question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
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Anti-TNF alpha drugs are used for the treatment of all following disease EXCEPT: | [
"Systemic lupus erythematosis",
"Seronegative ahritis",
"Psoriatic ahritis",
"Crohn's disease"
] | A | TNF alpha blockers are used mainly in autoimmune diseases like Rheumatoid ahritis, ankylosing spondylosis,fistulating Crohn's disease, psoriasis, juvenile, and refractory rheumatoid ahritis. main TNF alpha inhibitors are Etanercept, Infliximab, Adalimumab. Though SLE is an autoimmune disorder it is treated by other immunosuppressants like Methotrexate, Mycophenolate mofetil, Cyclophosphamide, Azathioprine ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY-SEVENTH EDITION -K.D TRIPATHI Page 884,883 | train | med_mcqa | null |
GTP is required by which of the following steps in protein synthesis? | [
"Aminoacyl--tRNA synthetase activation of amino acids",
"Attachment of mRNA to ribosomes",
"Attachment of ribosomes to endoplasmic reticulum",
"Translocation of tRNA--nascent protein complex from A toP sites"
] | D | he entry of the aminoacyl-tRNA into the A site results in the hydrolysis of one GTP to GDP. Translocation of the newly formed peptidyl-tRNA in the A site into the P site by EF 2 similarly results in hydrolysis of GTP to GDP and phosphate. Thus, the energy requirements for the formation of one peptide bond include the equivalent of the hydrolysis of two ATP molecules to ADP and of two GTP molecules to GDP, or the hydrolysis of four high-energy phosphate bonds. Ref: Weil P. (2011). Chapter 37. Protein Synthesis & the Genetic Code. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds),Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A former from the sub-Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative agent is: | [
"Trichophyton rubrum",
"Cladosporium species",
"Sporothrix schenkii",
"Aspergillus"
] | C | Ans. c. Sporothrix schenkii (Ref: Ananthnarayan 8/e p609; Harrison 19/e p1353 18/e p1664; Journal of Neglected Tropical Diseases: vol 6.6; June 2012: 'Sporotrichosisin sub-himalayan India (PLOS NQeg Trop Dis. 2012 June 6 (6): 1673)Presence of multiple ulcers in the leg, along the lymphatic channels, in a farmer (outdoor worker) from the sub-himalayan region suggests the diagnosis of Sporotrichosis, caused by Sporothrix schenkii.SporotrichosisSporotrichosis is a subacute or chronic granulomatous mycotic infection involving primarily the skin and subcutaneous tissue with neighboring lymphatics.Subcutaneous mycosis, caused by Sporothrix schenkii (dimorphic fungi)Q, colonies are blackish (variation in pigmentation) and shiny but becomes wrinkled and fuzzy with age.Epidemiology: Sporotrichosis is worldwide in distribution, but more common among people living in temperate and subtropical regions with high humidityQ.In India, Sporotrichosis is known to be endemic in the sub-himalayan regionsQ, ranging from Himachal Pradesh in the north-west to Assam and West Bengal in the East.Sporotrichosis most commonly infects persons involved in outdoor activity such as landscaping, gardening, farming, nursery workers and green house workersQ.Sporotrichosis is the most frequently encountered subcutaneous mycosis in the sub-himalayan beltQ.Source of Infection: Acquired from thorn pricksQ of rose, sphagnum moss, etc. into subcutaneous tissue through minor trauma.Clinical features: Most cases occur in upper limbQ, usual site of infection is extremityQ (facial lesion in case of children) A papule or nodule develops at the site of inoculation after days or weeks. The papule or nodule the softens and breaks down forming an indolent ulcer. Sporotrichosis is characterized by an asymptomatic nodule, which over a period of time becomes ulcerated nodules, lesions are usually arranged In 'linear fashion' along the lymphatic drainageQ. Pulmonary Sporotrichosis, extra-cutaneous Sporotrichosis, is usually present as single chronic cavitary upper lobe lesion, portal is probably lung.Diagnosis: Culture (most reliable)Q of pus, joint fluid, sputum or skin biopsy in which septate hyphae carrying flower like cluster of small conidia is seen. In tissues, fungus is seen as 'cigar shaped yeast'Q (yeast cell without mycelia) Sometimes 'Asteroid bodies'Q can be seen which is formed due to antigen-antibody reaction.Treatment:Cutaneous Sporotrichosis: DOC is ItraconazoleQAlternative Potassium IodideQExtra-cutaneous Sporotrichosis: DOC is IV Amphotericin BQAlternative itraconazole | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the immediate post-operative period the common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following, except. | [
"Residual effect of muscle relaxant",
"Overdose of narcotic analgesic",
"Mild Hypovalemia",
"Mycocardial infarction"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Mild hypovolemia The first two options are quite obvious causes of respiratory insufficiency (see the table at the end of this answer)The confusion is between Mild hypovolemia and myocardial infarctionAbout mild hypovolemiaBailey writes that "Healthy volunteers could have 10-15 percent of their blood volume removed with no significant change in heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac output or blood flow to the splanchnic bed",In mild hypovolemia, the systemic blood circulation is maintained by shifting the blood from splanchnic circulation to the systemic circulation.About Myocardial infarctionCSDT writes - "Approx. 0.4% of all pts undergoing an op. in USA develop post-operative MI. The incidence increases to 5 to 12%pts. undergoing operation for manifestation of atherosclerosis. Over half of postoperative MI are asymptomatic."The inference I could draw is -Even though MI has a very low post op. incidence it can cause respiratory insufficiency. Mild hypervolemia on the other hand is well compensated by body and remains asymptomatic, thus I am in favour of mild hypovolemia.Causes of hypoventilation after surgery and anesthesiaCentral respiratory depressionOpioids (overdose)Inhalational and intravenous anesthesiaCNS pathologyPoor respiratory muscle functionResidual Neuromuscular blockerNeuromuscular diseaseDiaphragmatic impairment (upper abdominal surgery)Obesity, abdominal distension abdominal binders.Airway obstruction, bronchospasmPneumothorax, hemothoraxChronic and acute lung diseaseHigh CO2 production. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are True about the pulled elbow except? | [
"The elbow is fully flexed",
"The forearm lies in pronation",
"It is treated by fully supinating the forearm",
"It is dislocation of the radial head"
] | A | Pulled elbow Dislocation of the radial head from the annular ligament is a fairly common injury in children under the age of 6 years. There may be a history of the child being jerked by the arm and subsequently complaining of pain and inability to use the arm. The arm is held more or less immobile with the elbow fully extended and the forearm pronated. The diagnosis is essentially clinical, although radiographs are usually obtained to exclude a fracture. It is treated by fully supinating the forearm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nonmotile among the Burkholderia is | [
"B. mallei",
"B. pseudomallei",
"B. cepaciae",
"B. bovis"
] | A | Burkholderia malleiBurkholderia pseudomallei--Non motile bipolar stained organism --On Potato - Honey like growth--Class B agent of biological warfare --Induces Strauss reaction--Diagnosis - Mallein test & Molecular methods by 16s rRNA gene sequencing --Rx - Ceftazidime or Carbapenems --Causative agent of Meliodosis --Motile, oxidase positive organism --Causes hemoptysis resembling TB --Latency and reactivation occur due to intracellular survival --Typical bipolar safety pin appearance --Rx - Ceftazidime or CarbapenemsOBurkholderiacepacia: MDR strain impoant among nosocomial pathogensO1st MC pathogen among cystic fibrosis patients leads to recurrent respiratory tract infections and biofilm forming agent in intravascular catheters leads to bacteremia(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p317) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bacterial spores are hest destroyed by- | [
"UV rays",
"Autoclaving at 121degC for 20 mints",
"Hot air Oven",
"Infrared rays"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Autoclaving at 121degc for 20 minutes Autoclaving . Autoclaving is a method to sterilize equipment by subjecting them to high pressure at 121degC or more. . It is sterilization by steam under pressure. . The device which is used for autoclaving is known as autoclave. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Therapeutic index indicates | [
"Drug toxicity",
"Drug potency",
"Drug safety",
"Drug's lethal effect"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Powdered gold is: | [
"Made by a combination of chemical precipitation and atomization",
"Made by electrolytic precipitation",
"Made by beating pure gold at high temperatures",
"Made by milling pure gold ingots"
] | A | Granular (Powdered) Gold
Gold powders in agglomerated form can also be prepared by chemical precipitation or atomization from molten gold. To prevent agglomerates from disintegrating, the atomized and chemically precipitated powders are first mixed with a soft wax to form pellets.
Ref: Phillips 12 ed page no 413 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about citrate in ORS | [
"Cheaper",
"Nutritious",
"Increases shelf",
"Tastier"
] | C | In WHO ORS, sodium bicarbonate has been replaced by trisodium citrate: –
Makes the product more stable –
Results in less stool output (especially in high-output diarrhoea like cholera) as it increases intestinalabsorption of sodium and water | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methionine is synthesized from ? | [
"Cysteine",
"Glycine",
"Histidine",
"Arginine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Cysteine Methionine is a sulphar containing amino acid and is synthesized from cysteine.The precursor is homoserine, a product of reduction of aspaic acid.Homoserine is phosphorylated (by ATP) and the phosphate is then displaced by sulfhydryl group of cysteine to form cystathionine.Cleavage of alanine group from cystathionine yields homocysteine, which is methylated to yield methionine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are diagnostic modalities of Asherman's syndrome, EXCEPT: | [
"Hysterosalpingography",
"Saline sonography",
"Endometrial culture",
"Hysteroscopy"
] | C | Intrauterine Adhesions is also known as uterine synechiae and when symptomatic, as Asherman syndrome, the spectrum of scarring includes filmy adhesions, dense bands, or complete obliteration of the uterine cavity. Endometrial damage may follow vigorous curettage, usually in association with postpaum hemorrhage, miscarriage, or elective aboion complicated by infection. When intrauterine adhesions are suspected, hysterosalpingography is indicated. Intrauterine adhesions characteristically appear as irregular, angulated filling defects within the uterine cavity. Other investigations include saline infusion sonography and hysteroscopy. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 16. Amenorrhea. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A six year old male baby presents to a hospital with recurrent gross hematuria for 2 years. There is no h/o burning mictuition or pyuria. Urine routine examination domonstrated no pus cells and urine culture was sterile. Serum c3 levels were normal. What is the most Probable diagnosis - | [
"Wilm's tumour",
"IgA nephropathy",
"Post-strepcoccal glomerulonephritis",
"Urinary tract Infection"
] | A | Wilms' tumor, also known as nephroblastoma, is a cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults.It is named after Max Wilms, the German surgeon (1867-1918) who first described it Wilms' tumor has many causes, which can broadly be categorized as syndromic and non-syndromic. Syndromic causes of Wilms' tumor occur as a result of alterations to genes such as the Wilms Tumor 1 (WT1) or Wilms Tumor 2 (WT2) genes, and the tumor presents with a group of other signs and symptoms. Non-syndromic Wilms' tumor is not associated with other symptoms or pathologies. Many, but not all, cases of Wilms' tumor develop from nephrogenic rests, which are fragments of tissue in or around the kidney that develop before bih and become cancerous after bih. In paicular, cases of bilateral Wilms' tumor, as well as cases of Wilms' tumor derived from ceain genetic syndromes such as Denys-Drash syndrome, are strongly associated with nephrogenic rests. Most nephroblastomas are on one side of the body only and are found on both sides in less than 5% of cases, although people with Denys-Drash syndrome mostly have bilateral or multiple tumors. They tend to be encapsulated and vascularized tumors that do not cross the midline of the abdomen. In cases of metastasis it is usually to the lung. A rupture of Wilms' tumor puts the patient at risk of bleeding and peritoneal dissemination of the tumor. In such cases, surgical intervention by a surgeon who is experienced in the removal of such a fragile tumor is imperative. Pathologically, a triphasic nephroblastoma comprises three elements: blastema mesenchyme (stroma) epithelium Wilms' tumor is a malignant tumor containing metanephric blastema, stromal and epithelial derivatives. Characteristic is the presence of aboive tubules and glomeruli surrounded by a spindled cell stroma. The stroma may include striated muscle, cailage, bone, fat tissue, and fibrous tissue. Dysfunction is caused when the tumor compresses the normal kidney parenchyma. The mesenchymal component may include cells showing rhabdomyoid differentiation or malignancy (rhabdomyosarcomatous Wilms). Wilms' tumors may be separated into 2 prognostic groups based on pathologic characteristics: Favorable - Contains well developed components mentioned above Anaplastic - Contains diffuse anaplasia (poorly developed cells) Mutations of the WT1 gene on chromosome 11p13 are observed in approximately 20% of Wilms' tumors.At least half of the Wilms' tumors with mutations in WT1 also carry mutations in CTNNB1, the gene encoding the proto-oncogene beta-catenin Typical signs and symptoms of Wilms' tumor include the following: a painless, palpable abdominal mass loss of appetite abdominal pain fever nausea and vomiting blood in the urine (in about 20% of cases) high blood pressure in some cases (especially if synchronous or metachronous bilateral kidney involvement) Rarely as varicocele Ref Harrison20th edition pg 277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 19-year-old male has a history of athlete's foot but is otherwise healthy when he develops the sudden onset of fever and pain in the right foot and leg. On physical exam, the foot and leg are fiery red with a well-defined indurated margin that appears to be rapidly advancing. There is tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most likely organism to cause this infection is | [
"Staphylococcus epidermidis",
"Tinea pedis",
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Mixed anaerobic infection"
] | C | (Braunwald, 15/e, pp 823, 893.) Erysipelas, the cellulitis described, is typical of infection caused by S.Pyogenes - Group A b- hemolytic Streptococci (GAS). There is often a preceding event such as a cut in the skin, dermatitis, or superficial fungal infection that precedes this rapidly spreading cellulitis. Anaerobic cellulitis is more often associated with underlying diabetes. S. epidermidis does not cause rapidly progressive cellulitis. Staphylococcus aureus can cause cellulitis that is difficult to distin guish from erysipelas, but it is usually more focal and likely to produce furuncles, or abscesses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Critical path method is - | [
"Cost effective analysis",
"Cost benefit analysis",
"Network analysis",
"Input-output analysis"
] | C | - a network is a graphic plan of all events and activities to be completed in order to reach an end objective. - the two common types are of network technique are ; PE and CPM. -Critical path method : the longest path of the network. - if any activity along the critical path is delayed, the whole project will be delayed. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:872 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deep brain stimulation used in treatment of? | [
"Depression",
"Parkinsonism",
"Dementia",
"Delirium"
] | B | Ans. B.)Parkinsonism Deep brain stimulation It is a neurosurgical procedure involving the implantation of a medical device called a neurostimulator (sometimes referred to as a 'brain pacemaker'), which sends electrical impulses, through implanted electrodes, to specific targets in the brain (brain nuclei) for the treatment of movement and neuropsychiatric disorders. DBS in select brain regions has provided therapeutic benefits for otherwise-treatment-resistant disorders such as Parkinson's disease, essential tremor, dystonia, chronic pain, major depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved DBS as a treatment for essential tremor and Parkinson's disease in 1997, dystonia in 2003, and OCD in 2009.DBS is also used in research studies to treat chronic pain, PTSD,and has been used to treat various affective disorders, including major depression; none of these applications of DBS have yet been FDA-approved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about hypospadias is all except - | [
"Bifid scrotum",
"Meatal stenosis",
"Mental Retardation",
"Spatulated glans"
] | C | Answer is 'c' i.e. Mental Retardation Meatal stenosis may be associated with hypospadias and needs meatotomy for correction.Bifid scrotum may be seen in penoscrotal, scrotal & perinea! hypospadias. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road traffic accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is - | [
"Spleen",
"Mesentry",
"Kidney",
"Rectum"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of facilitated diffusion? | [
"Inhibition",
"Saturability",
"Specificity",
"Uphill transpo"
] | D | Facilitated diffusion is a carrier-mediated transpo. Carrier can get saturated as the concentration of the transpo molecule reach the "transpo maximum". Carrier can be inhibited by specific ligands (or poisons). Also, carrier exhibits specificity. Substance will be transpoed from high to low concentration - the downhill transpo. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ear papilloma is a type of | [
"Wa",
"Exostosis",
"Cutaenous horn",
"Dermoid cyst"
] | A | Ear papilloma is a type of wa.Squamous papillomas (SPs) are benign neoplastic lesions usually affecting the skin, oral mucosa, upper aerodigestive tract and genital organs. It is believed that the human papilloma virus (HPV) is an etiological factor of papillomas; thus, they are also called viral was Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1267 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most important primary care in Faciomaxillary trauma is to: | [
"Asses the level of consciousness",
"Ensure adequate airway",
"Look for CNS injury",
"Immediate fracture reduction"
] | B | (b) Ensure adequate airway(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 498)In any patient of craniofacial trauma it is critically important to follow the ABC of trauma, i.e.A - Airway managementB - BreathingC - Circulation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors? | [
"Hypoxia",
"Hypocapnia",
"Acidosis",
"Low perfusion pressure"
] | B | Hypercapnia is a stimulus not hypocapnia.
Low perfusion produces hypoxia and hypercapnia at the level of chemoreceptors; thus stimulating them.
Peripheral arterial chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies have very high rates of blood flow. These receptors are primarily activated by a reduction in partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2), but they also respond to an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) and pH.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H E D I T I O N page no 593 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coloured urine is not seen in : | [
"Quinine",
"Rifampcin",
"Nitrofurantoin",
"Pyridium"
] | A | Answer is A (Quinine) Quinine is not associated with discoloured urine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
10 year old child with posterior fossa mass. On biopsy following features were seen. What are these dense eosinophilic fibers marked with arrow? | [
"Rosenthal fibers",
"The Alzheimer type II astrocyte",
"Corpora amylacea",
"None"
] | A | Ans. (a) Rosenthal fibers*Rosenthal fibers are eosinophilic, corkscrew fibers found in pilocytic astrocytoma, the most common primary brain tumor in children. They contain two heat-shock proteins (aB-crystallin and hsp27) as well as ubiquitin.*They are seen in Alexander disease and, pilocytic astrocytoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common testicular tumour of Childhood is | [
"Teratoma",
"Seminoma",
"Chorio Carcinoma",
"Embryonal Ca"
] | D | Infantile embryonal carcinoma or endodermal sinus tumor or yolk sac tumor is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following causes maximum bleeding? | [
"Paial aerial severing",
"Complete aerial severing",
"Aery caught between fractured ends of bones",
"Intimal tear"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aery caught between fractured ends of bones | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about inverse Retinitis pigmentosa? | [
"X linked",
"Bony spicule in fovea",
"Bony spicule in para fovea",
"Progressive Choroid degeneration"
] | A | Ans. (a) X linkedRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /287INVERSE RETINITIS PIGMENTOSA* Inverse RP is a degeneration of the nerve cells in the macula, which is located in the center of the retinal. Inverse or central RP is characterized by a bilateral and often symmetrical loss of cone function in the presence of a reduced rod function. Individuals with macular degeneration secondary to a central vision loss experience difficulty reading, recognizing faces, shapes and contours of objects or things.* This is a general term for a disparate group of rod- cone dystrophies characterized by progressive night blindness, visual field constriction with a ring scotoma/ tubular vision, loss of acuity, waxy pallow optic disc, and an abnormal electroretinogram (ERG).* It occurs sporadically or in an autosomal recessive, dominant, or X-linked pattern.* MC inheritance pattern: Autosomal Recessive* Irregular black deposits of clumped pigment in the peripheral retina, called hone spicules because of their vague resemblance to the spicules of cancellous bone, give the disease its name.* No definite treatment. However, Vitamin A can slow down the progression. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A highest level of zinc is found in? | [
"Prostate",
"Skin",
"Hair",
"Bone"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) ProstateREF: Trace element analysis in biological specimens by R. F. M. Herber, Markus Stoeppler page 551TissueMean concentration of ZincAdrenal43.2Bone94Brain39Heart87Skin25Prostate243Muscle200Liver169Kidney188 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a community of 3000 people, 80 % are Hindus 10 % Muslims, 5 `)/0 Sikh, 4 % Christians and 1 % Jains To select a sample of 300 people to analyses food habits, ideal sample would be - | [
"Simple random",
"Stratified random",
"Systematic random",
"Inverse sampling"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stratified random | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is/are pure beta emitter(s) : | [
"I-131",
"Samarium",
"Radium-226",
"Phosphorus-32"
] | D | Pure Beta Emitters : Strontium-89 Phosphorus -32, Ytterium-90 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Casper's Dictum is used for: | [
"Identification of Body",
"Estimation of time since death",
"Establishing cause of death",
"Establishing weapon of Injury"
] | B | Casper's dictum relates to the rate of putrefaction of a dead body and helps to estimate the time since death. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Nagesh Kumar Rao, 1999, Page 132; The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Page 150 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are components of the definitive chorion? | [
"Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and epiblast",
"Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and cytotrophoblast",
"Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and syncytiotrophoblast",
"Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast"
] | D | The definitive chorion consists of three components: extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast. The chorion defines the chorionic cavity in which the embryoblast is suspended and is vital in the formation of the placenta. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Who described conditioned reflex: | [
"Pavlov",
"Salk",
"Sherrington",
"Priestly"
] | A | Ans. A. PavlovIVAN PETROVICH PAVLOV was a Russian physiologist. He won the Nobel Prize in medicine in 1904. He is remembered particularly for his work on conditioned response. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MC hea disease associated with pregnancy: | [
"Mitral stenosis",
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Patent ductus aeriosus",
"TOF"
] | A | Most common hea disease seen in pregnancy is Rheumatic hea disease and the most common lesion is MITRAL STENOSIS. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensitivity is a measure of | [
"True positive",
"False positive",
"True negative",
"False negative"
] | A | (A) True positive # Term Sensitivity was introduced by Yarushalmy in 1940s as a statistical index of diagnostic accuracy.> It has been defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is "True positive".> A 90% sensitivity means that 90% of the diseased people screened by the test will give a "true positive" result and remaining 10% a "false negative" result.> Sensitivity has been defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is "true positive".> Sensitivity: the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, i.e. true positive ... a/a + c x 100> Specificity: The ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease i.e. true negative ...d/(b+d) x 100 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emergence Delirium is characteristic of ? | [
"Midazolam",
"Ketamine",
"Thiopentone",
"Opioids"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ketamine o Ketamine produces emergence reaction during awakening from anaesthesia --> vivid dreaming, illusions, extracorporeal experiences, excitment, confusion, fear and euphoria --> contraindicated in psychiatric illness like schizophrenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not necessary to be mentioned on drug advertisement literature? | [
"Expiry date of the drug",
"References of the information",
"Rare but life-threatening adverse effects",
"Common but insignificant adverse effects"
] | A | Ans. (A) Expiry date of the drug(Ref: WHO criteria for drug advertisement, Practical Manual of Pharmacology by Dinesh Badyal 1st/e p211-212)According to WHO criteria and OPPI (Organization o Pharmaceutical Producers of India) code of Pharmaceutical practices 2012, the printed drug promotional literature (DPL) must containName of the drug: Brand name should be available with the active ingredient (generic name). The ratio of size of brand name to generic name should not be more than 3:1Indications: Approved therapeutic indications must be present on the DPL.Dosage: Content of active ingredient(s) per dosage form and whole regiment should be written on the DPLPrecautions and warningsContraindicationsAdverse effects: All serious adverse effects and common non-serious adverse effects should be mentioned on the DPLMajor interactionsPrice: Price of the drug as well as whole regimen should be present on DPL.Information of manufacturer: The name and address of the pharmaceutical company or its agent responsible for marketing the product must be present on DPLReference to scientific literature: Appropriate references should be available regarding the claims made by the DPL. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which component of the cell wall is responsible for endotoxic activity: | [
"Region I",
"Region II",
"Region III",
"Biovin antigen"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A boy of chronologic age 9 years is 125 cm in height. Mean height for the age is 133.71 cm with a standard deviation of 5.49 cm. The skeletal age is assessed as 8 years. The boy may be regarded as. | [
"Somewhat physically retarded with the potential to catch up",
"Severely physically retarded with little potential to catch up",
"At the right level",
"Destined to be a short-statured individual"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A burn patient is referred to a burn unit when | [
"Burns involving palms",
"Scald in face",
"Chemical burns",
"All of the above"
] | D | Indications for referring to a burns unit :
Airway burns.
Burns of palms,soles, genitalia and face.
Chemical or elctrical burns.
Any pt requring IV fluids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is the etiological agent of Rocky mountain spotted fever - | [
"Rickettsia rickettsii",
"Rochalimaea quintana",
"Rickettsia tsutsugamushi",
"Coxiella burnetii"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which structure can be felt at the lower part of the medial border of sternocleidomastoid - | [
"Subclavian artery",
"Common carotid artery",
"Internal mammary artery",
"Maxillary artery"
] | B | Carotid pulse (common carotid artery) can be felt along the anterior margin of sternoleidomastoid at the level of laryngeal prominence of cricoid cartilage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary TB most commonly involves? | [
"Brain",
"Lymph node",
"Lung",
"Intestine"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) LungREF: Robbins 8th edchapter 8Primary tuberculosis is the form of disease that develops in a previously unexposed, and therefore unsensitized, person.[?] In countries where infected milk has been eliminated, primary tuberculosis almost always begins in the lungs.[?] Typically, the inhaled bacilli implant in the distal airspaces of the lower part of the upper lobe or the upper part of the lower lobe, usually close to the pleura. As sensitization develops, a 1- to 1.5-cm area of gray-white inflammation with consolidation emerges, known as the Ghon focus.[?] Tubercle bacilli, either free or within phagocytes, drain to the regional nodes, which also often caseate. This combination of parenchymal lung lesion and nodal involvement is referred to as the Ghon complex.[?] In approximately 95% of cases, development of cell-mediated immunity controls the infection. Hence, the Ghon complex undergoes progressive fibrosis, often followed by radiologically detectable calcification (Ranke complex), and despite seeding of other organs, no lesions develop. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4-year-old boy develops severe bleeding into the knee joint. Laboratory studies show that serum levels of factor IX are reduced, but levels of factor VIII are normal. What is the appropriate diagnosis? | [
"Hemophilia A",
"Hemophilia B",
"Henoch-Schonlein purpura",
"Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura"
] | B | Hemophilia B is an X-linked recessive disease caused by mutations in the gene encoding factor IX. It accounts for only 10% of all cases of hemophilia. One third of all cases represent new mutations. It is clinically indistinguishable from hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency) (choice A). In both forms of hemophilia, the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is prolonged. Mixing of a patient's blood with that of a normal donor normalizes the PTT.Diagnosis: Hemophilia B | train | med_mcqa | null |
During nutritional assessment of a surgical patient, the status of muscle protein is indicated by which one of the following parameters - | [
"Serum albumin",
"Triceps skin fold thickness",
"Mid-arm circumference",
"Hb level"
] | C | • Anthropometric techniques incorporating measurements of skinfold thicknesses and mid-arm circumference permit estimations of body fat and muscle mass, and these are indirect measures of energy and protein stores.
• Skinfold thickness is measured at ulnar, triceps, subscapular and suprailiac region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements regarding treatment of GBS are true, except - | [
"Corticosteroids may be used for early recovery' and prevent long hospital stay",
"High dose intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIg) can be initiated",
"Plasmapheresis can be done",
"High dose intravenous immunoglobulins and plasmapharesis are equally effective"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Corticosteroids may be used for early recovery and prevent long hospital stay o Glucocorticoids have not been found to be effective in Guillain-Barre Syndrome.Management of Guillain Barre Syndromeo Supportive care is extremely important in Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) since up to 30 percent of patients develop neuromuscular respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation.# In addition, severe autonomic dysfunction occurs in about 20percent and warrants intensive care unit (ICU) monitoring.Supportive managemento Close respiratory monitoring with frequent measurement of vital capacity and negative inspiratory force should be instituted in all patients with GBS on admission and continued while weakness is progressing, o Patients with a forced vital capacity <20 mL/kg, maximum inspiratory pressure <30 cmH2O, or maximum expiratory pressure <40 cmH2O are at high risk of impending respiratory failure and should undergo urgent intubation and mechanical ventilation.o In the absence of disease-modifying treatment, most patients with GBS show continued progression for up to two weeks, followed by a plateau phase of about two weeks, and then recovery offunction over several weeks to months.Disease modifying treatmento The main modalities of therapy for Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) include :# Plasma exchange (also called plasmapheresis)# Administration of intravenous immune globulin (IVIG).o Plasmapheresis is thought to remove circulating antibodies, complementr and soluble biological response modifiers.o The precise mechanism of action for IVIG in GBS is unknown but may include providing anti-idiotypic antibodies, modulating expression and function of Fc receptors, interfering with activation of complement and production of cytokines, and interfering with activation and effector functions of T and B cells.Plasmapheresiso With plasma exchange there is early improvement in muscle strength and reduced need for mechanical ventilation and better recovery.Intravenous immune globulino IVIG is as effective as plasma exchange for the treatment of GBS.o Patients with more severe clinical disease may benefit from longer duration of IVIG treatment.Choice of therapyo Disease-modifying therapy with plasma exchange or IVIG is recommended for nonambulatory patients with GBS who present within four weeks of neuropathic symptom onset.o Therapy with plasma exchange or IVIG is suggested for ambulatory patients with GBS who present within the same timeframe, except for those who are mildly affected and already recovering.o Patients recover sooner when treated early.o The choice between plasma exchange and IVIG is dependent on local availability and on patient-related risk factors, contraindications, and preference.# Because of its ease of administration and wide availability; IVIG is frequently the preferred treatment.Guideline recommendations# Guidelines from the American Academy of Neurology IAA A) have made the following observations:o Treatment with plasma exchange or IVIG hastens recovery- from GBSo Tire beneficial effects of plasma exchange and IVIG are equivalento Combining the two treatments is not beneficialo Glucocorticoid treatment is not recommendedThe AAN recommends plasma exchange or IVIG for GBS treatment as follows :o Plasma exchange is recommendedfor nonambulatory adult patients with GBS who start treatment within four weeks of the onset of neuropathic symptoms. Plasma exchange is also recommended for ambulatory patients who start treatment within two weeks of the onset of neuropathic symptoms.o IVIG is recommended for nonambulatory> adult patients with GBS who start treatment within two or possibly four weeks of the onset of neuropathic symptoms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gland homologous to prostate in females is? | [
"Ganer's gland",
"Skene's gland",
"Baholin's gland",
"Cowper's gland"
] | B | Ans. B. Skene's glandIn female human anatomy, Skene's glands or the Skene glands known as the lesser vestibular glands, paraurethral glands, or homologous femaleprostate are glands located on the anterior wall of thevagina, around the lower end of the urethra. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resection of the adjacent gut is most often required in | [
"Chylolymphatic cyst",
"Enterogenous cyst",
"Mesenteric dermoid cyst",
"Simple cyst"
] | B | Chylolymphatic cystEnterogenous cystUsually congenital as a result of sequestration of lymphaticsDerived from diveiculum of mesentric border that has become sequestrated The cyst wall is thin, lacks muscular wall, not lined by mucosa Thick wall lined by mucosa Usually solitary,often unilocular with clear lymph or chyleContent is mucinousMost frequently seen in the mesentery of ileum Independent blood supplyCommon blood supply as adjacent bowel Enucleation is enoughResection anastomosis needed(Refer: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th edition, pg no: 2010) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Peg cells' are seen in: | [
"Vagina",
"Vulva",
"Ovary",
"Tubes"
] | D | Important Facts about Fallopian Tube:
Length = 4 inches or 10-12 cm.
Parts are :
Interstitium (Intramural): 1.8 cm long and 1 mm diameter (narrowest part). It has no longitudinal muscles, only circular muscles are present.
Isthmus: 3.5 cm long and 2 mm in diameter. (Second narrowest part).
Ampulla: widest and longest part 6-7.5 cm and fertilization occurs here
Fimbria/infundibulum
Histologically:
Fallopian tubes have a unique type of cells called as Peg cells whose function is not known. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used to irradiate the blood products | [
"Alpha rays",
"Beta rays",
"Gamma rays",
"X-rays"
] | C | A gamma ray, or gamma radiation (symbol g or {\displaystyle \gamma }), is a penetrating electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decayof atomic nuc Gamma radiation is often used to kill living organisms, in a process called irradiation. Applications of this include the sterilization of medical equipment (as an alternative to autoclaves or chemical means), the removal of decay-causing bacteria from many foods and the prevention of the sprouting of fruit and vegetables to maintain freshness and flavor. Despite their cancer-causing propeies, gamma rays are also used to treat some types of cancer, since the rays also kill cancer cells. In the procedure called gamma-knife surgery, multiple concentrated beams of gamma rays are directed to the growth in order to kill the cancerous cells. The beams are aimed from different angles to concentrate the radiation on the growth while minimizing damage to surrounding tissues. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Higher incidence of which of the following is seen in the infant of a diabetic mother | [
"Macrocytic anaemia",
"Hypercalcaemia",
"Hyperglycemia",
"Polycythemia"
] | D | Effects of diabetes on the Newborn Congenital abnormalities Macrosomia Hypoglycemia Hypocalcemia Apnea and bradycardia Hyaline membrane disease Traumatic delivery Polycythemia Hyperbilirubinemia Cardiomyopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Liposomes are used for all except? | [
"Amphotericin-B",
"Doxorubicin",
"Propranolol",
"Vincristine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Propranolol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colposcopy is used to visualize all except: March 2005 | [
"Upper 2/3rd endocervix",
"Lower 1/3rd endoCervix",
"Lateral fornix",
"Vault of vagina"
] | A | Ans. A: Upper 2/3rd endocervix Colposcopy is used to identify or rule out the existence of any precancerous conditions in the cervical tissue. If a Pap test shows abnormal cell growth, colposcopy is usually the first follow-up test performed. Colposcopy may also be performed if the cervix looks abnormal during a routine examination. It may be suggested for women with genital was and for diethylstilbestrol (DES) daughters (women whose mothers took the anti-miscarriage drug DES when pregnant with them). Colposcopy is used in the emergency depament to examine victims of sexual assault and abuse and document any physical evidence of vaginal injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Indoor air pollution, carbon monoxide is produced by – | [
"Combustion equipment",
"Stove",
"Gas heaters",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about hydatid cyst- | [
"Mostly asymptomatic",
"Most commonly located in right lobe",
"Causative organism is echinococcus granulosus",
"Hepatic resection is never done"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hepatic resection is never done Hydatid cyst of liver f (or Echinococcosis)o Cystic hydatid disease is caused by the larval/cyst stage of the tapeworm - Echinococcus granulosus (Other Echinococcus species affecting human are E. multiloculasis, E. vogeli & E. oligarthus).Man is the intermediate host of Echinococcus.Dog is the definitive host.Sheeps are the usual intermediate host, but humans are accidental intermediate hosts,o Organs commonly involved are liver and lung.The liver is involved in about two-third of E. granulosus infection and in nearly all E. multiloculasis infection,o Usually the cysts are single and involve the rt. lobe of liver.Clinical manifestationo Slowly enlarging echinococcal cysts are usually asymptomatic until their expanding size or their space occupying effect in the involved organ prduces symptoms o Symptoms when produced are - abdominal pain, dyspepsia, vomiting, hepatomegaly.DiagnosisoUSG and CT can diagnose the cystic lesion. There are certain signs which if present are pathognomic of hydatidDaughter cyst within the large cyst (may produce rosette appearance)Calcification of the wallo Serodiagnostic assay (ELISA) can be helpful in over 85% of patients.Treatmento Books differ on the treatment.According to Harrison-o Surgery has traditionally been the principal definitive method of treatment.o Currently 'PAIR' is the preferred method of t/t for sonologically appropriate lesions.PAIR is contraindjcatgiLfor :o Superficially located cysts (because of the risk of rupture)o For cysts with multiple thick internal septal divisions (honeycombing pattern)o For cysts communicating with the biliary tree,o Dead or inactive cystsPAIR stands for Percutaneous Aspirat ion Jn fusion ofscolicidal agents andReaspiration.In PAIR pt. is given prophhylactic coverage of albendazole; cyst is aspirated under ultrasound or CT guidance and scolicidal agents (ethanol or hypertonic saline) infused. Scolicidal agent is then reaspirated.PAIR has been found to'be equally effective as surgery with less morbidity and shorter hospital stay.o Surgery remains the treatment of choice for cysts where PAIR is not possible or cysts are refractory to PAIR and for complicated cysts (e.g. those communicating with the biliary tract). y Pericystectqmy is the preferred surgical approach, in which the complete cyst with surrounding fibrous tissue are removed.If surgical cystectomy is not technically feasible, then formal liver resection can be done.o For those patients who are poor candidates for cyst directed intervention (i.e. PAIR or surgery) - long durations of Albendazole is the mainstay of therapy.According to Schwartz (and Sabiston) -o Surgery is the preferred method of treatment, unless the cysts are small or the patient is not a suitable candidate for surgical resection.o For most cysts surgical resection involving laparoscopic or open complete cyst removal with instillation of a scolicidal agent is preferred and usually is curative.y If complete cystectomy is not possible, then formal anatomic liver resection can be used.o Treatment of Echinococcus multiloeularis.E. multiloeularis cyst is always multiloculated _T/t is surgical resection | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presents with sho episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacant episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal. The likely diagnosis is: | [
"Day dreaming",
"Grandmal seizures",
"Absence seizures",
"Complex paial seizures"
] | C | Presence of brief abrupt loss of awareness or consciousness with sudden discontinuation of activity followed by staring spell, eye fluttering or rhythmic movements in a previously normal child and which is not associated with an aura or any post-ictal drowsiness or consfusion is typical of Absence seizures. EEG shows characteristic 3/second spike and slow wave pattern. Ref: Essential of Pediatrics By O P Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 509-511 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are false for Gall Bladder carcinoma except: March 2005 | [
"Carries a good prognosis",
"Gallstones may be a predisposing factor",
"Commonly squamous cell carcinoma",
"Jaundice is rare"
] | B | Ans. B: Gallstones may be a predisposing factor Primary carcinoma of the gallbladder is an uncommon, aggressive malignancy that affects women more frequently than men. Older age groups are most often affected, and coexisting gallstones are present in the vast majority of cases. The symptoms at presentation are vague and are most often related to adjacent organ invasion. Imaging studies may reveal a mass replacing the normal gallbladder, diffuse or focal thickening of the gallbladder wall, or a polypoid mass within the gallbladder lumen. Adjacent organ invasion, most commonly involving the liver, is typically present at diagnosis, as is biliary obstruction. Peripoal and peripancreatic lymphadenopathy, hematogenous metastases, and peritoneal metastases may also be seen. The vast majority of gallbladder carcinomas are adenocarcinomas. Because most patients present with advanced disease, the prognosis is poor. The radiologic differential diagnosis includes the more frequently encountered inflammatory conditions of the gallbladder, xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis, adenomyomatosis, other hepatobiliary malignancies, and metastatic disease. The prevalence of lymphatic spread is high in gallbladder carcinoma. Lymphatic metastases progress from the gallbladder fossa through the hepatoduodenal ligament to nodal stations near the head of the pancreas. Three pathways of lymphatic drainage have been suggested: the cholecystoretropancreatic pathway, the cholecystoceliac pathway, and the cholecystomesenteric pathway. The cystic and pericholedochal lymph nodes are the most commonly involved at surgery and are a critical pathway to involvement of the celiac, superior mesenteric, and para-aoic lymph nodes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Management of third degree utero-vaginal prolapse in woman who wants to have a child in future is? | [
"Le fort's repair",
"Shirodkar's Modified Sling Operation",
"Manchester operation",
"Fothergill's repair"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Shirodkar's Modified Sling OperationREF: Shaw 13th ed p. 329Repeat December 2008Abdominal sling operations have been designed for young women suffering from second or third degree uterovaginal prolapse and are desirous of having children. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fatal familial insomia is associated with - | [
"Prion disease",
"Degeneration disease",
"Neoplastic disease",
"Vascular disease"
] | A | fatal familial inaomnia is a human prion disease REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with respiratory symptoms i.e. a cough, hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis. His C-ANCA levels in serum were found to be raised. The most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Goodpasteur's syndrome",
"Classic polyarteritis nodosa",
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Kawasaki syndrome"
] | C | Renal and pulmonary symptoms with positive c-ANCA suggest the diagnosis of Wegener's glomerulonephritis (see above explanation).
The clinical syndrome of Wegener's granulomatosis may be very similar to classical PAN or microscopic polyangiitis.
Following facts will help you to differentiate Wegener's granulomatosis from other Two -
Wegener's granulomatosis Vs classical PAN
Wegener's granulomatosis involves small vessels (arteriole, venule, capillary), while PAN involves medium size vessels.
Wegener's granulomatosis is associated with c-ANCA, while classical PAN is not associated with ANCA.
In Wegener's granulomatosis there is lung involvement, but not in classical PAN.
In Wegener's granulomatosis, there is glomerulonephritis (hematuria) without hypertension, while in classical PAN there is hypertension without glomerulonephritis.
In Wegener's granulomatosis, there is granuloma formation, while it is absent in classical PAN.
Classical PAN shows microaneurysms which are absent in Wegener's granulomatosis.
Wegner's granulomatosis Vs microscopic polyangiitis
Wegener's granulomatosis is associated with c-ANCA, while MPA is associated with p-ANCA.
Granuloma formation occurs in Wegener's granulomatosis, not in MPA.
Lung cavities and nodules are seen in Wegener's granulomatosis, but not in MPA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a very tall patient with arm span > height the thumb projects beyond palm when flexed. This sign is known as? | [
"Arachnodactyly",
"Finger sign",
"Steinberg's sign",
"Wrist sign"
] | C | Ans. (c) Steinberg's sign. * The image shows Thumb sign seen in Marfan syndrome where the hand is clenched without assistance, the entire thumbnail projects beyond the border of the hand (Steinberg's sign) * Other skeletal findings in Marfan's syndrome are 1. Dolichostenomelia (long, thin limbs) 2. Arm span substantially exceeds the height (> 1.05 times height). 3. Long, thin fingers (arachnodactyly) that are hyperextensible. 4. The thumb may be adducted across the narrow palm and may appreciably overlap the 5th finger when encircling the wrist (wrist sign) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stereocilia and kinocilium are present in | [
"Tongue",
"Inner ear",
"Nose",
"Eye"
] | B | (B) Inner ear > A kinocilium is a special type of cilium on the apex of hair cells located in the sensory epithelium of the vertebrate inner ear. Stereocilia (or stereovilli) are apical modifications of the cell, which are distinct from cilia and microvilli, but closely related to the latter. They are found in three regions of the body: the ductus deferens, the epididymis and the inner ear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7 years old girl with falling grades and complaints by teacher that she is inattentive in class to her parents and has bad school performance. On hyperventilation her symptoms increased and showed the following EEG findings. Diagnosis is (graph is given): | [
"Myoclonic epilepsy",
"Myoclonus",
"Absence seizure",
"Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy"
] | C | Ans. c. Absence seizures | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most severe form of malignant malenoma is - | [
"Superficially spreading",
"Nodular infiltrating type",
"Those arising in lower limb",
"Those in choroid"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chance of having cystic fibrosis if only one parent is affected and other is normal- | [
"25%",
"50%",
"70%",
"80%"
] | B | Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects mostly the lungs, but also the pancreas, liver, kidneys, and intestine.[ Long-term issues include difficulty breathing and coughing up mucus as a result of frequent lung infections. Other signs and symptoms may include sinus infections, poor growth, fatty stool, clubbing of the fingers and toes, and infeility in males. Different people may have different degrees of symptoms.[ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protein catabolism is increased in ? | [
"Starvation",
"Burns",
"Surgery",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd'i.e., All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Strangulation most commonly occurs in: September 2005 | [
"Femoral hernia",
"Direct inguinal hernia",
"Indirect inguinal hernia",
"Lumbar hernia"
] | A | Ans. A: Femoral hernia Femoral hernias occur just below the inguinal ligament, when abdominal contents pass into the weak area at the posterior wall of the femoral canal. They can be hard to distinguish from the inguinal type (especially when ascending cephalad): however, they generally appear more rounded, and, in contrast to inguinal hernias, there is a strong female preponderance in femoral hernias. Although inguinal hernia may be 10 times more common than the femoral hernia, a femoral hernia is more likely to strangulate because of the narrowness of the neck and its rigid sorrounds. Repair techniques are similar for femoral and inguinal hernia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3 year old child is classified as Pneumonia, if the respiratory rate is: | [
"30/min",
"40/min",
"50/min",
"60/min"
] | B | Ans. B. 40/minRevised WHO classification for childhood pneumonia at health facility (2-59 months)Cough and Cold: No Pneumonia: Advise Home careFast breathing/ and or chest indrawing: No Pneumonia: Oral amoxicillin and home care advise.General danger signs: Severe Pneumonia: First dose antibiotic and referral to a centre for intravenous injections. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about papillary carcinoma of thyroid? | [
"Can be reliably diagnosed using FNAC",
"Always unifocal",
"Typically spreads to the cervical lymph nodes",
"Requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumors"
] | B | "Multifocality is the common feature of papillary carcinoma of thyroid and may be seen up to 85% of cases". Papillary carcinoma thyroid can be reliably diagnosed by FNAC and metastasis to cervical lymph node is so common that sometimes cervical lymph enlargement can only be the presentation, without any noticeable mass in the thyroid. Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 1362 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coarse pitting of nails is seen in? | [
"Psorati carthiritis",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Bullous pemphigoid",
"Pemphigus vulgaris"
] | A | Ans. (a) Psoratic arthiritisRef: Rook's 8/e, p 65.13 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cystic neoplasm of the pancreas with dismal prognosis is: | [
"Serous cystadenoma",
"Mucinous cystic neoplasm",
"Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm",
"Ductal adenocarcinoma with cystic degeneration"
] | D | TYPE of CYSTIC NEOPLASM SEX PREDILECTION MALIGNANT POTENTIAL AND NATURAL HISTORY Serous cystadenoma Female Resection is curative serous cystadenocarcinoma is extremely rare Mucinous cystic neoplasm Female Resection is curative, regardless of degree of epithelial dysplasia; poor prognosis when invasive adenocarcinoma is present Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm Equal distribution Excellent prognosis for lesions showing only adenomatous and borderline cytologic atypia; poor prognosis when invasive adenocarcinoma is present Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm Female Indolent neoplasm with rare nodal and extranodal metastases; excellent prognosis when completely resected Cystic endocrine neoplasm Equal distribution Similar to that of solid neuroendocrine neoplasm Ductal adenocarcinoma with cystic degeneration Male predominance Dismal prognosis, similar to that of solid adenocarcinoma Acinar-cell cystadenocarcinoma Male Similar to that of solid type; aggressive neoplasm with slightly better prognosis than ductal adenocarcinoma Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-1027 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are contents of the middle ear except: | [
"Stapedius",
"Tensor tympani",
"Facial nerve",
"Chorda tympani"
] | C | All the other structures with the tympanic plexus is described as contents of the middle ear cavity
The facial nerve is described as a part of the medial and posterior wall of the tympanic cavit | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28 year old woman was admitted electively to a HDU following C- section. A diagnosis of 'fatty liver of pregnancy' had been made preoperatively. She was commenced on a continuous morphine infusion at 5 mg/hr and received oxygen by mask. This was continued overnight and she was noted to be quite drowsy the next day. Aerial blood gases were- pH 7.16, pCO2- 61.9 mmHg, pO2- 115 mmHg and HCO3- 21.2 mmol/l? | [
"Respiratory acidosis +Metabolic acidosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis + Metabolic alkalosis",
"Respiratory acidosis + Metabolic alkalosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis + Metabolic acidosis"
] | A | Acidotic pH, Elevated CO2 , Low HCO3 Respiratory acidosis + Metabolic acidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following features can be given in a grossly carious tooth to strengthen the tooth structure except: | [
"Skirt extension",
"Collar preparation",
"Dovetail preparation",
"Surface groove extension"
] | C | In the preparation of a tooth that has been grossly weakened by caries or previous filling material and is judged to be prone to fracture under occlusal loads, the resistance form that cusp capping provides should be augmented by the use of skirts, collars, or facial (lingual) surface groove extensions.
When properly placed, these features result in onlays that distribute the occlusal forces over most or all of the tooth and not just a portion of it, reducing the likelihood of fractures of teeth.
The lingual “skirt” extension, the lingual “collar” preparation or the lingual surface groove extension on a maxillary molar protects the facial cusps from fracture.
The facial skirt extension, the facial collar preparation, or the facial surface groove extension on a mandibular molar protects the lingual cusp from fracture.
Sturdevant operative dentistry 7th Edition, Page No:e122 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following syndrome is associated with mental retardation? | [
"Hunter syndrome",
"Morquio syndrome B",
"Sly syndrome",
"Natowicz syndrome"
] | A | Disease name Abbretion Enzyme Defective GaG(s) affected Symptoms Hurler syndrome MPS I a-l-Iduronidase Dermatan sulfate, Heparan sulfate Mental retardation, coarse facial features, hepatosplenomegaly, cloudy cornea Hunter syndrome MPS II Iduronate sulfatase Dermatan sulfate, Heparan sulfate Mental retardation Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no:639; Table: 50-8 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following theory is considered as the most complete, clinically useful and theoretically a sophisticated form of behaviour theory? | [
"Hierarchy of needs",
"Social learning theory",
"Classical conditioning",
"Operant conditioning"
] | B | SOCIAL LEARNING THEORY
Bandura (1963)
Social learning theory is thought to be the most complete, cIinicalIy useful and theoretically a sophisticated form of behaviour therapy. As compared to Operant and Classical conditioning, this theory is:
Less reductionistic.
Provides more explanatory concepts.
Encompasses a broader range of phenomena.
Shobha Tandon 2nd Ed P;129 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amino-acid expressed maximally in collagen? | [
"Tyrosine & phenylalanine",
"Alanine & aspaic acid",
"Glycine & cysteine",
"Proline & hydroxyproline"
] | D | Ans. is `d' i.e., Proline & hydroxyprolineGlycine (33%), proline (10%), hydroxyproline, lysine and hydroxylysine are the predominant amino acids in collagen. Collagen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Absolute contraindication for MRI: | [
"Pacemaker",
"Claustrophobia",
"Penile prosthesis",
"Joint replacement"
] | A | Ans. (a) PacemakerRef: Harrison 19th ed. /440e-tContraindications of MRIAbsolute contraindicationRelative contraindication* Pacemaker* Metallic foreign body in the eye* Deep brain stimulator* Swan-Ganz catheter* Bullets or gunshot pellets* Cerebral aneurysm clips* Cochlear implant* Magnetic dental implants* AAA stent* stapes implant* Implanted drug infusion device* Neuro or bone growth stimulator* Surgical clips, wire sutures, screws or mesh* Ocular prosthesis* Penile prosthesis* Joint replacement or prosthesis* Other implants, in particular mechanical devices | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is most abundant form of collagen present in dermis? | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | A | Type I collagen is the predominant type of collagen present in the dermis accounting for approximately 80% of the collagen in dermis. It is highly vascular, largely acellular and primarily consists of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue. Type II collagen- CailageType III collagen- reticular fibers, Granulation tissue (early), Blood vesselType IV collagen- Basement memberane | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ganja is obtained from : | [
"Dried leaves",
"Fresh leaves",
"Flowering tops",
"Roots"
] | C | C i.e. Flowering tops | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disadvantage of using a stress breaker in partial dentures is: | [
"The partial denture becomes cumbersome",
"Ridge resorption occurs",
"Its is not economical",
"No disadvantages present"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Preganglionic fibres to the submandibular ganglion arise from? | [
"Superior salivatory nucleus",
"Inferior salivatory nucleus",
"Nucleus of tractus solitaries",
"Nucleus ambiguous"
] | A | Sensory root is from the lingual nerve. It is suspended by two roots of lingual nerve Sympathetic root is from the sympathetic plexus around the facial aery. This plexus contains postganglionic fibres from the superior cervical ganglion of sympathetic trunk. These fibres pass express through the ganglion and are vasomotor to the submandibular gland Secretomotor root is from superior salivatory nucleus through nervus intermedius chorda tympani which is abranch of cranial nerve VII. Chorda tympani joins lingual nerve.The parasympathetic fibres get relayed in the submandibular ganglion Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition pg 310 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old smoker came with the history of single episode of painless gross hematuria . Most logical investigation would be. | [
"USG",
"X-ray KUB",
"Urine routine",
"Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells"
] | D | REPEAT QUESTION. In this case, we should suspect bladder carcinoma ( transitional cell carcinoma ) . RISK FACTORS:- 1.Smoker :- component of tobacco - 4 aminobiphenyl. 2. Cyclophosphamide.(Phenacitin also) 3.Schistosomiasis in endemic regions . 4.Chemical (Aromatic hydrocarbon -Aniline). 5.Stones. 6.Radiation. 7.F.B. It is more common in males -3:1. They usually presents with painless gross hematuria. IOC :-Thus the best option here is urine microsopy for RBC's and malignant cells.urine cytology even though not a good screening test because of lack of sensitivity is highly specific . Mainstay of diagnosis is cystourethroscopy. investigations include imaging ( CT , MRI ,USG ,IVU ) and blood investigations for HB , electrolytes and urea . Gold std:- CYSTOSCOPY Bailey and Love 27th edition.chapter 77.pg no 1449. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sulphur granules in actinomycosis consist of ? | [
"Monophils + neutrophils",
"Monophils + lymphocytes",
"Eosinophils",
"Bacterial particles"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Medial to lateral structure of Fallopian tube are | [
"Ampulla, Isthmus, Infundibulum",
"Infundibulum, isthmus, Ampulla",
"Interstitial, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum",
"Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, Interstitial"
] | C | (Interstitial, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum) (11- Dutta- Gynaecology 4th)Fallopian tube (Uterine tube) - 4 parts, from medial to lateral they are1. Intramural or interstitial - 1.25cm length - 1 mm in diameter2. Isthmus - almost straight = 2.5 cm length 2.5 mm diameter3. Ampulla - tortuous = 5 cm length ends in wide4. Infundibulum = 1.2 cm length 6mm diameterFunctions -1. Transport of gametes2. To facilitate fertilization and survivl of zygote through its secretion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Power of Intraocular lens is determined by? | [
"Keratometry",
"Retinoscopy",
"Ophthalmoscopy",
"Gonioscopy\\/Biometry"
] | A | The most common method of determining IOL power uses a regression formula called 'SRK (Sanders, Retzlaff and Kraff) formula'. The formula is P = A - 2.5L - 0.9K, where: P is the power of IOL, A is a constant which is specific for each lens type. L is the axial length of the eyeball in mm, which is determined by A-scan ultrasonography. K is average corneal curvature, which is determined by keratometry. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The distinct golden colour in transgenic Golden rice is due to presence of - | [
"Riboflavin",
"b-carotene",
"Vitamin B12",
"Xanthopyll"
] | B | <p> Golden rice: Variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to boisynthesize beta carotene, a precursor of vitamin A. The distinct golden colour is due to the beta carotene content. It is indented to produce a foified food to be grown and consumed in areas with a shoage of dietary vitamin A. Golden rice differs from its parenteral strain by the addition of three beta carotene biosynthesis gene. </p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
NO is synthesized from Amino Acid: | [
"Uracil",
"Aspaate",
"Guanosine",
"Arginine"
] | D | Arginine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common type of pathological changes seen in Rabies are | [
"Meningitis",
"Cranial aeritis",
"Ventriculitis",
"Brain stem encephalitis"
] | D | Refer Robbins page no Pg 1277 Histopathologic evidence of rabies encephalomyelitis (inflammation) in brain tissue and meninges includes the following: Mononuclear infiltration Perivascular cuffing of lymphocytes or polymorphonuclear cells Lymphocytic foci Babes nodules consisting of glial cells Negri bodies | train | med_mcqa | null |
The false ligaments / peritoneal ligaments of uterus are formed by ? | [
"fibromuscular bands",
"peritoneal fold",
"pelvic diaphragm",
"Dougla's pouch"
] | D | Peritoneal Ligaments- These are mere peritoneal folds which do not provide any suppo to the uterus. 1. The anterior ligament consists of the uterovesical fold of peritoneum. 2. The posterior ligament consists of the recto-vaginal fold of peritoneum. 3. The right and left broad ligaments are folds of peritoneum which attach the uterus to the lateral pelvic wall. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition, volume 2, pg no.421 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about tetanus – | [
"Tetanus bacilli can spread through blood",
"Spread along the nerves only",
"Requires oxygen",
"I.P. is variable"
] | D | Pathogenicity
Cl. tetani has little invasive property and is confined to the primary site of lodgment. Tetanus results from the action of the potent exotoxin it produces.
Toxin is released in the wound, it enters the axon of neurons and is transported to brain stern and spinal cord by regrograde intraneural transport where it presynaptically blocks release of glycine and GABA.
Tetanus
Incubation period - is variable from two days to several weeks, but is commonly 6-12 days. Note : It is tetanus toxin not bacilli that spread along the nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metronidazole is effective in all of the following conditions except - | [
"Pseudomembranous colitis",
"Neurocysticercosis",
"Giardiasis",
"Amebic liver abscess"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neurocysticercosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is most characteristics of granuloma | [
"Epitheliod cell",
"Giant cells",
"Fibroblast",
"Endothelial cells"
] | A | ref Robbins 9/e p97-78 a granuloma is an organized collection of macrophages. In medical practice, doctors occasionally use the term "granuloma" in its more literal meaning: "a small nodule". Since a small nodule can represent anything from a harmless nevus to a malignant tumor, this usage of the term is not very specific. Examples of this use of the term granuloma are the lesions known as vocal cord granuloma (known as contact granuloma), pyogenic granuloma and intubation granuloma, all of which are examples of granulation tissue, not granulomas. "Pulmonary hyalinizing granuloma" is a lesion characterized by keloid-like fibrosis in the lung, and is not granulomatous. Similarly, radiologists often use the term granuloma when they see a calcified nodule on X-ray or CT scan of the chest. They make this assumption since granulomas usually contain calcium, although the cells that form a granuloma are too tiny to be seen by a radiologist. The most accurate use of the term "granuloma" requires a pathologist to examine surgically removed and specially colored (stained) tissue under a microscope. Histiocytes (specifically macrophages) are the cells that define a granuloma. They often, but not invariably, fuse to form multinucleated giant cells (Langhans giant cell). The macrophages in granulomas are often referred to as "epithelioid". This term refers to the vague resemblance of these macrophages to epithelial cells. Epithelioid macrophages differ from ordinary macrophages in that they have elongated nuclei that often resemble the sole of a slipper or shoe. They also have larger nuclei than ordinary macrophages and their cytoplasm is typically more pink when stained with eosin. These changes are thought to be a consequence of "activation" of the macrophage by the offending antigen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Relaxation of mesangial cells of kidney is brought about by ? | [
"cAMP",
"Endothelin",
"PGF2",
"Vasopressin"
] | A | A i.e. C-Amp | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which investigation should be avoided in a proven case of renal papillary necrosis - | [
"Urine acidification test",
"Sickling test",
"TB-PCR-urine",
"Bacterial culture ofurine"
] | A | Urinary acidification ability may be evaluated by an acidification test or maximum urinary pCO2 assessment with alkaline urine. The maximum urinary pCO2 test using acetazolamide and sodium bicarbonate is an easy test to confirm the lack of urine acidification in distal renal tubular acidosis in children Ref Harrison20th edition pg 234 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Owl eye appearance of infected cell is caused by- | [
"Variola virus",
"Rabies",
"Polio",
"CMV"
] | D | Owl eye appearance is caused by Cytomegalovirus (CMV) which Belongs to Betavirinae (HHV5). Inclusion bodies, are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins. Option 1: Variola virus-Paschen bodies Option 2: Rabies- Negri bodies Option 3: Polio -Cowdry type B inclusions | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a case of dysfunctional uterine bleeding thehormone which is usually deficient is : | [
"Oestrogen",
"Progesterone",
"Thyroxin",
"A.C.T.H."
] | B | Progesterone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements are true about the management in a lady with hematuria diagnosed to have Stage II Transitional Cell Carcinoma of bladder? | [
"Cystoscopic fulguration is the standard treatment",
"70% chance of requiring cystectomy in 5 years after TUR",
"History of smoking is not a risk factor",
"There is no role of chemotherapy"
] | B | Transurethral Resection(TUR) alone in the management of patients with invasive bladder cancer carries a high likelihood of recurrence and progression. Considering the high likelihood of recurrence and progression, a greater than, 70%> chance of requiring cystectomy within 5 years appears to be logically correct. Ref: The surgical review: an integrated basic and clinical science study guide By Pavan Atluri, Giorgos C. Karakousis, Paige M. Porrett, Larry R. Kaiser, Page 398; Principle of internal medicine Harrison's 16th Edition, Page 539-540. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Waste Sharps in a hospital are disposed in | [
"Yellow",
"Black",
"Red",
"Blue"
] | D | Waste sharps (scalpels, needles, syringes, blades, glass) are included in BMW Category 4 (Schedule I). Category 4 wastes are disposed off in Blue/White translucent bag (Schedule II). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Condyloma acuminatum is caused by ? | [
"HSV",
"HPV",
"HIV",
"VZV"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HPV Was . Was are caused by human papilloma virus (HPV) | train | med_mcqa | null |
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