question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Causes of cynosls- | [
"TOF",
"PDA",
"Tricuspid atresia",
"Eisonmenger's complex"
] | A | Tetralogy of Fallot causes low oxygen levels in the blood. This leads to cyanosis (a bluish-purple color to the skin). The classic form includes four defects of the hea and its major blood vessels: Ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The enzyme not present in the skeletal muscles : | [
"Creatinine phosphokinase",
"Hexokinase",
"Phosphofructokinase",
"Glucose 6 phosphatase"
] | D | D i.e. Glucose -6 - phosphataseThe role of glycogen in liver is to provide free glucose for expo to maintain the blood glucose level; whereas in muscles the role of glycogen is to provide a source of glucose-6-PO4 for glycolysis (to supply ATP for muscle contraction).This difference of fate of glycogen in liver & muscle is d/t absence of glucose -6- phosphatase enzyme in muscleQ. Because of absence of this enzyme, which catalyzes the final step of glycogenolysis, glycogen in muscles can only be conveed upto glucose-6- phosphate. Hence muscle glycogenolysis does not contribute to blood glucose directlyQ. Instead, in muscle, this glucose -6-PO4 can not cross plasma membrane and enters glycolysis producing energy (3ATP) needed for muscle contraction. The gain of an extra (1) ATP is d/t bypass of 1st step of glycolysis which requires 1 ATP (If glycolysis stas from glucose only 2 ATPs are produced). Lactic acid produced d/t glycolysis crosses the plasma membrane & reaches liver to form glucose.In liver glucose -6. phosphate is transpoed by glucose- 6-phosphate translocase into endoplasmic reticulum, where it is conveed to glucose by glucose- 6- phosphatase (this enzyme is also used in last step of gluconeogenesis). The glucose moves out of ER to cytosol and then released by hepatocytes into blood to maintin blood glucose levels untilgluconeogenesis stas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following immunosuppressant drugs is most nephrotoxic? | [
"Azathioprine",
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Mycophenolate mofetil",
"Tacrolimus"
] | D | Among the given drugs Tacrolimus has dose-limiting nephrotoxicity In addition, it can precipitate diabetes, alopecia, and diarrhea. Hypeension, hirsutism, gum hyperplasia is less marked compared to cyclosporin. Other drugs listed above are antiproliferative drugs. These have no excess nephrotoxicity effect. they act mainly by preventing the clonal expansion of T and B Lymphocytes. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION -K.D TRIPATHI Page:881,882 ,883 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Of the following the most significant risk factor for developing breast cancer is- | [
"The presence of sclerosing adenosis",
"Nullipartiy",
"Atypical lobular hyperplasia",
"Atypical ductal hyperplasia"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old man has urine output of 10 mL/h following abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy. Acute tubular necrosis is suggested by the presence of which of the following? | [
"Urine osmolality of more than 500 mOsm/kg",
"Urine sodium of more than 40 mEq/L",
"Fractional excretion of sodium of <1%",
"Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-serum creatinine ratio (SCR) of more than 20"
] | B | Oliguria may be prerenal or renal. The following table characterizes findings in prerenal failure versus those observed in intrinsic renal failure (acute tubular necrosis).PRERENAL VS. INTRINSIC RENAL FAILURE Prerenal FailuresIntrinsic Renal FailuresUrine osmolality (mOsm/kg)>500<350Urine sodium (mEq/L)<20>40Fractional excretion of sodium<1%>2%BUN/SCR>20<10Urine/PCR>40<20 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adequate vestibular depth is important for | [
"Good aesthetics",
"Good occlusion",
"Good oral hygiene",
"Muscular function"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auer rods represent a | [
"Leukemic cells",
"Intercytoplasmic granules",
"Eosinophils",
"azurophilic granules"
] | D | Auer rods, distinctive needle-like azurophilic granules, are present in many cases; they are paicularly numerous in AML with the t(15;17) (acute promyelocytic leukemia) Auer rods are large, crystalline cytoplasmic inclusion bodies sometimes observed in myeloid blast cells during acute myeloid leukemia, acute promyelocytic leukemia, and high-grade myelodysplastic syndromes and myeloproliferative disorders they are peroxidase positive azurophilic intracytoplasmic granules. lysosomal enzymes are sequestered into azurophilic storage granules. used later for digestion of phagocytized microorganism. ref robbins 9th ed page 613 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with a swelling in his right foot with multiple discharging sinuses that contained brown granules. The lesion did not respond to antibiotic medications. Which of the following is the causative agent? | [
"Sporothrix",
"Actinomadura",
"Madurella mycetomatis",
"Nocardia"
] | C | The history of multiple discharging sinuses that contained brown granules and the non-responsiveness to the antibiotics are suggestive of Eumycetoma. The causative agent of this is Madurella mycetomatis. Actinomadura and Nocardia cause actinomycetoma which would respond to antibiotics. Mycetoma is of two types: Eumycetoma Actinomycetoma Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Safety pin index for oxygen cylinder is | [
"3,5",
"1,5",
"2,5",
"1,4"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a coho study nonsmokers were found to have carcinoma lung. This indicates- | [
"Smoking does not cause lung cancer",
"Etiology for lung Ca is multi factorial",
"Smoking is the only cause of lung cancer",
"Passive smoking also increase lung cancer"
] | B | Coho study is also known as incidence study. The cohos are identified prior to the appearance of disease under investigation. The study group so defined are observed over a period of time to determine the frequency of disease among them. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 83 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute viral hepatitis - | [
"Ballooning degeneration",
"Acidophilic inclusion (necrosis)",
"Interphase hepatitis",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ballooning degeneration; 'b' i.e., Acidophilic inclusion (necrosis); `c' i.e., lnterphase hepatitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action colchicine in acute gout | [
"Uric acid nephrolithiasis.",
"Deficiency of enzyme Xanthine oxidase",
"Increase in serum urate concentration",
"Renal disease involving interstitial tissues"
] | B | * Gout is a hereditary disorder with increase in serum uric acid due to increased production, or decreased excretion of uric acid and uric salt. * Thought to be caused by lack of an enzyme needed to completely metabolise purines for renal excretion. REF : HARRISONS 21ST ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC in P. jeroveci - | [
"Fluoroquinolone",
"Cotrimoxazole",
"Penicillin",
"Erythromycin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cotrimoxazole o Fluoroquinolones are not used in the t/t of pneumocystosis infection."Trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole (TMP - SMX), which acts by inhibiting folic acid synthesis, is considered the drug of choice for all forms ofpneumocystosisTREATMENT OF PNEUMOCYSTOSISFirst choiceo Trimethoprim-SulphamethoxazoleQOther agentso Trimethoprim + Dapsoneo Atovaquoneo Clindamycin + Primaquine or Pentamidineo Trimetrexate + leucovorinAdjunctive agent o PrednisonePROPHYLAXIS OFPNEUMOCYSTIC CARINHPNEUMONIAPrimary prophylaxis is indicated foro Patients with CD4+ cell counts of < 200/ Lo History of oropharyngeal candidiasisSecondary prophylaxis is indicated foro Both HIV infected and non HIV infected patients,o Who have recovered from pneumocystosis.Primary and secondary prophylaxis may be discontinued in HIV infected persons once.o CD4+ counts have risen to > 200/ L and remained at that level for > 3 months.Also knowFirst choice agent for prophylaxiso Trimethoprim, sulphamethoxazole.Other agents used in prophylaxis.Dapsone, pentamidine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about ulcerative colitis? | [
"Premalignant condition",
"Cobblestone mucosa is characteristic",
"Pseudo polyps are only seen in ulcerative colitis",
"Rarely affects rectum"
] | A | ULCERATIVE COLITIS Major pathologic process involves the mucosa and submucosa of the colon, with sparing of the muscularis. Rectal involvement (proctitis) is the hallmark of the disease, and the diagnosis should be seriously questioned if the rectal mucosa is not affected. Most characteristic lesion of UC : Crypt abscess . Cobble stone mucosa is characterisitc of CD . Pseudo polyps are MC in UC (UC > CD) It is a pre malignant condition . | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4 weeks old female child with normal genitalia presents to the emergency department with severe dehydration, hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. The measurement blood levels of which of the following will be helpful? | [
"17-hydroxy progesterone",
"Rennin",
"Cortisol",
"Aldosterone"
] | D | Ans. d. Aldosterone Severe dehydration with serum electrolyte abnormalities like hyperkalemia and hyponatremia atony with normal genitalia suggests aldosterone deficiency. Presence of normal genitalia rules out 21-hydroxylase deficiency.Aldosterone Deficiency due to mutation in the CYP11B2 gene (Aldosterone Synthase)* CYPIIB2 is the terminal enzyme in the aldosterone biosynthetic pathway.* Mutation in this gene impair the production of aldosterone by altering either hydroxylation (aldosterone synthase deficiency type I) or oxidation (aldosterone synthase deficiency type II) of the corticosterone.Clinical Features:* Patient with either type usually present in infancy with symptoms typical of aldosterone deficiency (Dehydration, salt wasting, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia and failure to thrive) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement (s) is are/true: | [
"Langerhans cells has birbeck granules.",
"Keratinocyte release mediator which are essential for normal melanocyte formation.",
"Melanocyte are derived from the embryonic neural crest.",
"All of the Above."
] | D | There is a correlation in the occurrence of stratum granulosum and Langerhans cells. The cell has a convoluted nucleus and characteristics rod-like granules in the cytoplasm, termed Birbeck granules. This cell is free of melanin and does not give a dopa reaction. It stains with gold chloride, ATPase, and immunofluorescent markers. The Langerhans cell is a cell of hematopoietic origin. Langerhans cells penetrate the epithelium from lamina propria.
Keratinocytes release mediators essential for normal melanocyte function. Melanocytes vary in number in different regions but variation in the degree of pigmentation (gingivae is highly pigmented), is not related to the numbers but is due to their activity, i.e. number, size and (dispersal of melanosomes, the quantity of melanin within the melanosomes and the rate of degradation of the pigment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of Millard Gubler Syndrome, Except : | [
"5th cranial nerve palsy",
"6th cranial nerve palsy",
"7th cranial nerve palsy",
"Contralateral hemiplegia"
] | A | Answer is A (5th Cranial nerve palsy): Anatomic Basis of Neurologic Diagnosis (Thieme) 2009/272 5th cranial nerve palsy is not a feature of Millard Gubler Syndrome Millard Gubler Syndrome (Ventral Pons Syndrome) Ipsilateral VhIth Nerve palsy Ipsilateral VIth Nerve Palsy Contralateral Hemiplegia Millard-Gubler syndrome Millard-Gubler syndrome results from a lesion in the ventral pons and presents with the following three charachteristic signs and symptoms: Ipsilateral facial paralysis (due to interruption of the facial nerve) Ipsilateral lateral rectus palsy (due to interrusption of the abducens nerve) Contralateral hemiplegia (due to interruption of the coicospinal tract) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A thirty years old male presents to the emergency department with symptoms of epigastric pain radiating to back that wakes him up a tonight and is relieved by consuming food. He gives history of similar pain in the past which was diagnosed as perforated duodenal ulcer and treated with omental patch surgery on two occasions. Pain before and after surgery has been controlled with proton pump inhibitors and analgesics. The likely diagnosis on this occasion is: | [
"Duodenal ulcer",
"Gastric ulcer",
"Atrophic gastritis",
"Chronic pancreatitis"
] | A | Ans. (a) Duodenal ulcerRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Page 1199* Pain relieved on eating: Duodenal ulcer* Pain aggravated on eating: Gastric ulcer* Pain unrelated to food: Cancer stomach | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low glycemic index food is: | [
"Easily digestible",
"Increases plasma glucose",
"Has slower absorption",
"Increase glycogen deposits"
] | C | GLYCEMIC INDEX -glycemic index which measures the time course of postprandial glucose concentrations from a graph* Glycemic index of complex carbohydrate is low because of slow digestion and slow absorption* Glycemic index of carbohydrate is low when its combine with fat , protein and fiber * Foods that have a low glycemic index are considered to be more beneficial since they cause less fluctuation in insulin secretion | train | med_mcqa | null |
BAL is used as an antidote poisoning by: | [
"Morphine",
"Aconite",
"Phenol",
"Mercury"
] | D | D i.e. Mercury BAL or Dimercaprol is used in poisoning by Au, Cu; Bi, Ni; As, Sb, Hg (mercuryQ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Dracunculiasis except - | [
"No animal Reservoir",
"Man is intermediate host",
"India has eradicate the diease",
"Limited to tropical and subtropical region"
] | B | - drancunculiasis is caused by drancunculus medinensis. - temperature ourable is 25-30degC and will not develop below 19degC. Thus diseases is limited to tropical and subtropical regions. - India was declared free of guineaworm disease and the last case repoed was in July 1996. -reservoir of infection is infected person. Animal reservoir is may exist but not yet proved. - humans are definitive host and Cyclops are the intermediate host. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no :245 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is associated with a sudden decrease in serum calcium levels? | [
"Skeletal manifestations",
"Increase in phosphate levels",
"Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion",
"Increase in excitability of muscle and nerve"
] | D | Manifestations of acute hypocalcemia includes increased neuromuscular excitability and cardiovascular effects of a decrease in ionized calcium. Nerves exposed to low ionized calcium, levels shows decreased threshold for excitation, repetitive responses to a single stimulus and in extreme cases continuous activity. Increased neuromuscular excitability manifest as paresthesias and tetany. In severe cases laryngeal spasm, seizures and death can occur. Ref: Poh Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States By Ruth A. Hannon, Page 762 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What does satisfactory colposcopy mean? | [
"Visualization of entire transformation zone",
"Visualization of endocervix",
"Visualization of ectocervix",
"Visualization offomices"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Visualization of entire transformation zone Colposcopy:o It is the examination of vagina and cervix by binocular microscope.o A satisfactory colposcopic examination means visualization of the entire transformation zone between the ecto and endocervix formed by the squamocolumnar junction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The diaphragm is formed of all the following except | [
"Septum transversum",
"Paraxial mesoderm",
"Pleuroperitoneal membranes",
"Dorsal mesentery of oesophagus"
] | B | The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle forming the paition between the thoraxic and abdominal cavities. It is a chief muscle of respiration. Diaphragm develops from the following sources. They are: Septum transversum forms the central tendon. Pleuroperitoneal membranes form the dorsal paired poion Lateral thoracic wall contributes to the circumferential poion of the diaphragm Dorsal mesentery of oesophagus forms the dorsal unpaired poion. Ref - medscape.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following inhalation anaesthetics should be avoided in middle ear surgery when tympanic grafts are used: | [
"Halothane",
"Nitrous oxide",
"Ether",
"Isoflurane"
] | B | Nitrous oxide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Strongest force of bonding b/w retina an RPE | [
"Vitreous gel pressure",
"Intraocular fluid pressure",
"RPE water transpo",
"IPM"
] | D | D i.e. IPM Interphotoreceptor matrix (IPM) is the strongest mechanism for bonding the retina to retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)Q. It also provide physical suppo of photoreceptors and transfer nutrients and visual pigment. The quality of these functions is controlled by RPE through the synthesis of matrix materials, transpo of proteins, ions and water. Because acute alteration in degree of hydration / dehydration changes its bonding propey & viscosity. The strength of adhesion is constantly and acutely dependent on metabolism (i.e., adhesion force drops to 0 after death & reversibly restored or enhanced by tissue oxygenation). Vitreous gel pressure, intraocular fluid pressure & RPE water transpo also help in retinal adhesion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement is TRUE regarding pneumothoraxa) Decreased breath soundsb) Decreased percussion notec) Always needs chest tube insertiond) Often needs chest tube insertion | [
"ad",
"c",
"ac",
"ab"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemodialysis can be performed for long periods from the same site due to | [
"Aeriovenous fistula reduces bacterial contamination of site",
"Aeriovenous fistula results in aerialization of vein",
"Aeriovenous fistula reduces chances of graft failure",
"Aretiovenous fistula facilitates small bore needles for high flow rates"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aeriovenous fistula results in aerialization of vein The tstu/a graft, or catheter hemodialvsis is often referred to as a dialysis access. A native fistula created by the anastomosis of an aery to a vein (e.g. the Bresica-Cimino fistula, in which the cephalic vein is anastomosed end-to-side to the radial aery) results in aerialization of the vein. This facilitates its subsequent use in the placement of large needles (typically 15 Gauge) to access the circulation. Fistulas have the highest long-term patency rate of all dialysis access options. The most impoant complication of aeriovenous grafts is thrombosis of the graft and graft failure, due principally to intimal hyperplasia at the anastomosis between the graft and recipient vein. Many patients undergo placement of an aeriovenous graft (i.e., the interposition of prosthetic material, usually polytetrafluoroethylene, between an aery and a vein) or a tunneled dialysis catheter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is not true about mycobacterium tuberculosis infection | [
"M.TB leads to development of delayed hypersensitivity",
"Lymphocytes are the primary cells infection by M.TB",
"Positive tuberculin test signifies cell mediated hypersensitivity",
"Tuberculin test not differentiated between infection and disease"
] | B | Ref Robbins 8/e p368; 9/e p371 Macrophage are primary cells infected by M tb Granulomatous inflammation is a distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation characterized by aggregates of acti- vated macrophages with scattered lymphocytes. Granulo- mas are characteristic of ceain specific pathologic states; consequently, recognition of the granulomatous pattern is impoant because of the limited number of conditions (some life-threatening) that cause it (Table 2-8). Granulo- mas can form under three settings: * With persistent T-cell responses to ceain microbes (such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, T. pallidum, or fungi), in which T cell-derived cytokines are responsible for chronic macrophage activation. Tuberculosis is the proto- type of a granulomatous disease caused by infection and should always be excluded as the cause when granulomas are identified. * Granulomas may also develop in some immune- mediated inflammatory diseases, notably Crohn disease, which is one type of inflammatory bowel disease and an impoant cause of granulomatous inflammation in the United States. * They are also seen in a disease of unknown etiology called sarcoidosis, and they develop in response to rela- tively ine foreign bodies (e.g., suture or splinter), forming so-called foreign body granulomas. The formation of a granuloma effectively "walls off" the offending agent and is therefore a useful defense mechanism. However, granuloma formation does not always lead to eradication of the causal agent, which is frequently resistant to killing or degradation, and granulo- matous inflammation with subsequent fibrosis may even be the major cause of organ dysfunction in some diseases, such as tuberculosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zavenelli's manoeuver done in: | [
"Shoulder dystocia",
"Deep transverse arrest",
"Retained placenta",
"Face presentation"
] | A | Manoeuvres done in case of: | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38 year old man confides to his physician that he is experiencing erectile dysfunction. After a thorough evaluation the physician finds no organic basis for the symptoms and then prescribes tadalafil. Tadalafil inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5 and causes tumescence. Venous blood exiting the tissues impacted by the prescribed medication will first enter which of the following ? | [
"External pudendal",
"Deep dorsal",
"Internal pudendal",
"Superficial dorsal"
] | B | The deep dorsal vein(2) of the penis drains blood from the erectile tissues. The external pudendal vein(1) receives blood from the skin and subcutaneous tissues of the penis but not the erectile tissues. The internal pudendal veins(3) do not directly receive blood from the erectile tissues. Small veins of the deep dorsal vein may communicate with the internal pudendal vein in the pelvis. The superficial dorsal vein(4) of the penis drains the skin and subcutaneous tissues of the penis It joins the external pudendal vein which, in turn, joins the great saphenous vein. Note: Deep penile (Buck's) fascia separates - deep dorsal vein (and aery) lying deep and superficial dorsal vein (and aery) lying superficial to it. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Presence of both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts are seen in all EXCEPT: | [
"Anti-Mullerian hormone deficiency",
"Ovotestis",
"FSH receptor mutation",
"Mixed Gonadal dysgenesis"
] | C | AMH DEFICIENCY or PMDS (Persistant Mullerian Duct Syndrome) Karyotype = 46XY and normal male external genitalia. Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome (PMDS) refers to the presence of a uterus and sometimes other Mullerian duct derivatives in a male. Both the Wolffian ducts and Mullerian ducts develop. The tissues are often intewined, resulting in obstruction or non patency of the vas deferens or other pas of the male excretory ducts. Ovotestis is seen in true hermaphroditism. Both ovaries and testis are present. There is ambiguity of external genitalia. The internal structures depend on degree of differentiation of the gonads. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis: 45X/46XY is the most common karyotype seen. A wide variety of phenotypes is seen ranging from ambiguous genitalia to normal feile males or normal female phenotype with bilateral streak gonads. The usual gonadal pattern is streak gonad on one side and a dysgenetic or normal testis on other side. Mullerian and Wolffian duct development correlates with the character of the ipsilateral gonad. Persons with FSH receptor mutation have either Wolffian duct (males) or Mullerian duct derivatives (females). Never both. FSH receptor mutation causes infeility or subfeility in males or females. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oxytocin receptor is:- | [
"Cytokine related receptor",
"G protein coupled receptor",
"Tyrosine kinase receptor",
"Nuclear or cytoplasmic"
] | B | Oxytocin receptor is G protein coupled receptors which bound to Gq which activate phospholipase C. Phospholipase C breaks down PIP2 to IP3. IP3 will act as 2nd messenger It helps in mobilization of calcium in sarcoplasmic reticulum and will increase calcium levels in the cell and cause excitatory effects in cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
This patient with diffuse, nonencapsulated fatty deposits is most likely to have a history of which one of the following? | [
"Alcohol dependency",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Renal insufficiency",
"Rheumatoid arthritis"
] | A | Answer A. Alcohol dependencyMadelung's disease (also known as benign symmetric lipomatosis) is a rare disorder of unknown cause and was the diagnosis in this case. Up to 90% of patients have a history of chronic alcoholism, and there is a strong male predominance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudomonas exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by inhibiting ? | [
"RNA polymerase",
"EF-2",
"Transpeptidase",
"Reverse transcriptase"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., EF-2 Exotoxin 'A' of P. aeruginosa inhibits protein synthesis through interference with adenosine diphosphate ribosylation of elongation factor - 2. Remember Bacterial toxins inhibiting protein synthesis : Exotoxin A of P aeruginosa Shiga toxin (Shigella) Diphtheria toxin Shiga like toxin or verocytotoxin of EHEC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is false about hydrocele? | [
"Arises due to patent processus vaginalis",
"Wait for 5 years for spontaneous closure of congenital hydrocele",
"Lord's plication of sac for small hydrocele",
"Jaboulay's eversion of sac for medium hydrocele"
] | B | Treatment of Hydrocele Congenital Hydrocele: Usually spontaneous obliteration by 2 years age. If persists then Herniotomy. Treatment of Vaginal Hydrocele 1. Small hydrocele: Lord's procedure (Plication of sac)Q 2. Medium hydrocele: Jaboulay's procedure (Eversion of sac)Q 3. Large hydrocele: Excision of sacQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the most probable poal of entry of a Aspergillus - | [
"Puncture wound",
"Blood",
"Lungs",
"Gastrointestinal tract"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lungs Aspergillosis Aspergillus fumigatus is the most common cause of aspergillosis. Aspergillus is a mould with septate branching hyphae. Ability of A. fumigatus to grow at 45 C helps to distinguish it from other species. Mode of transmission --> Inhalation of Aspergillus spores (Conidia). The commonest human disease caused by aspergillus is otomycosis. Aspergillus infection in neutropenic patient is characterized by hyphal invasion of blood vessels, thrombosis, necrosis and hemorrhagic infarction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fundus flouoscien angiography is least useful in? | [
"Diabetic retinopathy",
"Central serous retinopathy",
"Cystoids macular edema",
"None of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above Fluorescein angiography is useful in all conditions. Fluorescein angiography is used in :? Diabetic retinopathy Neoplasm Papilloedema Central serous retinopathy Retinitis pigmentosa and other retinal degeneration Choroidal diseases : Choroidal neovascularization Vascular occlusions (CRVO, CRAO) Eale's disease Cystoid macular edema | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a finding in viral encephalitis- | [
"Astroglial proliferation",
"Perivascular mononuclear infiltrate",
"Inclusion bodies intranuclear and intracytoplasmic",
"None of the above"
] | A | The pathologic Changes in viral encephalitis are :
Parenchymal infiltrate chiefly in perivascular location, of mononuclear cells consisting of lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages.
Microscopic clusters of MICROGLIAL cells and presence of Neuronophagia.
Viral infection can lead to : -
Intranuclear inclusions → Herpes infection (Cowdry body 'A')
Cytoplasmic inclusions → Rabies (Negri body)
Both intranuclear & cytoplasmic inclusions → Cytomegalovirus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In post-term pregnancy, there is increased risk of all except | [
"Postpaum hemorrhage",
"Meconium aspiration syndrome",
"Intracranial hemorrhage",
"Placental insufficiency leading to fetal hypoxia"
] | A | Post maturity DOES NOT put mother at risk.Increased morbidity may occur due to hazards of induction. Post term pregnancy causes an increased risk of placental insufficiency due to placental ageing,meconium aspiration and intracranial hemorrhage. (TB of obstetrics DC DUTTA 8th edition pg 374) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin def encountered with isoniazid is | [
"Vit A",
"Vit B9",
"Vit BB6",
"Vit B12"
] | C | Pyridoxine deficiency is seen with high doses of isoniazedRef:Katzung 11th ed Pg: 825 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum potassium ions secretion is seen in: | [
"Saliva",
"Gastric secretions",
"Jejunal secretions",
"Colonic secretions"
] | D | Colonic secretions Ret Harrison I6/e p418 (Table 63-4) Enteric Fluid Volumes and Their Electrolyte Content L/d Na K CI HCO3 Saliva 1-2 10 30 10 30 Gastric juice 2 60 9 90 0 Bile 2-3 150 10 90 70 Small intestine 1 100 5 100 20 Colon variable 40 100 15 60 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase : | [
"Phenytoin",
"Alcohol",
"Methotrexate",
"Yeast"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Comment on the diagnosis of the patient. | [
"Aoic dissection",
"Coarctation of aoa",
"Pulmonary aery hypeension",
"Boot shaped hea"
] | C | Given X ray shows prominent descending right pulmonary aery- giving "Jug handle" appearance Aoic Dissection - seen on CT COA - 3 sign TOF - Boot shaped hea | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs act on cell membrane EXCEPT : | [
"Nystatin",
"Griseofulvin",
"Amphotericin B",
"Polymyxin B"
] | B | It acts by affecting mitosis but the exact mechanism is not known. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dengue fever, all true except: | [
"Is spread by the vector Aedes aegypti",
"Has an incubation period of 2-3 weeks",
"Is caused by a Flavivirus",
"Characteristically causes severe myalgia"
] | B | Ans. B. Has an incubation period of 2-3 weeks.a. Dengue virus belongs to Flaviviridae. Two genera of medical importance in Flaviridae-b. Flavivirus: arthropod borne viruses; Dengue, Yellow fever, Japanese encephalitisc. Hepacivirus: non-arthropod borne; Hepatitis C virus.d. Vector for dengue- Aedes aegypti mosquito. Others- A. albopinctus, A. polynesiensis. These mosquitoes breed around human dwellings in uncovered water storage containers, vases, flower dishes, cans, etc. They shelter indoors and are day biters.e. Incubation, period - 5-8 days. All age groups & both sexes are affectedf. Saddle back fever (biphasic), severe headache and retro-orbital pain, muscle and joint pains (break bone fever), nausea, vomiting and rash are seen in dengue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following procedure can be done under EMLA cream except- | [
"Split thickness skin - graft harvesting",
"Laser removal of po wine stain",
"Lithotripsy",
"Intubation"
] | D | It is a cream preparation of local anesthetic providing dermal analgesia. Intubation cannot be done under EMLA it requires general anesthetics. EMLA cream - Eubetic mixture of local anesthetics It is a cream which consists of 1:1 Mixture of 2.5 % Lidocaine and 2.5% prilocaine Contact time required = 60 minutes Depth of Penetration = 3-5 mm. Duration of Analgesia = 1-2 hour The amount of drug absorbed depends on application time, dermal blood flow, keratin thickness and total dose administered. c/I of application of EMLA - 1. Mucous membrane 2. Broken skin 3. < 1 month Uses - laser removal of po wine stains Lithotripsy Circumcision Venous emulation Skin graft harvesting | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are helpful for diagnosis of medullary Ca thyroid except - | [
"Spindle cell stroma with few follicles",
"Amyloid deposition",
"Calcitonin in stroma",
"Histological mitochondria is essential for diagnosis"
] | D | Important Diagnostic Features of Medullary carcinoma are :
Acellular amyloid deposition.
Calcitonin secretion by tumour cells.
Microscopically polygonal to spindle cell may form nests, trabeculae and even follicles.
Electron Microscopy showing variable no. of electron-dense granules (Membrane-bound) within the cytoplasm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased LDH in Aqueous Humor suggests a diagnosis of: | [
"Galactosemia",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Glaucoma",
"Gyrate atrophy"
] | B | The activity of Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) is greater in aqueous humour than in serum in patients with retinoblastoma. The aqueous /plasma ratio of LDH is greater than 1.50 in pateints with retinoblastoma and less than 0.6 in other ocular condition. The reason for this increase may be attributed to the necrotic nature of retinoblastoma, which allows more cytosol enzymes (LDH) to reach aqueous. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology By Sunita Agarwal, Athiya Agarwal, Vol 1, 2002, Page 65; Clinical Ophthalmology: A Systemic Approach By Jack J Kansk, Brad Bowling, 7th Edition, Page 2005 | train | med_mcqa | null |
20-year-male presents with fever, fatigue, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, palatal petechiae, and splenomegaly. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes and the heterophile antibody is positive. The likely diagnosis is | [
"Acute leukemia",
"Lymphocytic leukemia",
"Infectious mononucleosis",
"Chronic myeloid leukemia"
] | C | The Epstein-Barr virus is the cause of heterophil positive infectious mononucleosisFeatures are fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy most often affects posterior cervical nodes but may be generalized, splenomegaly and atypical lymphocytosisIt is usually a disease of young adultsRef: Davidson's 20/e p307, Harrison; 18/e p1467-1468 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is not a hepatotoxic antitubercular drug: | [
"Ethambutol",
"INH",
"Rifampicin",
"Pyrazinamide"
] | A | Ethambutol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which should not be given in Liver failure? | [
"Acetozolamide",
"Furosemide",
"Epelerone",
"Spironolactone"
] | A | Ref: Katzung 11th p.256 - 258Explanation:* Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor-induced alkalinization of the urine decreases urinary excretion of N114+ (by converting it to rapidly reabsorbed NH3) and may contribute to the development of hyperammonemia and hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis.Another carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, sulthiame. is an anticonvulsant under clinical trials in the USA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are true about Pneumotaxic Centre except | [
"Pneumotaxic Centre is located in Upper Pons",
"It decreases expiration and increases inspiration",
"It controls rate of respiration",
"It helps in smooth switch between inspiration and expiration"
] | B | Pneumotaxic centre decreases inspiration and increases expiration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Police officer has the power to summon a doctor to police station for recording a statement under | [
"160 Cr P C",
"161 Cr P C",
"162 Cr P C",
"163 Cr P C"
] | A | S. 160, Cr.P.C. : Police officer has the power to summon any witness (doctor) to police station for recording a statement. S. 161, Cr.P.C.: The police has the power to examine witnesses. S. 162, Cr.P.C. : Oral statements made to the police and recorded by the police should not be signed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding Lupus anticoagulant,except - | [
"Increased abortions",
"Arterial thrombosis",
"Rashes",
"Increased PT"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superficial perineal space contains all except | [
"Root of penis",
"Urethral aery",
"Great vestibular glands (Baholin glands)",
"Membranous uretha"
] | D | Contents muscles Ishiocavernous muscle Bulbospongiousmuscle Superficial transverse perinial muscle. Crura of penis (males) / Crura of clitoris(females Bulb of penis (males) / Vestibular bulbs(females) Greater vestibular gland(female) ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg354 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Staining done for sebaceous cell carcinoma - | [
"Oil Red O",
"PAS",
"Methamine silver",
"KOH"
] | A | . Oil Red O | train | med_mcqa | null |
A resident at the emergency department is preparing for a lumbar puncture in a 26 years old female with suspected subarachnoid bleeding. Although she presented with altered sensorium, CT brain was found to be normal. During LP, which structure is pierced after the spinal needle crosses interspinous ligament? | [
"Ligamentum flavum",
"Arachnoid membrane",
"Areolar tissue",
"Subarachnoid space"
] | A | Ans: (a) Ligamentum flavumRef: Morgan's Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th edition, Chapter 16STRUCTURES PIERCED BY SPINAL NEEDLE DURING LP1. Skin2. Subcutaneous tissue3. Supraspinous ligament4. Interspinous ligament5. Ligamentum flavum6. Dura mater7. Arachnoid membrane | train | med_mcqa | null |
Predictive values of a screening test depends on | [
"Prevalence",
"Sensitivity",
"Health worker",
"None of the above"
] | A | In addition to sensitivity and specificity, the performance of a screening test is measured by its predictive value which reflects the diagnostic power of the test.The predictive accuracy depends upon sensitivity, specificity and disease prevalence.The more prevalent a disease is in a given population, the more accurate will be the predictive value of a positive screening test.Park 23e pg: 140 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum increase in cardiac output occurs by what stage of pregnancy : | [
"10th week",
"20th week",
"30th week",
"At the onset of labour"
] | C | 30th week | train | med_mcqa | null |
During meiosis, process of pairing of homologous chromosomes which permits large segments of DNA to be exchanged is known as: | [
"Crossing over",
"Non-disjunction",
"Alignment",
"Synapsis"
] | D | Synapsis (pairing of homologous chromosomes) is a unique event that occurs only during meiosis I in the production of gametes. Synapsis is necessary so that crossing over, whereby large segments of DNA are exchanged, can occur. Prophase-I of Meiosis I-Is long & complex phase that differ considerably from mitotic prophase and is customarily divided into five sub- stages. 1.Leptotene: - Homologous chromosomes (maternal and paternal copies of the same chromosomes) begin to condense. 2. Zygotene: - Homologous chromosomes initiate pairing / synapsis. The pairs of synapsed homologous are known as Bivalent. The sex chromosomes also sta to synapse during zygotene. 3.Pachytene: - Synapsis is complete for all chromosomes. Genetic recombination between non-sister chromatids is completed at this point, with sites where it has occurred, appearing as recombination nodules in the center of the synaptonemal complex. 4.Diplotene: - Pairs of homologous chromosomes separates except where crossing over has occurred (chiasmata). This process is called disjunction. In the ovaries: - Primary oocyte gets arrested in diploteneby the fifth month is utero and each remains at this stage until the period before ovulation. (up to 50 years) 5.Diakinesis: -It is the prometaphase of the first meiotic division. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dracunculosis infection occurs through- | [
"Ingestion of water containing cyclops",
"Ingestion of water containing the parasite",
"Ingestion of fish",
"Penetration of skin"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is present in the part of the bone which received radiotherapy - | [
"Response to radiotherapy is good",
"Fast healing",
"More destruction of bone",
"Tumour regression is not affected"
] | C | Infection and radiation, both cause bone destruction and predispose to pathological fracture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nociception from abdomen is transmitted by | [
"A gamma",
"Aa",
"C fibres",
"B"
] | C | Pain is carried by type c fibre. Table 4-1 Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:89 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prehn sign is positive in - | [
"Acute epidydimoorchitis",
"Chronic orchitis",
"Testicular torsion",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute epidydimoorchitis Prehn's sign on elevation of testis the:* pain is not relieved in torsion (test is negative)* pain relieved in epidydimoorchitis (test is positive) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resistance to zidovudine develops due to- | [
"Mutations at reverse transcriptase",
"Increased efflux of the drug from inside the cell",
"Increased metabolism of the drug",
"Decreased zidovudine 5 triphosphate formation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mutations at reverse transcriptase "Resistance to Zidovudine occurs by point mutation which alters reverse transcriptase enzyme. In the past when AZT was used alone, > 50% patients became nonresponsive to AZT within 1-2 years therapy due to growth of resistant mutants" - KDT | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant brought to emergency, unresponsive, bradycardia, shallow breathing. Next step of management: | [
"IV epinephrine",
"IV atropine",
"Stabilize the airway and assist breathing",
"Cardiopulmonary resuscitation"
] | D | d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitationThe sequence of resuscitation in infants & children is C-A-B (compressions, airway, breathing) rather than A-B-C i.e initiate CPR with chest compressions, rather than with rescue breaths | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methemoglobinemia may be caused by following, except: | [
"Sulfonamides",
"Phenytoin",
"Phenacetin",
"Salicylates"
] | D | Salicylates | train | med_mcqa | null |
Babesiosis is transmitted by - | [
"Tick",
"Mites",
"Flea",
"Mosquito"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tick Babesiao Babesiosis is a protozoan disease caused by two species of Babesia : Babesia microti and Babesia divergens.o It is transmitted by loxdid tick.o Babesia infects the RBCs and resides inside the RBCs ( intraerythrocytic). Intraery throcytic infection of Babesiosis is characterised by maltese cross. Maltese cross is a characteristic arrangement of parasites within the erythrocytes - Parasites within erythrocytes are arranged such that pointed ends of four parasites come in contact thereby giving a tetrad configuration resembling a maltese cross. Tetrad forms or 'Maltese cross' appearance is considered pathognomic of Babesiosis.o Clinically Babesiosis presents with chills, fever, mild hepatosplenomegaly, and mild hemolytic anemia,o Treatment includes Atovaquone plus azithromycin or quinine plus clindamycin.o Babesiosis can easily be confused with P. falciparum malaria.Following two features distinguish Babesiosis from malariaPresence of maltese cross in Babesiosis (absent in malaria)Absence of pigment Hemozoin in Babesiosis (present in malaria)Note - Maltese cross is also seen in cryptococcus and aspergillus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are second messengers | [
"CAMP",
"CGMP",
"Inositol triphosphate",
"Diacylglycerol"
] | A | Cyclic adenosine monophosphate(cAMP, cyclic AMP, or 3&;,5&;-cyclic adenosine monophosphate) is a second messenger impoant in many biological processes.cAMP is a derivative of adenosine triphosphate(ATP) and used for intracellular signal transduction in many different organisms, conveying the cAMP-dependent pathway.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of leukoplakia - | [
"Local excision",
"Excision and radiotherapy",
"Topical chemotherapy",
"Repositioning of ill fitting dentures"
] | D | Treatment of oral leukoplakia
Usually, all that is needed for the treatment of oral leukoplakia is just to remove the source of the irritation. If leukoplakia is caused by a rough edge of a tooth, filling or crown or by a denture that does not fit properly, the surface should be smoothed and the dental appliances repaired.
For most people, changing life habits by stopping smoking or alcohol consumption clears the condition in a few weeks or months.
If removing the irritating factor is not effective in clearing the patches, leukoplakia treatment may include surgical removal (excision) or ablation with laser or cryotherapy.
A biopsy should be conducted to rule out malignancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about retinoblastoma ? | [
"Bilateral in 20-30%",
"Affects age group 1-5 years",
"More common in males",
"Leukocoria is earliest symptom"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' More common in males Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular tumor in children. The tumor is confined to infancy and very young children (1-2 years). There is no sex predisposition. Retinoblastoma is unilateral in 70-75% of cases and bilateral in 25-30% of cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muller's sign is seen in? | [
"Mitral stenosis",
"Aoic stenosis",
"Mitral regurguitation",
"Aoic regurgitation"
] | D | Peripheral signs of AR - Muller&;s sign: Pulsations of the uvula. Collapsing pulse: Rapid upstroke, rapid down stroke and high volume. de Musset&;s sign: head nodding with pulse. Quincke&;s sign: Capillary pulsation in nail bed. Duroziez&;s sign: Femoral bruit. Hill&;s sign: popliteal cuff systolic pressure exceeding brachial cuff systolic BP more than 20mmHg. Lighthouse sign : Capillary pulsation on forehead. Rosenbach&;s sign: pulsatile liver. Gerhardt&;s sign: pulsatile spleen. Ref: Medicine, George Mathew, 4th edition, Pg No: 487 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young women with secondary amenorrhea and galactorrhea. MRI shows a tumour of < lOmm diameter in the pituitary fossa. Treatment is: | [
"Hormonal therapy for withdrawal bleeding",
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Bromocriptine"
] | D | Answer is D (Bromocriptine): Secondary Amenorrhea and galactorrhea in a young women with evidence of microadenoma (tumor I Omm) in the pituitary fossa suggest a diagnosis of prolactinoma. Oral dopamine agonists (Dopamine or Cabergoline) are the treatment of choice for patients with prolactinomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is an abnormal lipoprotein ? | [
"VLDL",
"Chylomicron",
"Lp (a)",
"LDL"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lp (a) Some people have a special type of abnormal LDL called lipoprotein (a) or Lp (a), containing an additional protein, apoprotein-a.Elevated LPa levels are associated with an increased risk of CHD. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Local anaesthetic causing methemoglobinuria is? | [
"Dibucaine",
"Chlorprocaine",
"Procaine",
"Benzocaine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Benzocaine Impoant facts about LAs Chlorprocaine is the shoest acting LA. Dibucaine is the longest acting, most potent and most toxic LA. Procaine & chlorprocaine are least potent LAs. Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic LA (Ropivacaine is a newer bupivacaine congener with less cardiotoxicity). Levobupivacaine (The S (-) enantiomer of bupivacaine) is less cardiotoxic and less prone to cause seizure. Prilocaine and Benzocaine can cause Methaemoglobinemia Lignocaine is the most commonly used LA. Bupivacaine has the highest local tissue irritancy. Chlorprocaine is contraindicated in spinal anaesthesia as it can cause paraplegia due to presence of neurotoxic preservative sodium metabisulphite. Procaine is the LA of choice in malignant hypehermia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is commonly recommended procedure for debridement | [
"Citric acid",
"Hydrogen peroxide-10%",
"Air and water spray",
"Hydrochloric acid"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
C- ANCA is present in | [
"Microscopic polyangitis",
"Churg - Strauss syndrome",
"Kawasaki disease",
"Wegner's granulomatosis"
] | D | (Wegner's granulomatosis) (363 - Basic pathology -Robins 8th)* c ANCA is typical of Wegner's granulo matosis* p- ANCA is found in most cases of microscopic polyangitis and churg. Strauss syndrome* Cytoplasmic localization (c-ANCA) wherein the most common target antigen is proteinase 3 (PR-3) a neutrophil granules constituents* Perinuclear localization (p-ANCA) wherein most of the autoantibodies are specific for myelo peroxidase (MPO)Large vessel vasculitisMedium vessel vasculitisSmall vessel vasculitisGiant cell (temporal) arterietisTakayasu arteritis* Polyarteritis nodosa* Kawasaki disease* Wegner's granulomatosis* Churg - Strauss syndrome* Microscopic polyangitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feature indicative of anti-moem drowning is - | [
"Cutis anserine",
"Rigor mois",
"Washerwomen feet",
"Grass and weeds grasped in the hand"
] | D | Reff: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology 28th edition pg:192 Cadaveric spasm: Presence of weeds, grass,sticks,twigs etc.,floating in water may be firmly grasped in the hands due to cadaveric spasm. It strongly suggest that the person was alive when drowned, because it indicates the struggle of the person for his life. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Taking off once clothes and running in public is called | [
"Mooning",
"Exhibitionism",
"Voyeurism",
"Undinism"
] | B | EXHIBITIONISM: An exhibitionist is one who, over a period of 6 months or more, experiences recurrent, intense sexually arousing urges or behaviors involving the exposure of one's genitals to an unsuspected stranger. It usually occurs before adulthood. It is done mostly by male, often to children or to the persons of the opposite sex. In some cases, the act is impulsive and spontaneous, while in other cases it is premediated. Occasionally women may expose themselves in public. Majority of them are psychopathic or suffer from compulsion neuroses. It is an obscene act, punishable under S.294, I.P.C. with imprisonment up to 3 months or fine. REF: THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY 29th edition page no: 227. | train | med_mcqa | null |
magnocellularr and parvocellular neurons project to ? | [
"layer 2 of visual coex",
"layer 4 and 4c of visual coex",
"layer 6 and 1 of visual coex",
"layer 2 and 3 of visual coretx"
] | B | ref : guyton and hall | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classic Triad of Pheochromocytoma includes episodes of all of the following Except: | [
"Palpitation",
"Headache",
"Sweating",
"Hypeension"
] | D | Answer is D (Hypeension): The classic triad of pheochromocytoma includes episodes of palpitations, headaches and profuse sweating Among the presenting symptoms, episodes of palpitations, headache and profuse sweating are typical and constitute the classic triad. The presence of all three symptoms of the classic triad in association with hypeension makes pheochromocytoma a likely diagnosis' - Harrison | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with weakness of the right side of the face with loss of pain and temperature , Pain and temperature sensation of the left leg is lost The lesion is most likely located | [
"lateral poms",
"medial pons",
"lateral medulla",
"Medial medulla"
] | A | RULE OF 4 weakness of face =palsy of facial muscles of=7th nerve affected =same side=7th NERVE from PONS Loss of pain, temperature from force = Trigeminal Nerve affected=Lesion in lateral side and ipsilateral Loss of pain , temperature in body = UL, LL=spinothalamic tract affected= Lesion in C/L side and also lateral side REF: BD CHAURASIA | train | med_mcqa | null |
MC complication following hemorrhoidectomy is: March 2013 (h) | [
"Hemorrhage",
"Infection",
"Fecal impaction",
"Urinary retention"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Urinary retention | train | med_mcqa | null |
A HIV patient presents with cough for 10 days. Sputum culture with SDA reveals broad budding yeast with thick mucoid wall. Diagnosis: | [
"Blastomycosis",
"Histoplasmosis",
"Coccidiomycosis",
"Penicillium marneffi"
] | A | Microscopic pictures shows broad budding yeast with figure of 8 appearence seen in Blastomycosis. Blastomycosis can present in one of the following ways: a flu-like illness with fever, chills, ahralgia(joint pain), myalgia(muscle pain), headache, and a non productive cough which resolves within days. skin lesions, usually asymptomatic, can be verrucous (wa-like) or ulcerated with small pustules at the margins. bone lytic lesions can cause bone or joint pain. 40% immunocompromised individuals have CNS involvement and present as brain abscess, epidural abscess or meningitis. Histoplasmosis - tiny oval yeast cell with narrow based budding Coccidiomycosis - spherules are seen(large sac filled with endospore) Penicillium marneffi - oval or elliptical cell with central septation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gettler's test is positive in | [
"Hanging",
"Drowning",
"Strangulation",
"Firearm injury"
] | B | B i.e. Drowning Gettler test is done for drowningQ. Gettler's test estimate chloride content of blood from both sides of hea - Normally the chloride content is equal in the right & left chambers of the hea 600 mg/100 ml). In fresh water drowning due to hemodilutione the chloride content is decreasedQ and in Salt water drowning due to hemoconcentrationQ the chloride content is increased in left side of heaQ - A 25% difference in chloride is significant but the test is of ,fintlitnt/ - Limitations of Gettler test 1. No value in atypical drowningQ; congenital cardiac defectsQ as shunts & patent foramen ovale; and if drowning medium contains same amount of chlorideQ 2. There is progressive loss of Cl- from blood after death. Therefore the test has to be made within a reasonably sho time after deathQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
STEPS is related: | [
"To study surveillance of risk factors for noncommunicable diseases",
"To study surveillance of incidence for noncommunicable diseases",
"To study surveillance of moality for non-communicable diseases",
"To study follow-up to treatment of non-communicable diseases"
] | A | To study surveillance of risk factors for noncommunicable diseases | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pure Aryans have which type of skull - | [
"Mesaticephalic",
"Brachycephalic",
"Dolicocephalic",
"None of the above"
] | C | Cephalic index (Index of Breadth) is Maximum Breadth of Skull / Maximum Length of Skull. From the Cephalic index, race can be determined in 85 - 90% of cases. The skull of an Indian is Caucasian with a few Negroid characters. Type of skull Cephalic index Race Dolicocephalic (long-headed) 70-75 Pure Aryans, Aborigines, Negroes Mesaticephalic (medium-headed) 75-80 Europeans, Chinese, Indians Brachycephalic (sho-headed) 80-85 Mongolian Ref: 1.Dr. Narayana Reddy, The Essentials of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 34th edition, pg. 57. 2. V.V.Pillay, Textbook of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 18th edition, pg. 70. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rough and Irregular surface produced on the impression is because of? | [
"Improper application of pressure during impression making",
"Air incorporated during mixing",
"Too rapid polymerization",
"Presence of moisture in impression area"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Levodopa can aggravate which of the following malignancy | [
"Squamous cell cancer",
"Pleomorphic adenoma",
"Basal cell carcinoma",
"Malignant melanoma"
] | D | Dopamine is a preursor of melanin & hence L-Dopa should be used cautiously in cases of Malignant Melanoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sabre Tibia | [
"Scury",
"Rickets",
"Leprosy",
"Syphilis"
] | D | D i.e. Syphilis Recurrence of the chancre in its original place due to relapse (not re-infection) in early syphilisQ is called chancre redux. - Vesico - Bullous lesion are charcterstically seen in early congenital syphilisQ & not found in other stages of syphilis. Interstitial keratitis, along with 8th nerve deafness & hutchinson's teeth (pegged central upper incisors)Q -form Hutchinson's triad; which is seen in late congential syphilis. Sabre tibiaQ, saddle nose, mulberry molars, bull dog jaws, frontal bossing of parrot and rhagades are other features of late congenital syphilis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pressure used in pneumatic tourniquet in upper limb is upto: | [
"Systolic Blood Pressure + 50",
"Systolic Blood Pressure + 75",
"Systolic Blood Pressure + 100",
"None of the above"
] | B | Pneumatic tourniquet is a narrow rubber bag to be wound around a limb, pressure being applied by pumping air into the inflatable cuff.
A bloodless field is obtained by applying pressure through pneumatic tourniquet for accurate surgery. Usually pressure applied 75 mmHg over systolic blood pressure for not more than 2 hours. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Smack is the "common" name for - | [
"Heroin",
"Cocaine",
"Opium",
"None"
] | A | Smack is a street name for Heroin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which amino acid has imino group- | [
"Proline",
"Glycine",
"Arginine",
"Tryptophan"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Proline* Proline has an imino group as one of its functional groups (the other one being carboxyl group). All other amino acids have an amino group and a carboxyl group* Glycine does not have a side chain* Arginine has a guanidium group in the side chain* Tryptophan has an indole group in the side chain* Aminoacids have an aminogroup and carboxyl group as functional groups. Apart from these functional groups, they also have a side chain.* Aminoacids are classified based on the side chain asa) Polar aminoacidsb) Non polar aminoacids* Polar aminoacids are aminoacids which are soluble in polar solvents like water. For them to be soluble in polar solvents like water, they should be either charged or they should have polar groups like -OH or -SH or -NH groups, which can form hydrogen bonding with water.* Hence polar aminaocids are classified as# Charged and# Uncharged* Charged polar aminoacids are classified as# Positively charged or basic aminoacids* Histidine, Lysine and arginine* These aminoacids have additional aminogroups in the side chain (other than the functional aminogroup)* Histidine has two iminogroups* Lysine has one aminogroup* Arginine has two aminogroups# Negatively charged or acidic aminoacids* Aspartic acid and Glutamic acid* These aminoacids have additional carboxyl groups in the side chain (other than the functional carboxyl groups)* Uncharged polar amino acids are classified as# Hydroxyl group containing aminoacids* Serine, threonine, tyrosine# Sulphydryl group containing aminoacids* Cysteine* Aminogroup containing aminoacids# Asparagine and Glutamine# These aminoacids have only one additional aminogroup in the side chain* Non Polar aminoacids are classified as:Aliphatic aminoacids# Glycine, Alanine, Valine, Leucine, isoleucine and Methionine# Out of these Valine, Leucine and Isoleucine are branched chain aminoacidsAromatic aminoacids# Phenylalanine and Tryptophan (Though tyrosine is aromatic, it is polar but uncharged, because it has a hydroxyl group).Iminoacid# Proline | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hardening solution for agar: | [
"Titanium flouride.",
"Sodium flouride.",
"2% potassium sulphate.",
"All of the above."
] | C | Gypsum products are not compatible with the hydrocolloid impression materials. The casts will become soft. This can be prevented by incorporating hardening solutions in the impression material during manufacturing or by immersing the impression in an accelerator solution for the setting of gypsum.
The hardening solutions are 2% potassium sulphate for agar and titanium fluoride for alginate materials. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old female is suffering from renal failure and is on hemodialysis since last 8 years. She developed carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following finding will be associated | [
"AL",
"AA",
"ATTR",
"B2 microglobulin"
] | D | Patients on long-term hemodialysis for renal failure can develop amyloidosis as a result of deposition of b2-microglobulin. This protein is present in high concentrations in the serum of persons with renal disease and in the past, it was retained in the circulation because it could not be filtered through dialysis membranes. Patients sometimes presented with carpal tunnel syndrome because of b2-microglobulin deposition.With new dialysis filters, the incidence of this complication has decreased substantially.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Page no: 260 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Granular keratic precipitates are made of - | [
"Epitheloid cells",
"Macrophages",
"Lymphocytes",
"RBC"
] | C | granular KPs(small and medium KPs). These are pathognomic of non-granulomatous uveitis and are composed of lymphocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
50 years old is brought to emergency department for evaluation of fever, chills, malaise and fatigue. Cardiac examination reveals a new holosystolic murmur that radiates towards the axilla. Blood cultures are obtained. He undergoes a transoesophageal echocardiography. The USG probe is placed in mid oesophagus facing anteriorly and the cardiac chambers are interrogated. The chamber which is anatomically closer to the probe is | [
"Left atrium",
"Right atrium",
"Left ventricle",
"Right ventricle"
] | A | Answer: a) Left atriumThis patient's presentation suggests acute endocarditis, with confirmation pending the results of the blood cultures and cardiac imaging.Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) uses ultrasound waves generated from within the esophagus to produce clear images of the neighboring cardiac structures.The left atrium makes up the majority of the heart's posterior surface, with the esophagus passing immediately posterior tothe heart.Therefore, the esophagus lies within closest proximity to the left atrium.This allows the left atrium, atrial septum, and mitral valve to be particularly well visualized on TEE.Due to its adjacent proximity, conditions that result in left atrial enlargement (eg, atrial fibrillation, mitral stenosis) can cause dysphagia through external compression of the esophagus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is true regarding (A-a)O2 gradient? (A = alveolus; a = aerial) | [
"Normal gradient ~ 15 mmhg (2 kpa)",
"An increased gradient may be caused by, pulmonary collapse",
"Venous admixture affects (A-a)O2 gradient",
"All"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Effacement of foot processes is pathognomic OF which disease | [
"minimal change disease",
"Stenoid resistant glomerulonephritis",
"Membranous glomerulonephritis",
"IgA nephropathy"
] | A | In minimal change disease histopathology is normal while electron microscopy is pathognromic which shows loss or effacement of podocyte foot processes REF : ROBBINS 10TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
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