question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
All are true about hepatic adenoma except - | [
"Seen in young females",
"Abdominal pain",
"OCP usage is a risk factor",
"Usually multiple"
] | D | Hepatic adenoma are seen in young females around 40 years of age. Abdominal pain is the presenting symptom. They are usually single. Treatment is by embolization of artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Etanercept is a biological disease modifying agent used in the management of rheumatoid ahritis. its mechanism of action is | [
"TNF alpha blocked",
"COX2 inhibition",
"IL 6 inhibition",
"Stabilization of mast cells"
] | A | TNF alpha blocking drugs are used in Rheumatoid ahritis and crohn's disease. these include adalimumab ceolizumab etanercept infliximab golimumab Refer kDT 6/e 883 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a cause of acute pancreatitis ? | [
"Hypercalcemia",
"Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura",
"Cystic fibrosis",
"Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) Causes of Acute Pancreatitis Common causes Gallstones (including microlithiasis) - most common Hyperiglyceridemia Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), especially after biliary manometry. Trauma (especially blunt abdominal trauma) Postooperative (abdominal and nonabdominal operation) Drugs (L-asparginase, thiazide diuretics, frusomide, estrogens, azathioprime, 6-mercaptopurine, methyldopa, sulfonamide, tetracyclin, valproic acid, anti-HIV medicacations) Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction Uncommon causes Vascular causes and vasculitis (ischemic-hypoperfusion states after cardiac surgery) Connective tissue disorders and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) Cancer of the pancreas Hypercalcemia Periampullary diveiculum Pancreas divisum Hereditary pancreatitis Cystic fibrosis Renal failure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Examination of a patient shows abducens nerve paresis, ipsilateral facial nerve paresis and contralateral hemiparesis. What is the MOST likely diagnosis in this patient? | [
"Foville's syndrome",
"Raymond's syndrome",
"Millard Gubler syndrome",
"None of the above"
] | C | In patients with Millard Gubler syndrome, the lesion is in the ventral pa of the brainstem and involves the sixth nerve, facial nerve and the pyramidal tract. This results in ipsilateral abducens and facial nerve paresis and contralateral hemiparesis. In Raymond's syndrome the lesion involves only the sixth cranial nerve and the pyramidal tract. Thus patients presents with sixth nerve paresis and contralateral hemiparesis. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology edited by Sunita Agarwal,page 342. | train | med_mcqa | null |
a 30 yr old paraplegic male has a long history of UTI secondary to an indwelling foley catheter.he develops fever and hypotension requiring hospitalization, fluid therapy and intravenous antibiotics.he improves but over 1 week becomes increasingly shoness of breath and tachypneic.he develops frothy sputum ,diffuse alveolar infiltrates there is no fever jugular venous destention ,s3 gallop or peripheral or sacral edema.the best prognosis is ? | [
"blood cultures",
"CT SCAN of the chest",
"pulmonary capillary wedge pressure",
"ventilation perfusion scan"
] | C | DEFINITION * Pulmonary embolism is the blockage of 1 pulmonary aeries by thrombus,fat or air emboli and tumour tissue. * It is the most common complication in hospitalised patients. * An embolus is a clot or plug that is carried by the bloodstream from its point of origin to a smaller blood vessel, where it obstructs circulation. ETIOLOGY AND RISK FACTORS * Viually all pulmonary embolisms develop from thrombi(clots),most of which originate in the deep calf,femoral,popliteal,or iliac veins. * Other sources of emboli include tumours, fat, air, bone marrow, amniotic fluid, septic thrombi, and vegetations on hea valves that develop with endocarditis. * Major operations ,especially hip, knee, abdominal and extensive pelvic procedures predispose the client to thrombus formation because of reduced flow of blood through pelvis. * Travelling in cramped quaers for a long time or sitting for long periods is also associated with stasis and clotting of blood. The best treatment for a pulmonary embolus is prevention. Minimizing the risk of deep vein thrombosis is key in preventing a potentially fatal illness. The initial decision is whether the patient requires hospitalization. Recent studies suggest that those patients with a small pulmonary embolus, who are hemodynamically stable (normal vital signs) may be treated at home with close outpatient care. ref : harrisons 21st ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum score for Mini-Mental Status Examination of Folstein is | [
"30 points",
"24 points",
"20 points",
"9 points"
] | A | (A) 30 points > MINI-MENTAL STATE EXAMINATION (MMSE) OR FOLSTEIN TEST is a brief 30-point questionnaire test that is used to screen for cognitive impairment. It is commonly used in medicine to screen for dementia. It is also used to estimate the severity of cognitive impairment at a given point in time and to follow the course of cognitive changes in an individual over time, thus making it an effective way to document an individual's response to treatment.CATEGORYPOSSIBLE POINTSDESCRIPTIONOrientation to time5From broadest to most narrow. Orientation to time has been correlated with future declineOrientation to place5From broadest to most narrow. This is sometimes narrowed down to streets, and sometimes to floor.Registration3Repeating named promptsAttention and calculation5Serial sevens, or spelling "world" backwardsIt has been suggested that serial sevens may be more appropriate in a population where English is not the first language.Recall3Registration recallLanguage2Name a pencil and a watchRepetition1Speaking back a phraseComplex commands6Varies> Interpretation: Any score greater than or equal to 25 points (out of 30) is effectively normal (intact). Below this, scores can indicate severe (=9 points), moderate (10-20 points) or mild (21-24 points). The raw score may also need to be corrected for educational attainment and age. Low to very low scores correlate closely with the presence of dementia, although other mental disorders can also lead to abnormal findings on MMSE testing. The presence of purely physical problems can also interfere with interpretation if not properly noted; for example, a patient may be physically unable to hear or read instructions properly, or nay have a motor deficit that affects writing and drawing skills | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old female nonsmoker is admitted with a 5-wk history of intermittent hemoptysis. She denies any sputum production, fever, or repeated infections. There is no history of contact with TB. On physical examination, the patient is afebrile; she has dullness on percussion and decreased breath sounds in the LLL zone posteriorly. CV exam is normal. PPD is 4-mm induration. Bronchoscopy shows a polypoid lesion paially obstructing the left lower lobe orifice. This lesion bled easily during the procedure. Bronchial washings are negative for malignancy and the biopsy is pending. Chest x-ray is shown below.What is the radiological diagnosis? | [
"LLL pneumonia",
"LLL atelectasis",
"Pneumothorax",
"Pleural effusion"
] | B | This x-ray shows a classical "sail sign," i.e., a double density seen in the retrocardiac area. This opacity has a homogeneous pattern with no air bronchograms. The left cardiac silhouette is clear. This is left lower lobe collapse/atelectasis. The presence of a polypoid lesion obstructing the left lower lobe orifice is the cause of the left lower lobe atelectasis seen on the x-ray. The absence of air bronchograms is evidence against pneumonia, and failure to see the visceral pleural line with a collapsed lung rules out pneumothorax. There is no evidence of pleural disease and no pleural effusion is seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3-week-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents, who report that he vomits forcefully immediately after nursing. Physical examination reveals an "olive-like" palpable mass and visible peristaltic movements within the infant's abdomen. What is the most likely cause of projectile vomiting in this infant? | [
"Appendicitis",
"Congenital pyloric stenosis",
"Hirschsprung disease",
"Meconium ileus"
] | B | Congenital pyloric stenosis is a concentric enlargement of the pyloric canal that obstructs the outlet of the stomach. The disorder is the most common indication for abdominal surgery in the first 6 months of life. Congenital pyloric stenosis has a familial tendency, and the condition is more common in identical twins than in fraternal ones. The only consistent microscopic abnormality is hypertrophy of the circular muscle coat. Projectile vomiting is not characteristic of the other choices, particularly in neonates.Diagnosis: Congenital pyloric stenosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The autoclave method of sterilization: September 2004 | [
"Is performed under atmospheric pressure",
"Raising temperature to 120degC",
"Utilizes dry heat",
"All of the above"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Raising temperature to 120degC | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pearson formula is used for calculating | [
"Cephalic index",
"Stature",
"Race",
"Age"
] | B | karl Pearson formula for reconstruction of stature from dried long bones. Male female Stature 81.306 + 1.880F 72.884 + 1.945F Stature 70.641 + 2.894H 71.475 + 2.754 H Stature 78.664 + 2.376T 74.774 + 2.353T Stature 89.925 + 3.271R 81.224 + 3.343R F is femur, H is humerus, T is tibia, R is radius. The measurements are in centimeters. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE NO 96 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common form of fetal traumatic injury incurred during extraction is | [
"Rupture of liver",
"Rupture of spleen",
"Intraadrenal hemorrhage",
"Intracranial hemorrhage"
] | D | The most frequent single cause of death in breech presentation is intracranial hemorrhage due to tentorial tears, these tears are the result of sudden excessive pressure on the after coming head and may be aptly described as the snapping of the internal greyropes of the cranium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amelobtastoma is best managed by: | [
"Chemotherapy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Gene therapy",
"Surgical excision"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Synonym for Hailey Hailey disease is: | [
"Cicatricial pemphigoid.",
"Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid.",
"Familial benign pemphigus.",
"Paraneoplastic pemphigus"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tinea cruris is caused by - | [
"Tricophyton rubrum",
"M.Can is",
"T.verrucosum",
"T.tonsurans"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Tricophyton rubrum Some clinical features of dermatophyte infectionSkin diseaseLocation of lesionsClinical featuresFungi most Frequently ResponsibleTinea corpus ringwormNonhairy, smooth skinCircular patches with advancing red. vesiculated border and central scaling, pruritic.T. rubrum, E. floccosumTinea pedis (athlete's foot)Interdigitai spaces on feet of person wearing shoes.Acute: itching, red vesicular. Chronic; itching, scaling, fissuresT. rubrum, T mentogrophytes E.floccosumTinea cruris (jock itch)GroinErythematous scaling lesion in intertriginous area. Pruritic.T. rubrum. T.mentogrophytes, E. floccosumTinea capitisScalp hair, Endothrix: fungus inside hair shaft Ectothrix fungus on surface of hairCircular bald patches with short hair stubs or broken hair within hair follicles. Kerionrare. Microsporum-infected hairs fluoresce.T mentogrophytes, M canisTinea barbaeBeard hairEdematous, erythematous lesionT.mentagrophytesTinea unguium (onychomycosis)NailNails thickened or crumbling distally; discolored; lusterless, usually associated with tinea pedis.T. rubrum, T mentagrophytes. E floccosumDermatophytid (id reaction)Usually sides and flexor aspects of fingers, palm Any site on body.Pruritic vesicular to bullous lesions Most commonly associated with tinea pedis.No fungi presents in lesion. May- become secondarily infected with bacteria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Manifestation of epidemic Dropsy are all except - | [
"Gastrointestinal bleed",
"Cutaneous hemangiomas",
"Breathlessness",
"C HF"
] | A | The symptoms of epidemic dropsy are sudden non inflammatory bilateral swelling of legs with diarrhoea,dyspnoea cardiac failure glaucoma, and even deathREF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-608. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A previously healthy infant presents with recurrent episode of abdominal pain. The mother says that the child has been passing altered stool after episodes of pain, but gives no history of vomiting or bleeding per rectum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Rectal Polys",
"Intussuception",
"Meckel's Diveiculum",
"Necrotizing Enterocolitis"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e., Intussuception o The infant in question has: (i) Recurrent episodes of abdominal pain (ii) Passing of altered stools after episodes of pain (iii) No vomiting or bleeding per rectum. o Most common presentation of rectal polyps and Meckel's diveiculum is painless rectal bleeding (option a & c are ruled out) o Necrotizing enterocolitis is seen in premature infants and is manifested in neonatal period. Symptoms progress from abdominal distension, vomiting, lethargy, poor feeding to passage of grossly bloody stool and features of shock (option d is excluded) o Now we are left with intussusception. Most common presentation is recurrent abdominal pain (Paroxysmal clocky pain ofter severe). o The absence of history of bleeding per rectum is creating some confusion here. o However, altered stool should raise the suspician of intussuception because intussuception typically present with "current jelly stool" (altered stool) representing a mixture of blood, mucus and stool. o So, amongst the given options, best answer is intussusception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vaccines is Contraindicated during pregnancy? | [
"Hepatitis B vaccine",
"Varicella vaccine",
"Influenza vaccine",
"Tetanus toxoid"
] | B | Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy.Some examples of live attenuated : Viral: MMR vaccine, chicken pox vaccine, smallpox vaccine, oral polio vaccine (Sabin), rotavirus vaccine, and yellow fever vaccine.Bacterial: BCG vaccine,typhoid vaccineNote: Recently live attenuated influenza vaccine came into use, given as nasal spray. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Localised shrinkage porosity is seen when there is | [
"Thin sprue",
"Investment heated strongly",
"Inadequate air discharge",
"Low casting pressure"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about Rhythm method is false? | [
"Anencephaly is a repoed complication of calender method",
"It is associated with no costs",
"Safe period can also be observed using temperature rhythm or mucous method",
"Abstinence is needed for about 7-10 days"
] | A | Anencephaly is not a repoed complication of calender method. The calender method or rhythm method: By this method, couple is advised avoidance of sexual intercourse around ovulation. In a 28-day cycle, ovulation normally occurs on the 14th day of the cycle, but may occur anytime between the 12th and 16th day. Spermatozoa deposited in the female genital tract may survive for 24 hrs. The ovum itself may live for 12-24 hrs. Hence intercourse between the 11th and 17th day may result in a pregnancy. The safe period is, therefore calculated from the first day of the menstrual period untill the 10th day of cycle and from the 18th and 28th day. An alternative method is to calculate the risk period, which is from 3 days before ovulation to 3 days after ovulation. In a 35-day menstrual cycle, therefore, ovulation will occur on the 21st day (that is 14 days before the nexe period) so that the risk period is from day 18 to day 24 Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology 17th edition Pgno: 253 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a coicosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Erythema annulare centrifugum",
"Granuloma annulare",
"Annular lichen planus",
"Tinea cruris"
] | D | Tinea cruris is dermatophytic infection of groin. Presence of bilateral annular scaly plaques in the groin, itching and unresponsiveness to steroids and peripheral extension leads to diagnosis of Tinea cruris. Ref: Anthony Du Vivier, Phillip H. McKee, Chapter 15, "Superficial Fungal Infections", In the book, "Atlas of Clinical Dermatology", Elsivier Publication, 2002, 3rd Edition, Spain, Page 320 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structure superficial to flexor retinaculum - | [
"FDS",
"FPL",
"Ulnar artery",
"Median nerve"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ulnar artery Structures deep to flexor retinaculumLateral compartment: Flexor carpi radialis tendon with its synovial sheath lodged in the groove on the palmar surface of trapezium.Medial compartment: (carpal tunnel proper).Median nerv eFlexor pollicis longus with its synovial sheath (radial bursa)4 tendons each of flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus enclosed by common flexor synovial sheath (ulnar bursa).Structures superficially to flexor retinaculumPalmaris longus tendon continuous with apex of palmar aponeurosis.Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerv e.Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve.Ulnar nerve.ulnar vessels protected superficially by volar carpal ligament (superficial part of the flexor retinaculum). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following causes increased intraocular pressure : | [
"Thiopentone",
"Althesin",
"Ketamine",
"Barbiturate"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 15-year-old boy presented with 1 day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed: Hb 6.4 gm/dl; TLC-26,500/mm3; prothrombin time-20 sec with a control of 13 sec; paial thromboplastin time-50 sec; and fibrinogen 10 mg/dl. Peripheral smear was suggestive of acute myeloblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most likely? | [
"Myeloblastic leukemia without maturation",
"Myeloblastic leukemia with maturation",
"Promyelocytic leukemia",
"Myelomonocytic leukemia"
] | C | - This patient has complaints of bleeding along with thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen & increased PT & APTT. - These features are consistent with DIC. - DIC is most commonly associated with M3 subtype of AML= APML | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for dysphagia for solids | [
"Endoscopy",
"X-ray chest",
"C.T. Scan",
"Barium swallow"
] | A | History A detailed history is of paramount impoance. Asceain, if dysphagia is of: (a) Sudden onset: Foreign body or impaction of food on a pre-existing stricture or malignancy, neurological disorders. (b) Progressive: Malignancy. (c) Intermittent: Spasms or spasmodic episodes over an organic lesion. (d) More to liquids: Paralytic lesions. (e) More to solids and progressing even to liquids: Malignancy or stricture. (f) Intolerance to acid food or fruit juices: Ulcerative lesions. Oesophagoscopy(Endoscopic) It gives direct examination of oesophageal mucosa and permits biopsy specimens. Flexible fibreoptic or rigid scopes can be used. Ref : ENT textbook by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 347,348 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about Herniotomy | [
"Done in congenital inguinal hernia case",
"Contents are reduced and sac is closed but defect is left without serturing",
"Less recurrence rate",
"Can also be done ib congenital hydrocode."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following not is true regarding choriocarcinoma ? | [
"Aggressive malignancy",
"Raised HCG levels",
"Common below 20 years of age",
"Gonadal type is chemosensitive"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Gonadal type is chemosensitiveChoriocarcinoma o Choriocarcinoma may be :-i) Placental (more common) :- Arise in placentaii) Gonadal :- Arise in gonads (testis or ovary)o Choriocarcinoma occurs in first three decades of life.o Gonadal choriocarcinoma is highly malignant form of gonadal tumor and metastatizes early and widely.o All choriocarcinomas elaborate high level of HCGS which is sometimes helpful in establishing the diagnosis or detecting recurrences.o In contrast to choriocarcinomas arising in placental tissue, those arising in gonads are generally unresponsive to chemotherapy and are often fatal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is - | [
"p24 antigen assay",
"ELISA",
"Western blot",
"Lymph node biopsy"
] | A | The p24 antigen can be detected during window period, during which antibodies are not demonstrated in the serum. So, used for early detection. The p24 antigen appears within 2 weeks (average 16 days) after infection. So, it is the best investigation to rule out HIV among the options given above. Note: Nucleic acid test (NAT) is the earliest test to become positive, (even before p-24 antigen detection) Test Average period after infection when test becomes positive Nucleic acid test p24 antigen test Antibodies test 12 days 16 days 22 days Western blot: It detects the HIV antibodies. A lymph node biopsy can confirm a diagnosis of AIDS-related lymphoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tobey-Ayer test and Croue-Beck test are used for- | [
"Lateral sinus thrombosis",
"Petrositis",
"Cerebral abscess",
"Subarachnoid hemorrage"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral sinus thrombosis Lateral sinus thrombosis (sigmoid sinus thrombosis)o Lateral or sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis arises from inflammation in the adjacent mastoid. It may occur as a complication of: -Acute coalescent mastoiditisCSOM and cholesteatomaClinical featureso Hectic Picket-Fence type of fever with rigor.o Headache, Progressive anemia and emaciation.o Griesinger's sign :- odema over the posterior part of mastoid due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veins. o Papilloedemao Tobey-Ayer test:- Compression of vein on the thrombosed side produces no effect while compression of vein on healthy side produces rapid rise in CSF pressure which will be equal to bilateral compression of jugular veins.o Crowe-Beck test:- Pressure on jugular vein of healthy side produces engorgement of retinal veins. Pressure on affected side does not produce such change.o Tenderness along jugular veinImaging studieso Contrast-enhanced CT scan can show sinus thrombosis by typical delta-sign. It is a triangular area with rim enhancement, and central low density area is seen in posterior cranial fossa on axial cuts.o Delta-sign may also be seen on contrast enhanced MRI. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS (Spinal cord): | [
"Glutamic acid",
"Glycine",
"Histidine",
"GABA"
] | B | Glutamate—excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS.
Glycine— Inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS. Causes hyperpolarization by increasing chloride ion conductance.
GABA— Inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disciplinary control, over Registered Medical Practitioners is under - | [
"State Medical Council",
"Indian Medical Council",
"Director of Medical and Health Services",
"Health secretary of State Government"
] | A | Disciplinary control over professional misconduct is primarily maintained by. SMC (State Medical Council). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is catalase positive? (Repeat) | [
"Staph epidermidis",
"Enterococcus",
"Streptococcus",
"Pneumococcus"
] | A | Ans: A (Staph epidermidis) Ref: Ananthanarayan, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg. 52, 159Explanation:Catalase test:When a bacterial colony is placed in hy drogen peroxide, if it produces catalase enzyme there will be prompt effervescence.Catalase positive organisms:Staphylococcus aureusCoagulase negative staphylococci such asS. epidermidisMicrococciPseudomonasCandidaColiformsdeg Citrobacter, Enterobacter. E.coli, Klebsiella (which are all lactose +)deg Shigella. Yersinia, Proteus and Salmonella (which are all lactose -)deg Serratia (a slow lactose fermenter)Although Shigella dysenteriae type 1 is a coliform, it is catalase negative.Streptococcus, pneumococcus and enterococcus are catalase negative.In patients with chronic granulomatous disease, a familial condition with disorder of phagocytosis, recurrent infections due to catalase positive organisms are more common as the leucocytes are unable to kill catalase positive bacteria following phagocytosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of sphenoid sinus in adult population is usually: | [
"Sellar",
"Post seller",
"Pre seller",
"Maximal Pneumatization"
] | A | The types of the sphenoid sinus can be classified in three groups in the adult: I. conchal, II. presellar, and III sellar types, depending on the extent to which the sphenoid bone is pneumatized.
In the conchal type, the area below the sella is a solid block of bone without an air cavity.
In the presellar type, the sphenoid sinus has moderate air cavity with no sellar indentation.
In the sellar type, which is the most common, the corpus of the sphenoid is well pneumatized with full indentation of the sella into the sinus and extends posteriorly until the clivus
The conchal type is most common in children and infrequent in the adult (Rhoton). | train | med_mcqa | null |
NORWEGIAN APPLIANCE is? | [
"Bionator",
"Activator",
"Frankel",
"Twin block"
] | B | Other names of activator
Norwegian appliance
Functional jaw orthopedics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudo ligature marks are seen in all the following conditions except | [
"Ligature strangulation",
"Obese persons",
"Infants",
"Tight jewellery"
] | A | Pseudo ligature marks : Skin folds in infants and obese persons Jewellery or clothing after decomposition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adson&;s test is positive in - | [
"Cervical rib",
"Cervical spondylosis",
"Cervical fracture",
"Cervical dislocation"
] | A | Adson&;s test is a provocative test for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome accompanied by compression of the Subclan aery by a cervical rib or tightened anterior and middle scalene muscles. Ref : Bailey and love surgery text book 27th Ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a diabetic patient being treated with an oral hypoglycemic agent, develops dilutional hyponatremia-which one of the following could be responsible for this effect - | [
"Chlorpropamide",
"Tolazamide",
"Glyburide",
"Glimepiride"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chlorpropamide o Cholorpropamide causes cholestasis, dilutional hyponatremia, intolerance to alcohol (disulfiram like reaction). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hurthle cells are characteristically seen in which of the following thyroid disease? | [
"Hashimoto's thyroiditis",
"Graves' disease",
"de Quervain's thyroiditis",
"Subacute lymphocytic"
] | A | (A) Hashimoto's thyroiditis Robbins8 - 1112, 1113; Robbins7 - 1169]# Hurthle cell is a cell in the thyroid that is often associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis as well as follicular thyroid cancer Histology: Hurthle cells are characterized as enlarged epithelial cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm as a result of altered mitochondria. They generally stain pink and are prominently found in histological sections of thyroid glands affected with Hashimoto's. Clinical significance: A Hurthle cell adenoma is a type of thyroid benign tumor that, in rare cases, has the potential to become malignant and metastasize (Hurthle cell carcinoma). Hurthle cells are also found in Hashimoto's thyroiditis and toxic and nontoxic nodular goiter. Hurthle cells are hypothesized to be of follicular epithelial origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shoest acting benzodiazepine is | [
"Flurazepam",
"Alprazolam",
"Triazolam",
"Diazepam"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Triazolam | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin that participates as a coenzyme incarboxylation reactions of gluconeogenesis, fatty acid synthesis | [
"Biotin",
"Vitamin B7",
"Anti egg white injury factor",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to | [
"Breast",
"Melanoma",
"Thyroid",
"Lung"
] | C | Ans. (c) ThyroidRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /109* The most radio-sensitive organ sites in children in the order of sensitivity are thyroid, breasts, bone marrow and brain.* Exposure to ionizing radiation in first 2 decades predisposes a person for development of papillary CA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12-year-old intellectually disabled boy having short stature, protuberant abdomen with umbilical hernia, prominent forehead. His vision is normal. His parents are normal. What is metabolic defect in this disorder? | [
"L-Iduronidase",
"Iduronate Sulfhatase",
"Aryl Sulfatase B",
"Beta Glucoronidase"
] | B | Ans. B. Iduronate Sulfatase* Hunters Disease (MPS-II)* Distinguishing features are vision normal as there is no corneal clouding. Males are affected | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding SA-14-14-2 Japanese Encephalitis vaccine - | [
"Cell culture derived live attenuated",
"Killed vaccine",
"Life long immunity",
"Primary schedule consist of 2 doses"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cell culture derived live attenuated | train | med_mcqa | null |
During intubation of a child, type of endotracheal tube and blade of laryngoscope is - | [
"Uncuffed tube with curved blade",
"Uncuffed tube with straight blade",
"bladeCuffed tube with straight blade",
"Cuffed tube with curved blade"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uncuffed tube with straight blade o During intubation of a child the endotracheal tube should be uncuffed and straight. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rope mistaken for a snake, is an example of - | [
"Illusion",
"Delusion",
"Hallucination",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Illusion Illusiono Illusions are altered perception in which a real external object is combined with imagery to produce false internal percept. In simple words, illusion is misinterpretation of an actual sensory input. For example:-i) Mistaking a stick or rope for snake in dark room:- Stick is a real external object, which is perceived falsely as snake.ii) Hearing once name in a train whistle:- Train whistle is a real external stimulus, which is perceived as once name (false internal percept).In illusion:-i) Sensory input is in external atmosphere.ii) Percept is in internal atmosphere (inner subjective space, i.e., inside the mind)o Illusions are most commonly seen in delirium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Persons with intermittent explosive disorder generally display all of the following except? | [
"Aggressive outbursts and violence",
"Destruction of propey",
"Remorse, regret and embarrassment about their actions",
"Bulimia"
] | D | Intermittent explosive disorder is characterized by repeated outbursts of aggressive, violent behavior during which person may attack and harm others and vandalize and destroy propey. Following these outbursts they are often contrite, expressing remorse, regret and embarrassment about their actions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CSF otorrhoea is caused by | [
"Fracture of cribriform plate",
"Fractureof parietal bone",
"Fractureof petrous temporal bone",
"Fracture of tympanic membrane"
] | C | Ans is 'c' ie Fracture of petrous temporal boneC.S.F. otorrhea is seen in fracture (longitudinale) of temporal bone C.S.F. is seen in external and middle ears T/T -It usually ceases spontaneously surgical intervention is rarely needed. Antibiotics (Co-trimoxazole) is given as it us sensitive to bacter ious causing URTI and it can cross blood brain barrier. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding sudeck's osteodystrophy all are true except | [
"Burning pain",
"Stiffness & swelling",
"Erythematous & cyanotic discolouration",
"Self limiting & good prognosis"
] | D | D i.e. Self limiting & good prognosis - International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) has advocated the term complex regional pain syndrome type 1 (CRPS-1) for reflex sympathetic dystrophy and term complex regional pain syndrome type 2 (CRPS-2) to describe causalgia or similar signs and symptoms associated with a known peripheral nerve injury. - So the main difference between CRPS-1 (RSD, Sudceck's osteodystrophy) and CRPS-2 (Causalgia) is etiology. CRPS type 1 being associated with a soft tissue injury or immobilization while CRPS type II follows a peripheral nerve injury. - Presence of delayed onset, out of propoion, severe persistent, burning pain, decreased range of motion (stiffness), and shiny skin (trophic changes), erythematous & cyanotic discoloration 4 weeks to 2 months after sustaining soft tissue injury (ankle sprain) or bony injury (Colle's fracture) suggest a diagnosis of CRPS type 1 (i.e. reflex sympathetic dystrophy). Prolonged disuse results in muscle atrophy, joint stiffness or contracture, and osteopenia and leads to prolonged recovery (poor prognosis). Sympathetectomy (eg stellate ganglion block) may be used for treatment. It is a group of vague painful conditions observed as a sequelae of trauma. The trauma is some times relatively minor and signs and symptoms are out of propoion of the trauma. It is characterized by pain, hyperaesthesia, swelling, stiffness, discolouration, and trophic changes wihich are out of propoion to the inciting eventQ The most characteristic symptom is pain out of propoion to the inciting event in both severity and duration. It is often burning in characterQ. Hence the term 'Causalgia' which means burning pain. - Due to hypeaesthsia to light touch, patients often withdraw when one attempts to examine the affected extremity - Swelling is the most consistent physical findingQ. It often begins in area of injury and is soft initially, as the process continues, oedema gradually becomes firm and involve much broader area. - Stiffness and discolouration of skin (red, blue & /or pallor)Q are other classic signs. - Trophic skin changes i.e. skin is shiny, thin with loss of normal wrinkles and creasesQ are characteristically seen late. - The most common radiographic finding is localized osteopeniaQ d/t increased blood flow to the bone - Prognosis is directly related to the time to diagnosis and initiation of therapy. The goal is to break abnormal sympathetic reflex and to restore motion. - The abnormal sympathetic response is interrupted by the use of sympatholytic drugs eg. a - adrenergic blockers, local somatic nerve blocks, (Bier's block, axillary block), stellate ganglion blocks, or surgical sympathetectomyQ - Physical therapy is of crucial impoance. Active and passive range of motion should be performed to the level of discomfo but not pain - Recovery is prolonged & painful both for patient and surgeon. 3 years usually elapse before the bones are remineralized & it is rare that full range of movements returns. In absence of major nerve damage diagnosis is CRPS-1 If major nerve damage is present & pain is limited to a single peripheral nerve the diagnosis is CRPS 2. CRPS Type 1: Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy/ Sudeck's Osteoneuro Dystrophy - Pain after an (often minor) noxious event or immobilization (+-) - Continuing spontaneous pain or allodynia/hyperalgesia dispropoionate to the inciting event and not limited to a single peripheral nerve. - Edema, skin blood flow abnormality or abnormal pseudomotor activity at sometime in region of pain. - Excluded by conditions that otherwise account for the degree of pain and dysfunction. Autonomic Symptom Complex Sensory Hyperalgesia, Hyperaesthesia, Allodynia, Dysthesia Vasomotor Skin mottling, Cynosis, Erythema, Skin color asymmetry Sudomotor Edema, Hyperhidrosis, Sweating changes Trophic Changes of nail, hair & skin eg shiny, thin skin with loss of wrinkles Motor Muscle atrophy, stiffness or contracture of jointQ. X ray OsteopeniaQ Teche An erythematous line Cerebral sign develops, with in 10 to . 15 seconds & may persist for 10 to 15 minutes, by stroking the skin with blunt object. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of hyponatremia in children is? | [
"Excessive sweating",
"Vomiting",
"Syndrome of inappropriate ADH",
"Diuretic use"
] | C | Most common cause of hyponatremia in children - Syndrome of inappropriate ADH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The windswept deformity is seen in- | [
"Achondroplasia",
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Rickets",
"Scurvy"
] | C | Windswept deformity is seen in rickets.
Also know
The windswept deformity is also seen in RA, physical osteochondromatosis, and hereditary dysplasia (epiphyseal dysplasia). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following structures passes through the Alcock canal, EXCEPT: | [
"Internal pudendal vein",
"Internal pudendal nerve",
"Internal pudendal aery",
"Obturator internus muscle"
] | D | Alcock canal or pudendal canal stas from the lesser sciatic notch and runs forward on the medial surface of the ischial tuberosity up to the pubic arch where it is continuous with the deep perineal pouch. Contents of the pudendal canal are:Pudendal nervePudendal aery and veinWithin the canal pudendal nerve give rise to following branches:Perineal nerveDorsal nerve of penis or clitorisRef: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 38. Anatomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10-yr old boy was admitted for surgery of cleft lip. Suddenly he had acute pain in abdomen. On examination, he had Xanthomas. On investigation, we found milky plasma. Which lipoprotein is increased? | [
"VLDL Remnant",
"Chylomicron",
"Triglycerides",
"Cholesterol"
] | B | Milky plasma means Chylomicrons are increased. Chylomicrons contains TGs. But TG is a lipid and chylomicron is a lipoprotein (question is asking lipoprotein). This is a picture of Type I Hyperlipoproteinemia, which is due to the defect in Lipoprotein Lipase enzyme. First test tube:Creamy layer on the top after centrifugation. Second test tube:Normal serum on the top after centrifugation. Additional information: Type Defect Lipoprotein increased TGs cholesterol Name I Lipoprotein lipase or Apo C-II Chylomicron || VLDL || || Normal Familial hyperchylomicronemia IIa LDL-receptor or Apo 8100 LDL || Normal || Familial hypercholesterolemia IIb Unknown VLDL| LDL| | | Familial combined Hyperlipoproteinemia III Apo E Chylomicron remnant || VLDL remnant | || || Dysbeta-lipoproteinemia or Broad Beta disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is: | [
"secretion is pulsatile In nature",
"normal plasma level is 0.2-0.5 micro IU/ml",
"secretion is entirely under control of hypothalamus",
"increases synthesis and release of thyroid hormones"
] | C | TSH secretion depends upon the levels of T3,T4 as it is affected by FEEDBACK REGULATION Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 555,556,557 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Non hemolytic jaundice, urobilinogen is seen in | [
"Obstructive jaundice",
"Hepatic fibrosis",
"Fatty liver",
"Infective Hepatitis"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about bacteria - | [
"Mitochondria always absent",
"Sterols always present in cell wall",
"Divide by binary fission",
"a& c"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mitochondria always absent; 'c' Divide by binary fission . Bacteria are prokaryotes and do not have mitochondria, nuclear membrane, nucleolus, lysosomes, golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum. . Sterols are absent in cell wall, except for mycoplasma. . Bacteria divide by binary fission . They can be seen under light microscope, phase contrast microscope, Dark field/ Dark ground microscope and electron microscope. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Breast feeding has been suggested to have possible protective effect against all the following Except | [
"Otitis Media",
"UTI",
"Childhood Cancers",
"Skin Infections"
] | D | Conditions for which Human Milk has been suggested to possibly have a Protective effect1. Acute disorders10. Diarrhea2. Otitis media11. UTI3. Necrotising enterocolitis12. Septicemia4. Infant botulism13. Insulin-dependent diabetes5. Celiac disease14. Crohn disease6. Childhood cancers15. Lymphoma7. Leukemia16. Allergy8. Obesity and overweight17. Hospitalizations9. Infant moality18. Recurrent OtitisReference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 45; Feeding Healthy infants, Children and Adolescent1s | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left testicular vein drains into ? | [
"Left renal vein",
"IVC",
"SVC",
"Hepatic vein"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Left renal vein Right suprarenal and right gonadal (testicular/ovarian) veins -4 IVC.Left suprarenal and left gonadal (testicular/ovarian) veins - left renal vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thyroid medullary cells that produce calcitonin develop from: | [
"Ultimobranchial body",
"Floor of the primitive pharynx",
"3rd pharyngeal arch",
"Lung buds"
] | A | Neural crest derivatives from the ultimobranchial body give rise to thyroid medullary C cells. It produces calcitonin. The C cells are interspersed throughout the thyroid gland. ALSO KNOW The ultimobranchial body arises from bilateral ventral swellings of the 4th pharyngeal pouches and gets integrated into the thyroid where it forms the parafollicular cells or C-cells for the production of calcitonin. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2911. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uterus reaches up to umbilical level at: September 2009 | [
"16 weeks",
"20 weeks",
"24 weeks",
"28 weeks"
] | C | Ans. C: 24 weeks The height of the uterus is midway between symphysis pubis and umbilicus at 16th week; at the level of umbilicus at 24th week and at the junction of the lower third and upper two-third of the distance between the umbilicus and ensiform cailage at 28th week. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angular vein is formed by: | [
"Superficial temporal and supratrochlear vein",
"Superficial temporal and supraorbital vein",
"Retromandibular and supratrochlear vein",
"Supraorbital and supratrochlear vein"
] | D | The supratrochlear and supraorbital veins unite at the medial angle of the eye forming the angular vein which continues down as the facial vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Viral DNA is integrated into Bacterial DNA in: | [
"Transduction",
"Lysogenic conversion",
"Transformation",
"Conjugation"
] | B | Ans. (b) Lysogenic conversion | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Ca cervix lymphatic spread involve which of the following lymph node/nodes:a) Obturator LNb) External iliac LNc) Inguinal LNd) Femoral LNe) Hypogastric LN | [
"abc",
"bcd",
"abe",
"acd"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Node of Ranvier is seen in - | [
"Cell body",
"Dendrites",
"Axons",
"Terminalbutons"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Axons o Nodes of Ranvier are periodic gaps in the myelin sheath on the axon.o Neuron is the functional unit (basic unit of nervous tissue).o It is specialized for the function of reception, integration and transmission of information in the body,o The basic structure of neuron is best studied in a spinal motor neuron,o This cell has a 'cell body (soma)' with 5-7 small processes called 'dendrites'.o There is a long process called 'axon' that originate from "axon hillock (A thickned area of cell body from which axon originates)".o The first portion of the axon is called "initial segment".o In a motor neuron, the axon hillock and the initial segment of axon have the low est threshold for excitation0o Functionally speaking, the neuron can be divided into four zones : -Dendrides and Soma (cell body) - Receptor zoneAxon hillock of body & initial segment of axon - Generator area (Nerve impulse is generated) QAxon (main length) : - Transmitter zone (Transmits nerve impulse).The nerve terminals (Terminal knobs or buttons) : - Release zone (release neurotransmitters). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Schilling test is performed to determine the cause of - | [
"Lactose malabsorption",
"Fatty acid malabsorption",
"Amino acid malabsorption",
"Cobalamin malabsorption"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rods and cones differ in all, except | [
"Signal transduction",
"Light sensitivity",
"Wavelength",
"Acuity"
] | A | Our visual sensation is mediated by two types of photoreceptors, rods, and cones. Both respond to light electrically. Rods are highly light-sensitive but cones are not. Because of this sensitivity difference, rods mediate night vision and cones mediate daylight vision. While a response to a brief light flash is rather slow in rods, it is brief in cones. These rod and cone differences in their light sensitivity and the response time course arise in the differences in the reactions in the enzyme cascade to evoke light responses in these cells. This cascade (phototransduction cascade) in rods is now rather well understood at the molecular level in a quantitative way. In cones, similar cascade has been known to be present. However, details are not known yet because it was difficult to obtain purified cones in an amount large enough to study these issues biochemically.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 192 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Postnatally when is the growth velocity maximum | [
"In the first year of life",
"In the second year of life",
"In the seventh year of life",
"In adolescence"
] | A | Postnatally there are 2 periods of accelerated growth, they are: 1st yr of growth Growth spu during pubey Ref: Nelson's, 20th edition, Page-84 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child speaks sentences at the age of ? | [
"6 months",
"1 year",
"18 months",
"2 years"
] | D | At 2 years, a child can make simple sentences and uses pronouns. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protein losing enteropathy with mucosal erosion is seen in | [
"Lymphoma",
"Coeliac disease",
"Menetrier's disease",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus"
] | A | Causes of protein losing enteropathy with mucosal erosion are Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, radiation damage and lymphoma. Coeliac disease, Menetrier's disease and systemic lupus erythematosus can cause protein losing enteropathy without mucosal erosion. Ref: Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, p886 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ataxia telangiectasia is characterised by all of the following except - | [
"Chronic sinopulmonary disease",
"Decreased level of a-fetoprotein",
"Chromosomal breakage",
"IgA deficiency"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Decreased levels of a fetoproteins Ataxia telangiectasia o Ataxia Telangiectasia (AT) is an autosomal recessive disorder. o It is due to mutation of AT gene located on chromosome 11. o There is defective DNA repair that results in multiple chromosomal breaks. Clinical manifestations o Present in first decase of life. o Feature are : - i) Oculocutaneous telengiectasia ii)Neurological -4 Ataxia, dysahria, extensor plantar response, myoclonic jerks, areflexia, distal sensory deficity. iii) Immunodeficeincy --) Thymic hypoplasia with cellular and humoral (IgA and IgG2) immunodeficeincy. iv) Recurrent pulmonary infections v) Endocrine disorders ---> Tye I DM vi) Premature aging vii) Malignancies Lymphoma, Hodgkin's disease, acute T cell leukemia, breast cancer. and a-feto protein and carcino-embryonic antigen are increased | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug causing deafness is : | [
"Thiazide",
"Spiranolactone",
"Ethacrynic acid",
"Triamterene"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following aery supplies the Midgut? | [
"Aoa",
"Celiac trunk",
"Superior mesenteric aery",
"Inferior mesenteric aery"
] | C | Superior mesenteric aery is the aery of midgut, it supplies the gastrointestinal tract from the middle of the second pa of duodenum till the distal one third of the transverse colon. Must know:Celiac aery is the aey of foregut and inferior mesenteric aretey is the aery of hindgut. All these three aeries are the anterior branches of the abdominal aoa.Ref: Snell's, Clinical Anatomy, 7th Edition, Page 260. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Site of bleeding in Gastro-esophageal varices:a) Short Gastric veinsb) Right Gastric veinsc) Left Gastric veinsd) Right Gastroepiploic veinse) Left Gastroepiploic veins | [
"ab",
"abc",
"acd",
"bcd"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Complication of vernal kerato conjunctivitis – | [
"Cataract",
"Keratoconus",
"Retinal detachment",
"Vitreous hemorrhage"
] | B | Visual loss in vernal keratoconjunctivitis is associated with corneal complications, like corneal scar, keratoconus & irregular astigmatism, as well as complications of topical corticosteroids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Poal hypeension is defined as, hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG) greater than | [
"5 mm of hg",
"10 mm of Hg",
"15 mm of Hg",
"20 mm of Hg"
] | A | Poal hypeension is defined as the elevation of the hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG) to >5 mmHg. Poal hypeension is caused by a combination of two simultaneously occurring hemodynamic processes: 1) Increased intrahepatic resistance to the passage of blood flow through the liver due to cirrhosis and regenerative nodules, and 2) Increased splanchnic blood flow secondary to vasodilation within the splanchnic vascular bed. Poal hypeension is directly responsible for the two major complications of cirrhosis: variceal haemorrhage and ascites.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 2063 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An engineering student has difficulty to deliver seminar with a fear that his seniors are present despite knowing that they are supportive. He further has difficulty speaking in front of others and also avoids going to the parties. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Agoraphobia",
"Claustrophobia",
"Social phobia",
"Acrophobia"
] | C | Ans. C. Social phobiaHere the fear is performing in public and there is also avoidance of social situations (i.e. avoidance of parties). | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8kg, then the standard deviation of this sample will be: | [
"2.8",
"0",
"1",
"0.28"
] | B | In the given question, the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is Count, to ht 28 kg, thus = ZERO
So the standard deviation of this sample will be, | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of Hemolytic Anemia, except: | [
"Hemoglobinuria",
"Jaundice",
"Increased haptoglobulin",
"Hemosiderinuria"
] | C | Increased haptoglobulin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after being kicked in the groin while playing football. During physical examination it is noted that the left testicle of the patient is swollen. An MRI examination reveals coagulation of blood in the veins draining the testis. Into which of the following veins would a thrombus most likely pass first from the injured area? | [
"Inferior vena cava",
"Left renal vein",
"Left inferior epigastric",
"Left internal pudendal"
] | B | The left testicular vein drains directly into the left renal vein, which then crosses over the midline to enter the inferior vena cava. The left inferior epigastric, left internal pudendal, and left iliac veins are not involved in the drainage of the testes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acidic drug is more ionized at- | [
"Alkaline",
"Acidic pH",
"Neutral pH",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alkaline pH Implication of ionization Acidic drugs ionize more at alkaline pH. o Basic drugs ionize more at acidic pH. o Unionized drug is lipid-soluble and diffusible. o Ionised drug is lipid-insoluble and nondiffusible. o Acidic drugs (salicylates, barbiturates) are predominently unionized in acid gastric juice and are absorbed from stomach. Basic drugs (morphine, quinine) are predominently unionized in intestinal alkaline pH and are absorbed from intestine. o In the stomach acidic drug (aspirin, pKa - 3.5) arc unionised (lipid soluble & diffusable) and so diffuses into gastric epithelial cells. In gastric epithelial cell, it will ionize (pH-7.4) becomes less diffusable and so will localize there. This ion trapping is one mechanism where by aspirin is concentrated in, and so harms, gastric mucosa. o Basic drugs attain higher concentration intracellularly (pH 7.0 Vs 7.4 of plasma). o Acidic drugs are ionized more in alkaline urine - do not back diffuse in the kidney tubules and arc excreted faster. o Similarly basic drugs are excreted faster in acidic urine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is given with iron to increase its absorption ? | [
"Milk",
"Antacids",
"Citrus fruits",
"Alkalies"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Citrus fruits Citrus fruits are good sources of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) which increases intestinal absorption of iron. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oxaloacetate synthesized from which amino acid - | [
"Aspartate",
"Glycine",
"Serine",
"Valine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aspartate* Oxaloacetate, an intermediate in citric acid cycle is formed from Aspartate and Asparagine# Aspartate undergoes transamination in the presence of Aspartate Transaminase (AST) or Serum Glutamate Oxaloacetate Transaminase (SGOT)# Aspartate + a Ketoglutarate------------Oxaloacetate + Glutamate AST/ SGOT # Asparagine in the presence of Asparaginase, gets converted to Asparate. Aspartate is then converted to OxaloacetateAsparagine------------Aspartate + NH3 ASPARAGINASE | train | med_mcqa | null |
Example of Apoptosis is? | [
"Councilman Bodies",
"Gamma Gandy Body",
"Russell bodies",
"None"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Councilman BodiesREF: Cell proliferation & apoptosis by David Hughes, H. Mehmet Page 211Repeat in December 2009See APPENDIX-25 below for "FEW IMPORTANT BODIES IN MEDICAL SCIENCE" APPENDIX - 25Few Important Bodies in Medical ScienceAschoff Bodies - Rheumatic feverAsteroid body - SarcoidosisBabes - Ernst Bodies - Metachromatic granulesBalbiani's Bodies - Yolk nucleusBamboo bodies - AsbestosisBodies of Arantius - Aortic valve nodulesBody of Highmore - Mediastinum testisBollinger bodies - FowlpoxBrassy body - Dark shrunken blood corpuscle found in malariaCall Exners bodies - Granulosa theca cell tumourChromatid bodies - Entamoeba histolytica precystCitron bodies - cl. SepticumCivatte bodies - Lichen planusCouncilman bodies - Yellow fever/viral hepatitisCoccoid X bodies - PsittacosisCreola bodies - AsthmaCystoid bodies - Degenerated retinal nerve fibres (seen in Cotton wool spots)Donnes bodies - colostrums corpusclesDonovan bodies - Granulose inguinale (LGV)Ferruginous bodies - AsbestosisGamma Gandy bodies - Congestive splenomegalyGuarneri bodies - Inclusion bodies of vacciniaHenderson Peterson bodies - Molluscum contagiosumHarting bodies - Calcospheritis in the cerebral capillariesHeinz bodies - G 6 PD deficiencyHerring bodies - NeurohypophysisHirano bodies - Alzheimer's diseaseLewy bodies - parkinsonismLevinthal coles lille bodies - PsittacosisMallory bodies - Alcoholic hepatitisMasson bodies - Rheumatic pneumoniaMichelis Guttman bodies - MalakoplakiaMooser bodies - Endemic typhusMoot bodies - Multiple myelomaNegri bodies - RabiesOdland body - KeratinosomeOken's body - MesonephrosPappenheimer bodies- Granules of iron found inside RBC on routine blood stain in sideroblastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell diseasePaschen bodies - vaccinia/variolaPacchonian bodies- Arachnoid granulationPick bodies - Picks diseasePsamomma bodies:papillary carcinoma of thyroidSerous cyst adenoma of ovaryMeningiomaPapillary type of renal cell carcinomaPituitary adenoma (Prolactinoma)Appendiceal carcinoid (Rarely)Reilly bodies - Hurler's syndromeRokitansky bodies - TeratomaRoss's bodies - SyphilisRush ton bodies - Odontogenic cystRussell bodies- RhinoscleromaSclerotic bodies - ChromoblastomycosisSandstorm bodies - Parathyroid glands | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective alpha-2 antagonist | [
"Prazosin",
"Yohimbine",
"Tamsulosin",
"Phentolamine"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Major depression is diagnosed after minimum of: Maharashtra 09 | [
"1 week",
"2 weeks",
"3 weeks",
"4 weeks"
] | B | Ans. 2 weeks | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about syphilis is A/E – a) VDRL is sensitive but not specificb) Infection leads to life long immunityc) IgM & IgAd) T. pallidium when inoculated in rabbit produce progressive disease | [
"a",
"c",
"bc",
"ad"
] | C | Infection with syphilis does not provide life long immunity reinfection with syphilis is not uncommon especially in patients who have been treated early.
Non-specific serological tests measure IgG & IgM (not IgM & IgA).
Intradermal and intraperitoneal inoculation of T.pallidum into experimental rabbit produce progressive lesions.
VDRL is a sensitive test with sensitivity upto 100% in secondary syphilis. But it is not specific as nontreponemal antigen is used, infact it is one of the non-specific test for diagnosis of syphilis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coagulation defect involving both the arterial and venous system is seen in | [
"Factor V Leiden",
"Protein C deficiency",
"Antithrombin III deficiency",
"Hyperhomocystinemia"
] | D | Ans. d (Hyperhomocystenimia) (Ref. H-17th/367; Table 59-3)Homocystinuria reflects homocystlnemia which is associated with ectopia lentis, mental retardation and throm- boembolic disorders as well as arteriosclerosis. There are three enzyme deficiencies known to cause the disorder as well as deficiencies of the cofactors pyridoxine, cobalamin and folate. Lipid deposition in plaques is characteristically absent. Homocysteine exists in plasma as the mixed disulfide homocysteine cysteine, as free and as protein bound homocysteine.VenousVenous and ArterialInheritedInheritedFactor V LeidenHomocystinuriaProthrombin G20210ADysfibrinogenemiaAntithrombin deficiencyMixed (Inherited and acquired)Protein C deficiency Protein S deficiencyHyperhomocysteinemiaElevated FVIIIAcquiredAcquiredMalignancyAgeAntiphospholipid antibody syndromePrevious thrombosisHormonal therapyImmobilizationPolycythemia veraMajor surgeryEssential thrombocythemiaPregnancy & puerperiumParoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuriaHospitalizationThrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraObesityHeparin-induced thrombocytopeniaInfectionDisseminated intravascular coagulationAPC resistance, nongenetic Unknown0 Elevated factor II, IX, XI Elevated TAFI levels Low levels of TFPI | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endoscopic stapling procedure would be ideal in | [
"Pharyngeal pouch",
"Gastric ulcer",
"Esophageal varices",
"Perforation"
] | A | Stappling of diveicula is done as a treatment procedure for pharyngeal pouch(Zenker's diveiculum). Other method is Dohlman's procedure. In this Pouch is excised using double lipped endoscopy. Cautery or laser is used. It is quicker procedure with sho duration of anaesthesia, with fast recovery. Other treatment option is Diveiculectomy with cricopharyngeal myotomy. Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no= 422. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In blood culture, the ratio of blood to reagent is - | [
"1:05",
"1:20",
"1:10",
"0.111111111"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of pelvic abscess which extends into pouch of Douglas: March 2013 | [
"Hysterotomy",
"Posterior colpotomy",
"Transabdominal drainage",
"Colpography"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Posterior colpotomy Vaginal drainage of a pelvic abscess (posterior colpotomy) is indicated when a pelvic abscess extends into the pouch of Douglas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs in NOT recommended for intracheal administration during cardiopulmonary resuscitation – | [
"Atropine",
"Sodium bicarbonate",
"Adrenaline",
"Lignocaine"
] | B | Intratracheal drugs during CPR :- Adrenaline, atropine, lignocaine, naloxone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been patho-physiologically linked to which of the following factors - | [
"Antibodies to thrombolytic agents",
"Fibrinopeptide A",
"Lipoprotein-a (Lp-a)",
"Triglycerides"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The physiological effect in unacclimatised person suddenly exposed to cold is : | [
"Tachycardia",
"Shift of blood from shell to core",
"Non shivering thermogenesis",
"Hypeension"
] | B | B i.e. Shift of blood from shell to core | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following type of hypersensitivity reactions is found in blood transfusion reaction | [
"Anaphylactic type",
"Cytotoxic type",
"Type 3 hypersensitivity",
"Cell mediated hypersensitivity"
] | B | Ref Robbins 9/e p205 Antibody-Mediated Diseases (Type II Hypersensitivity) Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity disorders are caused by antibodies directed against target antigens on the surface of cells or other tissue components. The antigens may be normal molecules intrinsic to cell membranes or in the extracellular matrix, or they may be adsorbed exoge- nous antigens (e.g., a drug metabolite). Antibody-mediated abnormalities are the underlying cause of many human diseases; examples of these are listed in Table 4-3. In all of these disorders, the tissue damage or functional abnormali- ties result from a limited number of mechanisms. Mechanisms of Antibody-Mediated Diseases Antibodies cause disease by targeting cells for phagocyto- sis, by activating the complement system, and by interfer- ing with normal cellular functions (Fig. 4-10). The antibodies that are responsible typically are high-affinity antibodies capable of activating complement and binding to the Fc receptors of phagocytes. * Opsonization and phagocytosis. When circulating cells, such as erythrocytes or platelets, are coated (opsonized) with autoantibodies, with or without complement pro- teins, the cells become targets for phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages (Fig. 4-10, A). These phagocytes express receptors for the Fc tails of IgG anti- bodies and for breakdown products of the C3 comple- ment protein, and use these receptors to bind and ingest opsonized paicles. Opsonized cells are usually elimi- nated in the spleen, and this is why splenectomy is of Figure 4-10 Mechanisms of antibody-mediated injury. A, Opsonization of cells by antibodies and complement components, and ingestion of opso- nized cells by phagocytes. B, Inflammation induced by antibody binding to Fc receptors of leukocytes and by complement breakdown products. C, Antireceptor antibodies disturb the normal function of receptors. In these examples, antibodies against the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor activate thyroid cells in Graves disease, and acetylcholine (ACh) receptor antibodies impair neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which pulse is felt to check for return of pulse in CPCR:- | [
"Carotid pulse",
"Femoral pulse",
"Brachial pulse",
"Any pulse"
] | A | Carotid pulse is felt for not more than 10 sec. In pediatric - carotid pulse or femoral pulse can also is felt. in infant - only brachial pulse is felt | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inveed Champaign bottle muscle atrophy occurs in: | [
"Peroneal muscular atrophy",
"Duchenne's muscular dystrophy",
"Progressive muscular atrophy",
"Amyotrophic lateral stenosis"
] | A | Answer is A (Peroneal muscular Atrophy): Inveed champagne bottle appearance of lower limbs is produced as a result of greater wasting of distal musculature in comparison to proximal musculature. Charcoal Movie Tooth disease (CMT) or peroneal muscular Atrophy (Synonym for CMT) is classically associated with an inveed champagne bottle appearance of lower limbs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Driving a car is possible due to | [
"Implicit memory",
"Recent memory",
"Remote memory",
"All of the above"
] | A | (A) Implicit memory# TYPES OF LONG TERM MEMORY:> Implicit memory, Explicit memory> Long term memory = Implicit memory + Explicit memory# EXPLICIT MEMORIES are memories that we can consciously remember. Most of what we commonly consider "memory" is explicitly memory. Answers you give on an exam are a product of explicit memory. Everything you "know" you remember is explicit memory.Explicit memory may be further subdivided into declarative memories and episodic memories> Explicit memory = Declarative memory + Episodic memory> Declarative memories are memories about general factual information, such as that George Washington was the first president of the United States.> Episodic memories are personal, autobiographic memories, such as what your first day of school was like, or what you did on your last vacation.# IMPLICIT MEMORIES are memories that we do not consciously remember, which nonetheless can be show to influence our behavior. Implicit memory is close to Freud's concept of "unconscious thought." Since we are not consciously aware of implicit memories, it is difficult to demonstrate that they exist.Implicit memory may be further divided into procedural memory and conditioning effects.> Implicit memory = Procedural memory + Conditioning effects> Procedural memories are memories for how to do things, such as riding a bike or driving a car.> Conditioning effects are memories that are formed more or less automatically through the processes of classical and operant conditioning, which we will study future chapters.> Implicit memories and explicit memories seem to be processed and stored in different parts of the brain. The cerebellum appears to be responsible for implicit memories. The hippocampus (located deep in the temporal lobe of the brain) appears to be more responsible for explicit memories. | train | med_mcqa | null |
31 yr G3P2 at 34 weeks & blood pressure records at home of 100-110/ 60-70mm Hg with complains of bilateral pedal edema & mild calf pain at night. Urine Dipstick shows trace protein, On examination , there is pitting edema of both legs without any calf tenderness. what is the best advice to this patient ? | [
"Prescribe Lasix (Frusemide) to relieve the painful swelling",
"Do a venous Doppler studies done to rule out deep vein thrombosis",
"Admit the patient and investigate to rule out pre-eclampsia",
"Reassure the patient that this is a normal finding of pregnancy"
] | D | Increased fluid retention manifested by pitting edema of the ankles and legs is a normal finding in pregnancy. Due to drop in colloid osmotic pressure and a fall in plasma osmolality with an increase in venous pressure created by paial occlusion of the vena cava by the gravid uterus contributes to pedal edema. Lasix is mostly avoided in pregnancy until in the acute setting to treat pulmonary edema. Trace protein in the urine is common in normal pregnancies and is not of concern. Doppler studies of the lower extremities are not indicated in an obvious physiologic edema here. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An operant condition where paradigm pain stimulus is given to a child for decreasing a certain undesired behaviour can be classified as - | [
"Positive reinforcement",
"Negative reinforcement",
"Punishment",
"Negotiation"
] | C | Reinforcement
Positive reinforcement:- A reward is given on the performance of the desired behavior.
Negative reinforcement:- On the performance of the desirable behavior, punishment is avoided.
Punishment:- On performing an undesired behavior, an aversive stimulus (paradigm pain in this question) is given.
Note-The basic difference between reinforcement and punishment is that reinforcement (Positive or negative) is to promote desired behavior, on the other hand, punishment is to decrease undesired behavior. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hallucination and illusion are disturbances in | [
"Thought",
"Perception",
"Sensation",
"Mood"
] | B | Ans. b (Perception ) (Ref. Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th ed., p. 278)Hallucination and illusion are disturbance in perception.Schizophrenia is a heterogeneous syndrome characterized by perturbations of language, perception, thinking, social activity, affect, and volition.Key Symptoms Of Depersonalization# Depersonalization: Believe that he/she is not real, "Out-of-Body Experience"# Derealization: Believe that the world is not real# Perception Distortion of the environment during episodes of Depersonalization# Jamais vu (a sense of familiar things being strange)# Deja vu (a sense of unfamiliar things being familiar) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Closure of Neural Tube begins at which of the following levels? | [
"Cephalic end",
"Caudal end",
"Cervical Region",
"Thoracic Region"
] | C | Neural tube closure stas at 23rd day of embryo and is completed by 27th day. It begins in the future cervical region and continues caudally and cranially. Ref: Basic Clinical Neuroscience, 2nd Edition, Page 299; Color Atlas of Neuroscience: Neuroanatomy and Neurophysiology, Germany, Page 58 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3-year old well immunized male child is brought to the paediatric outpatient depament with sore throat, fever and noisy breathing with inability to swallow for the past four hours. Examination showed a toxic, tachypnoeic child with inspiratory stridor. There is suprasternal, supra clavicular and inter costal recession during inspiration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis : | [
"Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis",
"Acute Epiglottitis",
"Diphtheria",
"Bronchopneumonia"
] | B | It is a case of Acute epiglottitis. A child of acute epiglottitis presents with acute onset fever and inspiratory stridor. The child usually also has dysphagia and drooling of saliva. Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis may have similar presentation but dysphagia is usually not seen. Diphtheria is effective ruled out as child is well immunized. Bronchopneumonia will not have inspiratory stridor | train | med_mcqa | null |
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