question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The hinge joint articulator was designed by: | [
"Bonwill",
"Gariot",
"Gysi",
"Hanau"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common sets of Metastases of carcinoma bronchi | [
"Liver + Bones",
"Prostate",
"Kidney",
"Breast"
] | A | Distant metastases blood stream are widespread and early.The sites affected,in descending order of involvement,are:the liver,adrenals,bones,pancreas,brain,opposite lung,kidneys & thyroid. Textbook of pathology-6th edition,Harsh Mohan,6th edition,page no:502 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum amount of smooth muscle, in relation to wall thickness, is present in: | [
"Trachea",
"Bronchi",
"Terminal bronchioles",
"Respiratory bronchioles"
] | C | The trachea and upper respiratory passages (first 7 generations) have cailage & glands in their walls but little smooth muscle. They are lined by ciliated epithelium. Intermediate-sized and small-sized bronchi and bronchioles do not contain cailage. Cilia are present till respiratory bronchioles Terminal bronchioles have maximum amount of smooth muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7 yr old boy underwent neurosurgery for craniopharyngioma following which pituitary functions were lost. Which of the following hormone should be replaced first ? | [
"Hydrocoisone",
"Thyroxine",
"Growth hormone",
"Prolactin"
] | A | Hydrocoisone is a coicosteroid mainly used for anti inflammatory action. It may have lot of side effects due to a neurosurgery. Hence, it should be first replaced after a surgery Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Audiogram in early Meniere's disease shows: | [
"Notch at 2 kHz in bone conduction",
"Notch at 4 kHz in air conduction",
"A flat curve",
"A rising curve"
] | D | In early cases of Meniere's disease low frequencies are affected more and the audiogram shows a rising curve. In long-standing cases, audiogram becomes fiat and then falling type.Notch at 2 kHz in bone conduction is typically seen in Carhart's notch seen in otosclerosis (5 dB at 500 Hz, 10 dB at 1000 Hz, 15 dB at 2000 and 5 dB at 4000 Hz).Notch at 4 kHz both in air and bone conduction is seen in noise-induced hearing loss. As the duration of noise exposure increases, notch at 4 kHz deepens and widens to involve other frequencies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Estimation of the degradation products of the cross- linked fibrin fibers in DIC can best, specifically, and accurately be done by which of the following tests? | [
"Fibrinopeptide assay",
"D-dimer assay",
"Euglobin lysis test",
"Coombs test"
] | B | Ans. b (D-dimer assay) (Ref. H - 18th/ch. 116)The quantitative plasma D-dimer ELISA level is elevated (>500 ng/mL) in more than 90% of patients with Pulmonary Embolism, reflecting plasmin's breakdown of fibrin and indicating endogenous (though clinically ineffective) thrombolysis. However, the D-dimer assay is not specific and therefore has no useful role among patients who are already hospitalized. Levels increase in patients with myocardial infarction, sepsis, or almost any systemic illness. The plasma D-dimer ELISA has a high negative predictive value and can be used to help exclude PE. Dimer often elevated in patients withvenous thrombosis. It is a sensitive, but not specific, test for venous thrombosis.DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC)# Activation of coagulation cascade leading to microthrombi and global consumption of platelets, fibrin, and coagulation factors.# Causes- Obstetric complications (most common cause),- Gram-negative sepsis,- Transfusion,- Trauma,- Malignancy,- Acute pancreatitis,- Nephrotic syndrome,# Lab findings- | PT,- | PIT,- | fibrin split products (D-dimers),- | platelet count.- "Helmet-shaped cells and schistocytes" on blood smear.# The quantitative plasma D-dimer enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) level is elevated (>500 ng/mL) in more than 90% of patients with pulmonary embolism, reflecting plasmin's breakdown of fibrin and indicating endogenous (though clinically ineffective) thrombolysis.# However, the D-dimer assay is not specific and levels increase in patients with myocardial infarction, aortic dissection, sepsis, or almost any systemic illness.0# The plasma D-dimer ELISA has a high negative predictive value and can be used to help exclude Pulm embolism, for which it serves as AN EXCELLENT SCREENING TEST, with a sensitivity of 96.4% and negative predictive value of 99.6%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In crutch paralysis most frequently affected nerve is: | [
"Median nerve",
"Radial nerve",
"Axillary nerve",
"Musculocutaneous nerve"
] | C | Crutch paralysis: It follows prolonged use of crutches in the axilla. Most frequently, it involves the radial nerve.Effects of radial nerve injury in the axilla:Motor loss: Loss of extension at elbow due to paralysis of triceps brachiiLoss of extension at wrist (wrist drop)Sensory loss:Loss of sensation over;Posterior surface of lower pa of armDorsum of base of thumb and Small area over back of forearmRef: Concise Anatomy, By KK. Jain, Page 123. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Before pubey, what is the ratio between the cervical length and uterine body: September 2012 | [
"1:02",
"2:01",
"1:03",
"1:04"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. 2:1 The relationship in the length of the cervix and that of the body of the uterus varies with age. Before pubey, the cervix to corpus ratio is 2:1. At pubey this ratio is reversed to 2:1 and during the reproductive years, cervix to corpus ratio may be 1:3 or even 1:4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The alveoli are filled with exudate the air is displaced conveing the lung into a solid organ. This description suggests- | [
"Chronic bronchitis",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Lobar pneumonia"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lobar pneumonia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lymph nodes of which area are not easily palpable? | [
"Axilla",
"Neck",
"Groin",
"Abdomen"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of tinea unguium | [
"Fluticasone",
"Itraconazole",
"Oleamine oil",
"All"
] | B | B i.e. Itraconazole | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Corpus callosum : | [
"Unite far area of two sides of brain",
"Connect two frontal lobe",
"Unite two hemisphere",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Unite far area of two sides of brain; B i.e. Connect two frontal lobe ; C i.e. Unite two hemisphere | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 year old sexually active male presents to his internist with a painless penile vesicle. Physical exam reveals inguinal lymphadenopathy. The infecting organism is definitively diagnosed and is known to exist in distinct extracellular and intracellular forms. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen? | [
"Calymmatobacterium granulomatis",
"Chlamydia trachomatis",
"Haemophilus ducreyi",
"Neisseria gonorrhoeae"
] | B | This patient has lymphogranuloma venereum caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (type L1, 2, or 3). Chlamydia exhibit distinct infectious and reproductive forms. The extracellular infectious form is known as the elementary body (EB), which is incapable of reproduction. It attaches to the host cell and enters through endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the EB is transformed into the reticulate body (RB) within the endosome. The RB is capable of binary fission and divides within the endosome; fusion with other endosomes occurs to form a single large inclusion. Eventually, the RBs undergo DNA condensation and disulfide bond bridgings of the major outer membrane protein, forming EBs. The EBs are then released. Note that C. trachomatis is responsible for several sexually or perinatally transmitted diseases, including ocular trachoma (types A, B, and C), neonatal conjunctivitis, nongonococcal urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (types D-K). Calymmatobacterium granulomatis is a gram-negative rod that causes superficially ulcerated genital or inguinal papules that coalesce to form substantial lesions. The appearance of Donovan bodies in histiocytes is diagnostic of this infection. Haemophilus ducreyi is a gram-negative rod that causes a soft, painful penile chancre, unlike that of a chlamydial or syphilitic lesion. This infection is common in the tropics. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative diplococcus responsible for gonorrhea. Patients typically present with purulent penile discharge, not genital lesions. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Pa IX. Brief Summaries of Medically Impoant Organisms. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animalis- | [
"Bestiality",
"Cunnilingus",
"Tribadism",
"Sin ofgomorrah"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bestiality o Section 377 IPC defines unnatural sexual offences as sexual intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal and lays down punishment for the same. These offences are sodomy, buccal coitus, tribadism (lesbianism), and bestiality'.Sodomyo Sodomy is sexual intercourse through anus. It is of two types : Homosexual and Heterosexual. In Homosexual, it is done by a male on another male. Heterosexual sodomy is anal intercourse with a women. The person who does the act is knowm as active agent and the person, on wrhom the act is done, is known as passive agent. If the passive agent is adult/elderly the act is knowTi as Gerontophilia. If the passive agent in sodomy is a child, act is called Paederasty, the passive agent is labelled as catamite, and the active agent is known as Paedophile,o Examination findings of sodomy areIn active agent: (i) Peculiar smell of anal gland secretion on penis, (ii) Fecal soiling, lubricant (if used) and blood on penis, (iii) Penis shaft is elongated and constricted in habitual sodomites with consequent twisting/ angulation of urethra, (iv) Abrasions on prepuce and glans penis, tearing of frenulum, swelling and redness of penis.In passive agent: Passive agent may beHabitual: (i) Funnel shaped anus with deeply situated ana! opening, (ii) Dilatation and laxity of anal sphincter, (iii) Shaved anal skin, (iv) Anal fissures and piles, (v) Lateral buttock truction test positive: On applying lateral traction on anus in normal person, there will be reflex contraction of anus, but in habitual sodomine there is comple relaxation of sphincter with dilatation of opening.Non-habitual (forcibly victimized) : (i) Presence ofsemen in anus is the only confirmatery evidence, (ii) Signs of violence around anus, i.e. abrasions, fisures, contusion or triangular bruised tear of posterior part of anus (in sudden violence).Other unnatural sexual offenceso Bestiality: is the sexual intercourse by a human being with a lower animal.o Tribadism (Lesbianism or female homosexuality): Sexual gratification of a women is obtained by another woman by kissing, body contact, manipulation of breast and genitalia. Active partner is called dyke or butch and the passive agent is called femme. This is not an offence in India.o Buccal coitus (coitus per as/sin of gomorrah): In this, the male organ is introduced into mouth, usually of a young child. Fellatio is oral stimulation of penis by male or female. Cunnilingus is oral stimulation of female genitals. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The component of vitreous humour that is most useful in determining time since death: | [
"Sodium",
"Potassium",
"Magnesium",
"Calcium"
] | B | Ans. b (Potassium). (Ref. Parikh's textbook of FMT, 6th ed., 2.66)The relationship between the rise of potassium concentration in the vitreous humour and the time since death has been studied by several workers. To improve the accuracy of the method cases with possible ante-mortem electrolyte disturbances can be excluded. Having eliminated these cases with possible ante-mortem electrolyte imbalance, there is a linear relationship between potassium concentration in vitreous and time after death up to 120 hours, but the 95% confidence limits are +- 22 hours. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of euvolemic hyponatremia is which of the following? | [
"Hypothyroidism",
"Hypoadrenalism",
"Hypehyroidism",
"SIADH"
] | D | The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis is the most common cause of euvolemic hyponatremia. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 345 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The proseal LMA has advantage over normal LMA | [
"In being more easy to inse",
"Comparable to endotracheal tube in preventing aspiration",
"Can be inseed in concious patient.",
"Can be used for pulmonary toileting"
] | B | Advantage of proseal LMA over classical LMA is that it is comparable to ETT in preventing aspiration. The PLMA shows several modifications from the cLMA: The drain tube runs through the device from the tip to the proximal end. When the PLMA is correctly positioned, the tip of the device forms a high-pressure seal with the oesophageal inlet and the drain tube runs in continuity with the oesophageal lumen . oesophageal drain tube posterior inflatable cuff reinforced airway tube integral bite block introducer this reduces the risk of aspiration and hence may be suitable in non-supine positions (e.g., lateral, prone), in laparoscopic surgery (e.g., cholecystectomy, gynecological surgery), and in patients who are obese. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Follistatin | [
"Decreased gonadotrope function",
"Increases gonadotrope function",
"Prevents interaction of activin with receptor",
"Stimulates FSH β gene expression"
] | C | Follistatin is gonadal peptide, that suppresses FSH β gene expression thereby preventing interaction of activin with its receptor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Therapeutic index is a measure of which of the parameters? | [
"Efficacy",
"Adverse effects",
"Safety",
"Potency"
] | C | Therapeutic index is a measure of the margin of safety of a drug. Therapeutic index = Median lethal dose/Median effective dose. One estimate of a drug's margin of safety is the ratio LD50/ED50, the therapeutic index, which is a statement of how selective the drug is in producing it's desired versus its adverse effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following concentrations of epinephrine does not correspond to the respective route of administration ? | [
"1 : 10000 for intravenous route",
"1 : 1000 for inhalational route",
"1 : 1000 for intramuscular route",
"1 : 1000 for subcutaneous route"
] | B | For inhalational route, adrenaline b used in a concentration of 1:100 for treatment of bronchial asthma by nebulizer.
Concentration of adrenaline for different routes and indications | train | med_mcqa | null |
Replacing alanine by which amino acid, will increase UV absorbance of protein at 280 nm wavelength? | [
"Tryptophan",
"Arginine",
"Guanine",
"Lysine"
] | A | Aromatic side chains are responsible for the UV absorption of most proteins, which have absorption maxima between 275 nm and 285 nm Basically, this absorption of UV-light is because of conjugated double bonds present in the ring. Aromatic amino acids: Tryptophan Tyrosine Phenylalanine Absorption ismaximum for tryptophan. Since nearly all proteins contain aromatic amino acids, the amount of light absorbed at 280 nm by a protein is used as an indirect measure of protein concentration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
These nail changes are seen in | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Darier disease",
"Onychomycosis"
] | B | Fingernail involvement in psoriasis appears as punctate pitting, onycholysis, nail thickening, or subungual hyperkeratosis The nail matrix will have pitting, which appears as punctate depressions that are small, shallow, and various shapes and sizes. Characteristically, they are isolated and deep, though they may occur as regular lines or grid-like pattern. The nail is dull, rough, and fragile The nail bed may have "oil" spots, which are oval, salmon-coloured nail beds, and there may be onycholysis secondary to "oil" spots affecting hyponychium medially or laterally. Secondary infections may occur. The nail plate may become raised off the hyponychium (subungual hyperkeratosis). The most frequent signs of nail matrix disease are pitting, leukonychia, crumbling, and red spots in the lunula, whereas salmon patches or oil spots, subungual hyperkeratosis, onycholysis, and splinter hemorrhages represent changes of nail bed psoriasis Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 347; Fitzpatrick dermatology | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 27-year old male presents with low backache, that occurs early in the morning, associated with stiffness, and persists for more than 30 minutes. On examination, his chest expansion is also restricted. The most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Oteoarthritis",
"Gouty arthritis",
"Ankylosing spondylitis"
] | D | Ans. d. Ankylosing spondylitis (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2169, 18/e p2774)A 27-year old male presents with low backache that occurs early in the morning, associated with stiffness, and persists for more than 30 minutes. On examination, his chest expansion is also restricted. The most probable diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis.History of back pain, which is more in the morning and relieved by bathing in warm water is characteristic of spondylo arthropathy, like ankylosing spondylitis. Ankylosing spondylitis leads to extra-parenchymal restrictive lung disease, associated with decreased chest wall expansion."Ankylosing Spondylitis: The initial symptom is usually dull pain, insidious in onset, felt deep in the lower lumbar or gluteal region, accompanied by low-back morning stiffness of up to a few hours 'duration that improves with activity and returns following inactivity. "- Harrison 19/e p2170"Ankylosing Spondylitis: Initially; physical findings mirror the inflammatory process. The most specific findings involve loss of spinal mobility, with limitation of anterior and lateral flexion and extension of the lumbar spine and of chest expansion. Limitation of motion is usually out of proportion to the degree of bony ankylosis, reflecting muscle spasm secondary to pain and inflammation. Pain in the sacroiliac joints may be elicited either with direct pressure or with stress on the joints. In addition, there is commonly tenderness upon palpation at the sites of symptomatic bony tenderness and paraspinous muscle spasm. ''-- Harrison 19/e p2170A. Obstructive lung diseaseB. Restrictive lung disease* Asthma* Bronchiectasis* Bronchiolitis* Cystic fibrosis* COPD (Chronic bronchitis, Emphysema)Mnemonic- "ABCDE"ParenchymalExtra Parenchymal* Sarcoidosis* Pneumoconiosis* Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis* Drug/Radiation induced interstitial lung disease* Neuromuscular diseases:- Diaphragmatic palsy- Guillain-Barre syndrome- Muscular dystrophy- Cervical spine injury* Chest wall diseases:- Kyphoscoliosis- Obesity- Ankylosing spondylitisAnkylosing Spondylitis/Marie-Strumpell or Bchtrew's diseaseEtiology & Pathogenesis:More than 90% patients of AS are HLA B27 positiveQ.The enthesis. the site of ligament attachment to bone is primary site of pathology in ASQ.Sacroilitis is the earliest manifestation with features of both enthesitis & synovitisQ.Clinical Presentation:Males are affected more frequently than females.Age of onset is 15-25 years (late adolescence & early adulthood )Q.The initial symptom is usually dull pain, insidious in onset, accompanied by low back morning stiffness of up to few hours duration that improves with activity and returns following period of inactivityQ.Arthritis in hips & shoulders (root joints) occur in 25-35%Q.Peripheral joints (usually shoulder, hips & knees) are involved in one third of patientsQ.Most serious complication of spinal disease is spinal fracture with even minor trauma.MC extra-articular manifestation is acute anterior uveitis (iridocyclitis)Q.Diagnosis:Radiological Examination(The following changes may be seen on an X-ray of the pelvis)* Haziness of sacro-iliac jointsQ* Irregular subchondral erosions in SI jointsQ* Sclerosis of the articulating surfaces of SI jointsQ* Widening of sacro-iliac joint spaceQ* Bony ankylosis of the sacro-iliac jointsQ* Calcification of the sacro-iliac ligaments and sacro- tuberous ligaments* Evidence of enthesopathy: Calcification at the attachment of the muscles, tendons and ligaments, particularly around the pelvis & heelQ.X-ray of Lumbar spine in Ankylosing Spondylitis* Squaring of vertebraQ: The normal anterior concavity of the vertebral body is lost because of calcification of the anterior tongitudinai ligament* Loss of lumbar lordosisQ* Bridging osteophytes (syndesmophytes)Q* Bamboo spine appearanceQ due to syndesmophytes & paravertebral ossificationTreatment:Phenylbutazone is the most effective drugQ (causes aplastic anemia).Indomethacin is most commonly used NSAIDQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following permanent tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment? | [
"Canines",
"Maxillary first permanent molar",
"1st molar",
"2nd molar"
] | A | The teeth least commonly extracted is canine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of α- haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent : | [
"Bacitracin",
"Novobiocin",
"Optochin",
"Cloxacillin"
] | C | “Sensitivity to bacitracin is employed as a convenient method for differentiating Str. pyogenes from other hemolytic streptococci.” | train | med_mcqa | null |
Green discharge is most commonly seen with | [
"Duct papilloma",
"Duct ectasia",
"Retention cyst",
"Fibro adenosis"
] | B | A black or green discharge is usually the result of duct ectasia and its complications. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pg no : 864 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bart hemoglobin consist of | [
"Four γ chains",
"Four β chains",
"Two γ chains + Two β chains",
"Two α chains + Two γ chains"
] | A | Bart hemoglobin is tetramer of four γ chains. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thiopentone is not used in- | [
"Induction of anesthesia",
"Medically induced coma",
"As truth serum",
"As antidepressant"
] | D | Ans, is 'd' i.e., As antidepressant o See Above explanation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The conversion of C02 and H20 into carbonic acid during the formation of aqueous humor is catalysed by which one of the following enzymes | [
"Carboxylase",
"Carbamylase",
"Carbonic anhydrase",
"Carbonic deoxygenase"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' ie carbonic anhydrase (Ref: Parson, 19/e, p166; Kanski, 5/e, p193; Chatterjee Shinde Biochemistry. 6/e, p629).Nowhere could 1 find a direct answer. The points in favour of the above answer are --Of all the above options, carbonic anhydrase is the only enzyme which catalyzes the reversible reaction :CO2+H2O =H2 CO3Kanski writes - "Aqueous humor is actively secreted by the non pigmented epithelium as a result of a metabolic process that depends on several enzyme systems, specially the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, which secretes Na+ ions into the posterior chamber. Water follows passively along the osmotic gradient. Carbonic anhydrase also plays a role, but the precise mechanism is uncertain."Parson writes - "Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors block the action of carbonic anhydrase and reduce the production of aqueous in the eye." | train | med_mcqa | null |
While testing the deleterious health hazards on a group of people after giving a drug and a placebo, the following results were obtained: Number of people Number of people affected Placebo 15225 1605 Drug 15225 1804 Which of the following is true? | [
"Relative risk reduction is (RRR) 11% Absolute risk reduction(ARR) is 11%",
"RRR 11%, ARR 1%",
"RRR 1%, ARR 11%",
"RRR 1%, ARR 1%"
] | B | Absolute Risk Reduction(ARR) = Reduction in outcome between new drug and placebo in absolute terms Relative risk reduction(RRR)= Relative or percentage reduction in outcome between new drug and placebo. Event rate for drug(Ed)= 1804/15225 x 100= 0.118 Event rate for placebo(Ep)= 1605/15225 x 100= 0.105 ARR= Ed-Ep= 0.013=1.3% RRR= Ed-Ep/Ed= 0.013/0.118= 0.11=11% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Air on X-rays appears - | [
"White",
"Black",
"Grey",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Black o Structures that are dense (such as bone) will block most of the x-ray particles, and will appear white.o Metal and contrast media (special dye used to highlight areas of the body) will also appear white.o Structures containing air will be black, and muscle, fat, and fluid will appear as shades of gray. | train | med_mcqa | null |
any behaviour is assosiated with reward will be increased in frequency. this is based on | [
"mindfulness therapy",
"behavior therapy",
"psychodynamic therapy",
"cognitive therapy"
] | B | Behavioral therapy is learning given by BF Skinner , according to him all behaviors are learned phenomenon and thus can be unlearned Positive reinforcement a type of reinforcement when a behavior is rewarded there is more chance that the behavior is repeated Negative reinforcement is that when a behavior is done and an aversive response is removed, the behavior is repeated. When I go and meet my girlfriend, she checks my messages and picks up fight (aversive response) suddenly I delete all messages one day and that day there was no fight (no aversive response) then that behavior is repeated (delete all messages before meeting my girlfriend) Extinction is the type of reinforcement where a behavior is done and a rewarding response is removed the chance is that behavior will not be repeated A child likes to play with children( reward) but when the child fights with other children( undesirable behavior) the child will be removed from playing( removing a reward) , then the child stops fighting with other children( reduction of undesirable behaviour) Ref. kaplon and sadock synopsis, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In X-Ray right border of mediastinum is formed by all except: | [
"SVC",
"Right Atrium",
"Right Ventricle",
"Right Brachiocephalic Vein"
] | C | C i.e. Right Ventricle Right hea border on chest x-ray PA view is formed by right atrium with its draining tributaries SVC & IVCQ. Right aspect of ascending thoracic aoa and right innominate/brachiocephalic vesselsQ are also involved sometimes in forming right border. But right ventricle does not form the right border of the hea or mediastinum. It forms the anterior border of hea visible on lateral film. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rosenthal fibres arr seen in which of the following tumors | [
"Pilocytic astrocytoma",
"Glioblastoma",
"Medulloblastoma",
"Ependymoma"
] | A | Refer Robbins page no 1309 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rideal - walker test is used to compare the efficiency of a disinfectant with that of phenol for the ability to kill | [
"S typhi",
"S paratyphi",
"Pseudomonas",
"E.coli"
] | A | Rideal - walker test / phenol coefficient test - abilty to sterilize the suspension of S.typhi. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following local anaesthetics are not vasodilators | [
"Lignocaine",
"Bupivacaine",
"Benzocaine",
"Tetracaine"
] | A | Lignocaine has no vasogenic action. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CyAMP acts as a second messenger of: | [
"FSH",
"Growth hormone",
"Thyroxine",
"Insulin"
] | A | A i.e. FSH | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hormones are best assessed by? | [
"Flowcytometry",
"Electrophoresis",
"ELISA",
"RIA"
] | D | Radioimmunoassay (RIA ) permits the measurement of analytes up to picogram quantities. RIA and its modifications have versatile applications in various areas of biology and medicine, including quantitation of hormones, drugs, tumor markers. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:113 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infant mortality rate does NOT include: | [
"Post neonatal Mortality",
"Early neonatal Mortality",
"Perinatal Mortality",
"Late neonatal Mortality"
] | C | Ans (c) Perinatal MortalityRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 567, 19th/ 449 fig 9Perinatal Mortality Rate (PMR)PMR =--------------------------------------Live births in the same year x 1000Perinatal Mortality Rate (PMR)=Late fetal deaths + Early neonatal deaths----------------------------------Late fetal deaths + live birthsx 100Where Late fetal means 28 weeks gestation or more; Early neonatal means first week | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anemia of chronic disease is characterized by all,except - | [
"Decreased serum iron",
"Increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC)",
"Increased serum ferritin",
"Increased macrophage iron in bone marrow"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leon William's classification given an idea about | [
"Number of teeth and size of the arch",
"Residual alveolar ridge",
"Form of tooth and face",
"Colour of artificial teeth"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antemortem and postmortem wounds could be differentiated by all, except - | [
"Everted margins",
"Blood clots in surrounding",
"Swollen edges",
"Sharp edges"
] | D | Antemortem wound shows gaping, everted and swollen edges with vital reactions of inflammation, infection and healing.
It bleeds freely and shows extensive, deep and firmly adherent clotting (staining) of surrounding tissue which can't be washed away. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver is found in: | [
"Gauchers disease",
"Obstructive jaundice",
"Von gierkes disease",
"Nieman pick disease"
] | D | Niemann-Pick diseases are genetic diseases which are classified in a subgroup of LSDs called sphingolipidoses or lipid storage disorders in which harmful quantities of fatty substances, or lipids, accumulate in the spleen, liver, lungs, bone marrow, and brain.In the classic infantile type A variant, a missense mutation causes complete deficiency of sphingomyelinase. Sphingomyelin is a component of cell membrane including the organellar membrane and so the enzyme deficiency blocks degradation of lipid, resulting in the accumulation of sphingomyelin within lysosomes in the macrophage-monocyte phagocyte lineage.Histology demonstrates lipid laden macrophages in the marrow, as well as "sea-blue histiocytes" on pathology. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is contraindicated in liver disease? | [
"Sitagliptin",
"Saxagliptin",
"Vildagliptin",
"Alogliptin"
] | C | Viidagliptin is a DPP - 4 inhibitor which can lead to hepatotoxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In step back technique, the file used for measuring working length is 25 no and it is the first file to be used for Phase 2 i.e. step back technique, the file used for recapitulation will be | [
"No 10",
"No 15",
"No 20",
"No 25"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Audio analgesia is: | [
"Source of distraction",
"Pain killer",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | Audio analgesia: or" white noise” is a method of reducing pain. This technique consists of providing a sound stimulus of such intensity that the patient finds it difficult to attend to anything else (Gardner, Licklider, 1959). Auditory stimulus such as pleasant music has been used to reduce stress and also reduce the reaction to pain.
Shobha Tandon 2nd Ed p:150 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total space analysis by Merrifield requires: | [
"Study cast and radiograph",
"Study cast and reference table",
"Study cast and cephalogram",
"All of the above"
] | C | Total space analysis by Merrifield;
Requires study casts and cephalograms.
Divides the lower arch into anterior, middle and posterior areas.
The discrepancy for each area is calculated and the resultant value is added to yield the total discrepancy of the arch.
Total space analysis as described by Merrifield is divided into three parts anterior, midarch and posterior.
This is done for simplicity in identifying the area of space deficit or surplus, as well as accuracy in differential diagnosis.
Ref: Graber 6th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ninhydrin test is used for ? | [
"Bile salts",
"Amino acids",
"Nucleic acid",
"Lipids"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amino acids Impoant chemical reactions of amino acids Following are some impoant chemical reactions. A. Reaction used to determine amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain : - Generally, amino terminal (N-terminal) of amino acid is tagged with some reagent. It is split off by hydrolysis and tagged amino acid is identified. The reaction is, then, repeated with new N-terminal of subsequent amino acid and so on. The two reactions are used for identification of amino acid sequence : ? Sanger's reaction : - Uses Sanger's reagent ( 1 -fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene) to tag amino terminal. Edman's reaction : - Uses Edman's reagent (phenylisothiocyanate) to tag amino terminal. B. Reaction used to identification of individual or group of amino acids : - These reactions are frequently used for qualitative detection and quantitative measurement of various amino acids. Ninhydrin tese : - All a-amino acids. Xanthophoretic reaction : - Aromatic amino acidse (Tyrosine, tryptophan, phenylalanine). Millan's teste (Millon-Nasse reaction) : - Tyrosinedeg (phenol group of tyrosine). Therefore millon's test is positive in tyrosinosisdeg. Aldehyde test : - Tryptophan (indole ring) Hopkins-tole reaction : - Tryptophan (indole ring) Sakaguch's reaction : - Arginine (guanidinium group of arginine). Sulphur test : - Cysteine (sulphydryl group) Nitroprusside test : - Cysteine (sulphydryl group) Pauly's test : - Histidine (imidazole group) Biuret reaction : - Peptide bond Diazo reaction Q (Pauli's) : - Histidine or tyrosine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child of 4 years can do all of the following except: September 2009 | [
"Skip",
"Goes down stairs one foot per step",
"Tell a story",
"Copies triangle"
] | D | Ans. D: Copies Triangle Milestones achieved by a 4 year old child: A. Motor: Goes down stairs one foot per step Skips on one foot Imitates gate with cubes Copies a cross B. Speech: Questioning at its height. Many infantile substitutions in speech Says a song; tells stories C. Other: Dresses and undresses with assistance. Attends to own toilet needs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Service applied, staff recruitement, staff trained, Equipment ordered, equipment installed, product delivered which is the critical step | [
"Staff recruitment",
"Staff trained",
"Equipment ordered",
"Equipment installed"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Equipment installed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the predominant immunoglobulin isotype secreted in the human MALT? | [
"IgA",
"IgD",
"IgG",
"IgE"
] | D | Ans. (d)The vast majority of the antibody generated in the human MALT (Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues) is of the IgA isotype. IgE, IgG and IgM are present, but at far lower levels, and IgD is essentially absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nevirapine belongs to the following group: | [
"Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNI)",
"Protease inhibitor",
"Fusion inhibitor",
"Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor (NI)"
] | A | Nevirapine is a Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor. Ref: K D Tripathi Textbook of Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 725-31 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhibitor of F0F1 ATPase in electron transpo chain is | [
"Antimycin",
"Oligomycin",
"2,4 nitrophenol",
"Barbiturate"
] | B | Oligomycin is a group of Streptomyces macrolides that bind to the Oligomycin sensitivity-conferring protein (OSCP) at the F(o) subunits 6 and 9 which are found in the stalk of the F1F0-ATPase complex. This binding blocks proton conductance across the synthase complex and inhibits the synthesis of mitochondrial ATP. As an additional result, the proton pumps of the electron transpo chain are unable to operate because the gradient becomes too strong for them to overcome. NADH is then no longer oxidized and the citric acid cycle ceases to operate because the NAD+ concentrationfalls below the concentration that these enzymes can use.1,2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following type of receptor is involved in malignant hypehermia ? | [
"Nicotinic receptor",
"Ryanodine receptor",
"Muscarinic receptor",
"None"
] | B | Malignant hypehermia (MH) is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait with reduced penetrance. It is associated with mutations in 2 genes: RyR1 (ryanodine receptor type 1), which encodes the skeletal muscle isoform of the calcium release channel of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and CACNA1S, which encodes the alpha subunit of the L-type calcium channel isoform of the sarcolemma (dihydropyridine receptor). The RyR1 gene is located on chromosome 19. Malignant hypehermia (MH) is a subclinical myopathy that allows large quantities of calcium to be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) of skeletal muscle and cause a hypermetabolic state after exposure to triggering agents. Altered calcium channel gating kinetics in the SR is the underlying cause. The sustained elevation of calcium allows excessive stimulation of aerobic and anaerobic glycolytic metabolism, which accounts for respiratory and metabolic acidosis, rigidity, altered cell permeability, and hyperkalemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
EEG of an infant with early morning jerks is as shown | [
"Hypsarrhythmia",
"Burst and suppression pattern",
"Periodic spike and wave pattern",
"Rademacker complex"
] | A | Ans. (a) Hypsarrhythmia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pre-exposure prophylaxis dose schedule for rabies vaccine given in all days except ? | [
"Day 0",
"Day 3",
"Day 7",
"Day 28"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Day 3 Prevention of rabies Prevention of rabies may be of following types Post exposure prophylaxis Preexposure prophylaxis Post-exposure treatment of persons who have been vaccinated previously. Schedules of vaccination for post exposure prophylaxis A. Intramuscular schedules Routine shedule- 6 doses on 0, 3, 7, 14 and 28 days with a booster on day 90. Abbreted multisite schedule -4 2-1-1 regimen one dose is given in the right arm and one in left arm on day 0 after that one dose is given on day 7 and 21. B. Intradremal schedules 2-site intradermal schedule One dose of vaccine is given at each of two sites on days 0, 3, 7 and 28. 8-site intradermal schedule- On day "0" vaccine is give at 8 sites, on day 7 vaccine is given at 4 sites, and on days 28 and 90 vaccine is given at one site. Pre-exposure prophylaxis Persons who run a high risk of repeated exposure such as laboratory staff working with rabies virus, veterinarian, animal handlers and wild -life officers should be protected by pre-exposure immunization. Cell-culture vaccine given on days 0, 7 and 21 or 28 (Total 3 doses) Fuher booster should be given at intervals of 2 years. In post-exposure prophylaxis of immunized patient 2 day intradermal regimen ( 1 site) - Day 0 and day 3 Intramuscular regimen - Day 0 4 site intradermal regimen_ (single-visit) - Day 0 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except - | [
"CD 23",
"CD 20",
"CD 5",
"CD 43"
] | A | Mantle cell lymphomas express high levels of cyclin D1.Most tumours also express CD19,CD20 and moderately high levels of surface Ig.It is usually CD5 positive and CD 23 negetive, which helps to distinguish it from CLL/SLL. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 603 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of Metropathia haemorrhagica | [
"Occurs in younger women",
"Uterus is bulky",
"Menorrhagia",
"Endometrial hyperplasia"
] | A | Metropathic haemorrhagica: Seen in women between 40 and 45 years Continuous painless vaginal bleeding Uterus is slightly bulky Endometrium shows cystic glandular hyperplasia Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 133. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rarest variety of pemphigus is | [
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Pemphigus vegetans",
"Pemphigus foliaceus",
"Pemphigus erythematodes"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
First order kinetics is characterized by: | [
"Dose independent elimination",
"Decreasing clearance as plasma concentration increases",
"Increasing rate of elimination as plasma concentration increases",
"No relationship between rate of elimination and plasma concentration"
] | C | First order (exponential) kinetics; The rate of elimination is directly propoional to the drug concentration, Clearance remains constant, or a constant fraction of the drug present in the body is eliminated in unit time. Ref:KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 30) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ebstein anomaly - causes | [
"Left atrial enlargement",
"Right atrial enlargement",
"Left ventricular enlargement",
"Right venticular enlargement"
] | B | Ebstein anomaly is association with Right atrial enlargement. Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:423 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following conditions are observed in Marasmus, except - | [
"Hepatomegaly",
"Muscle wasting",
"Low insulin levels",
"Extreme weakness"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hepatomegaly Changes in body composition in P.E.M. o Fluid considerations? Total body water in malnourished children is increased to 70-80% of body weight as compared to 60% in age matched well noarished controls. Activity of the sodium pump* is reduced. o Metabolic alterations. B.M.R. is reduced by 30% and energy expenditure due to inactivity is very low Child may behave like poikilotherm. o Endocrine changes. Insulin levels are reduced (child has glucose intolerance) Coisol and growth hormone levels are increased. o Cardiovascular system Cardiac output and stroke volume are reduced Blood pressure is low and renal perfusion is compromised. o Renal function Glomerular.filtration rate and renal plasma flow are reduced in severe P.E.M. Urinary phosphate and sodium excretion are reduced. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orbital septum formed by? | [
"Palpebral ligament",
"Lacrimal bone",
"Optic nerve fascia",
"Optic sheath"
] | A | The palpebral fascia is the thin fibrous membrane that connects the tarsi ( two thin plates of condensed fibrous tissue that form the skeleton of the eyelids and provide them stiffness) to the orbital margins and forms the orbital septum with them. Medially it passes posterior to the lacrimal sac and attached to the posterior margin of the lacrimal groove that lodges the lacrimal sac.The upper palpebral fascia in the upper eyelid is pierced by the fibres of levator palpebrae superioris, palpebral pa of lacrimal gland and nerves and vessels that pass from orbit to the face.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck, and Brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.62 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In children atopic dematitis is associated with increase in- | [
"Immunoglobulin A",
"Immunoglobul in E",
"Immunoglobulin G",
"Immunoglobulin M"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following describes the flavouring substance asafoetida (Fling)? | [
"Dried leaf extract",
"Exudate from chopped roots",
"Pith of stem boiled and dried",
"Dried and hardened paste of fruit"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Exudate from chopped roots | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding Crohn disease except: March 2008 | [
"Skip lesions",
"Inflammation limited to mucosa",
"Recurrence common after surgery",
"Fistulae formation is seen"
] | B | Ans. B: Inflammation limited to mucosaFeatures of Crohn disease:Bowel region: Ileum, colonDistribution: skip lesionStricture formation: YesWall appearance: thickInflammation: transmuralUlcers:deep, knife-likeLymphoid reaction: markedFibrosis: markedSerositis: markedGranuloma formation: Yes (35%)Fistula/sinuses: YesFat/vitamin malabsorption: YesRecurrence after surgery: CommonToxic megacolon: No | train | med_mcqa | null |
The effect of cholera toxin is mediated the stimulation of following second messenger: | [
"cAMP",
"cGMP",
"Calcium-calmodulin",
"Acetylcholine"
] | A | Ans. (a) cAMP | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phlegmon is a | [
"Sexually transmitted disease",
"Type of celtulites",
"Type of osteomyelitis",
"Venereal disease"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Training period for anganwadi worker ? | [
"3 months",
"4 months",
"6 months",
"1 year"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4 monthsAnganwadi workers are under ICDS scheme.There is an anganwadi worker for a population of 400-800 in plains and 300-800 in hilly/tribal areas.She undergoes training in various aspects of health, nutrition and development for 4 months.She is a pa-time worker.She is paid an honorarium of Rs. 1500 per month. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dapsone is used in all except : | [
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Leprosy",
"Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia",
"Tuberculosis"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following cells are normally in the G0 stage of the cell cycle and hence not proliferating, but are capable of dividing in response to injury? | [
"Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract",
"Parenchyma of most solid organs",
"Neurons",
"Skeletal muscles"
] | B | Stable tissues are made up of cells that are normally in the G0 stage of the cell cycle and hence not proliferating, but they are capable of dividing in response to injury or loss of tissue mass. These tissues include the parenchyma of most solid organs, such as liver, kidney, and pancreas. Endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and smooth muscle cells are also normally quiescent but can proliferate in response to growth factors, a reaction that is particularly important in wound healing.
Robin’s Textbook of pathology 10th ed Page 88 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is impoant in calculation of pearl index | [
"Number of aboions",
"Total accidental pregnancies",
"Socioeconomic status",
"Total gestational period"
] | B | Pearl index is defined as the number of failures per 100 woman years of exposure (HWY) Failure rate per Hundred Women Years = Total accidental pregnancies X 1200/ Total months of exposure Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 510 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thalidomide acts through : | [
"Inhibiting angiogenesis",
"Inhibiting thymidylate synthase",
"Inhibition of Topo–isomerase I",
"Inhibition of Topo–isomerase II"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ovarian tumor which is most likely to be associated with virilization is | [
"Granulosa tumor",
"Seoli-Leydig cell tumor",
"Immature teratoma",
"Gonadoblastoma"
] | B | Seoli-Leydig cell tumors, which represent less than 1% of ovarian tumors, may produce symptoms of virilization. Histologically, they resemble fetal testes; clinically, they must be distinguished from other functioning ovarian neoplasms as well as from tumors of the adrenal glands, since both adrenal tumors and Seoli-Leydig tumors produce androgens. Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynaecology; 16th edition; Chapter 33; Ovarian tumors | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prussak's space is related to - | [
"Mesotympanum",
"Epitympanum",
"Hypotympanum",
"Inner ear"
] | B | Ans. is 'B' i.e., Epitympanum o The middle ear lies between the tympanic membrane laterally and the cochlea medially. The middle ear (tympanic cavity) is divided into Mesotympanum (tympanic cavity proper) It is the narrowest part of tympanic cavity (transverse dimension is 2 mm). It lies opposite to pars tensa. Epitympamim (attic) It is the part of tympanic cavity which extends above the tympanic membrane (pars tensa) and lies opposite (medial) to shrapnel's membrane (pars flacida) and bony lateral attic wall. It is the widest part of tympanic cavity (transverse dimension is 6 mm). Epitympanum (attic) communicates with mastoid air cell system, through a small opening called aditus. Prussak's space communicates with epitympanum through a posterior gap. Attic area (epitympanum) is a crowded place and only a thin plat of bone (tegmen) separates this region from middle cranial fossa. Any infection in this area is prone to affect the temporal lobe of brain through erosion of this plate. Infections and inflammations in this area are considered to be unsafe due to impending intracranial complications. C) Hypotympanuni # It is the part of the tympanic cavity which extends below the pars tensa. Its transverse dimension is 4 mm. o Sometimes the portion of middle ear around the tympanic orifice of the eustachian tube is called as protympanum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young adult presents with night blindness and tubular vision. On examination, Intraocular Pressure was observed to be 18 mm and the anterior segment was unremarkable. Fundoscopy showed attenuation of arterioles and waxy pallor of the optic disc with bony corpuscles like spicules of pigmentation in mid peripheral retina. Ring scotomas were observed on perimetry. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis: | [
"Pigmentary retinal dystrophy",
"Primary open angle glaucoma",
"Lattice degeneration of retina",
"Diabetic retinopathy"
] | A | Ans. (a) Pigmentary Retinal DystrophyRef Kanski 7/e, p. 653The classical triad of arteriolar attenuation, bone spicule pigmentation and waxy disc pallor along with ..... Ring scotoma suggests the diagnosis to Typical Retinitis Pigmentosa or pigmentary Retinal Dystrophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common cause of chronic pancreatitis: | [
"Chronic alcohol intake",
"Trauma",
"Pancreas divisum",
"Gallbladder stones"
] | A | - Chronic Pancreatitis - M/C cause - chronic alcohol intake>smoking Aetiology: TIGAR-O-Classification: T: Toxic metabolic I: Idiopathic G: Genetic A: Auto immune R: Recurrent severe O: Obstructive Note: Rare causes: Congenital abnormalities such as: 1. Pancreas divisum2. Annular pancreas | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin secretion is normally stimulated by | [
"GLP-1",
"GLP-2",
"VIP",
"Adrenergic receptor"
] | A | Insulin secretion is normally stimulated by GLP-1. Glucagon like peptide-1 (GLP-1) and glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide(GIP) are called incretins and potent stimulators of insulin secretion. They also inhibit glucagon secretion. They are released in the gastrointestinal tract after a person eats a meal. They then cause an "anticipatory" increase in blood insulin in preparation for the glucose and aminoacids to be absorbed from the meal. Factors affecting insulin secretion Stimulators Inhibitors Glucose 2-Deoxyglucose Mannose Mannoheptulose Glucagon Somatostatin Aminoacids- leucine arginine Intestinal hormones- GIP, GLP-1, gastrin, secretin, CCK K+ depletion Acetlycholine (parasympathetic stimulation) Leptin b-adrenergic stimulators Theophylline Sulfonylureas a-adrenergic stimulators (norepinephrine, epinephrin) b-adrenergic blockers (propanalol) Diazoxide Thiazide diuretics Phenytoin Alloxan Microtubule inhibitors (Taxanes, Vinca, alkaloids) Insulin Ref: Guyton and Hall 13th edition PGno: 991 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old paddy farmer presented with fever, chills, headache and myalgias for 2 days. The patient also complained of acute onset of cough, shoness of breath and few episodes of hemoptysis. On examination, scleral icterus was present. There is a history of minor lower limb injury while working in the fields, which were infested with rats. Lab findings revealed anemia, leukocytosis, deranged RFTs, prolonged PT and aPTT, increased serum bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Blood cultures were collected. Dark field microscopy and cultures were done. MAT test was also done. Which electrolyte will be most likely seen in the above condition: - | [
"Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia",
"Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia",
"Hypokalemia and hypernatremia",
"Hypokalemia and hyponatremia"
] | D | This is a case of Weil's syndrome/ Leptospira infection. Presents with a triad of: - Hemorrhage Acute kidney injury Jaundice Rats are an impoant reservoir. Renal involvement: - Acute tubular damage Interstitial nephritis Non-oliguric hypokalemic injury Hypokalemia and hyponatremia Wasting of magnesium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sarcoma of the soft tissues spread by | [
"Blood vessels",
"Lymphatics",
"Direct invasion",
"Local infiltration"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pain, temperature, touch from pulp are carried by which one of the following type nerve fibres? | [
"A alpha",
"A beta",
"A delta",
"Fibres"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Based on Epidemiological studies, which of the following has been found to be most protective against carcinoma colon | [
"High fiber diet",
"Low fat diet",
"Low selenium diet",
"Low protein diet"
] | A | dietary factos involved in development of carcinoma colon are .- Red meat and saturated fat increases the incidence of colonic cancer. - Cholesterol increases the bile acid concentration in the intestinal lumen which acts as cocarcinogen. - High fibre diet protects the colon against cancer. - Calcium in diet prevents colonic cancer by combining with bile salts and reducing bile salt concentration in the colon. It directly acts on the colonic mucosal cells to reduce their proliferative potential. - Diet with lack of fibre increases the risk. Diet with high fat increases the risk. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 834 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 37-day-old baby presented to the Pediatrics ER with increased respiratory effo along with grunting. Mother says he is always irritable, feeds very poorly and has not gained weight. History of frequent respiratory infections in the past 2 weeks O/E, Wide pulse pressure along with bounding peripheral pulses Hyperkinetic apex Continuous murmur in 2nd left intercostal space. The structure involved in the above condition develops from which embryological structure: - | [
"Left sixth arch",
"Right sixth arch",
"Left fifth arch",
"Right fifth arch"
] | A | Chest x-ray shows marked cardiomegaly with dilatation of the main pulmonary aery and bilateral pulmonary plethora ECG tells la dilatation, LV hyperophy and left axis detion which points towards the diagnosis of PDA. The left sixth aoic arch is responsible for the development of both the pulmonary aeries and the ductus aeriosus. Without regression of the ductus aeriosus, a patent connection remains between aoa and the pulmonary trunk. The ductus aeriosus often reaches functional closure within 24 hours after bih, whereas anatomic closure and subsequent formation of the ligamentum aeriosum often occur by the twelfth postnatal week. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following transmissions meiosis occurs? | [
"Primary to secondary spermatocyte",
"Second spermatocyte to globular spermatid",
"Germ cells to spermatogonium",
"Spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte"
] | A | Ans A. primary to secondary spermatocyte | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies | [
"Adductor pollicis",
"Flexor digitorum superficialis",
"1st Lumbrical",
"2nd Lumbrical"
] | A | Muscles supplied by deep branch of ulnar nerve are - Muscles of hypothenar eminence, medial two lumbricals , 4-1 dorsal interossei muscles and 4-1 palmar interossei and adductor pollicis 1st and 2nd lumbricals are supplied by digital nerves from median nerve. Nerve supplying flexor digitorum superficialis comes from median nerve in the cubital fossa. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 182 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vit. A deficiency is characterized by - | [
"Bitot's spot",
"Xerophthalmia",
"Night blindness",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bitot's spot; 'b' i.e., Xerophthalmia; 'c' i.e., Night blindness o The most characteristic and specific signs of vitamin A deficiency are eye lesions. o These develop before the age of 2 years. o The term xerophthalmia comprises all the occular manifestations of vitamin A deficiency. Xerophthalmia (MI eye) It Is a syndrome due to deficiency of vitamin A. o It has following stages 1. Night blindness --> Earliest ocular .symptom 2. Conjuctival xerosis Earliest ocular sign 3. Bitot's spot 4. Corneal xerosis 5. Keratomalacia & cornea! ulcers | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a sign of severe dehydration? | [
"Tachycardia",
"Anuria",
"Increased thirst",
"Delayed capillary refill"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased thirst * Increased thirst is a feature of mild dehydration.Clinical evaluation of DehydrationA) Mild dehydration# Normal or increased pulse# Decreased urine output# Thirsty# Normal physical findingsB) Moderate dehydration :-# Tachycardia# Little or no urine output# Irritable/lethargic# Sunken eyes and fontanel# Decreased tears# Dry mucous membranes# Mild delay in elasticity (skin turgor)# Delayed capillary refill (1.5 sec)# Cool and paleC) Severe dehydration# Peripheral pulses either rapid and weak or absent# Decreased blood pressure# No urine output# Very sunken eyes and fontanel# No tears# Parched mucous membrane# Delayed elasticity (poor skin turgor)# Very delayed capillary refill (> 3 sec)# Cold and mottled# Limp# Depressed consciousness | train | med_mcqa | null |
What are the symptoms of mobile retroversion of uterus | [
"Dyspareunia",
"Back ache",
"Dysmenorrhoea and Is asymptomatic",
"All"
] | D | All | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of congenital sensineuronal hearing loss - | [
"Parvovirus",
"CMV",
"Rubella",
"Toxoplasmosis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., CMV * Cytomegalovirus - Most common viral cause of congenital viral deafness* Mumps - Most common cause viral of acquired sensorineural hearing loss. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for malaria in pregnancy is : | [
"Proguanil",
"Chloroquine",
"Artemisinin",
"Halofantrine"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the least common site of pain in a case of rheumatoid ahritis? NOT RELATED- OHO | [
"Cervical",
"Knee",
"Low back",
"Ankle"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with congestive heart failure was started on digoxin and diuretics. He later presents with bradycardia and GIT upset and visual disturbances. His K+ was found to be 2.5 The reason for these feature is | [
"Left ventricular aneurysm",
"Digoxin toxicity",
"Viral gastroenteritis",
"Hypokalemia"
] | B | (B) Digoxin toxicity > Digitalis is effective in patients with systolic HF complicated by atrial flutter and fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate, who benefit both from slowing of the ventricular rate and from the positive inotropic effect.> Although digitalis does not improve survival in patients with systolic HF and sinus rhythm, it reduces symptoms of HF and the need for hospitalization.> Digitalis is of little or no value in patients with HF, sinus rhythm, and the following conditions: hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, mitral stenosis, chronic constrictive pericarditis, and any form of diastolic HF.> Digoxin, which has a half-life of 1.6 days, is filtered n the glomeruli and secreted by the renal tubules. Significant reductions of the glomerular filtration rate reduce the elimination of digoxin and, therefore, may prolong digoxin's effect, allowing it to accumulate to toxic levels, unless the dose is reduced.> DIGITALIS INTOXICATION: This is a serious and potentially fatal complication. Advanced age, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypoxemia, renal insufficiency, hypercalcemia, and acute myocardial infarction all may reduce tolerance to digitalis. Chronic digitalis intoxication may be insidious in onset and is characterized by anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, exacerbations of HF, weight loss, cachexia, neuralgias, gynecomastia, yellow vision, and delirium. The most frequent disturbances of cardiac rhythm are ventricular premature beats, bigeminy, ventricular tachycardia, and, rarely, ventricular fibrillation. Atrioventricular block and nonparoxysmal atrial tachycardia with variable atrioventricular block are characteristic of digitalis intoxication; withdrawal of the drug and treatment with li-adrenocepior blocker or lidocaine are indicated. If hypokalemia is present, potassium should be administered cautiously by the oral route. Fab fragments of purified, intact digitalis antibodies are a potentially lifesaving approach to the treatment of severe intoxication.> The administration of quinidine, verapamil, amiodarone, and propafenone to patients receiving digoxin raises the serum concentration of the latter, increasing the propensity to digitalis intoxication.> The dose of digitalis should be reduced by half in patients receiving these drugs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximum infectivity is known as | [
"Median incubation period",
"Screening time",
"Generation time",
"Minimum incubation period"
] | C | Ans. c (Generation time) (Ref. Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/96)Generation time: is the time interval between receipt of infection by host and max. infectivity1Median incubation periodTime required for 50% of cases to occur following exposure.2Incubation periodPeriod of entry of organism to appearance of first sign or symptom.3Serial intervalThe gap in onset of primary and secondary case.4Primary caseFirst case in community5Index caseFirst case detected in community (may or may not be primary case) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Varicocele is common on left testis because - | [
"Left testicular vein drains into IVC which has high pressure",
"Left tesicular vein drains into left renal vein which has high pressure",
"Left testis is lower situated",
"Compression of testicular vein by rectum"
] | B | Variocele formation has been attributed to one of the three primary factors :
Increased venous pressure in left renal vein
Collateral venous anastomoses
Absent or incompetent valves in the internal spermatic vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In morbid obesity BMI is greater than? | [
"30",
"35",
"40",
"45"
] | C | 40 REF: Sabiston Textbook of Surgery, 18th ed chapter 17 Morbid obesity is defined as being either 100 lb above ideal body weight, twice ideal body weight, or a body mass index (BMI, measured as weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared) of 40 kg/m2. The latter definition is more accepted internationally and has essentially replaced the former ones for all practical and scientific purposes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Staining done for sebaceous cell carcinoma | [
"Red 0",
"PAS",
"Methamine silver",
"KOH"
] | A | Ans. a. Oil Red 0 Histopathology of Sebaceous cell carcinoma Tumor is composed of lobules or sheets of cells separated by a fibrovascular stroma. The cell extend deeply and often involve the subcutaneous tissue and even the underlying muscle. The cells show various sebaceous differentiation, manifest as finely vacuolated or foamydeg rather than clear cytoplasm. There is more differentiation at the centre of the nest. Sometimes pseudoglandular formationdeg occurs. The vacuolated cells show abundant lipid, if a frozen section is stained with Oil Red '0' or Sudan Blackdeg. Sebaceous cell carcinoma Chlazion is tarsal or meibomian cyst and sebaceous cell carcinoma arises from the meibomian glands, so a recurrent chlazion should be subjected to histo-pathologic evaluation to exclude possibility of Sebaceous cell carcinomadeg. Usually presents as a nodule (which maybe mistaken for chlazion)deg, which then grows to form a big growth Surgical excision with reconstruction of the lids is the treatment of choicedeg | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about action of ADH, except: | [
"Post-operative increase in secreation",
"Secreted neurosecreation",
"Increased secretion when plasma osmolality is low",
"Act on distal convoluted tuble and increase permeability"
] | C | Ans. c. Increased secretion when plasma osmolality is low | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ICU setting patients suffering from which respiratory pathology are at risk of CO2 narcosis? | [
"Pneumonia",
"Asthma",
"Emphysema",
"Bronchieactasis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Emphysema Metabolic causes of altered consciousness in ICU* In the ICU setting, several metabolic causes of an altered level of consciousness predominate.* Hypercarbic encephalopathy can present with headache, confusion, stupor, or coma.* Hypoventilation syndrome occurs most frequently in patients with a history of chronic CO2 retention who are receiving oxygen therapy for emphysema or chronic pulmonary disease.* The elevated Paco2 leading to CO2 narcosis may have a direct anesthetic effect, and cerebral vasodilation from increased PaCO2 can lead to increased ICP.* Hepatic encephalopathy is suggested by asterixis and can occur in chronic liver failure or acute fulminant hepatic failure.* Both hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia can cause encephalopathy, as can hypernatremia and hyponatremia.* Confusion, impairment of eye movements, and gait ataxia are the hallmarks of acute Wernicke's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The direct retainer of choice when the principle abutment tooth has Lost its periodontal support is: | [
"Embrasure clasp",
"Ring clasp",
"Multiple circlet clasp",
"Onlay clasp"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causative agent for Farmers' Lung is? | [
"Thermoactinomyces sacchari",
"Thermophiles actinomyces",
"Cotton dust",
"Pigeon feather"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thermophiles actinomyces * Farmer's lung is a hypersensitivity (type III) pneumonitis induced by the inhalation of biologic dusts coming from hay dust or mold spores or any other agricultural products.* These types of immune response are most often initiated by exposure to thermophilic actinomycetes (most commonly Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula). | train | med_mcqa | null |
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