question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Antipsychotic drug associated with raised QT interval | [
"Risperidone",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Fluoxetine",
"Midazolam"
] | A | Anti-psychotic Drugs that prolong the QT interval and in some have been associated with torsades de pointes Clozapine-Anti-psychotic / Schizophrenia Felbamate-Anti-convulsant / Seizure Fosphenytoin-Anti-convulsant / Seizure Lithium-Anti-mania / bipolar disorder Quetiapine-Anti-psychotic / Schizophrenia Risperidone-Anti-psychotic / Schizophrenia Ziprasidone-Anti-psychotic / Schizophrenia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female has hypopigmented lesion on centre of forehead drug, responsible is: | [
"Hydroquinone",
"Mono benzene metabolite of hydroquinone",
"Para tetra butyl catechol",
"Para tetra butyl phenol"
] | D | D i.e. Para tetra butyl phenol Dermatology 3/e p. 92; Fitzpatrick's 7/e p-135-145; Rooks 7/e p.17.7-17.37; Roxburgh's 17/e p- 105-109] - Most common cause of air borne contact dermatitis (ABCD) in India is pahenium hysterophorus (congress grass) plantQ - Metal most commonly l/t allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) is nickel (Ni)Q and drug is neomycin. Whereas detergentQ are most common cause of ACD in Indian females. - Para-tetra (p-test)-Butyl phenol formaldehyde glue (resin) on BindiQ is most common cause of ACD or hypopigmentation on centre of forehead in Indian females. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle attached to the tubercle of 1st cervical vertebrae | [
"Scalenus anterior",
"Scalenus medium",
"Scalenus minimum",
"Scalenus posterior"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for the treatment of Taenia solium and Taenia saginata infestation is- | [
"Metronidazole",
"Albendazole",
"Niclosamide",
"Diloxanide foroate"
] | C | Niclosamide is highly effective against Taenia solium & T.saginata. It acts by inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria & interfering with anaerobic generation of ATP by the tapeworm . Injured by niclosamide, the tapeworm are paly digested in the intestine. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1137 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ttreatment of peptic ulcer involves: | [
"Antacids",
"Ranitidine",
"Sucralfate",
"All"
] | D | Ans: d | train | med_mcqa | null |
In haemoptysis blood usually comes from | [
"Bronchial veins",
"Pulmonary veins",
"Bronchial arteries",
"Pulmonary arteries"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wear and tear pigment in the body refers to | [
"Lipochrome",
"Melanin",
"Anthracotic pigment",
"Haemosiderin"
] | A | Lipofuscin, or "wear-and-tear pigment," is an insoluble brownish-yellow granular intracellular material that accumulates in a variety of tissues (paicularly the hea, liver, and brain) as a function of age or atrophy.Lipofuscin represents complexes of lipid and protein that derive from the free radical-catalyzed peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes. It is not injurious to the cell but is a marker of past free radical injury.( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 24 ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is advised for severe preeclampsia complicating cesarean delivery? | [
"Spinal anesthesia",
"Epidural anesthesia",
"Combined spinal-epidural anesthesia",
"Local infiltration"
] | B | With improved techniques for infusion of dilute local anesthetics into the epidural space, most obstetricians and obstetrical anesthesiologists have come to or epidural blockade for labor and delivery in women with severe preeclampsia. There seems to be no argument that epidural analgesia for women with severe preeclampsia-eclampsia can be safely used when implemented by trained anesthesiologists and obstetricians.Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of cholera toxin is through: | [
"Gangliosides",
"Adenyl cyclase",
"Gangliosides + adenyl cyclase",
"Exotoxin"
] | C | Cholera enterotoxin Light toxin: binds with ganglioside in epithelial cell membrane Heavy toxin: activates adenyl cyclase in epithelial cell wall which increase cAMP, leading to outpouring of isotonic fluid in lumen of intestine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transillumination test is positive in: | [
"Branchial cyst",
"Thymic cyst",
"Ranula",
"Thyroglossal duct cyst"
] | C | Ans. (c) RanulaRef: Dhingra's ENT 5th ed. / 237-38, 400* Ranula is a cystic transilluminant swelling seen in the floor of mouth on one side of frenulum. It arises due to obstruction of sublingual salivary gland duct.# Treatment: complete surgical excision if small, or marsupialization if large.* Thymic cyst can be cystic or solid. Present as a neck mass anterior and deep to middle third of SCM muscle.* Branchial cyst is non-transilluminant, round, fluctuant, non-tender mass present in upper part of neck anterior to SCM muscle.* Thyroglossal duct cyst is cystic midline swelling in the course of thyroid duct. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a major Framingham criteria in CHF: | [
"Cardiomegaly",
"Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea",
"S3 gallop",
"Hepatomegaly"
] | D | Answer is D (Hepatomegaly) The Framingham Hea Study Criteria: Major Criteria Minor Criteria * Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea * Ankle edema * Neck vein distension * Night cough * Rates * Hepatomegaly * Cardiomegaly * Pleural effusion * Acute pulmonary edema * Vital capacity reduced by one third from predicted * S3 gallop * Tachycardia (? 120) * Increased venous pressure (> 16 cm) * Circulation time > 25s * Hepatojugular reflux positive Major or minor criterion * Weight loss of more than 4.5 kg over 5 days in response to treatment Definite CHF * Two major criteria or one major and two minor criteria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because: | [
"It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon",
"It is unmyelinated",
"Neurotransmitter release occurs here",
"None of the above"
] | A | The membrane of the axon hillock/initial segment contains a high density of voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels. These channels are fewer along the dendrites and cell body. The axon hillock has a lower threshold for firing an action potential. This region is also known as the trigger zone for the action potential. It requires a relatively low degree of depolarization for initiation of spike at the axon hillock/initial segment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know: | [
"Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test",
"Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test",
"Incidence and prevalence of SLE",
"Relative risk of SLE in this patient"
] | A | Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test. Repeat from Nov 06 & May 06 To know the probability of ds. after a given test/or tests (i.e. post-test probability) we need to know two things I .the pre test probability & 2. the likelihood ratios (LR) of tests. Post-test probability = Pre-test probability x likelihood ratio The pre test probability depends on the prevalence of the disease and the clinical assessment. The likelihood ratio provides a direct estimate of how much a test result will change the probability of having the disease. Because tests can be positive or negative, there are two likelihood ratios for each test. The 'positive likelihood ratio' tells us how much to increase the probability of a disease if the test is positive, while the 'negative likelihood ratio tells us how much to decrease it if the test is negative. The likelihood ratio incorporates both the sensitivity and specificity of the test and can be calculated by following formulae: LR (+) sensitivity / 1 - specificity LR (-) = 1 - sensitivity / specificity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a feature of dementia is - | [
"Loss of sensorium",
"Wearing of dirty clothes",
"Forgetfulness",
"Loss of neurons in brain matter"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' loss of sensorium Loss of sensorium is a typical feature of Delirium. It is not seen in dementia.Dementia has following features -Generalized loss of neurons is seen in brain matter.Impairment of intellectual functions, impairment of memory* (predominantly of recent memory)Deterioration of personalityImpairment of Judgement & impulse controlImpairment of abstract thinkingImpairment of all functions occuring globally. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Snow shoe effect indicates: | [
"Broad coverage",
"Physiologic basing",
"Indirect retention",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The treatment of choice in a patient with Massive Pulmonary Embolism in Shock is: | [
"Thrombolytic Therapy",
"Low Molecular Weight Heparin",
"Aggressive fluid resuscitation",
"Diuretic Therapy"
] | A | Answer is A (Thrombolytic Therapy): Normotension with Right ventricular hypokinesia suggests a diagnosis of submassive pulmonary embolism and stratifies the patient into an intermediate risk category. Treatment for intermediate risk patients with submassive PE is controversial. Guidelines recommend individual risk assessment for the thrombotic burden versus risk of bleeding. According to Harrisons textbook young patients without any comorbidities that fall into the intermediate risk category are excellent candidates for thrombolysis. The patient in question is a young 20 years old patient and the question makes no mention of any comorbidities, hence thrombolysis is the single best answer of choice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sunflower cataract is due to deposition of: | [
"Cu",
"Zn",
"Fe",
"Ca"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Cu Cataract Snowflake cataract: DM Rossette cataract: Trauma Christmas tree pattern: Myotonic dystrophy Sunflower cataract: Wilsons disease Oil drop cataract: Galactosemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
This patient presented with hearing loss and left ear fullness. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Cholesteatoma",
"Fracture of the temporal bone",
"Ochronosis",
"Otomycosis"
] | B | Answer FB. racture of the temporal boneThe patient has a left post-auricular ecchymosis, or Battle's sign, which can suggest underlying trauma to the temporal bone, as in this case. The patient had been intoxicated and recalled no trauma. Other signs of skull fracture include "raccoon eyes" when trauma involves the frontal bones of the skull. | train | med_mcqa | null |
First change seen in acute inflammation is:September 2009 | [
"Increased permeability",
"Vasodilation",
"Neutrophil migration",
"Vasoconstriction"
] | D | Ans. D: VasoconstrictionCardinal signs:Rubor (redness) due to dilatation of aeriolesCalor (heat)Dolor (pain) due to pressure on nerve endings by edema fluid and chemical mediator bradykinineTumor (swelling) due to edema.Functio laesa (loss of function) due to inhibition of movement by pain and tissue necrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common pulmonary tumor in children is ___________ | [
"Carcinoid",
"Small cell carcinoma",
"Adeno carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma"
] | A | Cancer of the lung occurs most often between the ages 40-70.Only 2% of the whole cases appear before 40 years. Carcinoid tumour represent 1%-5%of all lung tumors.Most patients with this tumor are younger than 40 years of age and the incidence is equal for both sexes.Clinical features include persistant cough, hemoptysis,impairment of drainage of respiratory passages with secondary infections,bronchiectasis,emphysema. Ref : ROBBINS AND COTRAN PATHOLOGIC BASIS OF DISEASES,PG NO:763,7 th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common mechanism of phagocytosis by c) Vitamin E
lysosome is: | [
"MPO",
"H2O2",
"NO",
"lactoferrin"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Passavant's ridge is formed by | [
"Superior constrictor and palatopharyngeus",
"Inferior constrictor and palatopharyngeus",
"Superior constrictor and palatoglossus",
"Inferior constrictor and palatoglossus"
] | A | It is a mucosal ridge raised by fibres of palatopharyngeus. It encircles the posterior and lateral walls of the nasopharyngeal isthmus.
Soft palate, during its contraction, makes firm contact with this ridge to cut off nasopharynx from the oropharynx during the deglutition or speech. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of clomiphene citrate is ? | [
"Binds to estrogen receptors & causes negative feedback at hypothalamus",
"Binds estrogen receptors & prevents negative feed back at hypothalamus",
"Binds to progesterone receptors",
"Progesterone agonist"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binds estrogen receptors & prevents negative feed back at hypothalamus o Induces gonadotropin secretion (LH, FSH) by blocking estrogenic feedback inhibition on hypothalamus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent? | [
"Neurosurgery",
"Day care surgery",
"Patients with coronary artery disease",
"In neonates"
] | B | Smooth induction and rapid recovery with antiemetic property of propofol makes it an ideal agent for day care surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding testicular tumour, the following are false except | [
"They are commonest malignancy in older men",
"Seminomas are radiosensitive",
"Only 25% of stage 1 teratomas are cured by surgery alone",
"Chemotherapy rarely produces a cure with metastatic lesions"
] | B | Seminomas are well known to be one of the most radiosensitive tumors About other options Option (a) : Commonest malignancy in older males is - Prostate cancer Option (c) : Stage I Nonseminomas (including teratomas) are t/t by surgery alone and show a high cure rate (>95%) Option (d) : Chemotherapy shows a good response in advance stage testicular tumors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is primary prevention - | [
"Screening test",
"Early diagnosis",
"Use of mosquito net",
"Restoration of lost function"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Use of mosquito net Level of preventionExampleso Primordial preventiono Discouragement from adapting a harmful lifestyle, e.g. smokingo Primary preventiono Immunization (vaccination)o Chemoprophylaxiso Nutritional supplementation programmeso Chlorination of watero Using a mosquito neto Health educationo Secondary preventiono Screening testo Case finding programmeso Early diagnosis & treatmento Tertian,' preventiono Disability limitationy Resting the affected limb in neutral position in PRPP to prevent deformityo Rehabilitationy Establishing schools for blindy Provision of aids for crippledy Reconstructive surgery in leprosyy Muscle re-education and graded exercise in neurological disorder like polioy Changing profession for a more suitable one | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defective hepatitis virus is - | [
"HAV",
"HBV",
"HCV",
"HDV"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., HDV Hepatitis D (HDV) or Delta viruso It is defective RNA virus dependent on the helper function of HBV for its replication and expression,o It contains single stranded RNA (ssRNA) - Defective RNA.o It has no independent existence and can survive and replicate only as long as HBV infection persists in the host,o It resembles some plant viruses, such as viroids or satellite viruses.o It has been classified in genus Delta virus.o Delta core of HDV is encapsidated by an outer envelope of HBs Ag, so it require cooperative function of HBV.o Intracellular replication of HDV RNA can occur without HBV but liver injury requires the presence of HBV.o HDV can cause two types of infection.HDV infectionSuperinfectiono In patient already infected with HBVo Has grave course with more chances of fulminant hepatitis and chronic infectiono Ig M anti HDV (+)ve and Ig M anti HBc (+)veCoinfectiono Infection occurs simultaneously with HBVo Comparatively mild course.o Ig M anti HDV (+)ve and ig G anti HBc (+)veo There is no association between HDV and hepatocellular carcinoma.o HDV antigen (Delta antigen) is primarily expressed in liver cell nuclei, where it can be demonstrated by immunofluorescence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of diarrhea in AIDS patients? | [
"Salmonella typhimurium",
"Cryptosporidium",
"Candida",
"isophora"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cryptosporidium Most common cause of diarrhea in HIV - Cryptosporidium. Diseases of Oropharvnx and GI system in H.I.V. These are :? Oral lesions : Thrush (oral candidiasis), oral Hairy leukoplakia (caused by EBV), and aphthous ulcer. Esophageal : Esophagitis by CMV, HSV or candida. Diarrhea : Diarrhea is caused by :- Bacteria : Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and mycobacteria avium intracellulare. Fungal : Histoplasma, Coccidioides, penicillium. Other : CMV, microsporidia, isospora helli, and cryptosporidia. AIDS enteropathy (HIV enteropathy) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oil drop sign of nail is seen in? | [
"Lichen planus",
"Dermatophytes",
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Psoriasis"
] | D | Ans. (d) PsoriasisRef: Lippincott's Primary Care Dermatology p 47, Bar an and Dawber's Disease of the Nails ad their Management by Robert Baran, David A. R. de Berker, Mark Holzberg, Luc Thomas ch-6 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vesicovaginal fistula after an obstetric labour manifests after: | [
"Within 24 hours",
"Within 72 hours",
"Within 1st week",
"After 1st week"
] | D | Vesicovaginal fistula may present days to weeks after the initial inciting surgery, and those following hysterectomy typically present at 1 to 3 weeks. It classically presents with unexplained continuous urinary leakage from the vagina after a recent operation. Other less specific symptoms of genitourinary fistula include fever, pain, ileus, and bladder irritability. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 26. Genitourinary Fistula and Urethral Diveiculum. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are side effects of Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs) except: | [
"Breast cancer",
"Ovarian Cancer",
"Liver disease",
"Thromboembolism"
] | B | Adverse effects of combined oral contraceptive Pills (OCPs) Beneficial effects of Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs) Cardiovascular effects : Myocardial infarction Cerebral thrombosis Venous thrombosis Hypeension Carcinogenesis: Cervical cancer Breast cancer Metabolic effects: Elevated blood pressure Altered lipid profile Blood clotting Hyperglycemia Hepatocellular adenoma Gall bladder disease Cholestatic jaundice Monilial vaginitis (candidiasis) Decline milk volume during lactation Slight delay in return of feility Depression Fetal bih defects General effects: Breast tenderness Weight gain Headache & migraine Bleeding disturbances Benign breast disorders (Fibrocystic disease, Fibroadenoma_) Benign ovarian disease (Ovarian cysts) Malignant ovarian disease (Ovarian CA) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Ectopic pregnancy Iron deficiency anemia Endometrial cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Friedlander's bacillus is - | [
"E. coli",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa",
"Klebsiella pneumoniae",
"Vibrio parahemolyticus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Klebsiella pneumoniae "Klebsiella pneumoniae is also known as Friedlander's bacillus or Bacillus mucosus capsulatus".KLEBSIELLAo There are four important species of klebsiella1. K. pneumoniae (most important)2. K. ozaenae3. K. rhinoscleromatis4. K. oxytoca (rare)o Infectious syndromeso DiagnosisDiagnosis is made by culturing appropriate specimens.TreatmentCarbapenems (imipenem) - DOC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actinomycosis is a | [
"Aerobic bacterial disease",
"Anaerobic bacterial disease",
"Aerobic fungal disease",
"Anaerobic fungal disease"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is involved in equilibrium, gait, and learning induced changes in vestibuloocularreflex? | [
"Vestibulocerebellum",
"Spinocerebellum",
"Cerebrocerebellum",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. A. Vestibulocerebellum. (Ref. Guyton & Hall's Textbook of Medical Physiology 11th/pg. 703 - 705).Function of the Cerebellum in Overall Motor Control:The nervous system uses the cerebellum to coordinate motor control functions at three levels, as follows: Part of cerebellumConsist ofFunction1The vestibulocerebellumConsists principally of the small flocculonodular cerebellar lobes (that lie under the posterior cerebellum) and adjacent portions of the vermis.It provides neural circuits for most of the body's equilibrium movements.2The spinocerebellumConsists of most of the vermis of the posterior and anterior cerebellum plus the adjacent intermediate zones on both sides of the vermis.It provides the circuitry for coordinating mainly movements of the distal portions of the limbs, especially the hands and fingers.3The cerebrocerebellumConsists of the large lateral zones of the cerebellar hemispheres, lateral to the intermediate zones. It receives virtually all its input from the cerebral motor cortex and adjacent premotor and somatosensory cortices of the cerebrum.It transmits its output information in the upward direction back to the brain, functioning in a feedback manner with the cerebral cortical sensorimotor system to plan sequential voluntary body and limb movements, planning these as much as tenths of a second in advance of the actual movements. This is called development of "motor imagery" of movements to be performed.Vestibulocerebellum--Its Function in Association with the Brain Stem and Spinal Cord to Control Equilibrium andPostural Movements# The vestibulocerebellum originated phylogenetically at about the same time that the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear developed. Furthermore, loss of the flocculonodular lobes and adjacent portions of the vermis of the cerebellum, which constitute the vestibulocerebellum, causes extreme disturbance of equilibrium and postural movements.# The vestibulocerebellum is especially important in controlling balance between agonist and antagonist muscle con- tractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid changes in body positions as required by the vestibular apparatus.# It is then the function of the vestibulocerebellum to calculate in advance from these rates and directions where the different parts will be during the next few milliseconds. The results of these calculations are the key to the brain's progression to the next sequential movement. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A circular bullet wound, erythema seen around the margin, blackening & tattooing present. What is the range | [
"Contact shot entry wound",
"Near shot entry wound",
"Close shot exit wound",
"Close shot entry wound"
] | D | * Presence of erythema, blackening & tattooing around the wound indicates that it is close shot. Ref:- Essentials of Forensic medicine Dr KS narayana Reddy 33th Edition; Pg num:- 216 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following sections are related to "Dowry death" except | [
"113(A) Indian evidence act",
"113(B) Indian evidence act",
"304(A) IPC",
"174(3) criminal procedure code"
] | C | 304A. Causing death by negligence Sections related to dowry death IEA 113A. Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman. IEA 113B. Presumption as to dowry death. CrPC Section 174(3)(iii) the case relates to the death of a woman within seven years of her marriage and any relative of the woman has made a request in this behalf 304B. Dowry death Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology; 5th ed; Page no: 169,206 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The complication of using airotor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molar is | [
"Necrosis of bone",
"Tissue laceration",
"Tissue necrosis",
"Emphysema"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not seen in SLE affected kidney? | [
"Lipoid nephrosis",
"Focal Glomerulonephritis",
"Diffuse Glomerulonephritis",
"Membranous Glomerulonephritis"
] | A | Renal manifestations in SLE (Lupus nephritis)
Nephritis is the most serious manifestation of SLE and renal failure is the most common cause of death in SLE.
Findings of SLE nephropathy are called as full house phenomenon.
A. Glomerular diseases
WHO classification lupus nephritis is as follows
1) Class I (minimal or no detectable abnormalities)
It has the best prognosis.
2) Class II (Mesangial lupus GN or mesangial proliferative)
Characterized by mesangial cell proliferation and lack of involvement of glomerular capillary wall. Glomerular mesangial deposits of immunoglobulin and complement are the earliest feature and are found in all types of lupus nephritis.
3) Class III (focal proliferative GN)
There are subendothelial deposits. Granular deposits also occur in mesangium as occur in all forms of lupus nephritis.
4) Class IV (Diffuse proliferative GN)
It is the most common type of lupus nephritis with the worst prognosis. It is characterized by wire loop lesions. There are subendothelial deposits with granular deposits in the mesangium.
5) Class V (Membranous GN)
There is widespread thickening of the capillary wall with subepithelial deposits and granular deposits in the mesangium.
6) Class VI (Sclerosing nephritis)
There is global necrosis of nearly all glomerular capillaries.
Wire loop lesions are seen most commonly in diffuse proliferative (class IV), but may also be seen in class III (focal proliferative) and class V (membranous) GN.
B. Tubulointerstitial disease
Though glomeruli are involved primarily in lupus nephritis, interstitium and tubules can also be involved especially in association with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. Granular deposition of immunoglobulin and complement in tubular basement membrane are seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following statements regarding skin are true except | [
"Skin is stratified squamous epithelium",
"Melanocytes are immigrant cells",
"Keratin filaments are hallmark of epidermal cells",
"Keratinization causes hydration of cells"
] | D | Keratinization provides protection, has no role in hydration of cells. The skin has three layers-- the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layer (fat layer). Keratinization is a process of cytodifferentiation in which the keratinocytes are differentiated, hardened cell filled with keratin which serves as a scaffold for the cytoskeleton and play a major functional role in the integrity and mechanical stability of cells. Filaggrin helps in keratin assembly and then degrades to for amino acids and natural moisturizing factors which help in skin hydration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest radiological change in RHEUMATOID AHRITIS is ? | [
"Decreased joint space",
"Aicular erosion",
"Periaicular osteopenia",
"Subchondral cyst"
] | C | REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is second generation antihistaminic: | [
"Promethazine",
"Loratadine",
"Diphenhydramine",
"Doxylamine"
] | B | Ans. B. LoratadineSecond generation antihistaminic drug don't enter the CNS, no anticholinergic side-effects, drugs are cetirizine, levocetirizine, loratadine, ebastine, azelastine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Black gun powder made of: | [
"Potasium nitrate",
"Charcoal",
"Sulfur powder",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Potassium nitrate; B i.e. Charcoal; C i.e. Sulfur | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organs secretes zinc in man? | [
"Seminal vesicle",
"Prostate",
"Epididymis",
"Vas"
] | B | B i.e. ProstateMEM Semen:Semen contains sperm and secretions of the seminal vesicles, prostate, cowper's gland and probably, the urethral glands. An average volume ejaculation is 2.5- 3.5mL. Each mL of semen normally contains about 100 m illionQ sperms. 50% of men with counts of 20-40 million /mL and essentially all those with counts < 20 inillion /mL are sterile. Morphologically abnormal & or immotile spermatozoa also correlates with infeility. Human sperm move at a speed of -3mm/ minQ through the female genital tract. Sperms reach uterine tubes 30- 60 minutes after copulation. Composition of human semen | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presenting to the clinic is showing features of Down's syndrome. Which is the MOST common cardiac lesion in a child with Down's syndrome? | [
"Atrioventricular Septal Defect",
"VSD",
"Coarctation of aoa",
"Transposition of great vessels"
] | A | The most common cardiac abnormality in children with Down's syndrome is atrioventricular septal defect which occur in 45% of cases. Isolated VSD occur in 35% cases, isolated secundum ASD is seen in 8% of cases and TOF is seen in 5% cases. Clinical manifestations of Down's syndrome are: Congenital anomalies of hea and GIT Epicanthal folds Flattened facial profile Small rounded ears Upslanted palpabral fissures Excess nuchal skin Brachycephaly Increased risk of leukemia Immune system defects Alzheimer like dementia Ref: Hurst's The Hea, 13e chapter 82. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Postural hypotension is the common side effect of which of the following ? | [
"ACE inhibitors",
"Alpha receptor blockers",
"Arteriolar dilators",
"Selectiveβ1 blockers"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thomas test helps to detect - | [
"Adduction deformity of the hip",
"Integrity of the Abductor Mechanism",
"Fixed flexion deformity of the Hip",
"Apparent shortening at the hip Joint"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fixed flexion deformity of the Hip Tests for Hip JointTESTINDICATIONTHOMASFixed flexion DeformityTrendelenburg TestFailure of the Abductor MechanismBryants TriangleSupratrochanteric ShorteningSquaring of pelvisAdduction/Abduction DeformityTelescoping TestPositive in DDH, transcervical neck femur fractureNelatons LineSupratrochanteric ShorteningChienes testSupratrochanteric ShorteningShoemakers LineSupratrochanteric Shortening | train | med_mcqa | null |
What will happen if a bacteria acquires genes coding for restriction endonuclease - | [
"Bacteria will die as lacks methylase",
"It will damage the host cell",
"It will have capacity to divide & multiply many times",
"Enhances proof reading activity of that bacteria"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following lymphomas is associated with HTLV virus infection? | [
"Burkitt's lymphoma",
"B-Cell lymphoma",
"Adult T cell leukemia and lymphoma",
"Hodgkin's disease"
] | C | HTLV 1 causes adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 37-year-old woman presents to AIIMS OPD with a lump in the left breast.Family history is negative for breast cancer. On Examination the mass is rubbery, mobile, and nontender to palpation. No overlying skin changes and the axilla is negative for lymphadenopathy Ultrasound repo suggest a simple 1-cm cyst in the area of the palpable mass in the left breast. Most appropriate management of this patient? | [
"Reassurance and re-examination",
"Fluoroscopically guided needle localization biopsy",
"Aspiration of the cyst with cytologic analysis",
"Immediate excisional biopsy,"
] | A | Reassurance and re-examination are recommended in this case A complex cyst is almost never associated with a malignancy. A complex cyst may be associated with an underlying malignancy and aspiration is usually recommended. -If cyst disappears with aspiration and the contents are not grossly bloody - Fluid does not need to be sent to cytologic analysis. -If the lesion does not completely disappear or recurs multiple times after aspiration - Fluid should be sent for cytology. Excision of a cyst is indicated if the cytologic findings are suspicious for malignancy. In young women, the breast parenchyma is dense, which limits the diagnostic value of mammography. A fluoroscopically guided needle localization biopsy is reserved for nonpalpable solid lesions of the breast. Breast cyst - Seen in last decade of reproductive life - Due to non-integrated involution of stroma and epithelium Clinical features - Multiple - Can be bilateral Can mimic malignancy- Sudden presentation can be used to differentiate from malignancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is cause of RBBB | [
"It can occur in a normal person",
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Corpulmonale",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Causes of RBBB Normal physiological Pulmonary embolism/corpulmonale Pulmonary aery hypeension ASD Rheumatic hea disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are features of gunshot wound, except: NIMHANS 14; PGI 14 | [
"Entry wound is beveled in the outer table of skull",
"Abrasion collar is seen in entry wound",
"Harrison-Gilroy test can detect gunshot residue",
"Stellate shaped wound is seen in contact shot"
] | A | Ans. Entry wound is beveled in the outer table of skull | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary hyperparathyroidism are seen in all except - | [
"Rickets",
"Osteomalacia",
"Osteoporosis",
"Renal failure"
] | C | Primary -Singleadenoma(90%) Multipleadenomas(4%) Nodularhyperplasia(5%) Carcinoma(1%) Secondary -Chronicrenalfailure ,Malabsorption,Osteomalacia'and rickets Teiary DAVIDSONS PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGE NO-769 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 year old insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) patient on Insulin for the last 10 year complains of gradually progressive painless loss of vision. Most likely he has – | [
"Cataract",
"Vitreous haemorrhage",
"Total rhegmatogenous retinal detachment",
"Tractional retinal detachment not involving the macula"
] | A | Among the given options, option a & d can cause progressive painless loss of vision.
Painless loss of vision in diabeties
Gradual :- Cataract, macular edema (NPDR), Tractional retinal detachment not involving the central retina (macula) in PDR.
Sudden :- Vitreous hemorrhage (PDR), Tractional retinal detachment (PDR).
Now the question arises which is more common cause cataract or retinal detachment not involving the macula.
Undoubtly answer is cataract because usually retinal detachment involves central retina (macula) which causes sudden loss of vision. Retinal detachment without macular involvement is less common. | train | med_mcqa | null |
5 HT 1 agonists used as ?( | [
"Anti anxiety drugs",
"Antipsychotic drugs",
"GERD",
"Chemotherapy induced vomiting"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anti anxiety drugs 5-HT IA agonists (Buspiron, ipsapirone) act as antianxiety drugs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ponderal's index for "small for gestational age" child: March 2013 | [
"Less than 1",
"Less than 2",
"Less than 3",
"Less than 4"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Less than 2 Ponderal Index (for neonates) Calculated as Weight in gm X 100/ (length in cm)3 A child with ponderal index 3.0 or more can be considered overweight but in some conditions such as in maternal smoking, reduced length may also be implicated. An index between 2.5 and 3.0 is considered normal, Between 2.0 and 2.5 marginal, and A child with this index less than 2.0 is classified as small for gestational age (SGA). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6-year-old child is brought by his new foster mother who was concerned that when she brushed his teeth last night she noticed that his tongue was red in certain distinct patterns. He has otherwise not been ill: The most likely diagnosis he has is: | [
"Kawasaki disease",
"Pyogenic granuloma of the tongue",
"Geographic tongue",
"Hairy tongue"
] | C | Ans. C. Geographic tongueGeographic tongue can have a changing appearance, hence its alternative description, erythema migrans. It involves atrophy of the filiform papillae, usually on the dorsum of the tongue. It is harmless and common. Hairy tongue is usually dark colored; it is caused by excess keratin and hypertrophy and elongation of the filiform papillae. Usually these patients are asymptomatic. Patients with Kawasaki traditionally have "strawberry tongue," where the tongue is red and slightly swollen and the papillae appear white as a contrast. These patients are generally quite ill, with high fevers for several days and other symptoms. Pyogenic granulomas can grow on the tongue, although they would be more commonly found on the gingiva, as they are caused by the body's reaction to irritation. It is a painless mass that can be red, blue, or purple | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mechanism of Action of EDTA is | [
"Antibacterial by causing cell wall damage",
"Chelates Calcium ions and removes calcification",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic dysentery, abdominal pain, and rectal prolapse in children is caused by: | [
"Enterobius vermicularis",
"Ascariasis",
"Trichuris trichiura",
"Trichinella spiralis"
] | C | Ans. (c)The immature T. trichiura buries its entire body in the epithelium of the large intestine forming a tunnel. As the worm matures, its posterior portion is extruded or ruptures from the tunnel and hangs in the intestinal lumen.Intimate contact of T. trichiura with the mucosa of large intestine leads to inflammation of mucosa. Depending upon the intensity of the infection, the inflammation may extend from the distal part of small intestine to the rectum. The mucosa may be oedematous and friable. The surface tissue of the rectum becomes extremely oedematous and when the patient strains to defecate, rectal prolapse may occur. Rectal bleeding (whipworm dysentery) with abdominal cramps and severe rectal tenesmus are seen in massive infections. Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aery to bleed in duodenal ulcer haemorrhage: | [
"Splenic aery",
"Gastroduidenal aery",
"Left gastric aery",
"Superior mesenteric aery"
] | B | Answer is B (Gastroduodenal Aery): The most common aerial source of a hemorrhage in duodenal ulcers is the gastroduodenal aery. `Bleeding ulcers in the duodenum are usually located on the posterior surface of the duodenal bulb. As the ulcer penetrates, the gastroduodenal aery is exposed and may become eroded. Ulcers on the anterior surface of the duodenal bulb are not prone to bleed since no major blood vessels lie on the anterior surface of the duodenal bulb.' | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the Papez circuit of the limbic system, between which combination is the hypothalamus placed on the basis of function? | [
"Cingulate coex-hippocampus",
"Hipocampus-thalamus",
"Thalamus-hippocampus",
"Thalamus-cingulate coex"
] | B | The concept of circuits of neuronal systems within the limbic system is best illustrated by the "Papez circuit." In order, beginning with the cingulate coex, neuronal communication proceeds as follows: the cingulate coex projects to the parahippocampal gyrus; which projects to the hippocampus; which the fornix projects to the hypothalamus; which the mammillothalamic tract projects to the thalamus (anterior nucleus); which projects back to the cingulate coex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A reluctant child forced to bring suger from a shop spills half of it on the way. This is an example of : | [
"Hysteria",
"Passive aggression",
"Disobedience",
"Active aggression"
] | B | B i.e. Passive aggression | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neural tube defects have which one of the following inheritance patterns? | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X-linked recessive",
"Multifactorial"
] | D | - Neural tube defects: Occurs d/t failure of proper closure of neural tube Show multifactorial inheritance. Examples: 1. Meningocele 2. Meningomyelocele 3. Anencephaly 4. Spina bifida occulta 5. Iniencephaly 6. Encephalocele - Extra Edge: Other conditions having multifactorial inheritance are Hypeension Diabetes mellitus Most of the congenital hea diseases etc | train | med_mcqa | null |
TRUE about Vein of Labbe: | [
"Drains into Superior Sagittal Sinus",
"Drains into Transverse Sinus",
"Anastomotic channel for Superior Cerebral Veins",
"Superior anastomotic channel for Superficial Middle Cerebral Vein"
] | B | Superficial Middle Cerebral Vein communicates with the transverse sinus inferior anastomotic vein of Labbe. The Vein of Labbe is inferior (not superior) anastomotic vein, which crosses and anastomoses at its two ends with the Middle Cerebral Vein and the transverse sinus (not superior sagittal sinus). It drains its adjacent coical regions gathering tributaries from minor veins of the temporal lobe (not superior cerebral veins). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oral contraceptives act by : | [
"Increasing LH",
"Increasing FSH",
"Decreasing LH and FSH",
"Decreasing ACTH and SRF"
] | C | Decreasing LH and FSH | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old man presented with multiple small hypopigmented macules around hair follicles on upper chest and back. Scratching of the lesion with a glass slide showed fine scaling. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in diagnosing this condition? | [
"KOH preparation of scales",
"Tzank test",
"Slit Skin Smear Examination",
"Skin biopsy of lesion"
] | A | Patient is showing features of Pityriasis Versicolor caused by Malassezia furfur. Lesions appear as hypopigmented, scaly, perifollicular macules which coalesce together. It is diagnosed using KOH mount of the lesion which shows a mixture of sho branched hyphae and spores (spaghetti and meat ball appearance). Ref: Illustrated Synopsis of Dermatology and Sexually Transmitted Diseases By Neena Khanna 2ND edn page 245. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except-a) Pituitary tumorb) Pheochromocytomac) Medullary carcinoma thyroidd) Neuromas | [
"ad",
"c",
"ac",
"ab"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following drugs are useful in the treatment of isoniazid poisoning: | [
"Pyridoxine",
"Diazepam",
"Bicarbonate",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. (D) All of the above style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: Harrison 17th ed/Table e35.4; American academy of family physicians, )MANAGEMENT OF ISONIAZID TOXICITYFive gram of IV pyridoxine given over 5 to 10 minutes is sufficient to counteract the neurotoxic effects of isoniazid in most cases.Diazepam, 5 to 10 mg administered intravenously, is the initial approach to seizure control, with the dose repeated as necessary.The acidosis associated with isoniazid toxicity appears to be lactic acidosis secondary to the seizure activity. Therefore, as the seizures are controlled, the acidosis usually decreases in severity. Since sodium bicarbonate may assist in correcting severe cases of acidosis, its administration should be considered if the pH is less than 7.1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 67-year-old man with Parkinson disease has experienced an increasingly dry mouth for the past 3 months, and this interferes with eating and swallowing. He has noted dry eyes as well. On physical examination he has minimal tremor at rest; there are no other abnormal findings. Laboratory studies show no detectable autoantibodies. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his findings? | [
"Alcohol ingestion",
"Anticholinergic drug use",
"Candidiasis",
"Sialadenitis with blockage of salivary duct"
] | B | The most common cause for dry mouth (xerostomia) and dry eyes (xerophthalmia) is a medication effect. Anticholinergics such as trihexyphenidyl to treat the parkinsonian tremor can be implicated, as well as antidepressants, antipsychotics, and antihistaminics. Alcohol and tobacco use are risks for precancerous lesions and squamous cancers of the oral cavity. The lack of saliva is unlikely to be associated with infection, which tends to be focal. Sialadenitis is unlikely to involve all salivary glands, except in the setting of Sjogren syndrome, which is associated with SS-A and SS-B autoantibodies, and may be associated with some pain with inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient of unilateral loss of vision, the patient had an injury to opposite eye leading to corneal opacification. The patient was operated by corneal grafting, he could see clearly again with one eye. The injury is said to be - | [
"Simple",
"Grievous",
"Dangerous",
"Hazardous"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Grievouso This patient had permanent vision loss as it was corrected by surgery (corneal transplant).o A grievous injury is one (i) Which is extensive or serious (ii) Which does not heal rapidly, and (iii) Which leaves a permanent deformity or disfiguration. Section 320 IPC defines following injuries as grievous.1. Emasculation (cutting of the penis, castration; or causing loss of power of erection due to spinal injury).2. Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.3. Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear.4. Privation of any member (part, organ, limb) or joint.5. Destruction or permanent impairing of powers of any member or joint.6. Permanent disfiguration of head or face.7. Fracture or dislocation of a bone or a tooth.8. Any hurt which endangers life or which causes the sufferer to be, during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain, or unable to follow his daily routine. Section 319 IPC defines hurt as bodily pain, disease, or infirmity, caused to any person. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most characteristic finding in lichen planus is – | [
"Civatte bodies",
"Basal cell degeneration",
"Thinning of nail plate",
"Violaceous lesions"
] | B | "The basic pathology in lichen planus is the damage to the basal cell layer of epidermis leading to hydropic degeneration of basal cells". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding newer formulations of amphotericin B, which of the following statements is accurate? | [
"Amphotericin B colloidal dispersion cause less infusion related reactions than conventional amphotericin B.",
"They are more effective in fungal infections than conventional preparations because they increase tissue uptake of amphotericin B",
"They have decreased systemic toxicity",
"They have wider spectrum... | C | NEWER FORMULATIONS OF AM-B : (Has Decreased systemic toxicity) AMPHOTERICIN B COLLOID DISPERSION (ABCD) - MAX INFUSION RELATED REACTION AMPHOTERICIN B LIPID COMPLEX (ABLC) LIPOSOMAL AMPHOTERICIN B (USED FOR T/T OF KALA AZAR) -MINIMUMINFUSION RELATED REACTION * Lesser uptake in the tissues like kidney * More expensive * Similar in efficacy and antifungal spectrum as conventional preparations AMPHOTERICIN B (CONVENTIONAL) Usually given in slow iv infusion Very well distributed all over the body and poorly distributed in CN | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding maternal plasma osmolality during pregnancy | [
"Maternal plasma osmolality decreases early in pregnancy",
"Maternal plasma osmolality increases throughout pregnancy",
"Maternal plasma osmolality does not change during pregnancy",
"Maternal plasma osmolality is affected most by increases in sodium"
] | A | Increased water retention in pregnancy is normal physiological change of pregnancy. It is mediated by fall in plasma osmolality induced by resetting osmotic thresholds for thirst and vasopressin secretion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
With slowly advancing enamel caries and rapid involvement of dentin, the type of dentin formed is: | [
"Secondary",
"Tertiary",
"Reparative",
"Sclerotic"
] | D | Sclerotic dentin
Dentin that forms in response to stimuli such as aging or mild irritation (slow advancing caries). When responding to initial caries demineralization events, crystalline material precipitates in intratubular and intertubular dentin. Sclerotic dentin walls off a lesion by blocking (sealing) the dentinal tubules. This zone can be seen even before the demineralization reaches the dentin and it may not be present in rapidly advancing lesions. Clinically, sclerotic dentin is dark and harder than normal dentin.
Sturdevant's operative dentistry 7th edition page 43 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a non-breastfeeding woman, use of Combined oral contraceptive pill during first three weeks following delivery is :- | [
"Relative contraindication",
"Absolute contraindication",
"Indicated",
"Not required"
] | A | Use of OCP in breastfeeding women is absolutely contraindicated in first six weeks as it can completely suppress lactation. It is relatively contraindicated between six weeks to six months as it can decrease breast milk output by30%. It is relatively contraindicated even in non-breastfeeding women in first three weeks as it can increase the risk of DVT during the hyper-coagulation period of post-delivery. READ THE QUESTION CAREFULLY : NON-BRESTFEEDING | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old woman following major abdominal surgery has had discomfort and swelling of her left leg for the past week. On physical examination, the leg is slightly difficult to move, and on palpation there is tenderness. A Doppler sonogram shows thrombosis of deep left leg veins. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to contribute to her condition? | [
"Hypercalcemia",
"Immobilization",
"Ingestion of aspirin",
"Nitric oxide release"
] | B | The most important and the most common cause of venous thrombosis is vascular stasis, which often occurs with immobilization. Calcium is a cofactor in the coagulation pathway, but an increase in calcium has minimal effect on the coagulation process. Aspirin inhibits platelet function and limits thrombosis. Nitric oxide is a vasodilator and an inhibitor of platelet aggregation. Turbulent blood flow may promote thrombosis, but this risk factor is more common in fast-flowing arterial circulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for posterior urethral value is | [
"Cystourethroscopy",
"Retrograde urethroscopy",
"Micturating cystourethrogram",
"Cystoscopy"
] | C | Micturating cystourethrogram is investigation of choice for posterior urethral value. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common subtype of Basal cell carcinoma is: March 2005 | [
"Superficial basal cell carcinoma",
"Nodular basal cell carcinom",
"Sclerosing basal cell carcinoma",
"Pigmented basal cell carcinoma"
] | B | Ans. B: Nodular basal cell carcinoma Subtypes of basal cell carcinoma: Nodular basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of basal cell carcinoma and usually presents as a round, pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectases. As it enlarges, it frequently ulcerates centrally, leaving a raised, pearly border with telangiectases, which aids in making the diagnosis. Most tumors are observed on the face, although the trunk and extremities also are affected Cystic basal cell carcinoma is an uncommon variant of nodular basal cell carcinoma, cystic basal cell carcinoma is often indistinguishable from nodular basal cell carcinoma clinically, although it might have a polypoid appearance Pigmented basal cell carcinoma is an uncommon variant of nodular basal cell carcinoma that has brown-black macules in some or all areas, often making it difficult to differentiate from melanoma. Morpheaform (sclerosing) basal cell carcinoma is an uncommon variant in which tumor cells induce a proliferation of fibroblasts within the dermis and an increased collagen deposition (sclerosis) that clinically resembles a scar. Superficial basal cell carcinoma is often multiple, most often developing on the upper trunk or shoulders | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person suffered an injury in the right eye with a tennis ball. Following which he developed pain and on examination of fundus a red spot is seen at the macula. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Berlin's edema",
"Macular bleed",
"Macular hole",
"Macular tear"
] | A | This patient has developed Berlins edema following injury to the eye. This is caused by a pressure wave which pass into the posterior pole of the eye following blunt eye trauma. In this condition retina develops a grey white colour seen mainly in the outer retina which may extend to the macula. If it involves the macula, it results in cherry red spot seen at the fovea. This is because fovea is very thin and it reflects the red colour of underlying normal choroid. Other causes of cherry red spot: Tay-Sachs disease, Niemann- Pick disease, generalized GM1, gangliosidosis, Farber's lipogranulomatosis, infantile Gaucher's disease, metachromatic leukodystrophy and sialidosis types 1 and 2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which differentiating prerenal azotemia with ATN features favouring pre-renal | [
"Urine osmolality > 500 mosmol/kg",
"Sodium spot excretion < 10 ml/L",
"Plasma transferrin/Ig ratio",
"none"
] | A | The normal 24-hour urine osmolality is, on average, 500-800 mOsmol/kg of water.
After 12-14 hours of fluid intake restriction, the urine osmolality should exceed 850 mOsmol/kg of water | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has a GFR of 100 ml/min, her urine flow rate is 2.0 ml/min, and her plasma glucose concentration is 200 mg/100 ml. If the kidney transpo maximum for glucose is 250 mg/min, what would be her approximate rate of glucose excretion? | [
"0 mg/min",
"50 mg/min",
"100 mg/min",
"150 mg/min"
] | A | The filtration rate of glucose in this example is: = GFR x plasma glucose concentration =(100 ml/min) x (200 mg/100 ml, or 2 mg/ml) =200 mg/min. Because the transpo maximum for glucose in this example is 250 mg/min, All of the filtered glucose would be reabsorbed and the renal excretion rate for glucose would be zero(0 mg/min). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pastia's lines in scarlet fever are | [
"White lines on the dorsum of the tongue",
"Seen bilaterally on buccal mucosa",
"Present in skin folds secondary to capillary fragility",
"Seen when white and red strawberry tongue occur concomitantly"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Miltefosine treatment for kala azar is to be given for: | [
"1 week",
"2 weeks",
"3 weeks",
"4 weeks"
] | D | Miltefosine Dosages : After enrollment oral miltefosine treatment will be administered as per following dosage schedule: i. Adults (>12 years) weighing more than 25kg: 100mg miltefosine daily as one capsule (50 mg) in the morning and one capsule in the evening, after meals for 28 days. ii. Adults (>12 years) weighing (less than 25kg) 50mg, miltefosine daily as one capsule (50 mg) in the morning, after meals for 28 days. iii. Children (2-11 years): miltefosine will be given at 2.5 mg/kg daily after meals for 28 days, i.e., 50mg daily once a day. iv. The drug is not to be used in the case of children below 2 years of age. Ref: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epistaxis in elderly patient is commonest in- | [
"Nasapharyngeal carcinoma",
"Foreign body",
"Bleeding disorder",
"Hypertension"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Hot air Oven, for holding period of one hour temperature required is? (NOT RELATED) | [
"100oC",
"120oC",
"140oC",
"160oC"
] | D | 160oc for one hour is used to sterilize the following:a. Glass-wares b. Forceps c. Scissor d. Scalpel e. Glass syringef. Swabs g. Liquid paraffin h. Dressing powder i. Fats, oils and grease.The spores of a non-toxigenic strain of Clostridium tetani are used as microbiological test of dry heat efficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common benign tumor of paranasal sinuses? | [
"Papilloma",
"Osteoma",
"Warts",
"Fibroma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Osteoma * Osteoma of the frontal sinus - Most common benign tumour arising in the nasal sinuses.* The osteoma arises from the floor of the frontal sinus near the midline. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adam stokes syndrome is caused due to: | [
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Atrial extrasystole",
"Complete AV block",
"Ventilation fibrillation"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
ANOVA is | [
"Parametric",
"Non parametric",
"Qualitative",
"None"
] | A | Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin sensitivity increases with following treatment except: | [
"Metformin",
"Acarbose",
"Exercise",
"Fasting"
] | D | Ans: D (Fasting) Ref: Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12th ed, 2011 Pg 1246. 1258. 1264.1270Explanation:Insulin sensitivity refers to the amount of glucose that can be cleared from the blood with a given dose of insulin Insulin sensitivity may be altered b\ age. body weight, exercise, diseases and drugs. Active persons are found to be more sensitive to insulin compared to those with sedentary life style. Insulin sensitivity has been found to be inversely related to age with insulin resistance more common in the elderly due to reduced physical activity.In hyperglycemic state, metformin decreases blood glucose by lowering hepatic glucose production and enhancing peripheral glucose uptake. This is attributed to increase in insulin sensitivity and reduction in insulin resistance.Acarbose an u-glucosidase inhibitor by reducing postprandial plasma glucose increases the release of glucoregulatory hormone. GLIM. As a result acarbose increases insulin sensitivity and reduces blood glucose.Easting leads to hypoglycemia which is associated with reduction of insulin secretion and the release of counter regulatory hormones namely epinephrine, glucagon, glucocorticoids etc. Hence the answer to above question is fasting which does not increase insulin sensitivity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is affected during the development of a furuncle? | [
"Sweat gland",
"Sebaceous gland",
"Holocrine gland",
"None"
] | B | Furuncles (boils) usually sta in infected hair follicles, though some are caused by retained foreign bodies and other injuries. If the pilosebaceous apparatus becomes obstructed at the skin level, the development of a furuncle can be anticipated. Because the base of the hair follicle may lie in subcutaneous tissue, the infection can spread as cellulitis or it can form a subcutaneous abscess. Ref: Mundy L.M., Dohey G.M. (2010). Chapter 8. Inflammation, Infection, & Antimicrobial Therapy. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malignant otitis externa is caused by | [
"Hemophilus influenzae",
"Pseudomonas aeroginosa",
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"E. coli"
] | B | Malignant otitis externa is often caused by difficult to treat bacteria such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Only are cases of malignant otitis externa due to S.aureus, Proteus mirabilis and Aspergillus fumigates have been repoed.Ref: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 55 | train | med_mcqa | null |
MHC class 1 proteins are not present on | [
"Platelets",
"RBC",
"T-cells",
"Macrophage"
] | B | MHC class 1 proteins are present on all nucleated cells and platelets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Among the following, which one is not good dietary source of iron - | [
"Liver",
"Jaggery",
"Fish",
"Milk"
] | D | Haem iron is present in liver, meat, poultry, and fish. Non haem iron is present in green leafy vegetable,jaggery and dry fruit. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 623 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common endometrial pattern in dysfunctional uterine bleeding: | [
"Normal",
"Hyperplastic with Swiss-Cheese pattern",
"Nonsecretory",
"Atrophic"
] | A | Endometrial study in DUB Endometrial sampling performed after 5th or 6th day of the onset of menstruation reveals a mixture of secretory and proliferative endometrium absence of any surface epithelium Endometrial study prior or soon after spotting reveals patchy area of secretory changes amidst proliferative endometrium D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,Pg no:188,6th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following changes are seen in dysplasia of squamo-columnar junction, except : | [
"Breaking of basement membrane",
"Change of epithelium",
"Hyperchromatic nuclei",
"Increased mitotic figure"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Breaking of basement membrane Friends before discussing the answer to this question lets first have a look at some impoant terms and their meaning i. Cervical metaplasia :The cervix is composed of columnar epithelium which lines the Endocervix and squamous epithelium which covers the Ectocervix. The point at which they meet is known as squamo-columnar junction. This squamo-columnar junction is at the level of external os.deg Under the influence of hormones the sub columnar cells transform into squamous cells. This changing of one type of epithelium into the other is called as Metaplasia. Metaplastic cells are : Normal cells.deg No Nuclear atypia.deg Do not transform into malignant cells.deg Squamous metaplasia is a normal process and occurs most actively immediately adjacent to the original SCJ, creating a zone of metaplastic epithelium termed as Transformation zone between the original SCJ and columnar epithelium. ii. Dysplasia : Represents a change in which there is alteration in cell morphology and disorderly arrangement of the cells of the stratified squamous epithelium. It is a premalignant lesion. Characteristics of Dysplastic cell : Vary in sizedeg, shapedeg and polaritydeg. Have altered nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio (N/C ratio is increased).deg Have large, irregular hyperchromatic nuclei with marginal condensation of chromatin material.deg Have several mitotic figures. The basement membrane however is intact and there is no stromal infiltration. III. CIN : Term CIN (Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia) : has almost universally replaced WHO classification of dysplasia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of origin of peritoneal deposits is due to? | [
"Stomach cancer",
"Colorectal cancer",
"Pancreatic cancer",
"Ovarian cancer"
] | D | Ans. (d) Ovarian cancerRef: Internet sources* MC site of origin of peritoneal deposit is Gynecology tumors* Stomach cancer producing deposit is known as Blumer's Shelf | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of convulsion on the First day of life in a newborn is - | [
"Anoxia",
"Head Injury",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Hypocalcemia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anoxia Neonatal seizures o The most prominent feature of neurological dysfunction in the neonatal period are seizures. o The five major causes of neonatal seizures are ? 1) Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (hypoxia, anoxia) --> most common 4) Meningitis 2) Hypocalcemia 5) Polycythemia 3) Hypoglycemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulmonary Compliance is decreased in all of the following conditions, except: | [
"Pulmonary Congestion",
"COPD",
"Decreased Surfactant",
"Pulmonary Fibrosis"
] | B | In COPD, compliance is increased and the pressure volume curve is shifted upward and to the left. In a highly compliant lung, as in emphysema, the elastic tissue has been damaged, usually due to their being overstretched by chronic overinflation. Patients with emphysema have a very high lung compliance due to the poor elastic recoil, they have no problem inflating the lungs but have extreme difficulty exhaling air. In this condition extra work is required to get air out of the lungs. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology by William ganong, 22nd edn/page 654 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypocalcemia results in: September 2010 | [
"Absent tendon reflexes",
"Shoened QT interval in ECG",
"Reduced excitability of nerves and muscle cells",
"Tetany"
] | D | Ans. D: TetanyFeatures of hypocalcemia:Petechia which appear as one-off spots, then later become rashes.Perioral tingling and paraesthesia, 'pins and needles' sensation over the extremities of hands and feet. This is the earliest symptom of hypocalcaemia.Tetany, carpopedal spasm are seen.Trousseau sign of latent tetany (eliciting carpal spasm by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining the cuff pressure above systolic)Chvostek's sign (tapping of the inferior poion of the zygoma will produce facial spasms)Tendon reflexes are hyperactiveLife threatening complications- Laryngospasm- Cardiac arrythmiasECG changes include:- Prolonged QT interval- Prolonged ST interval | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the major problem that occurs in imparting oral hygiene instructions to adolescents? | [
"Inability to understand",
"Inability to respond",
"Rebellion against the authority",
"Laziness"
] | C | Teenagers are more prone to rebel against accepted norms and authority. To appear attractive and heroic to their peers, they deliberately ignore orders or instructions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following CNS condition shows positive Tober Ayer test? | [
"Lateral sinus thrombosis",
"Petrositis",
"Cerebral abscess",
"Subarachnoid haemorrhage"
] | A | Tober Ayer test is positive in lateral sinus thrombosis or sigmoid sinus thrombosis. This test is to record CSF pressure by manometer and to see the effect of manual compression of one or both jugular veins. Compression on vein on the thrombosed side produces no effect while compression of vein on healthy side produces rapid rise in CSF pressure which will be equal to bilateral compression of jugular veins. Clinical features of lateral sinus thrombosis: Hectic Picket-fence type of fever with rigors Headache Progressive anemia and emaciation Griesinger's sign Papilloedema Tober Ayer test Crowe-Beck test Tenderness along jugular vein | train | med_mcqa | null |
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