and rhinorrhea. These symptoms may occur due to withdrawal of ? | [
"Heroin",
"Cocaine",
"Cannabis",
"Alcohol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What should be the value of BMI to be considered as "Lethal" in men? | [
"12",
"15",
"13",
"14"
] | C | (C) 13[?]Body Mass Index (BMI) or Quetelet index is a value derived from the mass (weight) and height of an individual.BMI is the body mass divided by the square of the body height, & is universally expressed in units of kg/m2, resulting from mass in kilograms & height in meters.BMI is universally expressed in kg/m2, resulting from mass in kilograms and height in meters.If pounds & inches are used, a conversion factor of 703(kg/m2)/(lb/in2) must be applied.BMI is used informally, the units are usually omitted.BMI =Masskg /Heightm2 =Masslb /Heigh-tin2 X703BMI provides a simple numeric measure of a person's thickness or thinness, allowing health professionals to discuss weight problems more objectively with their patients.BMI was designed to be used as a simple means of classifying average sedentary (physically inactive) populations, with an average body composition.Current value recommendations are as follow: a BMI from 18.5 up to 24.9kg/m2 may indicate optimal weight, a BMI lower than 18.5 suggests the person is underweight, a number from 25 up to 30 may indicate the person is overweight, and a number from 30 upwards suggests the person is obese.Athletes (e.g. gymnasts, basketball & soccer players) have a high muscle to fat ratio and may have a BMI thatis misleadingly high relative to their body fat percentage.Although, BMI of 30t is an indication of obesity, it is not a direct measure of adipose tissue fat mass.One of the refractory mechanisms that maintain body mass in Leptin, identified by Jeffrey Friedman in 1994.A blood borne factor; 17,kDa protein made exclusively in adipocytes.Deficiency of Leptin or Mutation in Leptin gene leads to obesity.Deficiency of Leptin receptors leads to Leptin resistant obesityLeptin:Modulates specific neurons in the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus that control feeding behaviour - as a long term regulator.Promotes fuel utilization.NUTRITIONAL STATUSThere is no gold standard for diagnosis of malnutritionThere are several quick assessment toolsBody Mass Index (BMI) & Nutritional StatusBMINutritional Status*. >30kg/m2Obese*. >25-30kg/m2Overweight*. 20-25kg/m2Normal*. <18.5kg/m2Moderate malnutrition*. <16kg/m2Severe malnutrition*. <13kg/m2Lethal in males*. <11kg/m2Lethal in femalesUNDERWEIGHTBeing underweight (BMI<19) can be dangerous, especially in age.BMI value considered lethal for men is 13, whereas females withstand and survive even at lower BMI rate up to 11.Factors that cause underweight include genetics, eating disorders, depression, digestive problems, and thyroid conditions.As people get older, it becomes harder to heal if the body doesn't have some fat reserves.Especially in older women, being very thin can be associated with osteoporosis and brittle bones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrange the following long acting LA in descending order of their duration of action. | [
"Dibucaine>Etidocaine>Tetracaine> Bupivacaine.",
"Dibucaine>Tetracaine>Bupivacaine> Etidocaine.",
"Tetracaine>Dibucaine>Bupivacaine>Etidocaine.",
"Tetracaine>Bupivacaine>Dibucaine> Etidocaine."
] | A | Dibucaine is longest acting and most toxic.
Etidocaine: 200minutes.
Tetracaine~Bupivacaine:175 minutes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When subcondylar fractures on protrusion of mandible it deviates to | [
"Same side",
"Opposite side",
"Does not move",
"retrudes"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are acid fast positive with 20% sulphuric acid: | [
"M. avium",
"M. leprae",
"M. tuberculosis",
"Nocardia"
] | C | Ans. (c) M. tuberculosis Features M. tuberculosis M. leprae Acid fastness Resist decolorization by 20% H2SO4 Resist decolorization by 5% H2SO4 Alcohol fastness Present Absent Culture Possible Not possible Niacin Positive (also some strain of M. microti) Negative Generation time 14-15 hours 12-1 3 days Remember:- Nocardia resist 1-4% of sulphuric acid (weakly acid fast). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Staphylococcus aureus causes vomiting in 2-6 hours. The mechanism of action is by | [
"Stimulation of cyclic AMP",
"Vagal stimulation",
"Stimulation of Cyclic GMP",
"Acts through ganglioside GM receptor"
] | B | It has been suggested that SEs(staph enterotoxins) stimulate the vagus nerve in the abdominal viscera, which transmits the signal to the vomiting center in the brain. Enterotoxin is responsible for the manifestations of staph food poisoning - nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2-6 hr after consuming food contaminated with enterotoxin. The toxin directly acts on ANS to cause the illness rather than on the gastrointestinal mucosa. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayan and Paniker's; 10th Edition; Page No: 204. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following hepatitis viruses have significant prenatal transmission? | [
"Hepatitis E virus",
"Hepatitis C virus",
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Hepatitis A virus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hepatitis B virus | train | med_mcqa | null |
In leucine zipper model, Leucine residue is seen after every | [
"3 amino acids",
"6 amino acids",
"7 amino acids",
"12 amino acids"
] | C | *An a helix in which there is a periodic repeat of leucine residues at every seventh position. *This occurs for eight helical turns and four leucine repeats. * Similar structures have been found in a number of other proteins associated with the regulation of transcription in mammalian and yeast cells. * It is thought that this structure allows two identical monomers or heterodimers (eg, Fos-Jun or Jun-Jun) to "zip together" in a coiled-coil and form a tight dimeric complex *This protein-protein interaction may serve to enhance the association of the separate DNA binding domains with their target <img class="fr-dib" style="width: 300px;" src=" /> Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 574 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urinalysis shows RBC casts; likely source is - | [
"Kidney",
"Ureter",
"Bladder",
"Urethra"
] | A | RBC casts are indicative of glomerular disease , i.e, the source is from kidney. WBC casts are strongly suggestive of pyelonephritis. Ref : Davidson - 22nd edn - pg no. 468. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antibiotic which is effective as a single dose therapy for trachoma is : | [
"Doxycycline",
"Clarithromycin",
"Azithromycin",
"Erythromycin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pregnancy, all of the following drugs are contraindicated except: | [
"ACE Inhibitors",
"Angiotensin Receptor Blockers",
"Propylthiouracil",
"Thalidomide"
] | C | Ans. (C) Propylthiouracil(Ref: KDT 7th/e p964)Among the given options, the best answer seems to be propylthiouracil. Although, the latter can cause hepatotoxicity in mother. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is epicolic node? | [
"Node draining colon",
"Adjacent to aoa",
"Epitracheal node",
"None"
] | A | .Lymphatic Drainage of colon * Mucosa contains no lymph channels, so mucosal cancers rarely metastasize. * Nodes are epicolic (located in the colonic wall), paracolic (located along the inner margin), intermediate (located near mesenteric vessels), principal (located near main mesenteric vessles). ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 818 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from- | [
"Blood vessels",
"Connective tissue",
"Aqueous and vitreous",
"Zonules"
] | C | Major source of energy for lens is glucose which diffuses from aqueous (mainly) and vitreous into the lens. Ref: Anatomy & Physiology of the eye 2nd/e p.99. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute meningitis in adolescents and young adults is caused by - | [
"N. meningitidis",
"H. Influenzae",
"Streptococcus",
"E. coli"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Corpus delicti means: March 2009 | [
"Inquest of death",
"Postmoem findings",
"Death by asphyxia",
"Essence of crime"
] | D | Ans. D: Essence of crime Corpus delicti /body of crime is a term which refer to the principle that it must be proven that a crime has occurred before a person can be convicted of committing the crime. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Microabscess of munro" is seen in: | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Tbberous sclerosis"
] | B | Ans: b (Psoriasis) Ref: Pavithran's textbook of dermatology, p. 14,15Micro abscess of Munro is seen in psoriasis.PsoriasisType IType IIHeriditaryStrong HLA association (HLA CW6)Severe course and early onsetArthropathy more common.SporadicHLA unrelatedMild course and late onsetThe most important locus for psoriasis susceptibility is Psors 1 (psoriasis susceptibility locus on chromosome 6p 21.3.T cells(helper) are fundamental in activating the disease process. The trigger to their activation may be conventional antigens or bacterial superantigens.Histopathology of psoriasis# Parakeratosis# Micro munro abscess-collection of neutrophils in stratum comeum# Spongiform pustules of Kogoj-aggregates of neutrophil in stratum spinosum.# Acanthosis with regular elongation of rete ridges-camel foot appearance.# Edema of dermal papillae with dilated & tortuous capillaries.Treatment of choice for generalized pustular psoriasis & psoriatic erythroderma is-Acetretin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is difficult to visualise on Indirect laryngscopy | [
"True vocal cord",
"Anterior commissure",
"Epiglottis",
"False vocal cord"
] | B | On indirect laryngoscope,structures not visible are
Infrahyoid epiglottis
Ventricle
Anterior commissure
Subglottis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marker of fecal contaminatin is – | [
"Ascaris",
"E. coli",
"guinea worm presence",
"Balantidium coli"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injury is defined by IPC ? | [
"319",
"44",
"321",
"322"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. 44 Medically, injury is defined as any discontinuity or breach in the anatomy of body.Legally, injury is defined as any harm caused illegally to a person, i.e. to his mind, body, reputation or propey (Sec 44 IPC). | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 18-year-old man who is known to have non penicillinase producing gonococcal urethritis is given an injection of penicillin and probenecid. What is the mechanism used by probenecid that makes penicillin more efficacious | [
"Promotes entry of the penicillin into the bacteria",
"Prolongs the duration of action by affecting the liver metabolism of penicillin",
"Decreases the bacterial resistance by inhibiting penicillinase production",
"Increases the half-life and serum level by decreasing the renal excretion of penicillin"
] | D | Probenecid decreases the renal excretion of penicillin, thereby increasing both the half-life and the serum level. Ref:- KD Tripathi | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weight gain Is seen In all except- | [
"Cushings syndrome",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Insulinoma"
] | C | In pheochromocytoma, the child has a good appetite but because of the hypermetabolic state does not gain weight, and severe cachexia may develop. Page 1942, Nelson textbook of pediatrics 19th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the least common corneal dystrophy - | [
"Macular dystrophy",
"Lattice type I",
"Lattice type III",
"Granular corneal dystrophy"
] | A | Macula corneal dystrophy is an autosomal recessive dystrophy characterised by appearance of dense grey opacity in the central cornea. The condition results due to accumulation of mucopolysaccharides owing to a local enzyme deficiency. It occurs in childhood (5 to 10 years) and leads to marked defective vision in early life, which usually requires penetrating keratoplasty.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,4th edition,page no.118 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kerley-B lines are seen when pulmonary venous pressure is: | [
"5 mmHg",
"10 mmHg",
"20 mmHg",
"40 mmHg"
] | C | Ans. 20 mmHg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mizuo phenomenon is seen in | [
"Oguchi disease",
"Stargardt disease",
"Gyrate atrophy",
"Retinitis pigmentosa"
] | A | Oguchi disease also called as congenital stationary night blindness * Mizuo- nakamura phenomenon: Patient sees better in dark than during day. * Genetic: AR, Mutation in rhodopsin kinase gene * Fundus is normal in dark but loses its sheen in day light * Delayed dark adaptation time * Cause: impaired rods activity (overstimulation of rod cells) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antenatal screening is done using the following except : | [
"Cord blood",
"Amniotic fluid",
"Chorionic villi",
"Peripheral lymphocytes"
] | D | Peripheral lymphocytes | train | med_mcqa | null |
False regarding Anganwadi worker- | [
"Training for 4 months",
"Under ICDS scheme",
"Gets 1500 Rs per month",
"Full-time worker"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Full time worker o Anganwadi workers are under ICDS scheme.o There is an anganwadi worker for a population of 400-800 in plains and 300-800 in hilly/tribal areas.o She undergoes training in various aspects of health, nutrition and development for 4 months. o She is a part-time worker.o She is paid an honorarium of Rs. 1500 per month. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Crigler Najjar type II syndrome is: | [
"Diglucuronide deficiency",
"Recessive trait",
"Kernicterus is seen",
"Phenobarbitone is not useful"
] | B | Answer is B (Recessive trait) Crigger Najjar syndrome is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Crigger Najjar Syndrome (Type H) is associated with a deficient activity of Bilirubin UDP - Glucoronyl Transferase activity (UGITAL) and not with dimlucornide deficiency. Kernincterus is a characteristic features of type 1 Criggler Najjar syndrome and Kernincterus is extremely rare in type 11 Criggler Najjar syndrome. Phenobarbital is extremely effective and useful in type 11 Criggler Najjar syndrome and reduces bilirubin levels by > 25%. Principal Characteristics Criggler-Najjar Syndromes Feature Crigler-Najjar Syndrome Typel Type II Total serum bilirubin, pmol/L (mg/dl) 310-755 (usually > 345) 100-430 (usually <345) Routine liver tests Normal Normal Response to Phenobarbital None Decreases bilirubin by>25% Rare Kernicterus Usual Hepatic histology Normal Normal Bile characteristics Color Pale or colorless Pigmented Bilirubin fractions monoconjugates >90% unconjugated Largest fraction (mean: 57%) Bilirubin UDP-glucuronosyl-transferase Typically absent; traces in some patients Markedly reduced:0-10% of normal Inheritance (all autosomal) Recessive Predominantly recessive | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orally administered drug in a single dose, for scabies is: September 2011 | [
"Crotamiton",
"Ivermectin",
"Lindane",
"Permethrin"
] | B | Ans. B: Ivermectin Ivermectin, an antifilaril drug, is given orally in a single dose of 200 mcg/ kg and is highle effective in clearing up scabies Ivermectin/ 22, 23-dihydroavermectin Bla + 22, 23-dihydroavermectin Bib It is a broad-spectrum antiparasitic avermectin medicine. Ivermectin and other avermectins (insecticides most frequently used in home-use ant baits) are macrocyclic lac tones derived from the bacterium Streptomyces avermitilis. Ivermectin kills by interfering with nervous system and muscle function, in paicular by enhancing inhibitory neurotransmission. The drug binds and activates glutamate-gated chloride channels (GluCls). GluCls are inveebrate-specific members of the Cys-loop family of ligand-gated ion channels present in neurons and myocytes. Ivermectin can be given either by mouth or injection. It does not readily cross the blood-brain barrier The main concern is neurotoxicity, which manifest as central nervous system depression, and consequent ataxia, as might be expected from potentiation of inhibitory GABA-ergic synapses. It is traditionally used against worms. It is mainly used in humans in the treatment of onchocerciasis, but is also effective against other worm infestations (such as strongyloidiasis, ascariasis, trichuriasis, filariasis, enterobiasis and some epidermal parasitic skin diseases (EPSDs) including scabies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extremely pruritic excoriation and papules on buttocks with autoantibodies against epidermal transglutaminase and IgA deposition in dermis on immunohistological examination of normal perilesional skin. Diagnosis is? NOT RELATED- DERMATOLOGY | [
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Pemphigoid",
"Linear IgA disease",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inclusion body present in psittacosis is called: | [
"HP body",
"Miyagawa corpuscles",
"Levinthalcole Lillie",
"Henderson Peterson"
] | C | Inclusion body in case of psittacosis is Levinthalcole Lillie. HP body:-seen in case of trachoma Miyagawa corpuscles:-LGV Henderson Peterson:-molluscum contagiosum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following could be a component of conversion disorder? | [
"Pseudoseizures",
"Derealisation",
"Depersonalisation",
"Amnesia"
] | A | Pseudoseizure can occur in conversion disorder. Paralysis, blindness and mutism are the most common conversion disorder symptoms. Anaesthesia and paresthesia especially of the extremities are the most common sensory symptoms. Other sensory symptoms includes deafness, blindness and tunnel vision. Motor symptoms associated with it are: abnormal movements, gait disturbance, weakness and paralysis. One gait disturbance seen in this is ataxia abasia, which is a wildly ataxic, staggering gait accompanied by gross, irregular, jerky truncal movements and thrashing and waving arm movements. Ref: Kaplan and Sadock's Concise Textbook of Clinical Psychiatry, 3rd Edition By Benjamin J. Sadock, Page 279 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient on typical antipychotic develops restlessness typically of the lower limbs. Drug to treat this side effect is- | [
"Propranolol",
"Trihexiphenoydol",
"Quetiapine",
"Datrolene"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propranolol o This side effect is akathasia - Restlessness, feeling of discomfort, apparent agitation manifested as a compelling desire to move about, but without anxiety,o Treatment of choice is beta blockers - PropranololPatient is on antipsychotic||||||o Within 1-5 dayso Spasm of muscle ofy Tongue (Protrusion, twisting)y Face (grimacing)y Neck (torticollis)y Jaw (trismus)y Rye (oculogyric crisis)y Spine (opisthotonus)y Abnormal postureo Within 4 weeks (1-4 weeks)o Restlessness (inability to sit or stand quiet)o Persistent desire to move abouto Fidgety movementso Rocking movemento Within 1-4 weekso Bradykinesiao Rigidityo Tremero Mask facieso Shuffling gaito Within weekso Marked muscular rigidityo High fevero Autonomic instability| HR & BP, sweating|CPKo Myoglobinemiao Leukocytosiso Disturb consciousnesso Catatonia & stuporo Drug is taken for > 3 monthso Within 4 weeks of withdrawalo Involuntary movement of facial & limb musclesy Chewing, poutingy Puffing of cheeksy Lips lickingy Choreoathetoid movementso After months to yearso Perioral tremer||||||Acute muscular dystoniaAkathisiaParkinsonismNeuroleptic malignant syndromeTardive dyskinesiaPerioral tremer (rabbit syndrome)o Treatment of choice -o TOC - b-blockers central anticholinergico TOC - central - anticholinergicso DOC - Dantrolene | train | med_mcqa | null |
Confirmatory diagnostic test used in HIV | [
"ELISA",
"SIMPLE test",
"Western Blot Assay",
"RAPID test"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is the best method to assess intake of fluid in poly trauma patient: | [
"Urine output",
"CVP",
"Pulse rate",
"BP"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is on follow - up with you after enucleation of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyeball, a proper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of - | [
"About 10 days",
"About 20 days",
"6-8 weeks",
"12-24 weeks"
] | C | Some guides have given 20 days as the answer, which is wrong.
There are two types of prosthesis, which are used after enucleation:-
Temporary prosthesis: - Within 10 days of enucleation surgery.
Permanent prosthesis: - 6 to 8 weeks after enucleation.
"Patients can usually have a temporary prosthesis within 10 days of enucleation surgery. Most patients are fitted with a permanent prosthesis 4 - 6 weeks later total 6-8 weeks after enucleation". — www.eyecancer.com
"In about six to eight weeks after an enucleation, the patient is fitted with a prosthetic or artificial eye by an ocularist". — www.mopss.com
"A proper sized prosthetic eye can be inserted for good cosmetic appearance after 6 weeks when healing of the enucleated socket is complete". — Khurana
Most of the textbooks have mentioned either 4-6 weeks or 6-8 weeks after enucleation when the prosthetic eye is inserted.
So, according to me, the answer is 6-8 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nihilistic ideas are seen in -a) Simple schizophreniab) Paranoid schizophreniac) Cotard's syndromed) Depressione) Body dysmorphic disorder | [
"cd",
"bc",
"bd",
"ac"
] | A | Nihilistic delusion is false belief that oneself, other or the world is non-existent or about to end. It is seen in severe depression.
If nihilistic delusions are accompanied by ideas concerning bodily function failure, the syndrome is called Cotard's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pancreatic secretions are a rich source of | [
"Phospholipase A1",
"Phospholipase A2",
"Phospholipase C",
"Phospholipase D"
] | B | Phospholipase A2 (PLA2) is elevated in cases of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic sPLA2 serve for the initial digestion of phospholipid compounds in dietary fat. Ref: Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 174 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Catastrophic reaction is feature of? | [
"Dementia",
"Schizophrenia",
"Delirium",
"Anxiety"
] | A | Ans. A. Dementia. (Ref: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, Xth/Ch.10.3, Page no, 336).Catastrophic reaction is feature of Dementia.Additional Educational points:Kaplan, pp 919-920...........The cognitive Rx of panic disorder focuses on the patient's tendency to make catastrophic interpretations about body sensations or states of mind. This approach includes a careful exploration of the patient's bodily symptoms before and during the panic attack and of the automatic thoughts that accompany them, in addition to an educational component focusing on the fact that, although terrifying, panic attack symptoms are not fatal. Other, more realistic inter- pretations of symptoms are discussed, and the patient is encouraged to come up with less catastrophic scenarios. ("Even if I have a panic attack in a store, the world does not end.") Exposure techniques are part of behavioral therapy. Empathy with the patient's suffering is a necessary element of all doctor-patient interactions, but in this case it does not represent a specific therapeutic technique. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mechanism of action of botulinum toxin is: | [
"Inhibits synthesis of acetyl choline",
"Inhibits nicotic receptors at the myoneuronal junction",
"Increases synthesis of Ach",
"Inhibits reuptake of Ach"
] | A | Ans: a (Inhibits synthesis of Acetyl choline)Ref: Tripathi 6th ed. Pg. 93Botulinum toxin acts by inhibiting the release of acetyl choline from synaptic vesicles to the synaptic junction. So it indirectly inhibits its synthesis. This is the best option.Synthesis of Acetyl cholineAcetyl choline is actively transported into synaptic vesicles and is then stored there. It is then released to the synaptic junction by exocytosis.Here the Ach is immediately hydrolyzed by the enzyme cholinesterase and choline is recycledNote: Hemicholinium- blocks choline uptakeVesamicol- blocks active transport of Ach into synaptic vesicle where it is storedBotulinum toxin- inhibits the release of Ach from synaptic vesiclesBlack widow spider- it induces massive release of Ach and depletionClostridium botulinum* gram +ve bacillus, anaerobic with subterminal oval bulging spores* spores are heat and radiation resistant! but botulinum toxin is heat labile)* depending upon the toxin it has 8 types(A. B, C1, C2, D. E, F, G), all are neurotoxin except C2 which is a cytotoxin* Clostridium toxin is the most toxic substance known;(lethal dose 1 -2 ug) a type of exotoxin liberated by the autolysis of the cell* MOA: blocks the release of acetyl choline at peripheral cholinergic neurons irreversibly ( but CNS is not involved (AI2007)* Characteristic pattern is symmetrical descending paralysisBotulismFood borne botulismWound botulismInfant botulismDue to ingestion of preformed toxinToxin produced at the site of woundToxico infectionSpores ingested in food get established in the gut & produce toxinToxin A B & EToxin AInfants < 6 mSource- preserved meat products, canned vegetables Symp; vomiting thirst, constipation, dysphagia, dysarthria, diplopia, resp. failureSymp: same as food botulism except GIT symptomsConstipation, poorfeeding, lethargy, weak/ altered cry, floppiness, loss of head controlRx: trivalentantitoxin, laxatives, respiratory effort, penicillin (least important) Rx: supportive careAssisted feedingAntitoxin, antibiotics are not indicated.Botulism toxin is used for therapeutic uses also:TOXIN ATOXIN BStrabismusCervical dystoniablepharospasm Cervical dystonia, glabellar lines | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis? | [
"Progesterone",
"Glucagon",
"Aldosterone",
"Epinephrine"
] | B | Ans. B. Glucagona. The balance and integration of the metabolism of fats and carbohydrates are mediated by the hormones insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, and norepinephrine.b. All of these hormones exercise acute effects upon metabolism. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis and blocks glycolysis.c. When blood sugar levels get low, the a cells of the pancreas release glucagon. The main targets of glucagon are the liver and adipose tissue.d. In the liver, glucagon stimulates the cyclic AMP-mediated cascade that causes phosphorylation of phosphorylase and glycogen synthesis.e. This effectively turns off glycogen synthase and turns on glycogen phosphorylase, thereby causing a breakdown of glycogen and a production of glucose in liver, which ultimately raises blood glucose levels.f. Insulin and glucagon are two antagonistic hormones that maintain the balance of sugar and fatty acids in blood. Insulin is produced by the cells of the pancreas and its release is stimulated by high levels of glucose in the blood. It has a number of effects, but its major effect is to allow the entry of glucose into cells.g. Insulin also allows the dephosphorylation of key regulatory enzymes. The consequence of these actions is to allow glycogen synthesis and storage in both muscle and liver, suppression of gluconeogenesis, acceleration of glycolysis, promotion of the synthesis of fatty acids, and promotion of the uptake and synthesis of amino acids into protein.h. All in all, insulin acts to promote anabolism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is false regarding Phenol poisoning? | [
"Stomach wash may be given with charcoal",
"Urine may turn blue",
"Death may be due to respiratory failure",
"CNS depression may occur"
] | B | Phenol is oxidized into hydroquinone and pyrocatechol, fuher oxidation of hydroquinone and pyrocatechol in urine causes a green colouration and is known as carboluria. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 21st Edition, Page 459. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Villous polyp of rectum manifest - | [
"Bleeding PR",
"Mucus diarrhoea with hypokalemia",
"Prolapse rectum",
"Obstruction"
] | B | • Villous adenoma causes profuse watery diarrhea and hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia and metabolic acidosis.
• Best treatment: Submucosal resection endoscopically or surgically (Provided cancerous change has been excluded). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a preschool child, early carious involvement of the
maxillary anterior teeth, maxillary and mandibular first
primary molars and mandibular canines is called | [
"Dental caries",
"Feeding caries",
"Milk caries",
"Nursing caries"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement regarding non-coagulase staphy lococci is : | [
"They are non-pathogenic",
"They commonly infect indwelling prosthesis",
"They may cause scarlet fever",
"They are separated by gram’s staining"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Asherman syndrome will produce | [
"Infertility",
"Secondary amenorrhoea",
"Recurrent abortion",
"All of these"
] | D | Ans: d (All of these)Ashermans syndrome produce:InfertilitySecondary amenorrhoeaRecurrent abortionAsherman syndrome is an important uterine cause of secondary amenorrhoea.When there is absence of menstruation for 6 months or more following normal menstruation, it is called secondary amenorrhoea.Causes of Asherman syndrome:Uterine adhesions or uterine synechiae are formed following post abortal and puerperal curettage.Also formed following diagnostic curettage for DUB.Rarely it follows TB endometritis.Uterine packing to control PPH.Menstrual abnormalities in Asherman syndrome includeHypomenorrhoeaOligomenorrhoeaAmenorrhoea.Investigations:Progesterone challenge test is negative.Hysterosalpingography shows honey comb appearance.Hysteroscopy reveals the extent of adhesions directly.Treatment:Adhesiolysis followed by insertion of IUCD is effective.Addition of OCP for 3 months may help in the regeneration of endometrium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
How is the protein Energy Ratio (PER) in diet expressed as – | [
"Energy in diet/Protein in diet x 100",
"Protein energy in diet/Total energy in diet x 100",
"Total protein in diet/Total energy in diet x 100",
"None of the above"
] | B | Protein energy ratio (Protein energy percentage)
It is a quantitative measure for assessment of protein.
It measures the percentage of energy that is provided by the protein in the food.
PE percent = Energy from protein / Total energy in diet x 100
If the PE ratio is less than 4%, the subject will be unable to eat enough to satisfy protein requirements.
It is recommended that protein should account for approximately 15 to 20% of the total daily energy intake. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fever, leukopenia, DIC, and hypotension caused by members of the Enterobacteriaceae family are most strongly associated with which of the following structures? | [
"H antigens",
"K antigens",
"Lipid A",
"Polysaccharides"
] | C | The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of gram-negative cell walls consists of a complex lipid, lipid A, to which is attached a polysaccharide made up of a core and a terminal series of repeat units. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fordyce&;s spot involves- | [
"Sebaceous glands",
"Pilosebaceous glands",
"Hair",
"Nails"
] | A | Fordyces spot is very common and occur in actinic sebaceous glands. They appear as symmetric , multiple, yellow, flat topped papules. Common sites are lips, buccal mucosa, vulva and penile shaft. fordyce spots are ectopic sebaceous glands. they are multiple symmetric------ penile shaft. other ectopic sebaceous glands are Montgomery tubercles- breast meibomian glands- eyes zeis glands- eyes tysons glands- Male external genitalia Ref : Harrison20th edition pg 1207 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The internal carotid aery has four segments: the cervical, the intrapetrosal, the cavernous, and the cerebral. Which is NOT a branch of cavernous pa of internal carotid aery? | [
"Cavernous branch",
"Inferior hypophyseal aery",
"Meningeal aery",
"Ophthalmic aery"
] | D | The cavernous pa of the internal carotid aery gives rise to numerous small branches:Cavernous branches: Supply the trigeminal ganglion, the walls of the cavernous, and inferior petrosal sinuses, and the nerves contained.A minute meningeal branch: Supply dura mater and bone in the anterior cranial fossa.Numerous small hypophysial branches: Supply the neurohypophysis to form the pituitary poal system. Ref: Gray's Clinical Neuroanatomy By Elliott L. Mancall, David G. Brock, 2011, Page 93. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rabies vaccine is prepared from: | [
"Liver virus",
"Street virus",
"Fixed virus",
"None of the above."
] | C | 1. The Fixed virus is defined as a virus which is isolated after several serial intracerebral passages in rabbits and can be used for vaccine production. 2. Differences between street and fixed rabies viruses: Street virus Fixed virus Freshly isolated After serial intracerebral passages in rabbits Produce negri body Does not produce negri body Affect salivary gland Does not affect salivary gland Can cause fatal encephalitis Neurotropic but much less infective Incubation period - 1-2 weak Incubation period - 5-6 days Cannot be used for vaccine production Used for vaccine production | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following tumors alpha fetoprotein is elevated - | [
"Choriocarcinoma",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Seminoma"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hepatocellular carcinomaRepeated many times | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha 1antitrypsin deficiency causes | [
"Congenital cystic fibrosis",
"Neonatal hepatitis",
"Pulmonary fibrosis",
"All of the above"
] | B | Refer Robbins page no 851 Clinical Features. Neonatal hepatitis with cholestatic jaundice appears in 10% to 20% of newborns with the defi- ciency. In adolescence, presenting symptoms may be related to hepatitis, cirrhosis or pulmonary disease. Attacks of hepatitis may subside with apparent complete recovery, or they may become chronic and lead progressively to cir- rhosis. Alternatively, the disease may remain silent until cirrhosis appears in middle to later life. Hepatocellular carcinoma develops in 2% to 3% of PiZZ adults, usually, but not always, in the setting of cirrhosis. The treatment, indeed the cure, for severe hepatic disease is ohotopic liver transplantation. In patients with pulmonary disease the single most impoant preventive measure is avoidance of cigarette smoking, because smoking markedly acceler- ates emphysema and the destructive lung disease associ- ated with a1AT deficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Radiological hallmark of Osteo SA- | [
"Soap bubble appearance",
"Sun ray appearance",
"Osteoid formation by neoplastic cells",
"Cotton wool appearance"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. sunray appearance .X-ray features of Osteosarcoma.Area of irregular destruction of metaphysesErosion of the overlying cortex.New bone formation in the matrix of the tumor*Periosteal reaction* (which is irregular; periosteal reaction in osteomyelitis is smooth)Codman's triangle*Sun-ray appearance* | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after the acute onset of left-sided weakness. She has had a large right cerebral stroke and is confined to bed. On the fifth hospital day, her oxygen saturation is noted to be reduced to 90% on room air. She feels fine, the neurologic weakness is unchanged, blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg, and pulse 80/min. Examination of the chest reveals decreased fremitus, dullness to percussion, and absent breath sounds in the left lower lung. There is also a tracheal shift towards the left side.For the above patient with abnormal pulmonary physical findings, select the most likely diagnosis. | [
"acute asthmatic attack",
"complete pneumothorax",
"large pleural effusion",
"atelectasis"
] | D | Careful physical examination can be very useful in diagnosing many common pulmonary disorders. Atelectasis and large pleural effusions both can present with decreased fremitus, dullness or flatness to percussion, and absent breath sounds. In atelectasis, tracheal shift, if present, is toward the affected side, and the opposite for a large pleural effusion. Asthma's most typical manifestations are prolonged expiration and diffuse wheezing. However, impaired expansion, decreased fremitus, hyperresonance, and low diaphragms can also be found. A complete pneumothorax results in absent fremitus, hyperresonance or tympany, and absent breath sounds. Lobar pneumonia is characterized by consolidation with increased fremitus, dullness, and auscultatory findings of bronchial breathing, bronchophony, pectoriloquy, and crackles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Residual chlorine in chlorination of water should be: | [
"1 mg/L after 1 hr",
"0.5 mg/L after 1 hr",
"1 mg/L after 30 mins",
"0.5 mg/L after 30 mins"
] | B | The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg/L for one hour. The sum of the chlorine demand of the specific water plus the free residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/L constitutes the correct dose of chlorine to be applied. The chlorine has no effect on spores, protozoal cysts and helminthic ova, except in higher doses. Ref: Park's Textbook of Social and Preventive Medicine, 19th edition, Page 575. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Grisefulvin given for the treatment of fungal infection in the fingure nail dermatophytosis for how much duration | [
"4 weeks",
"6 weeks",
"2 months",
"3 months"
] | D | D i.e. 3 months Tinea unguium is dermatophyte infection of nail plateQ. It is treated by topical ciclopiro oleamine & amorolfineQ (in cases without nail matrix involvement) and/or oral terbinafine, itraconazole, fluconazole and griseofulvinQ (in cases with nail matrix involvement). | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Peutz jegher syndrome | [
"Most common site is small intestine",
"Polypectomy on colonoscopy is treatment of choice",
"Hamaomatous polyp",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Most common site is small intestine; 'b' i.e., Polypectomy on colonoscopy is treatment of choice; 'c' i.e., Hamaomatous polyp Peutz -Jeghers syndrome o It is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by :? 1. Hamaomatous polyps in Small intestine -4 100% Colon --> 30% Stomach --> 25% 2. Extraintestinal carcinomas of pancreas, breast, ovary, lung and uterus. 3. Mucocutaneous pigmentation o Approximately 3% of patients develop intestinal adenocarcinoma. o The condition is caused by a mutation in the LKB1/STK11 gene which codes for a serine - threonine kinase that is thought to play a role in apoptosis. Clinical features o Most common age of involvement is between 20-30 years. o The major symptoms depend on the intestinal location of the polyps (i.e. small intestine, colon, stomach) :- (i) Intestinal obstruction & intussusception (43%) (ii) Abdominal pain (23%) (iii) Hematochezia (14%) (iv) Prolapse of colonic polyps (7%) o There may be mucocutaneous pigmentation :- (i) Cutaneous pigmentation :- Perioral & perinasal region, finger, toes (ii) Mucous membrane pigmentation :- Buccal mucosa o Other manifestations include precocious pubey, rectal mass (rectal polyp), testicular mass, gynecomastia and growth acceleration (due to seoli cell tumor). Treatment o Treatment consists of identification of the syndrome and careful monitoring of the tissues that are at risk for cancer development. o Intestinal polyps are usually removed (polypectomy) when discovered during colonoscopy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wood lamp wavelength - | [
"360-385",
"280-320",
"400450",
"450-500"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., 360-385 Wood lampo This is a source of ultraviolet light (320-400nm) from which virtually all visible rays have been excluded by a Wood's (nickel oxide) filter,o Primarily emits 360nm.o UV light, when absorbed by certain substances, fluorescences in dark and color produced, is useful in the diagnosis of the certain conditions.ConditionFluorescence colorTinea capitisBright yellow-greenErythrasmaCoral red or pinkVitiligoMilky whiteAlbinismBlue whiteLeprosyBlue whiteTuberous sclerosisBlue whitePseudomonas infectionGreenish whitePorphyriaPm k/o rangeTinea VersicolorGolden yellow- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disadvantage of Somatic stem cells is | [
"Limited availability",
"Poor expansion in vitro",
"Limited pluripotency",
"Ethical concerns"
] | C | Somatic stem cells are easily available, have good expansion in vitro, low risk of malignancyNo ethical concerns (not taken from foetus, embryo and mostly used for autologus tissues)Main disadvantage is limited pluripotencyRef: Bailey and Love 27e pg: 34 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lithogenic bile has the following properties - | [
"↑ Bile and cholesterol ratio",
"↓Bile and cholesterol ratio",
"Equal bile and cholesterol ratio",
"↓Cholesterol only"
] | B | Bile salts and phospholipids in bile keep cholesterol in solution by the formation of micelles.
An excess of cholesterol relative to bile salts and phospholipids allows cholesterol to form crystals and such pile is called Lithogenic or super-saturated bile.
Pathogenesis of Cholesterol gallstones
There are three elements necessary for the formation of cholesterol gallstones
Lithogenic bile
Nucleation and
Stasis or gallbladder hypomotility | train | med_mcqa | null |
The greatest amount of fluoride recharge is seen with: | [
"Composites",
"Resin modified glass ionomers",
"Resin composites",
"Polycarboxylates"
] | B | The ability of a restorative material to be recharged and serve as a fluoride reservoir depends on the type and permeability of the material, the frequency of fluoride exposure, and the concentration of the fluoridating agent.
Glass ionomers and compomers are significantly better for recharging than resin-based composite materials, but this depends on the composition of the materials. Hybrid ionomers are often reported to have the highest capacity for recharging. It has also been reported that as the specimens age, their efficiencies of fluoride recharging decrease.
Water soluble methacrylate-based monomers have been used to replace part of liquid component of conventional GIC resulting in a group of materials called resin-modified glass ionomer cements, also known as hybrid ionomer cement.
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 334 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cerebrospinal fluid, fluid in the eye, joint are an example of: | [
"Transcellular fluid",
"Extracellular fluid",
"Intracellular fluid",
"None of the above"
] | A | There is another small compartment of fluid that is referred to as transcellular fluid. This compartment includes fluid in the synovial, peritoneal, pericardial, and intraocular spaces, as well as the cerebrospinal fluid. It is usually considered to be a specialized type of extracellular fluid, although in some cases its composition may differ markedly from that of the plasma or interstitial fluid. All the transcellular fluids together constitute about 1 to 2 litres.
Key Concept:
These are known as transcellular fluids as they are separated from the rest of the extracellular fluid.
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 306 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A hypeensive patient presented with open-angle glaucoma. Drug of choice is to decrease the IOP is: | [
"Latanoprost",
"Pilocarpine",
"Epinephrine",
"Timolol"
] | D | Timolol is a potent, non-selective beta receptor antagonist. It has no intrinsic sympathomimetic or membrane-stabilizing activity. It is used for hypeension, congestive hea failure, acute MI, and migraine prophylaxis. It is used in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma and intraocular hypeension. Its mechanism of action in treating open angle glaucoma is not precisely known; but the drug appears to reduce aqueous humour production through blockade of beta receptors on the ciliary epithelium. Ref: Westfall T.C., Westfall D.P. (2011). Chapter 12. Adrenergic Agonists and Antagonists. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lamivudine acts at which of the following enzymes? | [
"DNA polymerase",
"Reverse transcriptase",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Lamivudine inhibits HBV DNA polymerase and HIV reverse transcriptase by competing with deoxycytidine triphosphate for incorporation into the viral DNA, resulting in chain termination. Lamivudine achieves 3-4 log decreases in viral replication in most patients and suppression of HBV DNA to undetectable levels in about 44% of patients. Ref: Katzung 11th edition Chapter 49. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following displacement seen in Colic's fracture EXCEPT: | [
"Dorsal tilt",
"Ventral tilt",
"Dorsal displacement",
"Lateral displacement"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Ventral tilt Code's :It is a fracture at a distal end of the radius at its cortico - cancellous junction (about 2 cm from the distal articular surface) in adults with a typical displacement.Displacement: Seen in CodesImpaction of FragmentsDorsal displacementDorsal tiltLateral displacementLateral tiltSupinationAlso rememberDisplacement seen in supracondylar *.* Distal fragment may be displaced in the following directionPosterior or backward shift.Posterior or backward tiltProximal shiftMedial or lateral shiftMedial tiltInternal rotationOther important points about Codes :Commonest > 40 yrs. - Codes*Commonest complication of codes - Stiffness of fingersNext common complication is - Malunion leading to dinner fork deformity*Most characteristic displacement in colds - Dorsal displacement *Most common cause of Sudeck's dystrophy in upper limb - Codes Position of immobilisation in Codes - Pronation , Palmer deviation, Ulnar deviationMnemonic : ProPagUnda. note that this position is just opposite to that of its displacement | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to JJ Act 2000, juvenile is boy and girl respectively less than: NEET 13 | [
"16 and 18",
"18 and 21",
"14 and 16",
"18 and 18"
] | D | Ans. 18 and 18 | train | med_mcqa | null |
When a man accused of Rape was examined medicolegally, Smegma was present. what does this indicate | [
"Penile penetration in past 24 hours",
"Person has taken bath after the act",
"No penile penetration in past 24 hours",
"It does not have any significance in this case"
] | C | Presence of smegma is of negative value. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a feature of pancreatic Ascites | [
"Low protein",
"Somatostatin is the drug of choice",
"Communication with pancreatic duct is 80%",
"Raised amylase levels"
] | A | Pancreatic Ascites: Management Pancreatic ascites occurs from a pancreatic duct disruption or from a leaking pseudocyst High amylase levels are found in the ascitic fluid Initial treatment : Non operative (elimination of enteral feeding, institution of nasogastric drainage, and administration of somatostatin) Recent paracentesis may also be helpful Roughly 50%-60% of patients can be expected to respond to this treatment with resolution of pancreatic Ascites within 2 to 3 weeks Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :1228 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoid of hea presents as? | [
"Aoic stenosis",
"Tricuspid regurgitation",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Aoic regurgitation"
] | B | Tricuspid valve disease (especially regurgitation) was most prevalent. Patients with carcinoid hea disease typically present with symptoms of right hea failure (hepatomegaly, edema, ascites, fatigue and low cardiac output). Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Toxicity of Oral Xa inhibitors are treated by | [
"Protamine sulphate",
"Andexanet alfa",
"Idarucizumab",
"Argatroban"
] | B | Andexanite alfa is a Xa factor analogue used to treat poisoning of Oral Xa inhibitors like Epixaban, Rivaroxaban. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hot air oven can be used to sterilize all EXCEPT: | [
"Scalpels",
"Glassware",
"Plastic Syringes",
"Dressings"
] | C | Ans. (c) Plastic SyringesRef: K. Park 23rd ed. /127-28HOTAIR OVEN* Holding period of 160 C x 1 hour* Used for forceps, glasswares, scissors, scalpels, glass syringes, swabs and few pharmaceutical products like liquid paraffin, fats, grease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about carotid body tumor- | [
"Arises from pharyngeal wall",
"Arises from baroreceptor cells",
"Commonly seen in high altitude habitants",
"All"
] | C | Ans is 'c' i.e. Commonly seen in high altitude habitants Carotid body tumors arise from chemoreceptor cells of the carotid body (Baroreceptor cells are found in carotid sinus) Since the chemoreceptor cells are stimulated by decreased aerial oxygen tension, a higher incidence of carotid body tumors is noted in oxygen deprived individuals i.e. cyanotic hea ds, chronic hypoxia in high altitude inhabitants. According to Bailey 25/e p732- Family history is seen in -10% patients. (According to Schwaz its 35%) FNAC & biopsy are contraindicated because of the highly vascular nature of the tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about inhalation anesthetic agents is wrong? | [
"Sevoflurane is more potent than isoflurane",
"Sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isoflurane",
"Desflurane has lower blood-gas paition coefficient than sevoflurane",
"Sevoflurane has a higher MAC than isoflurane"
] | A | Sevoflurane is less potent than isoflurane as it lacks coronary vasodilating propeies. Ref: Handbook of Clinical Anesthesia By Barash, Cullen, Stoelting , 5th Edition, Page 216; Handbook of Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Bruce F. Cullen, Robe K. Stoelting, M. Christine Stock, 6th Edition, Page 231 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recombinant human insulin is made by - | [
"CDNA from any eukaryote cell",
"Genome of any eukaryote",
"CDNA of pancreatic cell",
"Genome of pancreatic cell"
] | C | Ans is option 3- CDNA of pancreatic cell. Ref Harrison 19 /2402,2411 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An important difference between leuprolide and ganirelix is that ganirelix: | [
"Can be given orally",
"Immediately reduces gonadotropin secretion",
"Must be given in a Pulsatile fashion",
"Initially stimulates release of LH and FSH"
] | B | GnRH agonists like leuprolide, goserelin and nafarelin etc. are used by parenteral route. Continuous administration of these agents decreases gonadotropin secretion whereas pulsatile administration increases the secretion. When used continuously even then first few doses cause increased secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) leading to flare up reaction in prostatic carcinoma.
GnRH antagonists like cetrorelix and ganirelix are also used by parenteral route but these drugs immediately reduce gonadotropin secretion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Food poisoning is an example of: | [
"Point source epidemic",
"Propagated source epidemic",
"Common source epidemic",
"Pandemic"
] | A | 1. Point source epidemic ( single exposure ) Sudden rise sudden fall. Cluster of cases in single IP. All cases develop within one incubation period of the disease E.g. Food poisoning , Bhopal gas tragedy. 2. Common source , continuous or repeated exposure epidemics Sharp rise Fall is interrupted by secondary peaks Eg. Contaminated well in a village,Water Borne Cholera. 3. Propagated source epidemic Gradual rise & gradual fall over long time. Person to person transmission E.g:- HEP. A, POLIO. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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