question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Investigations in a patient of oliguria revealed: Urine osmolality: 800 mOsm/kg. Urinary sodium 10 mmol/L.BUN: creatinine=20:1. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Pre-renal acute renal failure",
"Acute tubular necrosis",
"Acute coical necrosis",
"Urinary tract obstruction"
] | A | Pre renal Renal (ATN) Post renal Urine osmolality > 500 mOsm ~ 300 mOsm <400 mOsm Urine sodium <20 mmol/dl >20 mmol/dl Variable FeNa <1 >1 Variable Urine microscopic findings Hyaline casts Muddy brown casts Normal or RBC/WBC BUN: creatinine ratio >20:1 (normal 10:1) <20:1 >20:1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about HCC | [
"Most common tumor of liver",
"Resectable only in 1% cases",
"AFP increased in 70% cases",
"USG guided aspiration biopsy is used for diagnosis"
] | C | Serum AFP level is elevated above 20ng /ml in >70% of patients with HCC Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1458-1463 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immunoprophylaxis of leprosy includes - | [
"BCG",
"MMR",
"ICRC bacillus",
"Anthrax vaccine"
] | A | For immunoprophylaxis , trials in different population groups with BCG vaccine either alone or in combination with other vaccine have shown protective efficacy ranging between 28% and 60%. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 344 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allen's test is useful in evaluating | [
"Thoracic outlet syndrome",
"Presence of cervical rib",
"Digital blood flow",
"Integrity of palmar arch"
] | D | The Allen test can detect the patency of both radial and ulnar aeries (aeries forming the palmar arch) Method The pt. squeezes his hand to express the blood and then both aeries are compressed by the examiner's fingers - the hand turns white Now pressure on one aery is removed and the change in color of hand noted : if the aery is blocked the colour remains white if it is patent, the palm assumes the normal colour Now the test is repeated and the pressure removed from the other aery, to check its integrity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best method to deliver arms in breech: | [
"Lovset's method",
"Smellie-Veit",
"Pinard's maneuver",
"Any of the above"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Lovset's methodRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 359Assisted Breech Delivery:In breech delivery assistance may be required for:i. Delivery of head-Burns-Marshall methodQ-Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit methodQ-Piper's forcepsQ or Neville-Barnes forcepsii. Extended legs-Pinard's maneuverQ(Remember: P for popliteal fossa and P for Pinard maneuver)iii. Extended arm-Lovset's maneuverQSometimes the head rotates posteriorly so, that the face is behind the pubis. Delivery in this position is difficult and 'Prague maneuver' may be tried.Also Know:Best time for episiotomy in breech - Climbing of perineum.Best time for episiotomy in vertex - Crowning of head. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A middle aged woman presented with fishy odour vaginal discharge shows 'clue cells' in a wet preparation. She probably has: | [
"Bacterial vaginosis",
"Chlamydia trachomatis",
"Neisseria gonorrhoeae",
"Trichomonas"
] | A | Clue cells are the most reliable indicators of bacterial vaginosis (BV). These vaginal epithelial cells contain many attached bacteria, which create a poorly defined stippled cellular border. The positive predictive value of this test for the presence of BV is 95 percent.Clinical criteria for diagnoses include,Homogeneous white, noninflammatory dischargeMicroscopic presence of clue cellsVaginal discharge with pH >4.5Fishy odor with or without addition of 10% potassium hydroxideThree of these 4 criteria are required to make a clinical diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 3. Gynecologic Infection. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Wireloop' lesions in kidney are seen in | [
"DM",
"SLE",
"PAN",
"Scleroderma"
] | B | Ans. b (SLE) .(Ref. Robbins, Pathology, 6th/pg.221)SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS (SLE)# Connective tissue disorder associated with HLA B8 and DR3.# 'Onion skin' lesions in spleen occur.# 'Wire-loop' lesions in kidneys are seen.- Photosensitive erythematous butterfly rash on the face/discoid rash, lupus profundus, livido reticularis.- Transient, migratory or seronegative chronic arthritis.; Bony erosions- Lymphadenopathy, Splenomegaly, Alopecia- Pericarditis/myocarditis/Libmann Sack's verrrucous endocarditi- Pleurisy, ILD, fibrosing alveolitis, shrinking lung syndrome- Kerato-conjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, retinal vasculitis, soft exudates- CNS features# Treatment; antimalarials, immunosupressants and steroids.# Congenital lupus erythematosus is characterized by- Complete heart block- Lupus erythematosus rash# Drug induced lupus- Procainamide, hydralazine, phenothiazines, OC pills, anticonvulsants implicated.- Anti-histones abs +- Absent anti dd DNA abs- Renal and CNS lesions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
This virus is the leading cause of bronchiolitis and community-acquired pneumonia in infants. | [
"Measles virus",
"Influenza virus",
"Respiratory syncytial virus",
"Parainfluenza virus"
] | C | Orthomyxoviruses and paramyxoviruses are RNA viruses that contain a single-stranded RNA genome. The influenza viruses belong to the orthomyxoviruses. They cause acute respiratory tract infections that usually occur in epidemics. Isolated strains of influenza virus are named after the virus type (influenza A, B, or C) as well as the host and location of initial isolation, the year of isolation, and the antigenic designation of the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. Both the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are glycoproteins under separate genetic control, and because of this they can and do vary independently. The changes in these antigens are responsible for the antigenic drift characteristic of these viruses. The paramyxoviruses include several important human pathogens (mumps virus, measles virus, respiratory syncytial virus, and parainfluenza virus). Both paramyxoviruses and orthomyxoviruses possess an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase that is a structural component of the virion and produces the initial RNA. Respiratory syncytial viruses (RSV) are not related to the paramyxoviruses. They are 150-nm single-stranded RNA viruses. There are 2 antigen groups, A and B, which play no role in diagnosis and treatment. While the overall mortality is 0.5%, at-risk groups may be 25 to 35% mortality if untreated. Some parainfluenza virus infections (type 3) may be indistinguishable from RSV, but most parainfluenza infections produce a laryngotracheobronchitis known as croup. | train | med_mcqa | null |
To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is - | [
"Film show",
"Chas Exhibitions etc",
"Roel playing",
"Setting and example"
] | D | -To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is setting an example - if the health educator is talking about small family norm, he will not get far if his own family is big Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:862 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The data of distribution of moality in a specific geographical area in single year is depicted by ? | [
"Scatter diagram",
"Line diagram",
"Pictogram",
"Histogram"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Histogram | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fatty liver is due to excessive accumulation of | [
"Triacylglycerols",
"Phospholipids",
"Cholesterol",
"Free fatty acids"
] | A | Imbalance in the rate of Triacylglycerol Formation & Expo Causes Fatty Liver For a variety of reasons, lipid--mainly as triacylglycerol--can accumulate in the liver. Extensive accumulation is regarded as a pathologic condition. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is the most common liver disorder worldwide. When the accumulation of lipid in the liver becomes chronic, inflammatory and fibrotic changes may develop leading to nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), which can progress to liver diseases including cirrhosis, hepatocarcinoma, and liver failure. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 260 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old patient presents with Stage III CA cervix, Management:- | [
"Radiotherapy",
"Radio+chemo",
"Surgery + chemo",
"Intrabrachial radiotherapy"
] | B | All cancers in Gynecology are surgically staged However, Cervical cancer is clinically staged. Although modern radiographic modalities such as CT scan, MRI , ultrasound, or PET may be beneficial for individual treatment planning. Treatment of cervical cancer is based on stage of disease. In general, early stage disease , untill II A (tumour size less than 4 cm) can be treated with either radical surgery or radiation therapy. Advanced stage disease (>=IIB)) is best treated with chemoradiation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-year-old child with H/O fever and cough and sudden onset respiratory distress presents to you in the emergency department. X-ray was done, displayed below, the most probable diagnosis is-- | [
"Abscess",
"Pneumatoceles",
"Consolidation",
"Pneumothorax"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pneumatoceles o Pneumatoceles are frequent with staphylococcal infections, and they should not be confused with a pulmonary abscess. Pneumatoceles have thin, smooth walls and are seen with an improving clinical picture, whereas pulmonary abscesses have thick, irregular walls with an air-fluid level and the child tends to be very ill Pneumatoceles are thought to be a form of localized pulmonary' interstitial emphysema and are self-limiting with only the rare case of a large; persisting pneumatocele needing surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kinases require: | [
"Mn2+",
"Cu2+",
"Mg2",
"Inorganic phosphate"
] | C | Mg2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dimpling in cancer breast happens due to | [
"Edema",
"Infiltration of cooper's ligaments",
"Subdermal lymphangitis",
"Scaring"
] | B | Ans. (b) Infiltration of Cooper's Ligament(Ref. Bailey 26th edition Page 798)* Infiltration of Suspensory ligament of breast (Cooper's) results in Dimpling of breast in cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood levels of progesterone are highest during _____. | [
"The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle",
"The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle",
"Ovulation",
"Menstruation"
] | B | Progesterone concentration in blood is highest following the surge of LH (leuteinizing hormone) following ovulation.
During ovulation, estrogen surges due to positive feedback during the follicular phase.
During menstruation, there are sharp declines in estrogen and progesterone due to reduced secretion of LH and FSH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following test completely exclude chances of a disease? | [
"Specificity",
"Sensitivity",
"Positive predictivity",
"Negative predictivity"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hot air over holding time and temperature: | [
"121degC for 15 minutes",
"160degC for 45 minutes",
"135degC for 5 minutes",
"190degC for 30 minutes"
] | D | Ans. (d) 190degC for 30 minutes | train | med_mcqa | null |
True shout anopheles mosquito - | [
"Larvae have siphon tube",
"Larvae are surface feeder",
"Larvae are bottom feeder",
"Larvae tie at an angle to water surface"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Larvae are surface feeder | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year old G P A with history of previous vaginal breech deliVei)y 8f a term, live baby comes with full term pregnancy with breech presentation. What is the best option? | [
"Cesarean section",
"Assisted breech delivery",
"External cephalic version",
"Watchful expectancy"
] | B | Assisted breech delivery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Higher auditory centre determines: | [
"Sound frequency",
"Loudness",
"Speech discrimination",
"Sound localization"
] | D | Sound localization Sound localization in horizontal plane depends on 2 things: 1. the time lag between the entry of sound into one ear and its entry into the opposite ear, and 2.difference in intensities between the sound in the two ears The detectable time difference is said to be the most impoant factor at frequencies below 3000 Hz and the loudness difference more impoant for frequencies above 3000 Hz. Sounds coming from directly in front of the individual and the back of the individual cannot be differentiated by the above two mechanisms. Here shape of the pinna plays role, it changes the quality of the sound depending on the direction from which sound comes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital cyanotic heart disease with pulmonary oligemia is seen with – | [
"ASD",
"VSD",
"Tricuspid atresia",
"Hypoplastic left ventricle"
] | C | Classification and diagnosis of congenital heart diseases.
Congenital heart diseases are basically divided into the following groups: 1. Structural heart defects → In general these defects are known as congenital heart diseases.
Functional heart defects e.g., congenital cardiac arrhythmias.
Positional heart defects e.g., dextrocardia.
Structural heart defects (Congenital heart disease)
These are divided into two main groups.
Acyanotic congenital heart diseases
Cyanotic congenital heart diseases.
Each group is further divided according to : -
Pulmonary blood flow → Increased, normal or decreased (oligemia
Dominated (hypertrophied ventricle) → Right or left. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha granules of platelates contain all except ? | [
"Firinogen",
"TGF-b",
"PDGF",
"ADP"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., ADP Platelets contain two specific types of granules : ? Alpha granule - Contains fibrinogen, fibronectin, factors V & VIII, PDGF, TGF-b and platelet factor 4. Dens bodies or Sgranules -Contain ADP, Ca+2, histamine, serotonine, and epinephrine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6 week old boy is brought to the Paediatrician in Kanpur. His parents repo that he has not had significant use of his right arm since bih. Bih history is significant for a prolonged labor with difficult breech delivery. On physical examination, his arm hangs at his side and is in a medially rotated position with the forearm in pronation. He will actively use his left arm, but does not move his affected right arm or hand. Injury to which of the following cervical nerve roots account for this patient's posture? | [
"C4 and C5",
"C5 and C6",
"C6 and C7",
"C7 and C8"
] | B | This patient has an Erb-Duchenne palsy, which is the result of an injury to the superior trunks of the C5 and C6 nerve roots.The C8 and T1 nerve roots are injured in a Klumpke's paralysis.The other combinations all may be injured as a result of bih palsy, but do not have distinct syndromes associated with them. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased insulin secretion from beta cells is done by- | [
"Metformin",
"Pramlidine",
"Repaglini de",
"Pioglitazone"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Repaglinide o Drugs causing increased insulin secretion (by closing ATP sensitive K+ channels) :- i) Sulfonylureas: first generation (chlorpropamide, tobutamide); second generation (Glimipiride, glyburide, glipizide, gliclazide). ii) Megalitinnide/D-phenylalanine analogues: Nateglinide, Rapaglinide. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hepatolenticular degeneration is seen with deposition of | [
"cadmium",
"Lead",
"aluminium",
"copper"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Microsporum involves: | [
"Skin, hair and nails",
"Skin and hair",
"Skin and nails",
"Hair and nails"
] | B | Dermatophytes Trichophyton - skin ,hair, ,nail (Tri-all Three) Microsporum- skin, hair (My head -on head we have skin and hair) Epidermophyton- skin, nails | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a study of 2000 population, mean value of hemoglobin is 13.5 gm, which follows normal distribution curve. Percentage of people having higher hemoglobin than 13.5 gm: | [
"5%",
"25%",
"50%",
"75%"
] | C | Ans. c. 50%In a population with normal distribution mean, median and mode are equal. So, here median is also 13.5, which divides the population into two equal halves. So, 50% will be on either side of 13.5. Hence, percentage of people having higher hemoglobin than 13.5 gm is 50.DistributionCentral TendencyNormal (Gaussian) DistributionMean = Median = ModeQ=13.5* Median divides the population into two equal halves (50% will be on either side of 13.5).* Percentage of people having higher hemoglobin than 13.5 gm is 50 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Sentinel pile indicates | [
"Internal hemorrhoids",
"Pilonidal sinus",
"Fissure in ano",
"Fistula in ano"
] | C | Ans. c (Fissure in ano) (Ref. Bailey and Love Surgery 26th/1250; Ref. Q. 216 of MH-2007).SENTINEL PILE- This misnomer is given to a skin tag marking--and often containing within it--the distal end of an anal fissure, found usually in the posterior midline. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs is most Suitable for management of essential tremors | [
"Diazepam",
"Levodopa",
"Metoprolol",
"Propranolol"
] | D | Beta blockers and primidone is usually given for Essential tremor. In the above options there are only two beta blockers and both can be given, out of which propanolol is more preferred. Reference Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest site of Pleomorphic adenoma is ? | [
"Parotid salivary gland",
"Submandibular salivary gland",
"Sublingual gland",
"Submaxillary gland"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Parotid salivary glandPleomorphic adenoma o This is the Commonest neoplasm of Salivary glands.o The most Common salivary gland involved is Parotid - represent about 60% tumors in the parotid. o Submandibular and minor salivary glands may also be involved rarely.o Pleomorphic adenoma ---> Parotid > Submandibular > minor salivary glands.o They are derived from a mixture of ductal (epithelial ) and myoepithelial cells and therefore they show both epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation - Also called mixed tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused due to: | [
"DNA synthesis defect",
"Ectodermal cell migration defect",
"Abnormal nucleotide excision repair",
"Melanocyte proliferation"
] | C | Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a rare autosomal recessive disease characterized by photosensitivity, pigmentary changes, premature skin ageing, neoplasia and abnormal Nucleotide excision repair. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition, Pg15.71. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ranson's aitaria for prognosis in acute pancreatitis include all except - | [
"WBC > 16,000 cells/cumin",
"Age over 55 years",
"AST > 250 U/100 ml",
"S.amylase > 350 I.U."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The combined oral contraceptive pills decrease the risk of the following except : | [
"Endometrial cancer",
"Ovarian cancer",
"Ectopic pregnancy",
"Breast cancer"
] | D | Breast cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sclera is thinnnest at? | [
"Limbus",
"Insertion of rectus muscles",
"Equator",
"Posterior pole"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Insertion of rectus musclesREF: Color atlas of strabismus surgery: strategies and techniques by Kenneth W. Wright, Sonal Farzavandi, Lisa Thompson page 111, Pediatric Ophthalmology by P.K. Mukherjee page 721"Attachments of recti are on the thinnest part of the sclera""Unlike other ophthalmic surgery, scleral passes in strabismus surgery are usually performed behind a rectus muscle insertion in the thinnest part of the sclera (approximately 0.3 mm thick)"Note:Thinnest part of lens is posterior poleThinnest part of sclera is behind the insertion of rectus muscleThinnest part of retina is fovea centralis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old comes to the casualty complaining of bright red blood per rectum. The bleeding began abruptly several hours prior to his visit. He has lightheadedness when he stands up rapidly, but has no abdominal pain, cramping, fever, nausea, or vomiting. He has no history of previous episodes of bleeding or abdominal pain, but has a history of coronary aery disease and takes aspirin as a "blood thinner". He is afebrile, slightly hypotensive and tachycardic, but stable. On examination, he has decreased skin turgor, and dry mucous membranes. He has no abdominal tenderness. Rectal examination is positive for gross blood. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Aeriovenous malformation",
"Diveiculitis",
"Infectious colitis",
"Ischemic colitis"
] | A | Painless hematochezia or bright red lower GI bleeding can come from many sources. While bright red lower GI bleeding tends to indicate lower GI bleeding (bleeding distal to the ligament of Treitz), brisk upper GI bleeding can also be the source. The clinical manifestations of such bleeding range from negligible to hemodynamic instability, depending upon the rate of bleeding. The differential diagnosis for painless hematochezia includes AV malformations, gastric erosions, esophageal varices, esophagitis, duodenal or gastric ulcer, hemorrhoids, diveiculosis, and colonic neoplasm. Diveiculitis occurs when a colonic outpouching or diveiculum becomes inflamed. Patients tend to be elderly and present with fever, abdominal pain, and abdominal tenderness on examination. While painful, these lesions do not bleed significantly (unlike their uninflamed counterpas in diveiculosis). Infectious colitis may present as rectal bleeding, but this bleeding is typically accompanied by pain, cramping, and fever. Causative organisms may include Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter jejuni, E. coli, and Entamoeba histolytica. Ischemic colitis may have rectal bleeding, but the hallmark of ischemic colitis is severe abdominal pain out of propoion to examination findings. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False statement is | [
"Repressor binds operator gene",
"Regulator genes produce repressor subunits",
"IP TG is inducer but not substrate",
"Regulator gene is inducible"
] | D | D i.e., Regulator gene is inducible | train | med_mcqa | null |
A boy presented with multiple non suppurative osteomyelitis with sickle cell anaemia. What will be the causative organism? | [
"Salmonella",
"Staphylococus aureus",
"Hemophilus influenzae",
"Enterobacter species"
] | A | Following are the various micro -organism involved in osteomyelitis Age group Most common organisms Newborns (younger than 4 mo) S. aureus, Enterobacter species, and group A and B Streptococcus species Children (aged 4 mo to 4 y) S. aureus, group A Streptococcus species, Haemophilus influenzae, and Enterobacter species Children, adolescents (aged 4 y to adult) S. aureus (80%), group A Streptococcus species, H. influenzae, and Enterobacter species Adult S. aureus and occasionally Enterobacter or Streptococcus species Sickle cell anemia patients Salmonella species are most common in patients with sickle cell disease REF: MAHESWARI 9TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injection of muscarinic agonist in conjunctival sac will lead to all of the following except- | [
"Conjunctival and uveal hyperaemia",
"Ciliary spasm",
"Miosis",
"Decreased secretion from ciliary epithelium"
] | D | Effects of muscarinic agents 1) Blood vessel dilation causing conjunctival and uveal hyperaemia 2) Ciliary spasm 3) Miosis 4) Increased aqueous outflow due to opening of trabecular meshwork due to ciliary muscle contraction. Ref: Yanoff & Duker 2nd/e p.1121 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Potato nose is seen in ? | [
"Acne vulgaris",
"Rhinosporoidosis",
"Acne rosacea",
"Lupus vulgaris"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acne rosacea Acne rosacea Acne rosacea, commonly called rosacea, is a chronic non-curable skin disease with periodic ups and down. It occurs in middle age (30-50 years). It is more common in females, but is more severe in males. Rosacea is a centrofacial disease, i.e., it involves the central face -Cheeks, Chin, Forehead, Nose, making typical cruciate pattern of involvement. Periorbital & perioral areas are spared. Clinical features are intermittant flushing followed by more permanent erythma and telangiectasia. On this back-ground, erythmatous papules, papulo pustules and rarely nodules develop. Lesions may be exacerbated by light (photosensitive) and spicy foods. Complications are : ? Rhinophyma : - Rhinophyma is large, bulbous, ruddy appearance of nose caused by granulomatous infiltration of skin. It is slowly progressive condition due to hyperophy of sebaceous gland on the tip of nose. It is also known as Potato nose. Ophthalmologic : - Blephritis, Conjuctivits, Keratitis,. Lymph edema : - Infra-orbital and on forehead. | train | med_mcqa | null |
59-year-old man has difficulty in breathing through his nose. On examination, his physician finds that he has swelling of mucous membranes of the superior nasal meatus. Which opening of the paranasal sinuses is most likely plugged? | [
"Middle ethmoidal sinus",
"Maxillary sinus",
"Anterior ethmoidal sinus",
"Posterior ethmoidal sinus"
] | D | Posterior ethmoidal sinus opens into the superior nasal meatus. Maxillary, frontal, and anterior and middle ethmoidal sinuses drain into middle nasal meatus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Odontarna is treated by: | [
"Excision",
"Resection",
"Curettage",
"Radiotherapy"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks? | [
"Meningococci",
"Pneumococci",
"Hemophilus Influenza",
"E. Coli"
] | B | Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best test for diagnosis of tubal patency Is : | [
"Laparoscopy",
"Hysterosalpingography",
"Endometrial biopsy",
"Mantoux test"
] | A | Laparoscopy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Curshmann&;s crystals are seen in | [
"Bronchial asthma",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Chronic bronchitis",
"Wegners granulomatosis"
] | A | Ref: Textbook of pathology (Harsh Mohan) 6th edition, page No.484 MORPHOLOGIC FEATURES. The pathologic changes are similar in both major types of asthma. The pathologic material examined is generally autopsy of lungs in patients dying of status asthmaticus but the changes are expected to be similar in non-fatal cases. Grossly, the lungs are overdistended due to over-inflation. The cut surface shows characteristic occlusion of the bronchi and bronchioles by viscid mucus plugs. Microscopically, the following changes are observed: 1. The mucus plugs contain normal or degenerated respiratory epithelium forming twisted strips called Curschmann's spirals. 2. The sputum usually contains numerous eosinophils and diamond-shaped crystals derived from eosinophils called Charcot-Leyden crystals. 3. The bronchial wall shows thickened basement membrane of the bronchial epithelium, submucosal oedema and inflammatory infiltrate consisting of lymphocytes and plasma cells with prominence of eosinophils. There is hyperophy of submucosal glands as well as of the bronchial smooth muscle. 4. Changes of bronchitis and emphysema may supervene, especially in intrinsic asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
At pubey true is ? | [
"Decreased FSH and LH",
"Decreased GnRH",
"Increased progesterone",
"Decreased estrogen"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased progesterone Pubey is triggered by a release of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from pituitary gland. These hormones act as signals to the gonads (testes/ovaries) that trigger the production of - i) Estrogen, progesterone and some testosterone in women. ii) Testosterone in men. Leptin facilitates release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby helping in pubeal onset. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Other name for transvestism is - | [
"Onanism",
"Eonism",
"Scoptophilia",
"Satyriasis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Eonism Necrophilia:* In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies.* It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell, and coldness act as stimulants.* Sexual perversions -These are persistently indulged sexual acts in which complete satisfaction is sought and obtained without sexual intercourse. These includea) Sadism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased from acts of physical cruelty or infliction of pain on ones partner. It is seen more commonly in men. To obtain sexual gratification, the sadist may bite, beat, whip, produce cuts on the victim, etc.b) Lust murder: In extremes of sadism, murder serves as a stimulus for the sexual act and becomes the equivalent of coitus, the act being accompanied by erection, ejaculation, and orgasm.c) Necrophagia: (Necros =corpse; phagia = to eat): This is extreme degree of sadism in which the person after mutilating the body, sucks or licks the wounds, bites the skin, drinks blood, and eats the flesh of his victim to derive sexual pleasure.d) Masochism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased by the suffering of pain. Masochists get pleasure from being beaten, abused, tortured, humiliated, enslaved, degraded, or dominated by their sexual partner.e) Necrophilia: In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies. It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell and coldness act as stimulants.f) Fetishism: A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm, eg underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.g) Transvestism = Eonism: A transvestite (trans = opposite, vista = clothing) is a person whose whole personality is dominated by the desire of being identified with the opposite sex. His dress, manner, occupational interest, and associations are all designed to increase his feeling of being a woman. There is no hormonal disturbance or genital abnormality.h) Masturbation = Onanism = Ipsation is the deliberate self-stimulation that effects sexual arousal. In males, it is done by moving the penis against a bed or other object. In females, finges are gently and rhythmically moved over clitoris or labia minora or steady pressure is applied over these parts with several fingers or whole hands (it is an offence when done in public).i) Exhibitionism (Sec 294IPC): It is a willful and intentional exposure of the genitalia in a public place while in the presence of others to obtain sexual pleasure. May or may not be associated with masturbation (punishment = 3 months + fine).j) Voyeurism = Scoptophilia = Peeping tom: Sexual gratification is obtained by looking at the sexual organs of other persons, watching the act of sexual intercourse, or witnessing undressing by a woman.k) Frotteurism: Sexual satisfaction is obtained by rubbing against persons in crowd. If they attempt intercourse, they have a premature ejaculation or they are impotent. It is an uncommon perversion and rarely occurs alone.l) Undinism: In this, the sexual pleasure is often obtained by witnessing the act of urination by someone of the same or opposite sex.m) Indecent assault (Sec 354 IPC) is any offence committed on a female with the intention or knowledge to outrage her modesty. Usually, the act involves the sexual part of either or is sexually favored. In such assaults, a man may try to kiss a woman, press or fondle with her breasts, touch or expose the genitalia or thighs, try to put a finger in her vagina, play with vulva.# A medical practitioner can be accused of indecent assault if he examines a female patient by stripping her clothes without her consent or even with her consent in the absence of a female attendant.# Such assaults are punishable under Sec 354 IPC, upto 2 years imprisonment and/or fine.n) Uranism: General term for perversion of the sexual instinct.o) Satyriasis: Incessant sexual desire.p) Priapism: Painful penile erection in absence of sexual desire. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which si true regarding Torus tubaris? | [
"Nasopharyngeal bursitis",
"Most common site of carcinoma nasopharynx",
"Tubal elevation in lateral wall of nasopharynx",
"Gives rise to Rathke’s pouch"
] | C | Ref. Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat. Pg 239
Torus tubarius or cushion of the auditory canal is a mucosal elevation in the lateral aspect of the nasopharynx, formed by the underlying pharyngeal end of the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube.
The opening of the Eustachian tube is anterior to the torus tobarius.
Immediately posterior to the torus tubarius is the fossa of Rosenmuller.
From the inferior aspect of the torus tubarius, two mucosal folds extend inferiorly:
anterior fold: the salpingiopalatine fold, which overlies salpingopalatine muscle fibres
posterior fold: salpingopharyngeal fold, which overlies the salpingopharyngeus muscle
Anatomy Image | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mark true in following? | [
"Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faeces",
"Kyasanur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal",
"Lyssavirus is transmitted by ticks",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hutchinson’s rule is related to | [
"Herpes simplex keratitis",
"Mycotic keratitis",
"Herpes zoster ophthalmicus",
"None"
] | C | Hutchinson's rule is related to herpes zoster ophthalmicus which is an acute infection of Gasserian ganglion of the fifth cranial nerve by the varicella-zoster virus.
Occurs commonly in immunocompromised individuals. Hutchinson's rule implies that ocular involvement is frequent if the side or tip of the nose presents vesicles is useful but not infallibleReference: Comprehensive Ophthalmology, | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with a perceptional disorder is able to see an object without any external stimulus. This phenomenon is known as: | [
"Delusion",
"Hallucination",
"Illusion",
"Pseudohallucination"
] | B | Ans: B (Hallucination) Ref: Kaplan and Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry. 9th editionExplanationPsychiatric symptoms can be approached as per computer model of mind which divides mind into three components -1. Input (sensation and perception).2. Output (speech and motor activity).3. Central processor (comprising Consciousness, Cognition and Feelings).Perceptual problems are two:1. Illusion - Where a person perceives an object as a different one. For example, perceiving rope as a snake.2. Hallucination - Where one perceives an object when there is nothing i.e., no external stimulus at all (as in the question).* Both illusion and hallucination have sub-types, based on the modality.1. Visual2. Auditory3. Gustatory4. Olfactory5. Tactile6. Others.IllusionCan be a normal phenomena like:o Falling asleepo Waking from sleepo Fatigue stateso Grief reactionIllusion can be abnormal as in:o Deliriumo Acute stress reactiono Post-traumatic stress disorderMay be a prelude to hallucination.HallucinationRarely can be a normal phenomena:o Hypnogogic (while falling asleep)o Hypnopompic (waking from sleep)Mostly, it is a clear indication of abnormality and refers to a psychotic state unless proved otherwise.The type of hallucination, its content and other characteristic serve to differentiate psychiatric syndromes.Visual Hallucinations.Suggests organic pathology.Seen in:o Deliriumo Fronto-temporai dementiao Diffuse Lewy body disease (DLB)o Schizophrenia:Auditory Hallucinations ( AH)Most common typeSeen ino Deliriumo Dementiao Substance-induced psychosiso Schizophreniao Acute and transient psychotic disorder (ATPD)o Psychosis NOSo Maniao DepressionThird person AH, commanding AH, commentary AH- Schneider's first rank symptoms S/O Schizophrenia.Gustatoryo Dementia o Brain tumorso Schizophreniao DepressionOlfactory Hallucinationso Dementiao Frontal lobe tumorso Schizophreniao DepressionTactile Hallucinationso Deliriumo Substance withdrawal states (cocaine bugs, alcohol related delirium tremens)o Schizophrenia.Also Note:Pseudo-HallucinationThis term is used in two scenarios:o When the person says the stimulus is in his inner spac&'mind.o When he has insight (says he is abnormal and its only he is able to perceive not others- a situation occurs rarely!}.If the question included clauses such as "sees in his mental space or Tie appreciates that others can't see what he sees'.It occurs as a prelude of hallucination, when psychosis subsides (with treatment) and in some cases of dissociative disorders.DelusionIt is a problem of thought (cognition).It is a false belief. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antiepileptic does not cause OCP failure | [
"Phenytoin",
"Valproate",
"Carbamazepine",
"Phenobarbitone"
] | B | Because Sodium Valproate is an enzyme inhibitor, whereas other antiepileptics are enzyme inducers which can lead to OCP failure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 years old female presented with agitated depression, attempted to suicide, feeling of guilt The First line of treatment includes | [
"Pentotal interview to resolve guilt",
"ECT",
"Psychotherapy",
"Antidipressent medication"
] | A | (A) Pentotal interview to resolve guilt # Important Steps for Preventing Suicide include:1. Take all the suicidal threats, gestures and/or attempts seriously and notify a psychiatrist or a mental health professional.2. Psychiatrist (or a mental health professional) should quantify the seriousness of the situation (a proper risk assessment).and take remedial precautionary measures, i. Inspect physical surroundings and remove all means of committing suicide, like sharp objects, ropes, drugs, firearms etc. Also, search the patient thoroughly, ii. Surveillance, depending on the severity of risk.3. Acute psychiatric emergency interview.4. Counseling and guidance i. to deal with the desire to attempt suicide, ii. to deal with ongoing life stressors, and teaching coping skills and interpersonal skills.5. Treatment of the psychiatric disorder(s) with medication, psychotherapy and/or ECT. ECT is the treatment of choice for patients with major depression with suicidal risk. It should also be used for the treatment of suicidal risk associated with psychotic disorders.6. Follow-up care is very important to prevent future suicidal attempts or suicide. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following Vitamin is an antioxidant? | [
"Vitamin D",
"Vitamin E",
"Vitamin K",
"Vitamin B1"
] | B | VitE is an anti-oxidant. The E vitamins consist of eight naturally occurring tocopherols, of which a-tocopherolis the most active (Figure 28.28). The primary function of vitamin E is as an antioxidant in prevention of the nonenzymic oxidation of cell components, for example, polyunsaturated fatty acids, by molecular oxygen and free radicals. Reference: Lippincott Textbook of Biochemistry pg no. 391 | train | med_mcqa | null |
HbsAg positive person can have following association/s - | [
"Membraneous glomerulonephritis",
"MCD",
"RPGN",
"FSGS"
] | A | The hepatitis B virus (HBV) has a complex relationship to kidney diseases. Chronic HBV infection is an etiologic factor in secondary glomerular diseases. From an opposite perspective, the HBV carrier status has a critical impact on the clinical management of kidney transplant recipients and patients with renal diseases who are treated with immunosuppressive drugs. HBV is not directly cytopathic to hepatocytes. The host immune response, especially virus-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes, is the basis for hepatocellular damage as well as viral clearance. Neonatal exposure to HBV when the immune system is immature results in minimal acute hepatitis, but this is followed by chronic infection in 90% of subjects, and contributes to the bulk of chronic HBV carriers. After entering hepatocytes by endocytosis, the paially double-stranded viral genomic DNA is transpoed into the nucleus, where it is conveed to covalently closed circular DNA, which serves as a template for transcription of viral mRNAs, which in turn are used for viral replication through reverse transcription and the production of viral DNA polymerase and other viral proteins. Intrahepatic covalently closed circular DNA thus accounts for the persistence of infection. About 350 million people worldwide have chronic HBV infection Ref Davidson edition23rd pg876 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Onion-skin" fibrosis of bile duct is seen in | [
"Primary biliary cirrhosis",
"Primary sclerosing cholangitis",
"Extrahepatic biliary fibrosis",
"Congenital hepatic fibrosis"
] | B | Pathology of Primary sclerosing cholangitis Cholangiocytea, epithelial cells that lines the bile duct are target cell of injury in PSC Histologic finding "Onion skin appearance" is pathognomic of PSC, but seen in <10% cases Involvement of large intrahepatic and extrahepatic duct distinguishes PSC from PBC Absence of the smallest intrahepatic ducts leading to a reduction in the branching of biliary tree (giving rise to pruned-tree appearance on direct cholangiography) Histologic changes in the same liver can be markedly varied from segment to segment at any given time Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1508-1509 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudolymphoma can result from long–term use of : | [
"Phenytoin",
"Carbamazepine",
"Sodium valproate",
"Phenobarbital"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A new born boy is having lumbosacral meningomyelocele and awaiting the surgical repair. The sac is best protected with sterile gauze piece soaked with | [
"Mercurochrome",
"Tincture benzoin",
"Methylene blue",
"Normal saline"
] | D | Ans. (d) Normal salineRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 482-83The first step in the management of a newborn with myelomeningocele is a careful clinical assessment followed by open defects which should be covered with a saline-moistened non-adherent dressing to prevent injury to and dessication of the neural placode. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the net ATP's formed in glycolysis? | [
"5",
"7",
"10",
"15"
] | B | ATP formation in glycolysis: Reaction Catalyzed by Method of ATP Formation ATP per mol of Glucose Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Respiratory chain oxidation of 2 NADH 5 Phosphoglycerate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Pyruvate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Total 9 Consumption of ATP for reactions of hexokinase and phosphofructokinase -2 Net 7 Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 18. Glycolysis & the Oxidation of Pyruvate. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Polyhydramnios is associated with all except : | [
"Diabetes",
"Open spina bifida",
"Multiple pregnancy",
"Renal agenesis"
] | D | Renal agenesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
For the diagnosis of SLE, 6 tests are done of which 4 came as positive and 2 negative. For the confirmation the following must be known: | [
"Prior probability of having the disease, Sensitivity & specificity of each test",
"Incidence of SLE, predictive value of the tests",
"Incidence & prevalence of SLE",
"Relative risk of the patient"
] | A | For the confirmation we need to know the amount of previously unrecognised disease that is diagnosed as a result of screening effo. It depends on sensitivity and specificity of the test, prevalence of the disease, paicipation of the individuals in the detecting programme. So in a test to diagnose SLE, there should be the previous probability and the sensitivity an specificity of tests. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st Edition, Page 56 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondi is? | [
"Cat",
"Human",
"Sheep",
"Fish"
] | C | Cat and felines-definite host Only the asexual forms,trophozoites and tissue cysts are found in other animals including humans and birds which act as intermediate host(refer pgno:64 baveja 3 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathognomic features of trachoma follicle are: | [
"Presence of Leber's cells",
"Areas of necrosis",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. Both of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a rural clinic, a 3 year old girl child is brought by her mother and is emaciated. Her Hb was 5g/ dl. The girls also had edema over her knees and ankle, with discrete rash on her knees, angles and elbows. The most likely worm infestation causing these manifestations is? | [
"Hook worm",
"Round worm",
"Whip worm",
"Pin worm"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
One of the following is not true about vase pre: | [
"Blood of maternal origin",
"May be a cause of antepaum hemorrhage",
"Blood of fetal origin",
"Singer's test positive"
] | A | Blood of maternal origin | train | med_mcqa | null |
The increase in threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are applied in succession is called: | [
"Adaptation",
"Accomodation",
"Initiation",
"Resistance"
] | B | B i.e. Accomodation | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with UTI, CLED (Cystiene, Lactose Electrolyte Deficient) Media is preferred over MacConkey&;s media because: | [
"It is a differential medium",
"It inhibits swarming of Proteus",
"Promotes growth of Pseudomonas",
"Promotes growth of staph aureus and Candida"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. promotes growth of Staph aureus & Candida Similarities, Between CLEP Media & McConkeys MediumBoth are differential mediaBoth MacConkey and CLED media differentiates between lactose fermenting & non lactose fermentingBoth CLED & MaConkey media inhibits swarming of proteusBoth show greenish colour, matt surface & rough periphery of pseudomonas coloniesCLED media is preferred over MacConkey's for the culture of coliform and other bacteria from injected urine because-"It has the advantage in supporting growth of certain Staphylococcus Streptococci and Candida strain." - Maconki & Macgregor, 13/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Venous blood of liver is drained by | [
"Poal vein",
"Hepatic aery",
"Sinusoids",
"Hepatic veins"
] | D | The poal vein and hepatic aeries form the liver's dual blood supply. After draining into the liver sinusoids, blood from the liver is drained by the hepatic vein. Ref - Researchgate.net | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Scatter diagram is drawn to study | [
"Trend of a variable over a period of time",
"Frequency of occurrence of events",
"Relationship between two given variables",
"Mean & median values of the given data"
] | C | SCATTER DIAGRAM
• Also known as ‘Correlation diagram’ or ‘Dot diagram’
• Is used to depict ‘correlation (relationship) between 2 quantitative variables’
• The vertical axis in the scatter diagram: should be the dependent or the outcome variable
• In a scatter diagram, 2 imaginary lines are drawn along the distribution of dots/scatter | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not used for intravascular volume maintenance is: | [
"Hydroxy ethyl starch",
"Dextran",
"Erythropoetin",
"Gelatin"
] | C | Ans. (c) ErythropoetinRef: Crystalloids versus colloids in fluid resuscitation: a systematic review. Crit Care Med.* Colloids increase intravascular volume* Colloids are dextran, gelatin, hydroxyethyl starch. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most important quality that a partial denture should possess: | [
"Stability",
"Support",
"Retention",
"All of the above"
] | A | The most important quality that a partial denture should possess is stability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior lenticonus is seen in | [
"Alpo syndrome",
"Lowe syndrome",
"Marfan syndrome",
"Homocystinuria"
] | B | Lenticonus: It refers to the cone-shaped elevation of the anterior pole (lenticonus anterior) or posterior pole (lenticonus posterior) of the lens. Lenticonus anterior may occur in Alpo syndrome and lenticonus posterior in Lowe syndrome. On distant direct ophthalmoscopy, both present as an oil globule lying in the center of the red reflex. Slit-lamp examination confirms the diagnosis. Lowe syndrome is a condition that primarily affects the eyes, brain, and kidneys. This disorder occurs almost exclusively in males. Infants with Lowe syndrome are born with thick clouding of the lenses in both eyes (congenital cataracts), often with other eye abnormalities that can impair vision. Ref: Khurana; 4th edition; Pg. 204 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells are seen in? | [
"Mumps",
"Rubella",
"Measles",
"Chicken pox"
] | C | Modified giant cells present in Measles is known as Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a 95% Confidence Interval for the prevalence of cancer smokers aged > 65 years is 56% to 76%, the chance that the prevalence could be less than 56% is - | [
"Nil",
"44%",
"2.50%",
"5%"
] | C | In this question:
56 to 76 confidence interval covers 95% (2SD) of values.
That means 5% of values will fall outside the range of 56-76 → 2.5% values will be below 56 and 2.5% values will be above 76. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by? | [
"Glucagon",
"Insulin",
"Cholecystokinin",
"5 alpha hydroxylase synthases"
] | B | Gluconeogenesis-Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors. Gluconeogenesis occurs in fasting & starvation and occurs mainly in the liver. Fasting is lack of food for 12-18 hours Starvation is lack of food for 1-3 days or longer Ingluconeogenesis enzymesused are: Pyruvate carboxylase PEPCK (Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase Glucose 6-phosphatase All enzymes are activated by Glucagon. And are inhibited by Insulin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following plays a central role in the mitotic spindle formation in cellular division? | [
"Ubiquitin",
"Gamma-Tubulin",
"Laminin",
"Keratin"
] | B | Centrosome plays a critical role in mitotic spindle formation. Gamma-Tubulin is a constituent of Microtubules, which are necessary for the formation and function of the mitotic spindle. Microtubules an integral component of the cellular cytoskeleton consists of cytoplasmic tubes 25 nm in diameter. These are cylinders of 13 longitudinally arranged protofilaments, each consisting of dimers of a-tubulin and b-tubulin. Cytoplasmic microtubules are composed of tubulin (55 kD) and several accessory proteins called microtubular associated proteins (300 kD and 60 kD). They are also involved in the intracellular movement of endocytic and exocytic vesicles and form the major structural components of cilia and flagella. They are a major component of axons and dendrites, in which they maintain structure and paicipate in the axoplasmic flow of material along these neuronal processes. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Page 577 ; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 235, 238 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erosive arthritis is seen in all, except - | [
"SLE",
"Gout",
"Osteoarthritis",
"Old age"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Venous return to hea during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors except | [
"Calf muscle contraction during standing",
"Valves in perforations",
"Sleeves of deep facia",
"Gravitational increase in aerial pressure"
] | C | Gravitational increase in the aerial pressure during (quite) standing does not facilitate (enhance/ improve ) venous return to hea because as a result of same increment in venous pressure the pressure gradient driving the circulation is not altered. In the other words effect of gravity, increase the same amount of absolute pressure both within the aeries & veins of lower limb on standings. So the net pressure gradient ( aery - venous) driving circulation remains unaltered. The amount of Gravitational effect is 0.77 mm Hg/cm of veical distance below (+) or above (-) the hea level at the density of normal blood, both for aerial &venous pressure. Site the pressure in any vessel (aery or vein) below hea level is increased or above hea level is decreased by 0.77 mm Hg per centimetre d/the effect of gravity. Ref: Gray's 38e/p38-1597 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decerebrate rigidity is characterised by all except | [
"Abnormal extensor response",
"Wrists and fingers flexed",
"Arms flexed at elbow",
"Plantar flexion of foot"
] | C | Decerebrate rigidity is characterised by adducted arms and extended elbow | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sentinel biopsy is MOST useful in? | [
"Cervix carcinoma",
"Vulval carcinoma",
"Vaginal carcinoma",
"Endometrial Carcinoma"
] | B | Sentinel node is a lymph node that is first to receive drainage from a malignancy. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used in breast carcinoma, melanoma, vulval carcinoma. Ref: Novak, 14th edition, page; 1425-1426 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which antitubercular drug is bacteriostatic ? | [
"INH",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Rifampicin",
"Ethambutol"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are actions of kidney except | [
"Erythropoietin secretion",
"Regulation of 1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3 production",
"Glycogenesis",
"Regulation of water and electrolyte balance"
] | C | *Excretion of metabolic waste products and foreign chemicals*Regulation of water and electrolyte balances*Regulation of body fluid osmolality and electrolyte concentrations*Regulation of aerial pressure*Regulation of acid-base balance*Regulation of erythrocyte production*Secretion, metabolism, and excretion of hormones*Gluconeogenesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with leprosy had slightly erythematous, anesthetic plagues on the trunk and upper limbs. He was treated with paucibacillary multidrug therapy (PB-MDT) for 6 months. At the end of 6 months, he had persistent erythema and induration in the plaque. The next step of action recommended by the WOrld Health Organization (WHO) in such a patient is - | [
"Stop antileprosy treatment",
"Continue PB-MDT till erythema subsides",
"Biopsy the lesion to document activity",
"Continue dapsoen alone for another 6 months"
] | A | <p> Stop antileprosy treatment. According to WHO treatment guidelines for leprosy -all MB patients who have completed 12 or more doses of WHO MDT for Multibacillary leprosy &;should be regarded as cured&; and removed from the registers. It is not necessary to give MDT to PB patients until clinical inactivity . In a large number of patients it is not possible to clinical inactivity in six months even though all organisms are killed. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,21st e pg no.299,22nd edition,page no:298 and WHO website.. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
In rosette-shaped cataract the suture act as backbone in: | [
"Early-rosette cataract",
"Late-rosette cataract",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. Early-rosette cataract | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chassaignac's tubercle lies at level of | [
"Erb's point",
"Stellate ganglion",
"Atlas",
"Odontoid process"
] | A | The anterior tubercle of the transverse process of the sixth cervical veebra is the largest of all such processes and is called the carotid tubercle (of Chassaignac). The common carotid aery can be best pressed against I this tubercle, deep to the anterior border of the I sternocleidomastoid muscle. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 6th edition pg 300 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Peyer's patches are present in: | [
"Duodenum",
"Jejunum",
"Ileum",
"Colon"
] | C | Ans. C. IleumPeyer's patches are small masses of lymphatic tissue found throughout the ileum region of the small intestine. Also known as aggregated lymphoid nodules, they form an important part of the immune system by monitoring intestinal bacteria populations and preventing the growth of pathogenic bacteria in the intestines. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 yr old woman presents with primary infeility & palpable pelvic mass. Her CA-125 level is 0 U/nil. Diagnosis is | [
"Ovarian Ca",
"Endometrioma",
"Tuberculosis",
"Borderline ovarian tumor"
] | B | Endometrioma Another clinical based question with insufficient information to make any confirm diagnosis. At the best we can try to make the most probable diagnosis. Let's first see CA-125. CA-125 This is a non-specific tumor marker. Cut off level of CA-125 is < 35 U/ml. Ca 125 levels, as described above, can be raised in all the four options, so not very helpful in reaching a diagnosis. But if we weigh CA-125 level in terms of significance then it is least significant in tuberculosis as it is neither used for diagnosis nor for follow-up in tuberculosis. Palpable mass may be present in all the four conditions. Infeility is a feature of both endometriosis and tuberculosis. But for ovarian cancers infeility is a risk factor, not a feature or presenting symptom. Coming to Age: Patient is 35 yrs old. Age of 35 yrs ours endometrioma most. Peak incidence of invasive epithelial ovarian cancer (most common ovarian cancer) is at 56-60 yrs of age and for border line tumor average age is 46 yrs approximately (Novak). Patients with tuberculosis are in their twenties commonly, the maximum age incidence at diagnosis being 28 yrs. So on the basis of age and infeility, the most probable diagnosis would be endometrioma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child was brought by his mother complaining nocturnal perianal pruritus and presence of adult worms in the stool. Which of the following is the most common intestinal infection in school-age children worldwide? | [
"Plasmodium vivax",
"Enterobius vermicularis",
"Entamoeba histolytica",
"Strongyloides stercoralis"
] | B | Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm, is a common cause of intestinal infections worldwide, with maximal prevalence in school-age children. Enterobiasis is transmitted person-to-person ingestion of eggs after contact with the hands or perianal region of an infected individual, food or fomites that have been contaminated by an infected individual, or infected bedding or clothing. Auto-infection also occurs. Ref: Rosenthal P.J. (2013). Chapter 35. Protozoal & Helminthic Infections. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow, T.G. Berger (Eds), CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2014. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Afterload is best determined by? | [
"End diastolic volume",
"End systolic volume",
"Peripheral resistance",
"Compliance"
] | C | Ans. c (Peripheral resistance). (Ref.; Gangong, Physiology, 22 nd/pg.p 572)PRE-LOAD AND AFTER-LOAD# After-load is the pressure in the arteries against which the ventricle pumps out the blood.- After-load = diastolic arterial pressure (proportional to peripheral resistance).- Vasodilators (e.g., hydralazine) decrease after-load.# The degree of filling of ventricles is pre-load.- Pre-load pumps up the heart.- Pre-load = ventricular end-diastolic volume- Venous dilators (e.g., nitroglycerin) decrease pre-load.- Pre-load increases with exercise (slightly) and with increase in the blood volume (overtransfusion) and excitement (sympathetics). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Percentage of cold nodules that become malignant are | [
"10%",
"15%",
"20%",
"40%"
] | C | About 80% of discrete swellings are cold. The risk of malignancy is higher in "cold" lesions (20%) compared to "hot" or "warm" lesions (<5%) Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :804 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most commonly used MR sequence for non-contrast angiography? | [
"Time-of-flight (TOF)",
"Phase contrast",
"TRUFI",
"Aerial spin labeling"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mother of this newborn had fever with rash at 18 weeks of gestation. What is this baby probably suffering from? | [
"Congenital Varicella",
"Congenital Rubella",
"Congenital CMV",
"Congenital Toxoplasmosis"
] | A | Cicatricial skin scarring in a zoster-like distribution & limb hypoplasia in this newborn points to a diagnosis of Congenital Varicella syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective medium for Naegleria fowleri - | [
"Nutrient agar rich with E. coli",
"NNN media",
"Non Nutrient agar with E. coli",
"Diamond media"
] | C | Option 2 NNN ( Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle) Media is used for culture of Leishmania and Trypanosoma. Option 3 CSF sample can be cultivated on nonnutrient agar (Page's saline and 1.5% agar), lawn cultured with E. coli. Naegleria feeds on bacteria and crawls over the lawn culture of E. coli to produce trails. Option 4 Diamond media (Axenic culture): it is used for isolation of Trichomonas and Entamoeba histolytica. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Microtubule formation is inhibited by : | [
"Paclitaxel",
"Vincristine",
"Etoposide",
"Irinotecan"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Histamine release is one of the common features with administration of | [
"Atracurium",
"Adrenaline",
"Thiopentone",
"Ketamine"
] | A | histamine is released by atracurium , all skeletal musle relaxants release histamine other drugs releasing histamine are morphine,vancomycin etc. Ref: kd tRipathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A boy is suffering from acute pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary finding will be - | [
"W.B.C. casts",
"Leucocyte esterase test",
"Nitrite test",
"Bacteria in gram stain"
] | A | Wbc casts are seen in- Interstitial nephritis Acute pyelonephritis Allograft rejection Malignant infiltration of the kidney. Rbc casts - GN vasculitis Malignant hypeension Thrombotic microangiopathy Granular casts- ATN GN vasculitis Tubulointerstitial nephritis. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no. 2106 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperbilirubinemia in newborn involving palm & sole- | [
"8mg/dl",
"10mg/dl",
"14 mg/dl",
"> 15 mg/dl"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e.,>15 mg/dl Jaundice is area of bodyBilirubin levelHead & Neck5 mg/dlUpper trunk & proximal upper limb10 mg/dlLower trunk & thigh12 mg/dlLegs15 mg/dlPalm (hands) & sole (feet)> 15 mg/dl | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements about renal cell carcinoma except? | [
"Asbestos, sickle cell anemia & petroleum products are risk factors",
"Clear cell cancer arise from proximal convoluted tubule",
"Cannon ball metastasis",
"Bellini duct cancer arise from loop of henle."
] | D | Bellini duct cancer arise from the collecting duct cells in medulla & not the Loop of Henle. Risk factors of Renal Cell Carcinoma : Cigarette smokers have double the incidence of renal cell carcinoma Tobacco HTN /obesity/estrogen Asbestos Sickle cell anemia Petroleum products Clear cell carcinoma arises from Proximal convoluted Tubule. Cannon ball opacities on chest x-ray suggest metastatic malignancies such as choriocarcinoma, lung carcinoma, renal cell cancer, or endometrial carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Rheumatoid Ahritis patient on Methotrexate, Steroids and NSAIDs for past 4 months has had no retardation of disease progression. What is the next rational step in management | [
"Sta monotherapy with anti-TNF alpha drugs",
"Continue Methotrexate and Steroids",
"Stop oral Methotrexate and sta parenteral Methotrexate",
"Add Sulfasalazine"
] | C | Methotrexate:- * Methotrexate, a first line Disease Modifying Rheumatoid Ahritis Drug is the first choice of drug in management of early Rheumatoid Ahritis. * It is the first choice conventional DMARD and an anchor drug chosen for most Anti-Rheumatoid ahritis combination therapies. * Methotrexate is used in dosage of 10-25mg/week oral or subcutaneous along with Folic acid 1mg/day as a pa of toxicity amelioration. Subcutaneous dosing is better in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamics attained. Recommendation Summary for use of Methotrexate in RA: - * Administration of a high initial dose of Methotrexate followed by rapid down titration to optimal dose can improve the response to oral Methotrexate without much compromise on patient safety or tolerability. * Response to treatment following optimal oral Methotrexate takes a minimum of 3 months, and at least 6 months to monitor accurate effect on disease progression * Patients not responding or showing inadequate clinical response to oral Methotrexate may be "rescued" by switching to subcutaneous Methotrexate. * While changing over from oral to subcutaneous dosing of Methotrexate, the same oral dose received by patient should be matched and given, following which on a later course, the dose may be altered. * If Methotrexate monotherapy fails to produce clinical improvement, another agent may be considered for combination. Ref:- Goodman & Gilman's Pharmacological basis of Therapeutics 13th Ed; Pg Num:- 2537 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Study the following carefully -(AI 05)Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is - | [
"Autosomal recessive type",
"Autosomal dominant type",
"X-Linked dominant type",
"X-linked recessive type"
] | D | X-linked recessive type | train | med_mcqa | null |
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