question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
DT 104 strain belong to which of the following bacteria- | [
"salmonella gallinarum",
"salmonella typhi",
"salmonella typhimurium",
"salmonella enteritis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The only definite contraindication to ECT is: | [
"Brain tumour",
"Glaucoma",
"Aoic aneurysm",
"Myocardial disease"
] | A | Brain tumour | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a pneumatic bone: | [
"Ethmoid",
"Sphenoid",
"Maxillary",
"Mandible"
] | D | Pneumatic bones are those bones which contain an air filled cavity within them which make them light in weight. In humans, they are seen in relation to nasal cavity & enclose paranasal sinuses. Besides making the skull light in weight they also help in resonance of sound & act as air conditioning chambers for inspired air. Pneumatic bones are - maxilla, frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid and Mastoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Whch of the following us used to compare two data sets taken on two different scales of measurement? | [
"Coefficient of variation",
"Standard detion",
"Standard error",
"Variance"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for the treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy is: | [
"Propylthiouracil",
"Radio iodine",
"Carbimazole",
"Iodides"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mucous membrane of cervix is lined by | [
"Simple squamous epithelium",
"Simple columnar epithelium",
"Stratified squamous epithelium",
"Ciliated columnar epithelium"
] | B | Ans: B Simple columnar epithelium(Ref: Langman's Embryology 11'h/e p. 269)Lining of uterine cavity - Ciliated columnar epithelium.Lining of cervical canal - Simple (nonciliated) columnar epithelium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate of: (Repeat) | [
"50",
"60",
"70",
"80"
] | B | Ans: B (60) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park,21st edition feb 2011,page no:452.Explanation:"To achieve the demographic goal of NRR - 1 the couple protection rate should have to be achieved by 60% far beyond the present level f46.6%)"Demographic IndicatorsBirth rate - Number of live births during the year per 1000 estimated mid-year populationGeneral fertility rate (GFR) - Number of live births in an area during the year per 1000 midyear female population age 15-44 (or49) in the same yearAge specific fertility rate (ASFR)- Number of live births in a particular age group per 1000 midyear female population of the same age groupTotal fertility rate - Average number of children a women would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years hearing children at the same rates as the women now in each age groupGross reproductive rate - Average number of girl children a women would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years bearing children at the same rates as the women now in each age group* Net reproductive rate - Average number of daughters a newborn girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age-specific fertility and mortality rates.Also NoteNRR = number of daughters a new born girl will bear during her lifetime assuming fixed age- specific fertility and mortatlity rates.TFR = 2.1 is equivalent to two child norm.NRR = 1 is equivalent to two child norm, as in NRR we only take into account only female children. NRR = 1 means each women is replaced hut a women (her female child).If NRR is less than l. then reproductive performance of the population is said to be below' replacement level.NRR=1 can be achived only atleast 60% of eligible couples are effectively practising family planning. That is Couple Protection Rate of 60% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Supination - pronation occurs at ? | [
"Wrist joint",
"Radiocarpal joint",
"Radio-ulnar joint",
"Elbow joint"
] | C | Radio-ulnar joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
A herpetologist is bitten by a poisonous snake and is taken to the emergency depament with progressive muscle paralysis. The venom is probably incapacitating his | [
"Na+ channels",
"Ca2+ channels",
"Phospholipids",
"Acetylcholine receptors."
] | D | Snake venom usually blocks acetylcholine receptors, preventing depolarization of the muscle cell. The Na+ and Ca2+ channels are not incapacitated by snake venoms | train | med_mcqa | null |
During autopsy of suspected anaesthetic poisoning,lung excised from hilum is to be preserved in ? | [
"PVC container",
"Metal container",
"Nylon bag",
"Poly ethylene bag"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Metal container In normal toxicological examination one lung is preserved in sealed nylon bag. In case of inhaled anesthetic, intact lung with bronchi ligated should be kept in gas sealed metal/ non plastic containers of appropriate size to avoid empty space and are sealed and refrigerated/ frozen. Alveolar should be collected with needle and syringe by puncturing the lung under water before the chest is opened. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Order of the following structures of fallopian tube from lateral to medial - | [
"Ampulla-Infundibulum-lsthmus-Interstitial",
"Infundibulum-Ampulla-Isthmus-lnterstitial",
"Isthmus-Infundibulum-Ampulla-Interstitial",
"Ampulla-Isthmus-Infiindibulum-Interstitial"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Infundibulum-Ampulla-Isthmus-Interstitial UTERINE TUBE fallopian TUBEIo These are tortuous ducts which convey oocyte from ovary to uterus,o They are situated on the upper free border of the broad ligament.o The uterine tube is about 10 cm long.o At the lateral end, the uterine tube opens into the peritonea! cavity through abdominal ostium.o It is lined by ciliated columnar epithelium.Subdivisions of the fallopian tubeo From lateral to media! the fallopian tube has following parts :Infundibulum (fimbriated end) : It bears a number of finger-like processes called fimbriae. One of the large fimbriae is attached to ovary called ovarian fimbria.Ampulla: It forms approximately lateral two third (6-7 cm) of the tube.Isthmus: It forms medial one third (2-3 cm) of the tube.Interstitial or uterine or intramural part: It is 1 cm lung and lies within the wall of the uterus.Blood supplyo Medial two third - Uterine artery,o Lateral one third - Ovarian artery.Lymphatic drainageo Lateral aortic and preaortic nodes,o From isthmus - Superficial inguinal nodes.The subdivisions, relations and blood supply of the uterine tube | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soil forms an impoant reservoir for all of the following infections, except: | [
"Brucellosis",
"Coccoidiomycosis",
"Anthrax",
"Tetanus"
] | A | Brucellosis is a zoonotic disease with the reservoirs being cattle, sheep, goats, swine, buffaloes, horses and dogs. Soil is not a reservoir for these intra-cellular bacteria although damp soil does contain the bacteria. The above given other three infections have soil as an reservoir. Ref: Microbiology: An Introduction By Toora, 9th Edition, Pages 678; Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Pages 242-43 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schilling's test is false + ve in (PGI June 2008) | [
"Celiac sprue",
"Renal insufficiency",
"Short bowel syndrome",
"Diverticulosis"
] | B | Ans. B (Renal insufficiency) D-Xylose TestPositive TestDecreased D-Xylose excretion in urine due to malabsorption from gastrointestinal mucosal diseaseCauses IncludeCeliac diseaseTropical sprueWhipple's diseaseAnother mucosal diseaseFalse Positive TestDecreased D-Xylose excretion in urine due to causes other than malabsorption from small bowel mucosal diseaseCauses Include# Bacterial overgrowth# Renal insufficiency# Delay gastric emptying# Rapid intestinal transit# Vomiting# Ascites / Pleural effusion (Third space collections) o causes other than malabsorption from small bowel mucosal diseaseTable (Harrison) : Results of Diagnostic Studies in Different Causes of Steatorrhoea. D-XyloseTestSchilling TestDuodenalMucosalBiopsyChronic pancreatitisnormal50% abnormal; if abnormal, normal with pancreatic enzymes1NormalQBacterial overgrowth syndromeNormal or only modestly abnormalQOften abnormal; if abnormal, normal after antibioticsUsuallynormalIleal diseasenormalAbnormal5NormalCeliac sprueDecreasedNormalAbnormal: probably 'flat"QIntestinal lymphangiectasiaNormalNormalAbnormal:"dilatedlymphaticsSchilling Test Resultsnormal.Patient ConditionStage I WaterStage II Intrinsic FactorStage III AntibioticStage IV Pancreatic ExtractHealthynormal.mmPerniciousanemiaLowNormaQ- Bacterial overgrowthLowLowNormal-Pancreatic insufficiencyQ LowLowLowQNormalDefect in ileumQLowLowLowLow | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 9-month-old girl is brought with PR bleed, vomiting, mass in right lumbar region with masked liver dullness. She is in shock like condition. Management should include all of the following EXCEPT? | [
"Barium enema",
"IV fluid",
"Give O2",
"Nasogastric tube"
] | A | * In patients with prolonged intussusception with signs of shock, peritoneal irritation, intestinal perforation, reduction (with barium, saline or air) should not be attempted * Urgent laprotomy should be planned * But the first priority is urgent resuscitation ie A, B, C (airway, breathing, circulation). Hence in case of shock, and as the child in question is also vomiting, she should be made NPO and Nasogastric tube inseion should be done. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Central facial erythema with overlying greasy, yellowish scale as seen in this patient is feature of: | [
"Nummular eczema",
"Seborrheic dermatitis",
"Dyshidrotic eczema",
"Pityriasis rosea"
] | B | Greasy, yellowish scale s/o Seborrheic dermatitis Seborrheic dermatitis: greasy scales overlying erythematous patches or plaques. Induration and scale are generally less prominent than in psoriasis, so a clinical overlap between these diseases ("sebopsoriasis"). Site- scalp, face, eyebrows, eye- lids, glabella, and nasolabial folds. Scaling of the external auditory canal is common in seborrheic dermatitis. Seborrheic dermatitis may also develop in the central chest, axilla, groin, submammary folds, and gluteal cleft. Seborrheic dermatitis in infants occurs in the scalp ("cradle cap"), face, or groin. Cradle cap is frequently seen in patients with Parkinson's disease, cerebrovascular accidents, HIV infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soap bubble appearence on abdominal radiograph is associated with | [
"Achalasia cardia",
"Meconium ileus",
"Duodenal atresia",
"CHPS"
] | B | Soap-bubble' effect of gas mixed with 'meconium', commonly seen with 'meconium ileus'. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A most common cause of erythema multiforme – | [
"Herpes simplex",
"DM",
"Pityriasis rosae",
"Erysipelas"
] | A | Most of the cases of erythema multiforme are idiopathic, but amongst the known causes, HSV is the most important cause. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of dysfunctional uterine bleeding can be:a) Uterine polypb) Fibroidc) Granulosa cell tumourd) Irregular ripening of endometriume) Irregular shedding of endometrium | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"de"
] | D | DUB is defined as a state of abnormal uterine bleeding without any clinically detectable organic pelvic pathology.
DUB is of 2 types: 1. Anovulatory (80%)
2. Ovulatory (20%)
Anovulatory (80%): • Threshold bleeding of puberty menorrhagia
• Metropathia hemorrhagica/ cystic glandular hyperplasia
• Premenopausal DUB (Atrophy of endometrium).
Ovulatory (20%): • Irregular ripening of corpus luteum
• Irregular shedding of corpus luteum
• IUCD insertion
• Following sterilization operation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TB larynx most commonly affect: | [
"Posterior commissure",
"Anterior commissure",
"Ventricular bands",
"Epiglottis"
] | A | Ans: a (Posterior commissure) Ref: Scott Brown, 7th ed, p. 2266Etiology: Secondary to pulmonary tuberculosisSite: Posterior part affected more than anteriorInterarytenoid fold > Ventricular bands> Vocal cords >EpiglottisC/F:Earliest symptom--weakness of voice followed by hoarsenessEarliest sign--Impaired adduction.Laryngeal findings:Impaired adductionMammillated appearance - due to swelling in inter arytenoid regionMouse nibbled appearance - due to ulceration of vocal cordTurban epiglottis - due to pseudoedema of epiglottisMarked pallor of surrounding mucosaRagged ulceration and granulomas of arytenoids and interarytenoid region.Inv: Biopsy of laryngeal lesion, CXR, sputum for AFBTreatment: ATT+voice restOther laryngeal lesion & sites of involvement:* Lupus-Anterior > posterior (epiglottis is involved)* Syphilitic-Any part of larynx* Laryngeal web-Between the vocal cords* Vocal nodule-B/L at junction of anterior l/3rd and post 2/3rd of vocal cords* Vocal polyp-U/L at junction of anterior l/3rd and post 2/3rdof vocal cords.* Reinke's edema-Symmetrical edema of both vocal cords* Contact ulcer-Vocal processes of arytenoids* Laryngocele-Through thyrohyoid membrane (dilatation of saccule)* Intubation granuloma-B/L involving posterior l/3rd of vocal cords. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Other name for eonism is - | [
"Onanism",
"Transvestism",
"Scoptophilia",
"Satyriasis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Transvestism Necrophilia:* In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies.* It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell, and coldness act as stimulants.* Sexual perversions -These are persistently indulged sexual acts in which complete satisfaction is sought and obtained without sexual intercourse. These includea) Sadism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased from acts of physical cruelty or infliction of pain on ones partner. It is seen more commonly in men. To obtain sexual gratification, the sadist may bite, beat, whip, produce cuts on the victim, etc.b) Lust murder: In extremes of sadism, murder serves as a stimulus for the sexual act and becomes the equivalent of coitus, the act being accompanied by erection, ejaculation, and orgasm.c) Necrophagia: (Necros =corpse; phagia = to eat): This is extreme degree of sadism in which the person after mutilating the body, sucks or licks the wounds, bites the skin, drinks blood, and eats the flesh of his victim to derive sexual pleasure.d) Masochism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased by the suffering of pain. Masochists get pleasure from being beaten, abused, tortured, humiliated, enslaved, degraded, or dominated by their sexual partner.e) Necrophilia: In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies. It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell and coldness act as stimulants.f) Fetishism: A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm, eg underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.g) Transvestism = Eonism: A transvestite (trans = opposite, vista = clothing) is a person whose whole personality is dominated by the desire of being identified with the opposite sex. His dress, manner, occupational interest, and associations are all designed to increase his feeling of being a woman. There is no hormonal disturbance or genital abnormality.h) Masturbation = Onanism = Ipsation is the deliberate self-stimulation that effects sexual arousal. In males, it is done by moving the penis against a bed or other object. In females, finges are gently and rhythmically moved over clitoris or labia minora or steady pressure is applied over these parts with several fingers or whole hands (it is an offence when done in public).i) Exhibitionism (Sec 294IPC): It is a willful and intentional exposure of the genitalia in a public place while in the presence of others to obtain sexual pleasure. May or may not be associated with masturbation (punishment = 3 months + fine).j) Voyeurism = Scoptophilia = Peeping tom: Sexual gratification is obtained by looking at the sexual organs of other persons, watching the act of sexual intercourse, or witnessing undressing by a woman.k) Frotteurism: Sexual satisfaction is obtained by rubbing against persons in crowd. If they attempt intercourse, they have a premature ejaculation or they are impotent. It is an uncommon perversion and rarely occurs alone.l) Undinism: In this, the sexual pleasure is often obtained by witnessing the act of urination by someone of the same or opposite sex.m) Indecent assault (Sec 354 IPC) is any offence committed on a female with the intention or knowledge to outrage her modesty. Usually, the act involves the sexual part of either or is sexually favored. In such assaults, a man may try to kiss a woman, press or fondle with her breasts, touch or expose the genitalia or thighs, try to put a finger in her vagina, play with vulva.# A medical practitioner can be accused of indecent assault if he examines a female patient by stripping her clothes without her consent or even with her consent in the absence of a female attendant.# Such assaults are punishable under Sec 354 IPC, upto 2 years imprisonment and/or fine.n) Uranism: General term for perversion of the sexual instinct.o) Satyriasis: Incessant sexual desire.p) Priapism: Painful penile erection in absence of sexual desire. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vascular invasion is a characteristic feature of | [
"Candidiasis",
"Mucormycosis",
"Blastomycosis",
"Sporotrichosis"
] | B | Mucormycosis occurs as a systemic infection following dissemination from a primary focus in the upper respiratory tract or nasal cavity. When the lung is the primary site of infection the fungi may invade the aeries to cause thrombosis and infraction. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a clinical feature of post-traumatic stress disorder? | [
"Flashbacks",
"Nightmare",
"Hallucinations",
"Emotional distress"
] | C | Ref. Oxford textbook of Psychiatry. Page. 49
Hallucination is not a part of PTSD
PTSD – DSM 5 criteria
Criterion A (one required): The person was exposed to: death, threatened death, actual or threatened serious injury, or actual or threatened sexual violence, in the following way(s):
Direct exposure
Witnessing the trauma
Learning that a relative or close friend was exposed to a trauma
Indirect exposure to aversive details of the trauma, usually in the course of professional duties (e.g., first responders, medics)
Criterion B (one required): The traumatic event is persistently re-experienced, in the following way(s):
Intrusive thoughts
Nightmares
Flashbacks
Emotional distress after exposure to traumatic reminders
Physical reactivity after exposure to traumatic reminders
Criterion C (one required): Avoidance of trauma-related stimuli after the trauma, in the following way(s):
Trauma-related thoughts or feelings
Trauma-related reminders
Criterion D (two required): Negative thoughts or feelings that began or worsened after the trauma, in the following way(s):
Inability to recall key features of the trauma
Overly negative thoughts and assumptions about oneself or the world
Exaggerated blame of self or others for causing the trauma
Negative affect
Decreased interest in activities
Feeling isolated
Difficulty experiencing positive affect
Criterion E (two required): Trauma-related arousal and reactivity that began or worsened after the trauma, in the following way(s):
Irritability or aggression
Risky or destructive behavior
Hypervigilance
Heightened startle reaction
Difficulty concentrating
Difficulty sleeping
Criterion F (required): Symptoms last for more than 1 month.
Criterion G (required): Symptoms create distress or functional impairment (e.g., social, occupational).
Criterion H (required): Symptoms are not due to medication, substance use, or other illness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the principle behind radiotherapy in malignancy? | [
"Ionisation of DNA",
"Dehydration of DNA",
"Charring the nucleus",
"Ultrasonic effect"
] | A | Radiotherapy is the treatment of cancer with ionizing radiation. It works by damaging the DNA within the tumor cells, making them unable to divide and grow. The goal of radiation therapy is to maximize the dose to tumor cells while minimizing exposure to normal, healthy cells. Ref: Emami B et al. 1991 | train | med_mcqa | null |
PASCAL is used for | [
"Angiography",
"Laser photocoagulation",
"RNFL thickness",
"Ganglion cell layer"
] | B | Laser photocagulations RETINAL INSTRUMENTS * OCT: Measure RNFL thickness, Ganglion cell volume, Optic nerve head parameters & retinal layers. Cystoid Macular edema is classified according to OCT classification. * OCT- Angio that shows retinal vasculature without the use of dye. * PASCAL- Patterned scanned laser used for photocoagulation. * Spectralis- can do FA, OCT, ICG in same machine. * Retcam 3- Seeing & documenting pediatric retinal diseases, (ROP, Choroidopathies & Dystrophies) * Fugo blade- Used for both anterior, posterior capsulorrhexis & PHPV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dysfunction of tympanic membrane is characterized by all except: | [
"Normal 'cone of light'",
"Retracted TM",
"Non prominent umbo",
"Prominent malleolar folds"
] | A | Retracted Tympanic MembraneIt is the result of negative intratympanic pressure when Eustachian tube is blockedCharacteristicsIt appears dull and lusterlessCone of light is absent or interruptedHandel of malleus appears foreshoenedLateral process of malleus becomes more prominent Anterior and posterior malleal folds become sickle shaped It is immobile or has limited mobility when tested with pneumatic otoscope or siegle's speculum.Features of Normal Tympanic MembraneIt is shiny and pearly grey in colourHas concavity on its lateral surfaceCone of light seen in antero -- inferior quadrantIt's transparency variesIt is mobile when tested with pneumatic otoscope or siegle's speculum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anti inflammatory drug is a COX- 2 inhibitor: | [
"Aspirin",
"Ketoprofen",
"Rofecoxib",
"Sulidec"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patients with ITP(Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura) have antibodies to which of the following? | [
"Platelet ADP",
"Platelet membrane cholesterol",
"Platelet membrane glycoproteins",
"Platelet membrane lipids"
] | C | The autoantibodies in IPT are usually directed against platelet membrane glycoproteins. ADP and thromboxane A2 are involved in platelet aggregation. Cholesterol and lipids are components of viually all mammalian plasma membranes. Also Know: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP; also termed idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura) is an acquired disorder in which there is immune-mediated destruction of platelets and possibly inhibition of platelet release from the megakaryocyte. ITP is characterized by mucocutaneous bleeding and a low, often very low, platelet count, with an otherwise normal peripheral blood cells and smear. Patients usually present either with ecchymoses and petechiae, or with thrombocytopenia incidentally found on a routine CBC. Wet purpura (blood blisters in the mouth) and retinal hemorrhages may herald life-threatening bleeding. Ref: Konkle B. (2012). Chapter 115. Disorders of Platelets and Vessel Wall. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are useful for treatment of metabolic alkalosis except | [
"Sodium chloride",
"Potassium chloride",
"Hydrochloric acid",
"Ammonium Hydroxide"
] | D | Metabolic Alkalosis This is primarily directed at correcting the underlying stimulus for HCO3-generation. If primary aldosteronism or Cushing's syndrome is present, correction of the underlying cause, when successful, will reverse the hypokalemia and alkalosis. loss by the stomach or kidneys can be mitigated by the use of proton pump inhibitors or the discontinuation of diuretics. The second aspect of treatment is to remove the factors that sustain the inappropriate increase in HCO3-reabsorption, such as ECFV contraction or K+deficiency. K+deficits should always be repaired. Isotonic saline is recommended to reverse the alkalosis when ECFV contraction is present. If associated conditions preclude infusion of saline, renal HCO3-loss can be accelerated by administration of acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (125-250 mg IV), which is usually effective in patients with adequate renal function but can worsen K+losses. Dilute hydrochloric acid (0.1NHCl) has been advocated historically in extreme cases, but can cause hemolysis, and must be delivered slowly in a central vein. This preparation is not available generally and must be mixed by the pharmacist. Because serious errors or harm may occur, its use is not recommended. * Ammonium chloride is used and not hydroxide . Ammonium chloride is a systemic and urinary acidifying agent that is conveed to ammonia and hydrochloric acid through oxidation by the liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by | [
"Gram stain",
"Indian ink preparation",
"Giemsa stain",
"Methanamine silver stain"
] | B | The capsule of Cryptococcus can be demonstrated by Indian ink stain. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common physical sign of cerebral metastasis | [
"Epilepsy",
"Focal neurological deficit",
"Papilloedema",
"Visual defects"
] | B | *in brain metastases,presentation is with headaches(40-50%),focal neurological deficit(20-40%),coognitive dysfunction(35%),seizures(10-20%) and papilledema(<10%). A focal neurologic deficit is a problem with nerve, spinal cord, or brain function. It affects a specific location, such as the left side of the face, right arm, or even a small area such as the tongue. Speech, vision, and hearing problems are also considered focal neurological deficits Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2764 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Whipples triad is seen in - | [
"Islet cell tumour",
"Ca head pancreas",
"Argentaffinoma",
"Cholangiocarcinoma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Refractive index of cornea is | [
"1.37",
"1.33",
"1.42",
"1.45"
] | A | Corneal refractive index is 1.376 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most impoant perforator of the Lower limb is between - | [
"Long saphenous and posterior tibial vein",
"Sho saphenous and posterior tibial vein",
"Sho saphenous and popliteal vein",
"Long saphenous and femoral vein"
] | D | Ans. is `d' i.e., Long saphenous and femoral vein | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a grievous injury: September 2005 | [
"Multiple scars of face",
"Fracture of femur",
"Emasculation",
"Contusion of breast"
] | D | Ans. D: Contusion of breast Sec 320 IPC: any of the following injures are grievous? Emasculation Permanent privation of sight or either eye Permanent privation of Hearing or either ear Permanent privation of any member or joint Permanent disfiguration of the head or face Destruction or permanent impairing of the power of any member or joint Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth Any hus which endangers life, or which causes the victim to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits for a period of twenty days | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of following statements about 6-mercaptopurine are true EXCEPT: | [
"It is metabolized by xanthine oxidase",
"It does not cause hyperuricemia",
"Its dose should be reduced when allopurinol is given concurrently",
"It is an active metabolite of azathioprine"
] | B | All anticancer drugs can result in hyperuricemia by causing the destruction of excess cells. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant drug that acts by generating 6-MP. 6-MP inhibits the formation of ribosyl-5-phosphate and it also inhibits the conversion of IMP to adenine and guanine nucleotides. When given orally the drug is subjected to first pass metabolism by enzyme Xanthine Oxidase which conves it into an inactive metabolite. So if allopurinol is given along with 6-MP, the metabolism of 6-MP will be reduced and it will lead to toxicity. Thus the dose of oral 6-MP is to be reduced by 75%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diabetes mellitus is present in all except | [
"Fanconi syndrome",
"Noonan syndrome",
"Ataxia telengiectasia",
"Myotonic dystrophy"
] | B | The disorder is characterized by progressively impaired coordination of voluntary movements (ataxia), the development of reddish lesions of the skin and mucous membranes due to permanent widening of groups of blood vessels (telangiectasia), and impaired functioning of the immune system (i.e., cellular and humoral) Ref Robbins 9/e pg 243 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Middle cerebellar Penducle transmits..... fibres | [
"Ponto cerebellar pathway",
"Tectospinal pathway",
"Spino cerebellar pathway",
"Middle cerebellar pathway"
] | A | A i.e. Pontocerebellar | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are most impoant and potential agents which can be used for Bio-terrorism except: | [
"Smallpox",
"Plague",
"Botulism",
"Tuberculosis"
] | D | Category of bio-terrorism agnets: Category A Category B Category C Can be easily disseminated High moality rates Public panic and disruption Moderately easy to disseminate Moderate morbidity + low morbidity Require enhanced diagnostic capacity Require enhanced surveillance Emerging pathogens Available Ease to production High morbidity and moality Botulism Tularemia Anthrax Smallpox Plague Viral hemorrhagic fevers Brucellosis Clostridium Perfringens Food safety threats Water safety threats Glanders Meliodoses Psittachosis Q fever Ricin toxin Staphylococcal enterotoxin B Epidemic typhus Viral encephalitis Nipah virus Hanta virus | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cellular component of protein synthesis is : | [
"Smooth endoplasmic reticulum",
"Rough endoplasmic reticulum",
"Ribosomes",
"Mitochondria"
] | C | Ribosomes >> Rough endoplasmic reticulum Rough ER is that ER on which ribosomes are attached and protein synthesis occurs in ribosomes. So, best answer here is 3. Fig.: Free ribosomes present in cytoplasm (not attached to ER) Fig.: Ribosomes attached to cytosolic side of ER BUT SER is responsible for the synthesis of lipids, in detoxification and Ca sequestration & release. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The thorium induced tumor is which of the following | [
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Lymphoma",
"Angiosarcoma of liver",
"Astrocytoma"
] | C | Ans. (c) Angiosarcoma of liverRef: Harrison 19th ed. 12027Agents Leading to Angio-sarcoma of Liver*Arsenic*Thorotrast ( Liberates Alpha particles)*Vinyl chloride | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hysterosalpingogram of congenital mullerian anomaly is shown below | [
"Septate uterus",
"Bicornuate uterus",
"Unicornuate uterus",
"Uterine didelphys"
] | C | Unicornuate uterus is seen in the given HSG. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TRUE about corpus callosum is/are: 1. Unite far area of two side of brain 2. Connect two frontal lobe 3. Unite two hemispheres 4. Superiorly related to indusium griseum 5. Coordinates activities of two hemispheres | [
"1,2,3 & 5",
"1,2,3 & 4",
"2,3,4 & 5",
"1,2,3,4 & 5"
] | D | Corpus callosum Corpus callosum is the largest commissure of the brain. It connects the two cerebral hemispheres. It connects all pa of the cerebral coex of the two sides, except the lower and anterior pas of the temporal lobes which are connected by the anterior commissures. It is approximately 10 cm long, with an anterior end approximately 4 cm from the frontal lobes and posterior end approximately 6 cm from the occipital lobe.The superior surface of callosal trunk is covered by a thin layer of grey matter, the indusium griseum.Connection that link the same, or similar area on each side are termed homotopic connections. The corpus callosum also interconnects heterogeneous coical areas on the two sides (heterogenous connections).Fibres of corpus callosumThe rostrum connects the orbital surfaces of the two frontal lobes.The forceps minor is made up fibres of genu that connects the two frontal lobes.The forceps major is made up of fibres of the splenium connecting the occipital lobes tapetum.Functional significance: The corpus callosum helps in coordinating activities of the two hemispheres. Ref: Gray's Anatomy 40/e, Page 354-56; Snell's Anatomy 8/e, Page 687. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are contents of cavernous sinus EXCEPT | [
"Occulomotor nerve",
"Abducens nerve",
"Mandibular nerve",
"Maxillary nerve"
] | C | Ans. c (Mandibular nerve). (Ref. BD Chaurasia, Anatomy -3rd vol., 3rd ed., 73)Cavernous sinus.AnatomyPathology# Collection of venous sinuses on either side of pituitary.# Blood from eye and superficial cortex drain in cavernous sinus and then internal jugular vein.# CN III, IV, VI, V2, and V and postganglionic sympathetic fibres en route to the orbit all pass through the Cavernous sinus.# Only CN VI is "free -floating".# Cavernous portion of internal carotid artery is also here.# The nerves that control extraocular muscles (plus VI and V2) pass through the cavernous sinus.# Cavernous sinus syndrome (eg.due to mass effect) -- Ophthalmoplegia, ophthalmic & mandibular sensory loss.# Tolasa-Hunt syndrome is idiopathic granulomatous inflammation of cavernous sinus.# MRI is tool of choice for imaging cavernous sinus. Structures Related To Cavernous Sinus: OutsideIn the wallInside1SuperiorOptic tract, ICA, perforate substanceOcculomotorICA2InferiorForamen LacerumTrochlear nerveAbducent nerve3MedialSphenoid sinus, hypophysisOphthalmic nerve 4LateralUncusMaxillary nerve 5AnteriorSuperior orbital fissureTrigeminal ganglion6PostPetrous apex and crus cerebri | train | med_mcqa | null |
Assuming a respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, calculate the minute ventilation. | [
"1 L/min",
"2 L/min",
"4 L/min",
"6 L/min"
] | D | Minute ventilation is VT x respiratory rate. VT from the graph is 500 milliliters. Therefore, minute ventilation = 500 x 12 = 6 L/min | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glucose-dependent release of insulin through | [
"Cyclic AMP",
"Carrier's modulators",
"Recipients phosphorylation",
"ATP dependent K+ channel"
] | A | Insulin is a peptide hormone, produced by beta cells of the pancreas, and is central to regulating carbohydrate and fat metabolism in the body. Insulin causes cells in the liver, skeletal muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the blood. In the liver and skeletal muscles, glucose is stored as glycogen, and in fat cells (adipocytes) it is stored as triglycerides.Control of cellular intake of ceain substances, most prominent glucose in muscle and adipose tissue (about two-thirds of body cells)Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-433 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chest X-ray shows miliary mottling in all, except - | [
"Carcinoma prostate",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Hemosiderosis",
"Histiocytosis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following clinical features are seen in which disease? | [
"Turner syndrome",
"Fragile X-syndrome",
"Achondroplasia",
"Down syndrome"
] | D | d. Down syndromeA - Mongoloid slant, epicanthic foldB - Single transverse palmar (simian) creaseC - Sandle gapAll these are seen in Down syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following electrolyte abnormality can be seen in an infant with congenital hyperophic pyloric stenosis? | [
"Hypokalemic acidosis",
"Hypokalemic alkalosis",
"Hyperkalemic acidosis",
"Hyperkalemic alkalosis"
] | B | Infants with HPS present with nonbilious vomiting that becomes increasingly projectile over the course of several days to weeks. Infants with HPS develop a hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Dehydration causes elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit. Mild unconjugated bilirubinemia occurs in 2%-5% of cases. The urine pH is high initially but eventually drops because hydrogen ions are preferentially exchanged for sodium ions in the distal tubule of the kidney as the hypochloremia becomes severe. Ref: Hackam D.J., Grikscheit T.C., Wang K.S., Newman K.D., Ford H.R. (2010). Chapter 39. Pediatric Surgery. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structures piercing clavipectoral fascia are all except: | [
"Cephalic vein",
"Thoracoacromial aery",
"Lateral pectoral nerve",
"Basilic vein"
] | D | The clavipectoral fascia is a strong sheet of connective tissue that is attached above to the clavicle.Below, it splits to enclose the pectoralis minor muscle and then continues downward as the suspensory ligament of the axilla and joins the fascial floor of the armpit.The coracoclavicular fascia is pierced by the cephalic vein, thoracoacromial aery and vein, lymphatics pasing from the breast and pectoral region to the apical group of axillary lymph nodes and lateral pectoral nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A one day old baby presents with excessive frothing from mouth and baby was cyanosed: | [
"Esophageal atresia",
"Diaphragmatic hernia",
"Congenital lung cyst",
"Lung hypoplasia"
] | A | a. Esophageal atresia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1783, Ghai 8/e p 176)Congenital diseaseMode of presentationCong diaphragmatic herniaNew born with cyanosis, respiratory distress, shift of mediastinum and scaphoid abdomenBilateral choanal atresiaNew born with feeding difficulty, cyanosis on closing mouth, which disappears on cryingPure esophageal atresiaNeonate with frothing and bubbling at mouth and nose, with coughing, cyanosis and respiratory distress; X-ray shows coiled feeding tube in esophageal pouch and absent gastric air shadow | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following increases cerebral oxygen consumption | [
"Propofol",
"Ketamine",
"Thiopentone",
"Alfentanyl"
] | B | Ketamine This has been discussed so many times that ketamine increases cerebral oxygen consumption. It increases the intracranial tension too. Thiopentone and propofol decrease cerebral oxygen consumption. Alfentanyl is an opioid and opioids in general reduce cerebral oxygen consumption, cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondaries of all the following cause osteolytic lesions except - | [
"Prostate",
"Kidney",
"Bronchus",
"Thyroid"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prostate Majority of bony metastasis are mixed type (with more lytic component). but purely osteolytic and purely osteoblastic lesions are seen in the following tumors. Osteolytic Metastasis Osteoblastic Metastasis Kidney Men Women Lung Prostate Breast Breast Seminoma Uterus Thyroid Ovary GIT (stomach colon) Common Carcinoid Osteosarcoma Neurogenic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug cause the following effect? (colonoscopic view) | [
"Senna",
"Bisacodyl",
"Bismuth",
"Aluminium Hydroxide"
] | A | Bismuth cause tongue and stool discoloration. Senna(irritant purgative) cause colon pigmentation - melanosis coli. ref: katzung 12th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frequency of renal involvement in Henoch Schonlein purpura is? | [
"1-5%",
"5-10%",
"10-50%",
"50-70%"
] | C | c. 10-50%(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1216-1217, Ghai 8/e p 632-633)Renal involvement in HSP:It occurs in up to 50% of children with HSPManifests as microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, frank nephritis, nephrotic syndrome, and acute or chronic renal failure; Progression to end-stage renal disease is uncommon in children (1-2%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug causes bull's eye macula: | [
"Phenytoin",
"Chloroquine",
"Steroids",
"Ethambutal"
] | B | Ans. Chloroquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fracture femur in children is treated by: | [
"Open reduction",
"Gallow's splint",
"Infra medullary nailing",
"Closed reduction & splintage"
] | B | B i.e. Gallow's splint | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment for genotype 1a of hepatitis C | [
"Ledipsavir and Sofosbuvir",
"Sofosbuvir and velpatasvir",
"Pegylated interferon and lamivudine",
"Pegylated interferon and Ribavarin"
] | A | - Hepatitis C genotypes and their treatment Genotype 1a Ledipasvir + sofosbuvir Genotype 1b Ledipasvir + sofosbuvir Genotype 2 Sofosbuvir + velpatasvir Genotype 3 Sofosbuvir + velpatasvir Genotype 4 Sofosbuvir + velpatasvir Genotype 5,6 Sofosbuvir + velpatasvir | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pyridoxine is used in treatment of - | [
"Galactosemia",
"Phenylketonuria",
"Propionicacidemia",
"Homocystinuria"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., HomocystinuriaInborn error of metabolism and Treatment1] AlkaptonuriaVitamin C, Folic acid2] HomocystinuriaPyridoxine + Folic acid3] CystinuriaAlkalization of urine + d-Penicillamine, Captopril4] Hartnup diseaseNicotinamide5] Multiple carboxylase deficiencyBiotin6] Methyl malonic academiaVitamin B127] HyperoxaluriaPyridoxine8] TyrosinemiaNTBC, Liver Transplantation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Onanism is: TN 07 | [
"Natural sexual offence",
"Unnatural sexual offence",
"Perversion",
"Indecent assault"
] | C | Ans. Perversion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient presenting with cutaneous vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, peripheral neuropathy, which of the following will help in diagnosis? | [
"ANCA",
"RA factor",
"Hbsag",
"MIF"
] | A | Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 1313
Cutaneous vasculitis features – Diagnosis
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs):
Group of autoantibodies
IgG type mainly,
Produced against antigens in cytoplasm of neutrophil granulocytes & monocytes.
Particularly associated with systemic vasculitis, so called “ANCA-associated vasculitis”.
c-ANCA – Abs against MPO, p-ANCA - Abs Against PR3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blue color of the bruise is due to - | [
"Hemosiderin",
"Deoxyhemoglobin",
"Bilirubin",
"Hematoidin"
] | D | The synopsis of forensic medicine &toxicologyDr k.s. narayan reddy ;28th edition; pg.no.108; Blue colour of the bruise which develops in 5-6 days is due to haemtoidin . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monoclonal antibody acting as enzyme is called as: | [
"Granzyme",
"Abzyme",
"Lipozyme",
"None of the above"
] | B | B i.e. AbzymeRef: Biotechnology, Vol. XI, Abzymes-A Challenge for the Medical Biotechnology and Public Health -1. Getov, T. ArgirovaExplanation:AbzymesAbzymes are antibodies with catalytic activity.They combine the specificity and substrate turnover efficiency of the enzymes with the selective targeting of the antibodies.LipozymeAn enzyme of the hydrolase class that catalyzes the reaction of triacylglycerol and water to yield diacylglycerol and a fatty acid anion.It is produced by glands on the tongue and by the pancreas and initiates the digestion of dietary fats.Granzymes:Serine proteases that are released by cytoplasmic granules within cytotoxic T cells and natural killer (NK) cells.They induce programmed cell death in the target cell, thus eliminating cells that have become cancerous or are infected with viruses or bacteria.Note:Natural Abzymes with proteolytic activity are called Protabzymes*.DNA hydrolyzing activity are called DNA Abzymes*. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test of chicken pox except | [
"FAMA",
"ELISA",
"Immunofluorescence",
"PCR"
] | A | Diagnosis of chickenpox include immunofluorescence, ELISA, PCR, etc REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:472 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adiministration of Scoline (Sch) produces dangerous hyperkalamia in | [
"Acute Renal Failure (A.R.F.)",
"Raised ICT",
"Fracture femur",
"Paraplegia"
] | D | D i.e. Paraplegia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 yr old smoker came with a history of painless gross hematuria for one day. Most logical investigation would be | [
"Urine routine",
"Plain X ray KUB",
"USG KUB",
"Urine microscopy for malignant cytology"
] | D | In this case, we should suspect bladder carcinoma ( transitional cell carcinoma ) . Smokers are at a higher risk of developing TCC.Other risk factors being chemical .industry workers in western countries and schistosomiasis in endemic regions . It is more common in males -3:1. They usually presents with painless gross hematuria. Thus the best option here is urine microsopy for RBC's and malignant cells.urine cytology even though not a good screening test because of lack of sensitivity is highly specific . Mainstay of diagnosis is cystourethroscopy. investigations include imaging ( CT , MRI ,USG ,IVU ) and blood investigations for HB , electrolytes and urea . Bailey and Love 27th edition.chapter 77.pg no 1449. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with pellagra like symptoms, amino acids in urine, family history of one siblings affected and three normal. Parents are normal. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Alkaptonuria",
"Maple syrup urine disease",
"Hanup's disease"
] | D | Diagnosis is Hanup's disease. autosomal recessive (normal carrier parents with 25% of their children are affected) There is failure to reabsorb tryptophan from urine.So, tryptophan comes in urine (Aminoaciduria) . Patient has Pellagra like symptoms (as Tryptophan forms Niacin - Vitamin B3 in body). Fig:-NORMAL AND ABNORMAL ROUTES OF TRYPTOPHAN Treatment: 1. Niacin 2. High protein diet | train | med_mcqa | null |
AIDS involves - | [
"T-helper cells",
"T-suppressor cells",
"T-cytotoxic",
"B. Cells"
] | A | The receptor for tge virus is the CD4 antigen and therefore the virus may infect any cell bearing the CD4 antigen on the surface.This is primarily the CD4 T lymphocytes. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-574 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindication of rota virus vaccine is | [
"SCID",
"Intussusception",
"Severe allergic raction",
"All of above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is endemic mycosis? | [
"Candidiasis",
"Blastomycosis",
"Cryptococcosis",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blastomycosis(Ref: Jawetz, 22th/e, p. 636)Endemic mycosis are Coccidioidomycosis, Paracoccidioidomycosis, Histoplasmosis and Blastomycosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is synthesized from an essential amino acid? | [
"Alanine",
"Glutamate",
"Proline",
"Tyrosine"
] | D | Tyrosine is formed from phenylalanine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For ZnOE, all of the following are true EXCEPT: | [
"Olive oil is used as a plasticizer",
"Addition of methylmethacrylate increases strength.",
"Addition of o – EBA in the concentration of 37 – 50 % increases strength",
"Rosin decreases the brittleness of set cement"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basic function of hemoglobin is - | [
"Increased O2 delivery in lung and uptake at tissue",
"Increased O2 delivery at tissue and uptake in lung",
"Increased CO2 delivery- at tissue and uptake in lung",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e., Increased O2 delivery at tissue and uptake in lung o The primary function of hemoglobin is to transport oxygen from lungs to tissue,o In lungs, oxygen diffuses into the blood and combines with hemoglobin.o Oxygen, then, is transported to the tissue, mainly in combination with hemoglobin (as oxyhemoglobin),o At tissue levels, due to high H" concentration, there is rightward shift of oxygen dissociation curve and O2 is delivered to the tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old man experiences crushing substernal chest pain after arriving at work one morning. Over the next 4 hours, the pain persists and begins to radiate to his left arm. He becomes diaphoretic and short of breath but waits until the end of his 8-hour shift to go to the hospital. An elevated serum value of which of the following laboratory tests would be most useful for the diagnosis of this patient on admission to the hospital? | [
"ALT",
"AST",
"CK-MB fraction",
"C-reactive protein"
] | C | Of the enzymes listed, CK-MB is the most specific for myocardial injury from the acute myocardial infarction (MI) described in this patient. The levels of this enzyme begin to increase within 2 to 4 hours of ischemic myocardial injury. ALT elevation is more specific for liver injury. AST is found in various tissues; elevated levels are not specific for myocardial injury. The elevation of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)-1 compared with LDH-2 suggests myocardial injury, but LDH activity peaks 3 days after an MI. C-reactive protein is elevated with inflammatory processes, but is nonspecific; it has been used as a predictor of acute coronary syndromes. Lipase is a marker for pancreatitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old male patient wants rehabilitation of missing teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals upper and lower edentulous arches. The casts were mounted using impression plaster. The W/P ratio for this gypsum product is- | [
"0.50-0.75",
"0.45-0.50",
"0.28-0.30",
"0.22-0.24"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum loss of sodium in a child occurs in - | [
"Gastric juice",
"Ileal fluid",
"Non cholera Diarrhoea",
"Cholera"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IIeal fluid Cations and anions in biological fluids in mea/dlFluidSodiumPotassiumChlorideGas trie juice601085Ileal fluid13010115Diarrhea stool10-9010-8010-110 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neural tube defect is due to deficiency of - | [
"Folate",
"Pyruvate",
"Cobalamine",
"Thiamine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Folate "Folic acid supplementation can reduce the risk of NTDs, presumably by preventing nutritional deficiency and by overcoming disruptions in folate metabolism related to underlying genetic variation in folate-related genes. Folic acid may enhance cell proliferation for neural closure directly or it may be involved in the epigenetic regulation of expression of genes that control neural closure." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ghons focus lies at ? | [
"Left apical parenchymal region",
"Right apical parenchymal region",
"Sub pleural caesous lesion in right upper lobe",
"Sub pleural caesous lesion in left upper lobe"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Right apical parenchymal regionPrimary T.B. includes :?An area of grey white (size of approx. 1-1.50 cm) inflammatory consolidation - called ghon's focus. o Lymph node.Lymphatics and lymphatic channel.Cavity and fibrosis is seen in secondary T.B.Inhaled tubercule bacilli implanted in the distal air spaces of the lower pa of upper lobe or upper pa of the lower lobe, close to the pleura. This area is about 1 to 1.5 cm with caseating necrosis known as Ghon's focus.Primary complex or Ghon's complex of tuberculosis consists of 3 components :Pulmonary compound or Ghon's focus.Draining lymphaticsCaseating hilar lymphnodeAssman's focusThe initial lesion in secondary tuberculosis at the apex of lung (infraclavicular) without any lymph node involvement is called Assman's focus.Ghon's complexThe initial lesion in primary tuberculosis at the periphery of the lung along with the enlarged peribronchial lymph node is called Ghon's complex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Porphyrin of normal erythrocyte haemoglobin is | [
"Coproporphyrin I",
"Uroporphyrin III",
"Protoporphyrin III",
"Uroporphyrin I"
] | C | Heme is iron containing protoporphyrin. Protoporphyrins are named according to the side chains, i.e. Methyl, vinyl, propionyl. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following muscle can be congenitally absent? | [
"Teres minor",
"Pectoralis major",
"Semi-membranous",
"Palmaris brevis"
] | B | Poland syndrome is a congenital anomaly in which there is a malformation of the chest causing the pectoralis major on one side of the body to be absent. Other characteristics of this disease are "unilateral shoening of the index, long, and ring fingers, syndactyly of the affected digits, hypoplasia of the hand, and the absence of the sternocostal poion of the ipsilateral pectoralis major muscle". Although the absence of a pectoralis major is not life-threatening, it will have an effect on the person with Poland's syndrome. Adduction and medial rotation of the arm will be much harder to accomplish without the pectoralis major. The latissimus dorsi and teres major also aid in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, so they may be able to compensate for the lack of extra muscle. However, some patients with Poland's syndrome may also be lacking these muscles, which make these actions nearly impossible . Ref -medscape.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Magnification in Indirect ophthalmoscopy –a) Depends on power of lens usedb) Depends on refractive error of patientc) Independent of refractive error of patientd) independent of power of lens used | [
"ac",
"a",
"ab",
"bc"
] | C | Magnification of image in indirect ophthalmoscopy depends upon:-
Dioptric power of the convex lens
The position of the lens in relation to the eyeball
Refractive state of the eyeball
About 5 times magnification is obtained with a +13 D lens. With a stronger lens, the image will be smaller, but brighter and field of vision will be more. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a selective COX-2 inhibitor? | [
"Diflunisal",
"Piroxicam",
"Sulindac",
"Parecoxib"
] | D | Ans: D (Parecoxib) Ref: The Pharmacological basis of therapeutics by Goodman & Gilman - 12th edition, page no. 962Explanation:Parecoxib is a COX-2 selective inhibitorOther examples of COX-2 selective inhibitors include celecoxib, etoricoxib, lumiracoxib.Sulindac. piroxicam and diflunisal are non selective NSAIDSMeloxicam has COX-2 selective activity only at lower doses.Although etodolac is a non selective NSAIDS. it has also shown some COX-2 selectivity in vitro studies.Ketorolac, flurbiprofen, ketoprofen have maximal selectivity for COX 1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vein, artery, nerve sequence is present in intercostal space at: | [
"Upper Border of Rib",
"Middle Border of Rib",
"Lower Border of Rib",
"Lower Portion of Intercostal Space"
] | C | Ans. C. Lower Border of RibThe intercostal space (ICS) is the anatomic space between two ribs. Since there are 12 ribs on each side, there are 11 intercostal spaces, each numbered for the rib superior to it.The neurovascular bundle in ICS has a strict order: V-A-N, or vein-artery-nerve, from top to bottom. This neurovascular bundle runs high in the intercostal space near lower Border of Rib | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old female is suffering from scabies due to sarcoptic. Physician prescribed her the following drug | [
"DEC 6 mg/kg BW for 12 days",
"DEC 9 mg/kg BW for 12 days",
"Ivermectin 200mcg/kg BW",
"Ivermectin 100mg/kg BW"
] | C | Dosage of DEC for filariasis is 6mg/kg BW for 12 days DOC for scabies- ivermectin 150-200 mcg/kg BW Ref: D.R. Arora. Medical parasitology 4th ed pg. 229 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lower esophageal sphincter lies at what distance from the incisor teeth? | [
"15cm",
"25cm",
"40cm",
"50cm"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 40cm * 2nd constriction is at T4 level where arch of aorta crosses esophagus.Esophageal constrictionsNumberDistance from incisorBony levelAnatomical landmark1st15 cm (6 inches)C6At its beginning (pharyngo-esophageal junction)2nd22.5 cm (9 inches)T4Crossing of aortic arch3rd27.5 cm (11 inches)T6Crossing of left main bronchus4th37.5 - 40 cm (15-16 inches)T10Piercing diaphragm (at lower esophageal sphmotor) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following about prerenal azotaemia is false? | [
"Parenchymal damage to kidney",
"Physiological response to renal hypoperfusion",
"Ceain drugs can provoke acute prerenal failure",
"Persistent renal hypoperfusion leads to ischaemic ATN"
] | A | PRERENAL AZOTEMIA Prerenal azotemia is the most common form of AKI. It is the designation for a rise in SCr or BUN concentration due to inadequate renal plasma flow and intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure to suppo normal glomerular filtration. The most common clinical conditions associated with prerenal azotemia are hypovolemia, decreased cardiac output, and medications that interfere with renal autoregulatory responses such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and inhibitors of angiotensin II By definition, prerenal azotemia involves no parenchymal damage to the kidney and is rapidly reversible once intraglomerular hemodynamics are restored Prolonged periods of prerenal azotemia may lead to ischemic injury, often termed acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1800 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk factor for suicide - | [
"Female sex",
"Unmarried",
"Age 30 years",
"Married"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Unmarried Causes/Risk factors for suicidePsychiatric disorders : - Depression (most common), alcoholism (2nd me), Drug/Substance dependence, Schizophrenia, Dementia.Physical illness : - Cancer, AIDS, Multiple sclerosis, Head trauma.Psychosocial factors : - Failure in love, marital difficulties, family dispute, illegitimate pregnancy.Biological factors : - Decrease in serotoninOther - Male sex, Age > 40 years. Single (Unmarried, divorced or widowed), previous suicide attempt, social isolation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a method of crime scene search | [
"Veical search method",
"Strip search method",
"Grid method",
"Quadrant method"
] | A | Crime scene search - Spiral search method - Strip search method - Grid method - Quadrant method Crime Scene Search After collecting information about the crime scene, a quick survey should be done and actual crime scene search should be done. Different methods a. Spiral search method: In this method the search is staed from a central point in the scene and then the single investigator walks in an outward spiral covering the whole area. b. Grid method: In this method the whole crime scene is divided into a grid and each of the grids are carefully searched for evidence. Multiple investigators can search the scene. C. Strip or line search: In this method a single investigator stas searching the scene from one end and covers the whole scene in straight lines returning from side to side. d. Quadrant or zone search: In this method the whole area is divided into quadrants and each of the quadrants are searched by one or more investigators | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Koch’s postulates except: | [
"Disease should be susceptible to broad spectrum antibiotics",
"Organism causing lesion can be isolated from lesion",
"Organism can be cultured in media",
"Organism causes similar lesion if inoculated in other person"
] | A | (Refer: Anantha Narayanan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 9th edition, pg no: 4)
Koch's postulates
A microorganism to be accepted as the causative agent of an infectious disease has to satisfy the following conditions:
The bacterium should be constantly associated with the lesions of the disease.
It should be possible to isolate the bacterium in pure
culture from the lesions.
Inoculation of such pure culture into suitable laboratory animals should reproduce the lesions of the disease.
It should be possible to re-isolate the bacterium in pure culture from the lesions produced in experimental animals.
An additional criterion added later was that specific antibodies to the bacterium be demonstrable in the serum of patients suffering from the disease.
Pathogenic organisms that do not obey the Koch's postulates
Mycobacterium leprae
Borrelia burgdorferi
Treponema pallidum
Tropheryma whippelii
Rhinosporidium seeberi
Rickettsia , Chlamydia
Viruses
Molecular form of Koch's postulates
Phenotype of interest should be associated significantly more often with pathogenic members of a genus or pathogenic strains of a species than with non-pathogenic members or strains.
Specific inactivation of the gene or genes associated with the suspected virulence trait should lead to a
measurable decrease in virulence.
Restoration of full pathogenicity should accompany replacement of the mutated version of the gene with the wild- type version in the strain of origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malignant melanoma of the choroid will produce: September 2012 | [
"Retinal dialysis",
"Exudative retinal detachment",
"Traction retinal detachment",
"Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Exudative retinal detachment | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of somatic death, except: NEET 14 | [
"Cessation of respiration",
"Cessation of hea",
"Non-responding muscles",
"No response to external stimuli"
] | C | Ans. Non-responding muscles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Circle of Hebra is involved in ? | [
"Pediculosis corpora",
"Pityriasis versicolar",
"Scabies",
"Leprosy"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Scabies Scabies Scabies in is caused by mites of the family Sarcoptidae, which includes Sarcoptes scabiei, the scabies mite. Usually affects children but can occur at any age. More common in low socioeconomic strata as overcrowding and poor hygiene facilitate the spread. The most imp mean of spread is direct contact with the infected individual. Scabies is water shed disease which occurs die to inadequate use of water and improper hygiene. Clinical features :? Severe itching is the most prominent clinical feature abd has following characterstics Worse at night Generelised Affecting several family members 2. Body areas most commonly involved are web spaces of fingers, wrists, elbow, axilla and groin area, areas known as circle of Hebra. 3. Burrow is serpentine (S. shaped), thread like grey brown line which represents the intraepidermal tunnel created by moving female mite in stratum corneum. Burrow is pathognomic sign of scabies. Burrows are very difficult to demonstrate in infants. 4. Paules and papulovesicular eruptions due to hypersensitivity to mite 5. Pustules can occur due to seceondary infection 6. Excoriation and scratch marks 7. History of involvement of family members | train | med_mcqa | null |
Janani Suraksha Yojana includes | [
"Tetanus immunization",
"Institutional deliveries",
"Iron supplementaion",
"Aboions"
] | B | JANANI SURAKSHA YOJANA:- Launched on 12th April 2005. Objectives- To reduce maternal moality and infant moality through encouraging delivery at health institutions, and focus on institutional care among women in below povey line families. Salient features: 100% centrally sponsored scheme. Under NRHM, it integrates cash assistance with institutional care during antenatal, delivery and immediate postpaum care. The benefit is given to all women, both rural and urban, belonging to below povey line household and aged 19 years and above, upto first two live bihs. In low-performing states, the benefit will be extended to the third child if the mother chooses to undergo sterilization in the health facility where she delivered, immediately after delivery. ASHA worker acts as a link health worker between poor pregnant women and public sector health institution. Reference-park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.455 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice in peptic ulcer perforation is ? | [
"USG",
"X-Ray abdomen",
"Paracentesis",
"CT scan"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., X-ray abdomen | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial drug in open angle glaucoma - | [
"b-blocker",
"Pilocarpine",
"Anticholinergics",
"c) Physostigmine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., b-blocker o Topical b-blockers (timolol, betaxolol, levobunolol, carteolol) are the drugs of choice for POAG. Treatment of primary open angle glaucoma o Following treatment options are available for POAG o Medical therapyTotal medical therapy is the treatment of choice for POAG. Topical ji-blockers (Timolol, Betoxalol, Levobunolol, carteolol) are the drugs of choice. Topical prostaglandin analogues (Latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost) are the second choice drugs. Other topical drugs for POAG are : - Alpha agonists (non - selective : epinephrine, dipivefrine; and Selective - a2: apraclonidine, brimonidine) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors fDorzalamide, brinzolamide) Cholinomimetic drugs (Pilocarpine, physostigmine, echothiophate, carbachol) Pilocarpire has several drawbacks, therefore, is being considered as an adjunctive therapy only as a last resort. Approach to treatment of POAG o Start monotherapy with topical b-blocker or latanoprost. o If target IOT is not attained either change over to the alternative drug or use both the above concurrently, o Brimonidine/dorazolamide/dipivefrine are used only when there are contraindications to PG analogues or b-blockers. o Topical miotics and oral acetazolamide are added only as the last resort. Systemic therapy is considered only as a last resort. Drugs used for systemic therapy are :- i) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (.dcefflzo/amrrfetDichlorphenamide, methazolamide), (ii) Hyperosmotic agents (mannitol, glycerol). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti emetic action is produced through : a) Decreased CTZ stimulation b) H1 agonistic action c) D1 antagonistic action d) Olfactory apparatus stimulation e) 5 HT4 agonistic action | [
"ab",
"ad",
"bc",
"ae"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not the Boundary of triangle of safety | [
"Anterior axial fold",
"Posterior axial fold",
"5th intercoastal space",
"None of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior vena cava is formed by? | [
"Vitelline veins",
"Supracardinal vein",
"Infracardinal vein",
"Common cardinal vein"
] | D | Developmentally, the superior vena cava consists of two pas: first and second. The first pa develops from the right anterior cardinal vein caudal to oblique transverse anastomosis. The second pa develops from the right common cardinal vein. Reference: Textbook of clinical embryology, Vishram Singh,1st edition, page no.223-224 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are complications of sphenoid sinus surgery except | [
"Orbital emphysema",
"Optic nerve injury",
"Abducent palsy",
"CSF leak"
] | A | Ans) a (Orbital emphysema) Ref Dhingra 5th ed p431Orbital hemorrhage is a major complication of sinus surgery.Orbital emphysema is not mentioned in text books. All the other three are compli-cations of sinus surgery. Anterior epistaxisPosterior epistaxisIncidenceMore commonLess commonSiteMostly from Uutes area or anterior pan of lateral wallPosierosupenor pan of nasal cavity ; often difficult to localise the site of bleeding pointAgeChildren or young adultsAfter 40 yrs of ageCauseMostly traumaSpontaneous; ofteb due to hypertension orBleedingUsually mild, can be controlled by local pressure or anterior packBleeding is severe, requires hospitalisation; postnasal pack often requitedNeural structures, including the optic nerve or any structures running through the cavernous sinus, may be damaged during surgery. Cranial nerves that control extraocular movements (ie. CN III, IV, VI) are at risk, as are the ophthalmic (ie, VI) and maxillary (ie, V2) branches of CN V. Cerebrospi-nal fluid leak is possible if the roof of the sphenoid is violated.Intraoperative complications are predominantly vascular in nature and include persistent hemorrhage from the carotid artery or, infrequently, the cavernous sinus. Retrobulbar hemorrhage with proptosis and visual compromise requires urgent ophthalmological consultation and lateral canthotomy. Persistent hemorrhage from the sphenoid or cavernous sinus may require angiography to localize and control bleeding.Postoperative complications may be nasal, neurologic, or vascular in nature. Long-term complications include cosmetic deformities; septal per-forations may occur and are predominantly related to approach. In the perioperative state, epistaxis is also a risk. Hemorrhage from the internal carotid artery or cavernous sinus is a devastating complication that may occur intraoperatively or postoperatively. Immediately evaluate any unex-plained mental status changes or excessive bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are surgical options for morbid obesity except - | [
"Adjustable gastric banding",
"Biliopancreatic diversion",
"Duodenal Switch",
"Roux en Y Duodenal By pass"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Roux en Y Duodenal Bypass Bariatric surgical procedures include:a. Vertical banded gastroplastyb. Adjustable gastric bandingc. Roux-en Y gastric bypass (Not - Roux-en Y Duodenal Bypass)d. Biliopancreatic diversione. Duodenal switcho The surgical treatment of morbid obesity is known as bariatric surgery.o Morbid obesity is defined as body mass index of 35 kg/m2 or more with obesity related comorbidity, or BMI of 40 kg/m2 or greater without comorbidity.o Bariatric operations produce weight loss as a result of 2 factors. One is restriction of oralintake. The other is malabsorbtion of ingested food.o Gastric restrictive procedures include Vertical banded gastroplasty & Adjustable gastric bandingo Malabsorbtive procedures include Biliopancreatic diversion, and Duodenal switcho Roux-en Y gastric bypass has features of both restriction and malabsorptionBariatric Operations: Mechanism of ActionRestrictiveVertical banded gastroplastyLaparoscopic adjustable gastric bandingLargely Restrictive/Mildly MalabsorptiveRoux-en-Y gastric bypassLargely Malabsorptive/Mildly RestrictiveBiliopancreatic diversionDuodenal switch | train | med_mcqa | null |
NFHS-3 was conducted in ? | [
"1992-93",
"1998-99",
"2005-06",
"2009-10"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 2005-06 National family health survey (NFHS) Is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India. 3 rounds of the survey have been conducted till date. NFHS-1: 1992-93 NFHS-2: 1998-99 NFHS-3: 2005-06 Goals of NFHS survey: To provide essential data needed by Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and other agencies for policy and programme purposes To provide information on impoant emerging health and family welfare issues Few key findings of NFHS-3, India (2005-06) Literacy rate : Male - 83%, Female - 59%. IMR : 57 per 1000 live bihs. TFR : 2.6 Contraceptive prevalence : 56% (Sterilization 37%) 3 AN check ups : 51%. Took IFA : 65% (Took IFA for 90 days) or more : 23%. Received > 2 TT injections : 76% Institutional deliveries : 41% Delivery assisted by health professionals : 48%. Delivery conducted by a skilled provider : 47%. Anemia - children : 79% Anemia - pregnancy : 58% Women experienced domestic violence : 37% | train | med_mcqa | null |
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