question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Dehydration in an alert child with diarrhea, no thirst and less than 50ml/kg of estimated fluid deficit- the following term is used for classification - | [
"No dehydration",
"Moderate",
"Severe",
"None"
] | A | Ans- A.No dehydration | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are ketone bodies EXCEPT | [
"Alpha ketoglutarate",
"Acetone",
"Acetoacetate",
"Beta-hydroxy butyrate"
] | A | Primary ketone body-Acetoacetate.
Secondary ketone bodies- Acetone, Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
Neutral Ketone body-Acetone.
Ketone body excreted through lungs-Acetone.
Site of synthesis of ketone bodies-Liver mitochondria.
Organs which do not utilize ketone bodies-Liver, RBCs.
Rate limiting step of ketone body synthesis-HMG CoA Synthase.
Ketone bodies that do not answer Gerhardt's test- Betahydroxybutyrate and Acetone.
Ketone body that does not answer neither Rothera test nor Gerhardt's test-Betahydroxybutyrate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
LCAT activates | [
"Apo A1",
"Apo B100",
"Apo C-2",
"Apo C-3"
] | A | Lipoproteins classes as per apoprotein contents Families: LP A Apolipoproteins: A-I and A-II Density class: HDL Mol. wt. range: 17000 to 28000 Function: LCAT activator, 'Scavenger'Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, page no:445, Table 25.11 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10-year-old boy with a 2-week history of an upper respiratory infection was admitted to the hospital with malaise, fever, joint swelling and diffuse rash. The patient is treated and discharged. However, the patient suffers from recurrent pharyngitis and a few years later, develops a hea murmur. This patient's hea murmur is most likely caused by exposure to which of the following pathogens? | [
"Beta-hemolytic streptococcus",
"Candida albicans",
"Epstein-Barr virus",
"Streptococcus viridans"
] | A | Rheumatic fever develops after antibodies to surface antigens of group A (beta-hemolytic) streptococci cross react with similar antigens found in the hea, joints and connective tissue of the skin. Cardiac lesions caused by acute rheumatic fever include endocarditis, myocarditis and pericarditis, or all three combined. Chronic rheumatic endocarditis causes fibrous scarring and deformity of cardiac valves, leading to hea murmurs and functional defects. None of the other pathogens cause rheumatic hea disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest type of gall stone is | [
"Cholesterol stone",
"Pigment",
"Mixed",
"All are equally common"
] | C | Most common gall stones are Mixed gall stones and account for 90% of calculi Mixed stones Mixed (brown pigment stones) typically contain 20-80% cholesterol (or 30-70%, according to the Japanese- classification system). Other common constituents are calcium carbonate, palmitate phosphate, bilirubin and other bile pigments (calcium bilirubinate, calcium palmitate and calcium stearate). Because of their calcium content, they are often radiographically visible. They typically arise secondary to infection of the biliary tract which results in the release of b-glucuronidase (by injured hepatocytes and bacteria) which hydrolyzes bilirubin glucuronides and increases the amount of unconjugated bilirubin in bile. Between 4% and 20% of stones are mixed. Gallstones can vary in size and shape from as small as a grain of sand to as large as a golf ball.The gallbladder may contain a single large stone or many smaller ones. Pseudoliths, sometimes referred to as sludge, are thick secretions that may be present within the gallbladder, either alone or in conjunction with fully formed gallstones. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1198 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an adult, the hyoid bone is seen at which of the following level of the cervical veebrae? | [
"C2",
"C3",
"C4",
"C5"
] | B | The hyoid bone is found at the level of third cervical veebrae in adults. It is situated above the thyroid cailage in the anterior wall of the hypopharynx in relation to the base of the tongue. It is made up of a body, bilateral greater cornua and bilateral lesser cornua. It is a sesamoid bone and is suspended in between the supra hyoid and infra hyoid musculature and is therefore responsible for the concavity between the chin and the anterior neck. The body is convex from side to side. At either end of the body on its upper surface is a small tubercle called lesser cornu. It is the point of attachment of medial end of middle constrictor muscle and stylohyoid ligament. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fovea palatine are situated in: | [
"Hard palate",
"Soft palate",
"At the junction of hard and soft palate",
"Their position is not fixed"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The 'Japanese Detergent Suicide Technique' involves mixing of common household chemical to produce : | [
"H2S and other poisonous gases",
"Deadly foam",
"Deadly acidic compound",
"Deadly fluid cyanide compound"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are seen in hemochromatosis except | [
"Hypogonadism",
"Ahropathy",
"Bronze diabetes",
"Desferrioxamine is the treatment of choice"
] | D | Management of Heridetary hemochromatosis Treatment consists of weekly venesection of 500 mL blood (250 mg iron) until the serum iron is normal; this may take 2 years or more. The aim is to reduce ferritin to under 50 mg/L (5 mg/dL). Thereafter, venesection is continued as required to keep the serum ferritin normal. Liver and cardiac problemsimprove after iron removal, but joint pain is less predictable and can improve or worsen after iron removal. Type 2 diabetes does not resolve after venesection. Other therapy includes that for cirrhosis and diabetes. First-degree family members should be investigated, preferably by genetic screening and also by checking the plasma ferritin and iron-binding saturation. Liver biopsy is indicated in asymptomatic relatives only if the LFTs are abnormal and/or the serum ferritin is greater than 1000 mg/L (100 mg/dL) because these features are associated with significant fibrosis or cirrhosis. Asymptomatic disease should also be treated by venesection until the serum ferritin is normal. Ref - Davidsons 23e p895,896 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spasmolytic analgesic is - | [
"Dicyclomine",
"Physostigmine",
"Tropicamide",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dicyclomineo Antispasmodic (spasmolytic) drugs are used in various colic (pain) e.g. abdominal colic or renal colic,o Among the given options, dicyclomine is spasmolytic.Antispasmodic drugsi) Quaternary compounds - Propantheline, Oxyphenonium, Clidinium, Pipenzolate, Methylbromide, Isopropamide, Glycopyrrolate.ii) Tertiary amines - Dicyclomine, Valethamate, Pirenzepine.iii) Vasoselective antispasmodic (drugs acting on urinary bladder) - Oxybutynin, Tolterodine, flavoxate.iv) Drotaverine | train | med_mcqa | null |
In disability rates, event- type indication are the following except- | [
"Number of days of restricted activity",
"Limitation of activity",
"Bed disability days",
"Work loss days"
] | B | .In disability rates, event- type indication are the following ,Number of days of restricted activity ,Bed disability days,Work loss daysor school days in specified period of time. ref:park&;s textbook,22ed,pg no 24 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all the following H. pylori may be present as a cause EXCEPT | [
"Pyloric metaplasia of duodenum",
"Atrophic gastritis",
"Intestinal metaplasia of stomach",
"Gastric type metaplasia in Barrett's esophagus"
] | D | Ans. d). Gastric type metaplasia in Barrett's esophagus. (Ref. Robbin's, Pathology, 7th/ pg. 815; Harrison 18th/Ch. 151)Essentially all persons colonized with H. pylori develop a host response, which is generally termed chronic gastritis. The nature of the interaction of the host with the particular bacterial population determines the clinical outcome. H. pylori colonization increases the lifetime risk of peptic ulcer disease, noncardia gastric cancer, and B cell non-Hodgkin's gastric lymphoma. In contrast, a growing evidence indicates that H, pylori colonization (especially with cagA+- strains) protects against adenocarcinoma of the esophagus (and the sometimes related gastric cardia) and premalignant lesions such as Barrett's esophagusH. PYLORI# Most infected persons also have the associated gastritis but are asymptomatic.Morphology# H. pylori is a nonsporing, curvilinear gram-negative rod measuring approximately 3.5 x 0.5 mm.# H. pylori is part of a genus of bacteria that have adapted to the ecologic niche provided by gastric mucus.# The specialized traits that allow it to flourish include:- Motility (via flagella), allowing it to swim through viscous mucus- Elaboration of a urease, which produces ammonia and carbon dioxide from endogenous urea, thereby buffering gastric acid in the immediate vicinity of the organism- Expression of bacterial adhesins, such as Bab A, which binds to the fucosylated Lewis B blood-group antigens, enhances binding to blood group O antigen bearing cells.- Expression of bacterial toxins, such as cytotoxin association gene A (CagA) and vacuolating cytotoxin gene A (VacA).# After initial exposure to H. pylori, gastritis occurs in two patterns:- A predominantly antral-type gastritis with high acid production and elevated risk for duodenal ulcer, and- A pangastritis that is followed by multifocal atrophy (multifocal atrophic gastritis) with lower gastric acid secretion and higher risk for adenocarcinoma.# IL-1b is a potent pro-inflammatory cytokine and a powerful gastric acid inhibitor. Patients who have higher IL-1b production in response to H. pylori infection tend to develop pangastritis, while patients who have lower IL-1b production exhibit antral-type gastritis.TRANSMISSION# Oral-oral transmission,# Fecal-oral transmission, and# Environmental spread.Diseases associated with helicobacter pylori in fectionDisease AssociationChronic gastritisStrong causal associationPeptic ulcer diseaseStrong causal associationGastric carcinomaStrong causal associationGastric MALT lymphomaDefinitive etiologic roleDiagnostic Test# Noninvasive tests include a serologic test for antibodies, fecal bacterial detection, and a urea breath test.# Invasive tests are based on the identification of H. pylori in gastric biopsy tissue.# Detection methods in gastric tissue include visualization of the bacteria in histologic sections, bacterial culture, a rapid urease test, and bacterial DNA detection by the polymerase chain reaction.Current Treatment# Patients with chronic gastritis and H. pylori usually improve when treated with antibiotics.# Treatment includes antibiotics and hydrogen pump inhibitors.Tissue Morphology# Gastritis in the setting of environmental etiologies (including infection by H. pylori) tends to affect antral mucosa or both antral and body-fundic mucosa (pangastritis).# Several histologic features are characteristic:- Regenerative Change. In the neck region of the gastric glands mitotic figures are increased.- Metaplasia. The antral, body, and fundic mucosa may become partially replaced by metaplastic columnar absorptive cells and goblet cells of intestinal morphology (intestinal metaplasia)- Atrophy. Atrophy is quite frequently associated with autoimmune gastritis and pangastritis caused by H. pylori. Parietal cells, in particular, may be clearly absent in the autoimmune form.- Dysplasia. Dysplasia is thought to be a precursor lesion of gastric cancer in atrophic forms of gastritis, particularly with pernicious anemia (autoimmune gastritis) and H. pylori-chronic gastritis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A drug that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and reduces the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand is a: | [
"Competitive antagonist",
"Paial antagonist",
"Inverse agonist",
"Allosteric antagonist"
] | D | A drug that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site (allosteric or non-agonist site) and reduces the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand is termed as allosteric inhibitor. Allosteric inhibition is a form of non-competitive antagonism (Allosteric antagonism). Allosteric Modulator: An allosteric modulator is a drug that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and induces a conformational change in the receptor, which alters the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand. Positive allosteric modulators increase the affinity, whilst negative allosteric modulators decrease the affinity. Ref: Katzung 14th edition Pgno: 24 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the mode of action of Sodium Cromoglycate? | [
"Mast cell stabilization",
"Antihistaminic",
"Anticholinergic",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mast cell stabilization Mast cell stabilizer Mast cells are the major source of inflammatory mediators in asthma. Therefore, the drugs which prevent degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators of mast cells can be used for long term prophylaxis in mild to moderate asthma. These drugs are ineffective in acute attack of asthma as degranulation of mast cells with release of inflammatory mediators has already occured. Sodium cromoglycate and nedocromil are mast cell stabilizers. Nedocromil has additional antihistaminic action, thus it is especially indicated in patient with multiple disorders (asthma, atopic dermatitis, conjuctivitis, rhinitis, uicaria and food allergy). Sodium cromoglycate is not absorbed orally, therefore it is used by inhalational route. Ketotifen is absorbed orally and is used by this route. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Short-acting anticholinesterase is: | [
"Physostigmine.",
"Neostigmine.",
"Edrophonium.",
"Rivastigmine."
] | C | Edrophonium is the short-acting anticholinesterases and is useful in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least reabsorption out of the following in the Nephron is - | [
"Glucose",
"Urea",
"Na +",
"HC0"
] | B | Renal handling of various plasma constituents in a normal adult human on an average diet. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young lady was admitted after taking an overdose of diazepam after a broken affair. She has a history of slitting her wrist previously. Most likely diagnosis is- | [
"Narcisstic personality disorder",
"Dependent PD",
"Borderline PD",
"Histrionic PD"
] | C | Information in this question
Unstable interpersonal relationship (broken affair)
Suicidal attempt Self inflicted injury
Diagnosis is a borderline personality border. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Paneth cells are true, except | [
"Rich in Rough Endoplasmic Rectuculum",
"Rich in Zinc",
"Contain Lysozyme",
"Foamy appearance"
] | D | Paneth cells, along with goblet cells, enterocytes, and enteroendocrine cells, represent the principal cell types of the epithelium of the small intestine. (A few may also be found sporadically in the cecum and appendix. image ref - semantischolar.org | train | med_mcqa | null |
5' to 3' exonuclease activity is seen in: | [
"Proof reading",
"Repair of damaged DNA",
"DNA synthesis",
"DNA polymerase"
] | B | Ans. (b) Repair of damaged DNARef: Harpers Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 389-90Two types of exonuclease activity has been described:* 5' to 3' exonuclease activity: responsible for cleavage of phosphodiester bond starting from 5' end of the strand. It is considered as the error correcting activity in damaged DNA.* 3' to 5' exonuclease activity: responsible for cleavage of phosphodiester bond starting from 3' end of the strand. This activity provides a means for proofreading if in case any wrong base is mistakenly incorporated by DNA polymerase III during DNA synthesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with glaucoma is being treated with systemic beta blocker. All of the following can be given to the patient except? | [
"Brimonidine",
"Dorzolamide",
"Levobunolol",
"Prostaglandin"
] | C | Ans. c. Levobunolol (Ref: KDT 7/e p154, 6/e p144: 5/e p85)Brimonidine, dorzolamide and prostaglandin are topical anti-glaucoma drugs. These drugs do not have systemic side effects, while levobunolol (beta-blocker) is systemic anti-glaucoma drug given orally, having systemic side effects. That is why in patients with glaucoma treated with systemic beta blockers, levobunolol may add on the side effects of beta-blockers, hence, avoided in the above mentioned patient.Topical Anti-glaucoma DrugsAdrenergic agonistNon-selective: Epinephrine, DipivefrineAlpha2-selective: Apraclonidine, BrimonidineAdrenergic antagonistBeta-blocker (Non-selective): Timolol, Levobunolol, Carteolol, Metipranolol, AdapralolBeta 1-blocker: BetaxololMiotics (direct parasympatomimetics)Pilocarpine, PhysostigmineEcothiophate. Carbachol, DemacariumProstaglandin analoguesLatanoprostCarbonic anhydrase inhibitorsDorzolamideSystemic Antiglaucoma DrugsCarbonic anhydrase inhibitorsHyperosmotic agents* Acetazolamide* Dichlorphenamide* Methazolamide* Mannitol* Glycerol | train | med_mcqa | null |
A loop of thin string is thrown around the neck of the victim in | [
"Throttling",
"Mugging",
"Bansdola",
"Garrotting"
] | D | In garotting, a loop of things string is thrown around the neck of victim, who is attacked from his back. The ligature is then rapidly tightened with the help of two sticks tied at the free ends of the string so as to constrict the neck strongly. Asphyxiation of the unaware victim ensues rapidly and ultimately death. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY KRISHNAN VIJ FIFTH EDITION PAGE 134 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about primary hyperparathyroidism- | [
"Adenoma commonest cause",
"serum calcium",
"Surgery if biochemical finding is abnormal in asymptomatic patient",
"MIBG isotope is useful in localization of tumor"
] | A | Solitary adenoma common cause around 80% of primary hyperparathyroidism Ref - ( Harrison 17 pg 2380) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soft contact lens is used - | [
"High myopia",
"Astigmatism",
"Presbyopia",
"Keratoconus"
] | A | Soft contact lenses are made up of HEMA (hydroxyethylmethacrylate) which is hydrophilic. These are very good for delivering higher concentrations of drugs in emergency treatment. Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,E4,Page-417,564 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bloody pericardial effusion can be due to - | [
"Uremic pericarditis",
"Tuberculosis pericarditis",
"Tumour infiltration",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patients with sickle cell anemia are prone to infections with -a) Staph. aureusb) Pneumococcusc) H. influenzad) Gonococcus | [
"a",
"c",
"ac",
"bc"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Associated with surveillance are all of the following except: September 2007 | [
"Sentinel search",
"Randomisation",
"Information regarding trends of health status of population",
"Providing timely warnings of public health disasters"
] | B | Ans. B: Randomisation Disease surveillance is an epidemiological practice by which the spread of disease is monitored in order to establish patterns of progression. The main role of disease surveillance is to predict, observe, and minimize the harm caused by outbreak, epidemic, and pandemic situations, as well as increase our knowledge as to what factors might contribute to such circumstances. A key pa of modern disease surveillance is the practice of disease case repoing. The main objectives of surveillance are: To provide information about new and changing trends in the health status of population To provide feedback which may be expected to modify the policy Provide timely warning of the public health disasters so that timely interventions can be mobilized. Sentinel surveillance is a method for identifying all the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue is useful as : | [
"Uterine relaxant",
"Anti–ulcer",
"Bronchodilator",
"Vasodilator"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disposal of Glass vaccine ls as Biomedical wastes is done by:- | [
"Incineration",
"Autoclaving then Landfill",
"Disinfection then recycling",
"Encapsulation"
] | C | Disposal of glass vaccine ls and metallic body implants as biomedical wastes: Blue category. Treatment and disposal is done by Chemical treatment/autoclaving / Hydroclaving / Microwaving followed by Recycling. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement regarding 'Fistula in ano' is - | [
"Posterior fistulae have straight tracks",
"High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence",
"High and low divisions are made in relation to the pelvic floor",
"Intersphincteric is the most common type"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a cognitive error/dysfunction : | [
"Catastrophic thinking",
"Arbitrary inference",
"Overgeneralization",
"Thought block"
] | D | Primary cognitive errors : Arbitrary inference, selective abstraction, over - generalization, magnification & minimization, catastrophic thinking, Absolutistic dichotomous thinking, personalization / self-references.
Additional cognitive errors : Disqualifying the positive, emotional reasoning, should statement, labeling & mislabeling. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In spinal anaesthesia the drug is deposited between- | [
"Dura and arachnoid",
"Pia and arachnoid",
"Dura and vertebra",
"Into the cord substance"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pia and arachnoid matter Spinal anaesthesiao In spinal anaesthesia LA is injected into subarachnoid space (space between pia matter and arachnoid matter),o Structure pierced during SA (from outside in) - Skin - Subcutaneous tissue - Supraspinous & intraspinous ligament - Ligamentum falvum - Duramater - Arachnoidmater.o Site of spinal anaesthesiaL2.3 or L3-4 intervertebral space in adult (In adult spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 vertebrae).L4.5 intervertebral space in children (spinal cord ends at lower border of L3 vertebrae in children).o Spinal anaesthesia leads to creation of a zone of differential blockade, ie motor fibres are blocked two levels tower and autonomic fibres are blocked two levels higher than the sensory blockade due to different sensitivity of different fibres. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which gland opens on postero lateral margin of vaginal opening: | [
"Skene gland",
"Cooper gland",
"Bartholin's gland",
"Bulbourethral gland"
] | C | Ans. (c) Bartholin's glandRef. Gray's basic anatomy / 248* The orifice of urethra and vagina are associated with opening of glands.* The ducts of para-urethral glands (skene's gland) opens into the vestibule, one on each side of the lateral margin of urethra.* The ducts of greater vestibular gland (Bartholin's gland) open adjacent to the postero-lateral margin of the vaginal opening in the crease between the vaginal orifice and remanants of hymen.* Bartholin gland the female homologues of the bulbourethral glands in men.Also Now* When bartholins gland is blocked, a fluid filled cyst named bartholins cyst develops.* TOC for bartholins cyst: Marsuplization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epispadias is associates with: | [
"Bifid pubic symphysis",
"Chordee",
"Anal atresia",
"Intestial obstruction"
] | B | Epispadias is a rare type of malformation of the penis in which the urethra ends in an opening on the upper aspect (the dorsum) of the penis. Ref: CDST, 12th Edition, Page 631; Urology by Macfarlane, 4th Edition, Page 252; Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 1363; Visual Handbook of Pediatrics and Child Health: The Core By Stephen Ludwig, Page 602; Oxford American Handbook of Urology By David M. Albala, Leonard G. Gomella, Allen F. Morey, John P. Stein, Page 562 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are criteria of non-resectability in patients with hilar cholangiocarcinoma except | [
"Hepatic duct involvement upto secondary radicals bilaterally",
"Encasement or occlusion of main poal vein proximal to its bifurcation",
"Atrophy of one lobe with encasement of contralateral poal vein branch",
"Atrophy of one lobe with ipsilateral involvement of secondary biliary radicals"
] | D | Criteria of Unresectability in Hilar cholangiocarcinoma Hepatic duct involvement upto secondary radicals bilaterally Encasement or occlusion of the main poal vein proximal to its bifurcation Atrophy of one lobe with encasement of contralateral poal vein branch Atrophy of one lobe with contralateral involvement of secondary biliary radicals Histologically proven metastasis to N2 lymph nodes Liver, lung or peritoneal metastasis In hilar cholangiocarcinoma, several early branches of left hepatic duct drain the caudate lobe and can be involved early with the tumor Consideration for routine caudate Lobectomy should be made in these cases Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1514-1518 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Microcytic hypochromic anemia found in infestation of - | [
"Ancylostoma",
"Ascaris",
"Necator",
"Diphyllobothrium"
] | A | hookworm disease-microcytic,hypochromic anemia Ingest blood Sucks 0.2 ml blood daily Small bleeding point (Refer pgno:146 baveja 3rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following occurs in ischemic cardiac tissue? | [
"Increased ATP",
"Increased anaerobic glycolysis",
"Increased pH",
"Increased release of Calcium"
] | B | Loss of the myocardial blood supply leads to profound functional, biochemical, and morphologic consequences.Within seconds of vascular obstruction, aerobic glycolysis ceases, leading to a drop in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and accumulation of lactic acid in the cardiac myocytes.The functional consequence is a rapid loss of contractility, which occurs within a minute or so of the onset of ischemia.Ultrastructural changes (including myofibrillar relaxation, glycogen depletion, cell and mitochondrial swelling) also become rapidly apparent. These early changes are potentially reversible.Only severe ischemia lasting at least 20 to 40 minutes causes irreversible damage and myocyte death leading to coagulation necrosis( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 377 ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A synthetic “cocktail” vaccine SPf66 has shown potential for the protection against | [
"Dengue/ DHF",
"Japanese encephalitis",
"Lymphatic filariasis",
"Falciparum Malaria"
] | D | SPf 66: A synthetic ‘Lytic Cocktail vaccine’ developed for P. Falciparum has been extensively tested –
Formulated as peptide-alum combination.
– Safe, effective and reduces risk of developing clinics malaria by 30%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Electrode of cochlear implant is placed at ? | [
"Horizontal semicircular canal",
"Scala media",
"Scala tympani",
"Scala vestibuli"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Scala tympani Aural rehabilitation devices Hearing-impaired individuals may be helped by aural rehabilitation devices. The devices may be : ? 1. Hearing aids These are miniaturized sound amplifying devices to amplify sounds reaching the ear. These devices contain a microphone to recieve sound, an electronic processor (amplifier) that manipulates the qualities of sound to make it more usable to listner, a speaker (receiver) that conves electrical impulses back to the sound. Hearing Aids may be of two types : ? Air conduction hearing aid : - In this, the amplified sound is transmitted the ear canal to the tympanic membrane. Bone conduction hearing aid : - Instead of a receiver, it has a bone vibrator which snugly fits on the mastoid and directly stimulates the cochla. This type of aid is specially useful in persons with actively draining ears, otitis externa or atresia of the ear canal when ear-inses cannot be worn. Hearing aid is indicated in persons who has a hearing problem that cannot be helped by medical or surgical means. 2. Implants Two commonly used Implants are : ? A. Cochlear implants Cochlear implants bypass the function of the sensory receptors by directly stimulating ganglion cells in the auditory nerve. Cochlear implants conve the mechanical sound energies into the electrical signals that can be directly delivered into the auditory nerve in severe or profoundly hearing impaired individuals. Cochlear implant has two components : External component : - It contains microphone, speech processor and transmitter, and remains outside the body. Internal component : - It contains receiver/stimulater which is implanted under the skin and electrode which is implanted in the Scala tympani of the cochlea a cochleastomy opening in the basal turn of cochlea. It may also be placed at other locations like promontory or round window but these sites has poorer performance. B. Auditory brainstem implant The cochlear nucleus complex within the brainstem is stimulated directly by placing the electrode into the lateral recess of fouh ventricle. Such implant is used when V///'h cranial nerve has been severed in surgery of acoustic neuroma. Cochlear implants are not effective in this situation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a freak hunting accident, a 17-year-old boy was shot with an arrow that penetrated into his Suboccipital Triangle, injuring the Suboccipital Nerve between the Veebral Aery and the Posterior Arch of the Atlas. Which of the following muscles would be unaffected by such a Lesion? | [
"Rectus Capitis Posterior Major",
"Semispinalis Capitis",
"Splenius Capitis",
"Obliquus Capitis Superior"
] | C | The splenius capitis is innervated by dorsal primary rami of the middle and lower cervical nerves. The suboccipital nerve (dorsal primary ramus of C1) supplies the muscles of the suboccipital area, including the rectus capitis posterior major, obliquus capitis superior and inferior, and the semispinalis capitis. Note Rectus capitis posterior minor remains intact because it is not associated with C2 veebrae fracture | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schwannoma most commonly involves the: | [
"Vestibular part of VIII nerve",
"Cochlear part of VIII nerve",
"Vagus",
"Hypoglossal"
] | A | (a) Vestibular part of VIII nerve(Ref. Shambaugh, 6th ed., 644)Rarely it may originate from the other mentioned options in the question | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a teratogen is: | [
"Alcohol",
"Warfarin",
"Metocloperamide",
"Phenytoin"
] | C | Metocloperamide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unconjugate hyperbilirubinemia is seen in ? | [
"Physiological jaundice",
"Breast milk jaundice",
"Gilbe syndrome",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Physiological jaundice; 'b' i.e., Breast milk jaundice; 'c' i.e., Gilbe syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old female patient has complained of weakness and fatigability over the past 6 months. She has a 3-month acute history of severe hypertension that has not responded to antihypertensive medications. Fasting serum glucose concentration is 140 mg/dl. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a 6-cm mass in the adrenal gland affecting the secretory cells of the adrenal medulla. Which of the following structures is most likely releasing products into the bloodstream to produce the hypertension and other signs? | [
"Preganglionic sympathetic axons in thoracic splanchnic nerves",
"Cells of neural crest origin that migrated to the adrenal medulla",
"Preganglionic parasympathetic branches of the posterior vagal trunk",
"Postganglionic parasympathetic branches of the left or right vagus nerves"
] | B | The mass leads to increased stimulation and secretions of the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla. These cells are modified postganglionic sympathetic neurons of neural crest origin, and the epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) released by these cells passes into the suprarenal (adrenal) veins. The adrenal medulla receives stimulation from preganglionic sympathetic fibers carried by the thoracic splanchnic nerves. Parasympathetic neurons are not found in the adrenal medulla and would have no participation in the effects of the tumor. In addition, the pelvic splanchnic nerves are parasympathetic and do not travel to the adrenal medulla. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is involved in formation of d-TMP from d- UMP? | [
"N5, N10-methylene tetrahydrofolate",
"Formimino folate",
"N5 formyl folate",
"Dihydrofolate"
] | A | Conversion of dUMP to dTMP requires N5, Nw-methylene H4 folate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Torus mandibularis: | [
"Present above the mylohyoid line",
"Present below the mylohyoid line",
"No definite location is there",
"Present at lingual surface of anterior mandible"
] | A | Torus mandibularis is seen on the lingual surface of the mandible and it occurs above the mylohyoid line, usually opposite the bicuspid teeth.
Ref: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology 7th edition page 159 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Boys are more likely to be affected by which genetic disorders - | [
"AD",
"AR",
"X linked dominant",
"X linked recessive"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., X linked recessive Note-Boys are affected and girls are become carrier and transmit the disease to the next generation.X-linked disorderso Except for a fewr conditions, all X-linked disorders are X-linked recessive.o As male has only one X-chromosome, the male with affected gene on X-chromosome will always manifest the disease.o On the other hand, female has 2 X-chromosomes, heterozyogous female will be carrier because of expression of normal allel on the other X-chromosome.o So a boy has more probability to manifest X linked recessive as compared to girls | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leading questions are permitted only in | [
"A. Examination in chief",
"Cross examination",
"Dying declaration",
"Re-examination"
] | B | (Cross examinations): Ref 1.11-P, 13-MCROSS-EXAMINATION- May be regarded as the most reliable procedure for testing the value of an evidence, and is held by the counsel for the accused.The main objectives of cross-examination are* To elicit facts favourable to his case* To test the accuracy of the statements made by the witness* To shift, modify or explain what has been said* To discredit the witness* To remove an undue or unwarned emphasis* In cross examination, leading questions are permitted and the witness should be very cautious in answering them* Cross examination acts as a double edged sword* There is no time limit for examination | train | med_mcqa | null |
Waters view is best used for visualization of: | [
"Frontal sinus",
"Maxillary sinus",
"Ethmoid sinus",
"Sphenoid sinus"
] | B | Ref. Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat Diseases Pg 155
Law’s view (15º lateral oblique): Sagittal plane of the skull is parallel to the film and X-ray beam is projected 15 degrees cephalocaudal
Water view – Best to visualize maxillary sinus
The Caldwell view is a caudally angled PA radiograph of the skull, designed to better visualise the paranasal sinuses, especially the frontal sinus
Schuller’s or Rugnstrom view (30º lateral oblique): Similar to Law’s view but cephalocaudal beam makes an angle of 30 degrees instead of 15 degrees | train | med_mcqa | null |
Category A bioterrorism agents are | [
"Ebola",
"Yersinia",
"Clostridium botulinum",
"Rickettsia"
] | A | Category A bioterrorism agents include - 1. Smallpox- various virus 2. Tularemia- Francisella tularensis 3. Anthrax- bacillus anthracis 4. Botulinum toxin- Clostridium botulinum 5. Bubonic plague- yersinia pedis 6. Viral haemorrhage fever- filoviridae (Marburg virus and Ebola virus) Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Duration of TIA: | [
"12 hours",
"24 hours",
"48 hours",
"36 hours"
] | B | Ans. (b) 24 hoursRef.: Harrison 19th ed. / 2568, 17th ed. Ch. 364* The standard definition of TLA requires that all neurologic signs and symptoms resolve within 24 hours regardless of whether there is imaging evidence of new permanent brain injury; stroke has occurred if the neurologic signs and symptoms last for >24 hours. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypercoagulation in Nephrotic syndrome is caused by: | [
"Loss of Antithrombin III",
"Decreased Fibrinogen",
"Decreased Metabolism of Vitamin K",
"Increase in protein C"
] | A | Answer is A (Loss of Antithrombin III) Loss of Antithrombin III contributes to the hypercoagulable state in Nephrotic syndrome `A hypercoagulable state frequently accompanies severe nephrotic syndrome due to urinary losses of antithrmbin reduced serum levels of protein C and S, hyperfibrinogenemia and enhanced platelet aggregation' | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common source of vicarious menstruation is : | [
"Hea",
"Lungs",
"Nose",
"Kidney"
] | C | Epistaxis during menstruation Menstruation may initiate nasal irritation or nasal allergy. This may be due to state of heightened nervous and vasomotor instability or due to pre menstrual fluid retention Ref:Disease of ear nose and neck, PL Dhingra and Sruthi Dhingra,Pg 177. Internet sources. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An exaggerated smile line seen in OPG is due to | [
"Patient's chin positioned too high",
"Patient's head positioned too far back",
"Patient's chin positioned too low",
"Patient's head positioned too forward"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most accurate diagnostic test for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is | [
"Fasting serum gastrin",
"Computed tomography (CT) scan",
"Endoscopy",
"Secretin stimulation test"
] | D | -All patients with gastrinoma have an elevated gastrin level, and hypergastrinemia in the presence of elevated basal acid output (BAO) strongly suggests gastrinoma. -Patients with gastrinoma usually have a BAO >15 mEq/h or >5 mEq/h if they have had a previous procedure for peptic ulcer. -Acid secretory medications should be held for several days before gastrin measurement, because acid suppression may falsely elevate gastrin levels. 1). The diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is confirmed by the secretin stimulation test. An intravenous (IV) bolus of secretin (2 U/kg) is given and gastrin levels are checked before and after injection. - An increase in serum gastrin of 200 pg/mL or greater suggests the presence of gastrinoma. Patients with gastrinoma should have serum calcium and parathyroid hormone levels determined to rule out multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) and, if present, parathyroidectomy should be considered before resection of gastrinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deficit in weight for height in a 3 years old child indicates- | [
"Acute malnutrition",
"Chronic malnutrition",
"Concomittant acute and chronic",
"Under weight"
] | A | Reduced Weight for height indicate acute malnutrition. Weight reflect only the present health status. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 502 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest site of oesophagus - squamous cell carcinoma is | [
"Upper 2/3",
"Middle 1/3",
"Lower 1/3",
"Crico-esophageal junction"
] | B | OESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA,6 th most common carcinoma in the world, can be predisposed to dietary deficiencies, human papillomavirus infections, achalasia cardia, oesophageal webs etc.it is most commonly seen in middle third of oesophagus (50%)and also at lower third(33%) and upper third(17%).in the lower pa adenocarcinoma is common .in India 90%are squamous carcinomas.dysphagia, regurgitation, anorexia, loss of weight, ascites, palpable left supraclavicular lymph nodes are the clinical features. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 806. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The level of branching of common carotid artery: | [
"Upper border of thyroid cartilage",
"Lower border of cricoid cartilage",
"Lower border of thyroid cartilage",
"Hyoid"
] | A | COMMON CAROTID ARTERIES:
There are two common carotid arteries: right and left. They are the chief arteries of the head and neck.
Origin:
The right common carotid artery arises in neck from brachiocephalic trunk (innominate artery) behind the
sternoclavicular joint.
The left common carotid artery arises in thorax (superior mediastinum) directly from the arch of aorta. It ascends to the back of left sternoclavicular joint and enters the neck.
Course, Termination, and Relations:
In the neck, both arteries (right and left) have similar course.
Each artery runs upwards from sternoclavicular joint to the upper border of the lamina of thyroid cartilage (opposite the disc between the 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae), where it terminates by dividing into internal and external carotid arteries.
Key Concept:
Left and right CCA runs upwards from sternoclavicular joint to the upper border of the lamina of thyroid cartilage (opposite the disc between the 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae), where it terminates by dividing into internal and external carotid arteries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The tidal volume is | [
"The amount of air that normally moves into (or out of) the lung with each respiration.",
"The amount of air that enters the lung but does not participate in gas exchange.",
"The largest amount of air expired after maximal expiratory effort.",
"The largest amount of gas that can be moved into and out of the l... | A | The amount of air that moves into the lungs with each inspiration (or the amount that moves out with each expiration) is called the tidal volume. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Illusion is a disorder of- | [
"Thought",
"Perception",
"Memory",
"Intelligence"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Perception Disorders of perceptiono Altered perception:- Sensory distortion (micropsia, hyperacusis), Illusiono False perception:- Hallucination.Thought disordersFormal thought disorders (Disorders of thought process)Disorders of thought contenti) Racing thoughts:- Anxiety, Schizophreniaii) Retarded thoughts:- Depressioniii) Circumstantiality:- Mania, Schizophreniaiv) Thought blocking Schizophrenia, Severe anxietyv) Perseveration:- Organic brain disease, Schizophrenia (occasionally)vi) Loosening of association:- Schizophreniavii) Flight of ideas:- Maniaviii) Tangentialityix) Clunging & punning:- Mania & schizophreniax) Neologism, word salad, Echolalia:- Schizophreniai) Delusion:- Psychosis (Schizophrenia, mania, depression & othersii) Obsessioniii) Compulsioniv) Preoccupationsv) Phobiasvi) Depersonalization & Derealizationo In schizophrenia and mood disorders (depression, mania) all parts of the thought (thought process as well as content) are involved.o However, schizophrenia is conventionally referred as formal thought disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is seen by | [
"Grams stain",
"India ink preparation",
"Giemsa stain",
"Methanamine - Silver stain"
] | B | (B) India ink preparation > In unstained, wet preparation of CSF with a drop of Indian ink or nigrosine, the capsule can be seen as a clear halo around the yeast cell. This is an example of negative staining.# Diagnosis of cryptococcus is established by demonstration of capsulated, budding yeast cells in the lesions and by culture.> Capsules stand out in India ink preparations.> Fungus grows readily on Sabouraud's agar forming smooth, mucoid, cream coloured colonies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chromophobe variant of Renal cell carcinoma is associated with: | [
"VHL gene mutations",
"Trisomy of 7 and 17 (+7, +17)",
"3 p deletions (3p-)",
"Monosomy of 1 and Y (-1, -Y)"
] | D | Cytogenetic examination of chromophobe RCC shows multiple and complex losses of chromosome Y, 1, 2, 6, 10, 13, 17, 21. Hypoploidy and various other chromosome losses (-1, -Y) are detectable in Chromophobe variant of Renal cell carcinoma. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 541; Renal Cancer By Stadler, Walter, 2011, Page 263; Sternberg's Diagnostic Surgical Pathology Review By Pier Luigi DiPatre, Darryl Caer, Stephen S. Sternberg, Page 205 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Westermark's sign, Hampton's hump, Palla's sign are all features of which condition on chest X-ray | [
"Tubercular pleural effusion",
"Pulmonary Embolism",
"Acute Pulmonary adema",
"Left ventricular failure"
] | B | A normal or nearly normal chest x-ray often occurs in PE. Well-established abnormalities include focal oligemia (Westermark's sign), a peripheral wedged-shaped density above the diaphragm (Hampton's hump), and an enlarged right descending pulmonary aery (Palla's sign).Harrison 19e pg: 1633 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Constrictions of esophagus when measured from upper incisors are present at? | [
"15 cm, 20 cm, 40 cm",
"15 cm, 25 cm, 40 cm",
"20 cm, 30 cm, 40 cm",
"30 cm, 40 cm. 60 cm"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) 15 on, 25 cm, 40 cmREF: P L Dhingra, 4th edition, page 64, Keith L. Moore 4th edition page 109Repeat from June 2010APPLIED ANATOMY OF OESOPHAGUS:It is a fibro muscular tube, about 25 cm long in an adult. It extends from the lower end of pharynx (C6) to the cardiac end of stomach (Til). It runs \Tertically but inclines to the left from its origin to thoracic inlet and again from T7 to oesophageal opening in the diaphragm. It shows three normal constrictions and it is important to know their location at oesophagoscopy. They are:At pharyngo-oesophageal junction (C6) - 15 cm from the upper incisors.At crossing of arch of aorta and left main bronchus (T 4) - 25 cm from upper incisors.Where it pierces the diaphragm (T 10) - 40 cm from upper incisors.(Foreign bodies in the oesophagus can be held up at these constrictions)Check star (*) in the following diagram | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which enzyme defect causes Tay Sach's disease? | [
"b glucosidase",
"a galactosidase",
"Hexosaminidase A",
"B galactosidase"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hexosaminidase ALipid storage disordersDisorderEnzyme defectGaucher's diseaseb glucosidaseNiemann Pick diseaseSphingomyelinaseFabry's diseasea galactosidaseGM1 gangliosidosisb galactosidaseGM2 gangliosidosisHexosaminidase ASandhoff s diseaseHexosaminidase A and BKrabbe's diseaseGalactosyl ceramidaseMetachromatic leukodystrophyAryl Sulfatase AFarber's diseaseCeramidaseWolman's diseaseAcid lipase | train | med_mcqa | null |
The radiograph of skull is suggestive of which of the following diagnosis ? | [
"Malignant melanoma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Langerhans cell histiocytosis"
] | C | Radiograph of a patient with sickle cell anemia showing a thickened diploic space and thinning of the skull cortex. Skull showing the hair-on end bone pattern. | train | med_mcqa | null |
all are true regarding toloso hunt syndrome except ? | [
"eye ball is in neutral position",
"initially medial squint is seen",
"intially lateral squint is seen",
"3,4,6 cranial nerves are damaged"
] | C | Tolosa-Hunt Syndrome * Retro-orbital pseudotumor extending to the cavernous sinus * Clinical triad -- Unilateral ophthalmoplegia -- Cranial nerve palsies -- Dramatic response to systemic coicosteroids * Usually unilateral but may be bilateral (5%) * Histopathology = low-grade nonspecific inflammatory process with lymphocytes and plasma cells * MR Imaging -- Enlarged cavernous sinus containing abnormal soft tissues that are isointense to muscle on T1-weighted images and dark or bright on T2-weighted images and display contrast enhancement with focal narrowing of the ICA ref : harrisons 21st ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 8-year-male progressive swelling upper end tibia - irregular, local temperature raised, variable consistency and ill defined margins: | [
"Giant cell tumor",
"Ewing's sarcoma",
"Osteogenic sarcoma",
"Secondary metastasis"
] | C | (c) Osteogenic sarcoma- The clinical presentation in question can occur both in Ewing's sarcoma and osteosarcoma.- History of trivial trauma- Progressive swelling- Raised local temperature- Variable consistency- Ill defined margins.- However, swelling is around the knee joint at upper end of tibia, which favors the diagnosis of osteosarcoma (metaphyseal lesion).- Ewing's sarcoma usually occurs in the diaphysis of the bone (middle of the shaft). | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Boiled cabbage' smell of urine is feature of? | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Hawkinsuria",
"Hypermethioninemia",
"Maple Syrup Urine Disease"
] | C | Ans. C. Hypermethioninemia. (Ref. Nelson Paediatrics 18th/pg. 539).HYPERMETHIONINEMIASecondary hypermethioninemia occurs in liver disease, tyrosinemia type I, and classic homocystinuria. Hypermethioninemia has also been found in infants receiving high-protein diets, in whom it may represent delayed maturation of the enzyme methionine adenosyl-transferase. Primary hypermethioninemia is caused by the deficiency of hepatic methionine adenosyltransferase. The majority of these patients have been diagnosed in the neonatal period through screening for homocystinuria. Affected individuals with residual enzyme activity remain asymptomatic throughout life despite persistent hypermethioninemia. Some complain of unusual odor to their breath and urine (boiled cabbage). A few patients with complete enzyme deficiency have had neurologic abnormalities related to demyelination (mental retardation, dystonia, dyspraxia). The gene for methionine adenosyltransferase is on chromosome 10q22. A novel defect, glycine N-methyltransferase deficiency, also causes isolated hypermethioninemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Topical steroid is contraindicated in which ocular condition - | [
"Anterior uveitis",
"Posterior uveitis",
"Fungal Corneal ulcer",
"Moorens ulcer"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fungal Corneal ulcer * Topical steroids enhance fungal replication and corneal invasion and are contraindicated during early therapy of a fungal corneal ulcer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gas gangrene can be caused by all Except | [
"Clostridium sporogenes",
"Clostridium bifermentans",
"Clostridium septicum",
"Clostridium difficile"
] | D | Clostridium difficile causes pseudomembranous colitisThe common causative organism is Clostridium perfringens, a spore-forming, Gram-positive saprophyte that flourishes in anaerobic conditions. Other organisms implicated in gas gangrene include C. bifermentans, C. septicum and C. sporogenes. Non-clostridial gas-producing organisms, such as coliforms, have also been isolated in 60-85 percent of cases of gas gangreneBailey and love 26e pg: 429 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The time interval between diagnosid by early detection of screening and diagnosis by other means is - | [
"Serial interval",
"Lead time",
"Time lag",
"Latent period"
] | B | .lead time is the advantage gained by screening.that is the period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means.the benefits are alwaysd evaluated in terms of outcomes..lead time is the advantage gained by screening.that is the period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means.the benefits are always evaluated in terms of outcomes. ref:park&;s textbook ,22 nd edition,pg no 131 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The location of the cell bodies of the only neurons in the retina whose axons exhibit a self-propagated action potential is in which of the following layer? | [
"Ganglion cell layer",
"Inner plexiform layer",
"Inner nuclear layer",
"Outer plexiform layer"
] | A | The only cell type in the retina that has long axons which exhibit a self-propagated action potential is the ganglion cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mother and newborn are exposed to a pathogen while at the hospital for a routine checkup and breastfeeding clinic. This same pathogen had infected the mother about a year previously, and she had successfully recovered from the subsequent illness. Immunity may be innate or acquired. Which of the following best describes acquired immunity with respect to the newborn? | [
"Complement cascade",
"Increase in C-reactive protein (CRP)",
"Inflammatory response",
"Maternal transfer of antibody"
] | D | Maternal transfer of antibody (secretory IgA in the colostrum of breast milk), however, is passive but still confers specific immunity. It is termed passive acquired immunity. Natural immunity is nonspecific. The natural immune functions described are not specific for a certain antigen. For example, certain proteins such as C-reactive protein (CRP) are acute-phase reactants. While elevated CRP is seen in infection, it is not disease specific. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The usefulness of a screening test in a community depends on its- | [
"Sensitivity",
"Specificity",
"Reliability",
"Predictive value"
] | A | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 139 An ideal screening test should have 100% sensitivity. Sensitivity is defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is "true positive" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Isolated rise in aPTT is seen in? | [
"Von Willibrand's disease",
"Factor 7 deficiency",
"Vitamin K deficiency",
"Anti phospholipid antibodies"
] | D | Isolated rise of APTT are seen in APTT measures the activity of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation CAUSES Lupus anti-coagulant (anti-phospholipid syndrome) Heparin exposure Haemophilia A and B (Factor VIII and IX deficiency respectively) Factor XII deficiency Factor XI deficiency Contact factor deficiency e.g. pre-kallikrein (not clinically impoant) Aefactual (incorrect amount of blood in the tube) Ref Robbins 9/e pg 54 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old woman is seen at an emergency room after she fractures the neck of her right femur during a minor fall. Radiologic studies demonstrate a generalized loss of bone mass. Exogenous therapy with which of the following hormones would have been most likely to slow or prevent the patient's bone disease? | [
"Coisol",
"Epinephrine",
"Estrogen",
"Thyroxine"
] | C | The disease is osteoporosis, and estrogen replacement in postmenopausal women appears to play an impoant role in preventing or limiting development of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Coisol excess, as in endogenous or exogenous Cushing's syndrome, is a contributing cause of osteoporosis. Epinephrine levels appear to be unrelated to osteoporosis. Thyroxine excess (e.g., in thyrotoxicosis) may contribute to bone loss in some cases of osteoporosis. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 16. Amenorrhea. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Testamentary capacity refers to : | [
"Ability to make a valid will",
"Criminal liability",
"Right to vote",
"Ability to give evidence"
] | A | A i.e. Ability to make valid will Testamentary capacity is the mental | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wilms tumor - most common presenting symptom | [
"Haematuria",
"Asymptomac abdominal mass",
"Abdominal pain",
"Headache"
] | B | Wilm's tumor (Nephroblastoma)
Most common malignant tumor of kidney,
80% of tumor present below 5 year of age.
Presentation
Asymptomac abdominal mass (M. C.).
Haematuria (10-25%).
Hypertension (25%).
Abdominal pain (30%).
Fever (20%). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cauliflower ear is seen in which of the following? | [
"Keloid",
"Perichondritis in boxers",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Anaplastic cell carcinoma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Perichondritis in boxers Hematoma of the auricle* It is the collection of blood between the auricular cartilage and its perichondrium.* It usually occurs due to blunt trauma and often seen in boxers, wrestlers and rugby players, therefore it is also called Boxer's ear.* Extravasated blood may clot and then organize, resulting in typical deformity called, cauliflower ear. If hematoma gets infected, severe perichondritis may set in. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old G4P3 at 18 weeks presents with sequential screening( Dual and then triple marker screening) of 1:170 for Down syndrome. You should do which of the following? | [
"Offer CVS",
"Advise her the risk is quite small for aneuploidy",
"Perform a targeted ultrasound",
"Offer genetic counseling and perform Amniocentesis"
] | D | At age 35 should the patient should be offered genetic counseling and Amniocentesis. CVS is not appropriate at 18 weeks' gestation If required; the invasive test of choice here is Amniocentesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Rheumatoid ahritis, which type of cells are prominently present ? | [
"B cells",
"T cells",
"Macrophages",
"Dendritic cells"
] | B | * Synol lining or intimal layer: Normally, this layer is only 1-3 cells thick. In RA, this lining is greatly hyperophied (8-10 cells thick). * Primary cell populations in this layer are fibroblasts and macrophages REF : MAHESHWARI 9TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the maximum amount of compensation that can be granted by the state commission under the Consumer's Protection Act? | [
"20 lakh rupees",
"50 lakh rupees",
"1 crore rupees",
"2 crore rupees"
] | C | A complaint against the medical profession can be filed in the consumer cou. These cous can only give compensation. The monetary limits of the compensation that can be granted by the consumer cous are as follows: (a) District Consumer Cou- upto Rs. 20 lacs (b) State Commission- Rs. 20 lacs to Rs. 1 crore; and (c) National Commission - above Rs. 1crore. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 643. Chapter: Medicine and social sciences. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protozoa associated with Megaesophagus, Megacolon, Romanas sign, chagoma: | [
"Trypanosome",
"Amoeba",
"Giardia",
"Gnathostoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trypanosoma(Ref: Chatterjee, 12th/e, p. 52)* Megaesophagus and Megacolon occur as complications of Chronic Chagas disease.* T. cruzi causes Chagas disease (Romana sign, chagoma) also seen.* ECG changes like sinus tachycardia, increased PR interval, T wave changes and low QRS voltage, Myocarditis occurs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fluoride released from fluoroacetate inhibits which metabolic pathway? | [
"ETC",
"TCA Cycle",
"Oxidative phosphorylation",
"Glycolytic pathway"
] | B | Fluoroacetate is toxic because fluoroacetyl co A condenses with oxaloacetate to form fluorocitrate,which inhibits aconitase,causing citrate to accumulate. Other inhibitors of citric acid cycle-Malonate,Arsenite. Enolase requires Mg++, and by removing magnesium ions,fluoride will reversibly inhibits this enzyme.Thus,fluoride will stop the glycolysis. So when blood for sugar estimation,fluoride is added to blood.If not,glucose is metabolized by the blood cells,so that lower blood glucose values are obtained. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry,30th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would be - | [
"Crohns disease",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"TB",
"Cancer colon"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spherical theory is proposed by | [
"Bonwill",
"Monson",
"Hall",
"Hanau"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Factor responsible for Cardiac Hyperophly is? | [
"ANF",
"TNF alpha",
"c-myc",
"TGF beta"
] | C | Myc (c-Myc) is a regulator gene that codes for a transcription factor. The protein encoded by this gene is a multifunctional, nuclear phosphoprotein that plays a role in cell cycle progression, apoptosis and cellular transformation. A mutated version of Myc is found in many cancers, which causes Myc to be constitutively (persistently) expressed. This leads to the unregulated expression of many genes, some of which are involved in cell proliferation Robbins 9 th edition page no. 367 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Girl 2 yrs coming with bosselated erythematous lesion on right cheek, what is treatment of choice? | [
"Pulse dye laser",
"NdYAG",
"CO2 / Yetterium",
"Switched ruby laser"
] | A | The diagnosis is Po wine stain of sturges weber syndrome and the answer is Pulse dye laser (PDL). Table 24.13 Laser types and selective absorption Laser Wave length (nm) Specific* Application Er: YAG 294 Water Skin resurfacing PDL 585 Hb Vascular lesions Nd: YAG Long pulse 595-600 Hb, Melanin Leg veins Long pulse 694 Hair removal Nd:YAG 1064 Hb Deep vascular Q-switched YAG 1064 Pigment Tattoo removal CO2 10600 Water Coagulation/ resurfacing | train | med_mcqa | null |
Benign Prostatic hyperophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the: | [
"Entire prostate gland",
"Lateral lobes",
"Median lobe",
"Posterior lobes"
] | C | Median lobe of prostate is prone to development of BPH. Posterior lobe of prostate is prone to development of malignancy. Ref: Snell's Clinical Anatomy, 7th Edition, Page 381 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti–TNF alpha drugs are used for the treatment of all of following diseases EXCEPT : | [
"Systemic lupus erythematosis",
"Seronegative arthritis",
"Psoriatic arthritis",
"Crohn's disease"
] | A | There is already under-expression of TNF-α in SLE, therefore we cannot use anti-TNF drugs for this condition. It is further strengthened by the fact that anti-TNF alpha drugs like infliximab cause SLE as the adverse effect.
Indications for TNF-α inhibitors
Rheumatoid arthritis
Juvenile arthritis
Psoriatic arthritis
Psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Crohn's disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of these amino acids does not have an anomeric carbon atom | [
"Valine",
"Alanine",
"Tyrosine",
"Glycine"
] | D | The term `Anomeric' carbon is used for a carbon atom in carbohydrates (Amino acids do not have anomeric carbon atom).
Formation of ring structure in carbohydrates (glucose and fructose) results in the creation of an additional asymmetric carbon, called anomeric carbon. This is responsible for a-and 13-anomerism.
However, if the question is repeated as such, go ahead with glycine because it does not contain asymmetric carbon (anomeric carbon atom is asymmetric carbon atom). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In retinoscopy with plane mirror at 1 meter distance, if retinal glow moves in opposite direction of the mirror, the person has myopia of | [
"< 1 D",
"ID",
">1D",
">2D"
] | C | Ans. c (> 1 D) (Ref. Khurana Ophthalmology 2nd/pg. 67; Parsons' Diseases of the Eye 20lh/pg. 63).Under the actual conditions of retinosopy at 1 m distance with a plane mirror, when the mirror is titled towards the right side, the immediate source of light moves to the left, and1. in the hypermetropic eye, the circle of light on the fundus moves to the right and the shadow seen in the pupil moves to the right in the same direction as the mirror;2. in the myopic eye (above-1 D) the circle of light on the fundus moves to the right, and the luminous reflex of the fundus seen in the patients's pupil and the shadow seen in the pupil moves against this to the left; in the opposite direction to the mirror'3. in the myopic eye of-l D there is no shadow and the pupil is uniformly illuminated;4. in emmetropic and myopic of less than -1 D there is a very faint shadow moving to the rightMYOPIA (SHORTSIGHTEDNESS)# A discrepancy between the refractive power and axial length of the eye such that parallel incident light rays converge at a focal point anterior to the retina# Whereas parallel incident light rays converge at a focal point on the retina in emmetropic eyes, they converge at a focal point anterior to the retina in myopic eyes. This means that no sharply defined images appear on the retina when the patient gazes into the distance.# The myopic eye can only produce sharply defined images of close objects from which the light rays diverge until they enter the eye.# The far point moves closer; in myopia of -1 diopter it lies at a distance of 1 m.# In myopia, the far point (distance from the eye = A) can be calculated using the formula: A (m) = 1/D, where D is myopia in diopters.# Possible causes include an excessively long globe with normal refractive power (axial myopia) and, less frequently, excessive refractive power in a normal-length globe (refractive myopia).# A difference in globe length of 1 mm with respect to a normal eye corresponds to a difference of about 3 diopters in refractive power. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a case of hypeensive uveitis, most useful drug to reduce intraocular pressure is : | [
"Pilocarpine",
"Latanosprost",
"Physostigmine",
"Dipivefrine"
] | D | D i.e. Dipivefrine | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following comments about cystic fibrosis (CF) are true except: | [
"it can cause diarrhea",
"Staphylococcus aureus, Hemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are common causes of respiratory infections.",
"A low concentration of sodium or chloride in sweat is diagnostic of CF.",
"Rhinosinustis is a common finding in CF."
] | C | CF an autosomal recessive disorder. Approximately 50% will survive to the age of 25. In 1989, the CF gene was found to be located on the long arm of chromosome 7, The CF protein is called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulatory protein (CFTR). The most common mutation is the three-base deletion removing a phenylalanine residue at position 508 of CFTR, called the F508 mutation. The basic defect is due to a defect in chloride permeability, which can result in the accumulation of mucus and can lead to stasis and obstruction. Both the upper and lower airways can be involved, and they can lead to frequent bronchial infections predominated early by Staphylococcus aureus and Hemophilus influenzae and in late disease by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The diagnosis is usually made by the sweat test performed by quantitative pilocarpine iontophoresis. CF diagnosis is confirmed by an elevated sweat chloride concentration greater than 60 mEq/L. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actinobacillus actinomycetam comitans is | [
"Gram positive aerobe",
"Gram negative aerobe",
"Obligate anaerobe",
"Facultative anaerobe"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An example of chronic myeloproliferative disorder is - | [
"Neutrophilic leukaemoid reaction",
"Essential thrombocythaemia",
"Plasmacytosis",
"Hairy cell leukaemia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In open-angle glaucoma investigation least done is | [
"Indirect ophthalmoscopy",
"Tonometry",
"Direct ophthalmoscopy",
"Perimetry"
] | A | Investigations to be done in open-angle glaucoma are :Slit lamp examinationTonometryGonioscopyDirect ophthalmoscopyPerimetry | train | med_mcqa | null |
Origin of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma is from:- | [
"Germinal centre T cell",
"Germinal centre B cell",
"Post germinal centre B cell",
"Pre germinal centre B cell"
] | C | Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (Waldenstrom Macroglobinemia) : B cell lymphoma that exhibit plasmocytic differentiation, clinical symptoms dominated by hyperviscosity related to high level of tumor derived IgM. Origin:- Post geminal Centre B cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resolution of physiological umbilical hernia occurs at which week of gestation ? | [
"6 weeks",
"8 weeks",
"10 weeks",
"12 weeks"
] | C | As the amniotic cavity grows it pushes into the chorionic cavity to obliterate it and the fusion of the amnion and chorion takes place.The amnion then surrounds the amniotic cavity except at the region of umbilical ring,where it is reflected onto the connecting stalk and yolk sac.the primitive umbilical cord arises from the connecting stalk and yolk sac together.Proximally the primitive cord contains some loops of intestine and the allantois.This is the physiological omphalocele, which disappears by the end of 3 rd month. Ref : TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS,SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN,PG NO:62,2 nd edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cold caloric test stimulates: | [
"Cochlea",
"Lateral semicircular canal",
"Posterior semicircular canal",
"All the above"
] | B | In Caloric test we induce nystagmus by thermal stimulation of the peripheral vestibular system. Caloric test stimulates the lateral semicircular canal, the bulge of which is present on the medial wall of middle ear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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