question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Common carotid aery bifurcation is at | [
"Thyroid cailage",
"Cricord cailage",
"C7",
"T2"
] | A | At the level of the upper border of the thyroid cailage, the aery ends by dividing into the external and internal carotid aeries. The right common carotid aery is a branch of the brachiocephalic aery. The left common carotid aery is branch of the arch of the aoa. Ref: BDC volume 3;sixth edition: pg 99 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-yr man C/O a visual hallucination of a transparent phantom of his own body. Most likely diagnosis? NOT RELATED -PSYCHIATRY | [
"Capgras syndrome",
"Lycanthropy",
"Cotard syndrome",
"Autoscopic psychosis"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are pruritic lesions – a) Lichen planusb) Sun burnsc) Pemphigoidd) Psoriasise) SLE | [
"ab",
"bc",
"abc",
"bcd"
] | C | Diseases causing mild or no itching :- Psoriasis, Pityriasis rosea, SLE, parapsoriasis, Secondary syphilis, Pemphigus.
it diseases causing moderate itching :- Contact dermatitis, Dry skin, Bullous pemphigoid, Photosensitivity (sunburn).
Diseases causing severe itching :- Lichen planus, Lichen simplex chronicus, Herpes gestationis, Mastocytosis, Dermatitis herpetiformis, scabies, Prurigo nodularis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding. The drug that should not be used is - | [
"Sodium bicarbonate",
"Calcium gluconate",
"Glucose with insulin",
"Resins"
] | B | calcium gluconate immediately antagonises the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, whereas the others are used to correct hyperkalemia. (reference : harrisons principles of internal medicine,19E page- 312) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The 1997 bird flu pandemic was caused by which of the following strain? | [
"H1N1",
"H5N1",
"H2N1",
"H4N1"
] | B | Human infections with an influenza H5N1 was first repoed in Hong Kong in 1997. Ref: Epidemiology of communicable diseases Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21stedition, page-330. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about cystic fibrosis except? | [
"Recurrent respiratory infections",
"Majority of males are infertile",
"Fasting hyperglycemia is a feature of early disease",
"Sweat chloride is >70 meq/1"
] | C | Ans. (c) Fasting hyperglycemia is a feature of early disease(Ref: Refer Ans 7 & 10; Nelson 19th/pg 1996; Robbins 9th/pg 466-470; 8th/pg 465-470)Cystic fibrosis-related diabetes (CFRD)No diabetes is seen in CF patients younger than 10 yr while 40-50% show diabetes at >=20yr age;So diabetes is a late feature of CF, seen only in individuals who survive to adolescence & beyond.Patients with CFRD have features of both T1DM and T2DM.There is pancreatic damage leading to slowly progressive insulin deficiency, along with insulin resistance | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which nerve repair has the worst prognosis? | [
"Ulnar",
"Radial",
"Median",
"Lateral popliteal"
] | D | Common peroneal nerve (Lateral popliteal nerve) has two main characteristics.
The most common nerve lesions of the lower limb.
Worst prognosis after nerve reconstructive surgery.
Recovery potential after nerve repair
Excellent: - Radial, Musculocutaneous, femoral, digital nerves
Moderate: - Median, Ulnar, Tibial
Poor : - Common peroneal (lateral popliteal)
Pure motor or pure sensory nerves, i.e., Unmixed nerves, like musculocutaneous nerve and digital nerves have the best prognosis.
Pure motor nerves to large muscle groups not requiring fine control have a better prognosis than motor nerves supplying the small muscles of hand & foot. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism by which IUCD does not act: | [
"Chronic endometrial inflammation",
"Increase the motility of tubes",
"Inducing endometrial atrophy",
"Inhibition of ovulation"
] | D | Mechanism of Action Of IUCD: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coagulation defects a/w ↑ed coagulation is seen in:
A) ↑ Protein C
B) ↑ Protein B
C) ↑ Anti Thrombin HE
D) Protein C resistance
E) Dysflbrtnogenemia | [
"AC",
"BC",
"AB",
"DE"
] | D | Surgery
Orthopedic, thoracic, abdominal andgenitourinary procedures
Neoplasms
Pancreas, lung, ovary, testes, urinary tract, breast, stomach
Trauma
Fractures of spine, pelvis, femur, or tibia; spinal cord injuries
Immobilization
Acute myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure,stroke,postoperative convalescence pregnancy
Estrogen
For replacement of contraception;
selective estrogen replacement modulators Hypercoagulable states
Resistance to activated protein C, prothrombin or2021OA gene mutation
deficiencies of antithrombin ill, protein C, or protein S; antiphospholipid antibodies; myeloproliferative diseases;
dysfibrinogenemia;
Venulitis
Thromboanglitis obliterans, behpet's disease, homocysteinuriaq
previous deep vein thrombosisldiopathic | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pathogenicity of major pseudomonads is based on oppuunism. The exception is: | [
"Pneumonia",
"Otitis media",
"Melioidosis",
"Skin infection"
] | C | The pseudomonads are a heterogeneous group of gram-negative bacteria. The members of this group are now assigned to three genera-Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Stenotrophomonas. The pathogenicity of most pseudomonads is based on oppounism; the exceptions are the organisms that cause melioidosis (B. pseudomallei) and glanders (B. mallei) Ref: Harisson, Edition - 18, Page 1151. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not done in case of lUGR : | [
"Non stress test",
"Umbilical aery doppler",
"Ultrasound abdomen",
"Amniocentesis"
] | D | IUGR can can be diagnosed by Clinical palpation of the uterus for the fundal height Symphysis Fundal height Maternal weight gain Measurment of the abdominal gih There are two types of tests to detect IUGR : Biometric and Biophysical tests Biometric test: Ultrasound biometry Biophysical tests: Doppler and biophysical profile TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.204 and DC DUTTAS TEXTBOOK OF OBS,9th edition,page no. 433 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding CSF all the following statements are true except | [
"Its pH is less than blood",
"No neutrophils present normally",
"Formed by arachnoid villi",
"Persistent leakage can cause headache"
] | C | C i.e. Formed by arachnoid villi | train | med_mcqa | null |
The effective and safe drug for intractable pain in terminal cancer stage is : | [
"Injectable pethidine",
"Injectable ketamine",
"Oral Brufen",
"Oral Morphine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' oral morphine [Reference Harrison 16th/e, p 58 (15th/e, page495)JFor control of pain in cancer patientsWHO has devised a simple and effective method for the rational titration of oral analgesia called the WHO ladderThe critical features of this approach are thatt/t is oralshould be given around the clock with supplemental doses as needed.The management of pain is done in following steps :Mild to moderate painNSAIDs such asAcetaminophen,asprin orKetoprofenwith or without an adjuvant such as glucocorticoid or amitriptylineWhen pain persists or increasesa weak opioid such as codeine or hydrocodone is addedPain that is persistent or that is moderate to severe at the outsetincrease the potency of opioids orhigher doses of morphine is given | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Egg on side appearance" is seen in: | [
"Fallot's tetralogy",
"Transposition of great vessels",
"Ebstein's anomaly",
"Ventricular septal defect"
] | B | b. Transposition of great vessels(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2223-2225, Ghai 8/e p 424-426)Congenital heart diseasesImportant chest X-ray findingTransposition of great vessels'Egg on side' appearanceTetralogy of FallotBoot shaped heart or 'Coren sabot' appearanceSupracardiac TAPVC'Figure of 8' or Snowman appearanceEbstein anomalyBox shaped heart | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is rare site for metastasis? | [
"Veebrae",
"Skull",
"Pelvis",
"Forearm and leg bones"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Forearm and leg bones | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marker of acute kidney injury is all except | [
"Clusterin",
"Osteopontin",
"Alanine aminopeptidase",
"Acid phosphatase"
] | B | Osteopontin (OPN) is a matricellular protein that mediates diverse biological functions. OPN also functions as a Th1 cytokine, promotes cell-mediated immune responses, and plays a role in chronic inflammatory and autoimmune diseases Urinary AKI markers may be classified as enzymes released from damaged tubular cells (alkaline phosphatase, gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, alanine aminopeptidase, isoenzymes of glutathione transferase, N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminidase), low-molecular-weight proteins (alpha(1)-microglobulin, beta(2)-microglobulin, retinol-binding protein, cystatin C) and proteins specifically produced in the kidney and associated with the development of AKI . Based on the different expression of these markers, using a panel of serum and urine markers may potentially help to distinguish between various types of insults, establish the duration and severity of injury, predict the clinical outcome and help to monitor response to treatment in AKI. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding vessels of the umbilical cord are? | [
"One aery and one vein",
"Two aeries and two vein",
"Two aeries and the left vein",
"Two vein and the left aery"
] | C | Umbilical cord: The umbilical cord consist of two aeries and one vein. The aeries carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta and the vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus.Umbilical Cord: Initially, there are four vessels two aeries and two veins.Of the two umbilical veins, the right vein disappears by the 4th month, leaving behind one vein (left) which carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. (and only the Left vein is left behind). The aeries carry the venous blood from the fetus to the placenta. Abnormalities:Single umbilical aery is present in about 1% of cases. This finding is sometimes referred to as a 2-vessel cord. The loss of 1 umbilical aery likely occurs secondary to thrombotic atrophy of a previously normal aery. Less likely, the loss may result from primary agenesis of the aery. It is the left umbilical aery that is more commonly absent. It is more common in twins and in babies born of diabetic mothers. It is frequently associated with congenital malformation of the fetus. Ref: 1) Ultrasound in Obstetrics and Gynecology: Obstetrics. Volume 1, edited by Eberhard Merz, Page 1042) Textbook of obstetrics, By Dutta, 4th Edition, Page 40 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is it best inotrope drug for use in right hea failure | [
"Dobutamine",
"Digoxin",
"Dopamine",
"Milrinone"
] | D | (Ref Goamnan and Gilman, 11/e p575, inotropic drugs are not used for treatment of right sided where the major treatment is diuretics and vasodilators. Milriinone being a phosphodiesterase inhibitor act as an inodilator. Thus, this is the only inotropic drug that should be used in right sided failure due to its ablity to produce vasodilation. It is indicated in right hea failure with pulmonary hypeension. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Myocardial oxygen demand depend upon | [
"Preload",
"Afterload",
"Intramyocardial tension",
"Myocardial muscle mass"
] | B | Oxygen consumption has also been shown to be nearly propoional to the tension that occurs in the hea muscle during contractionOxygen consumption has also been shown to be nearly propoional to the tension that occurs in the hea muscle during contraction multiplied by the duration of time that the contraction persists, called the tension-time indexRef: Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology (12th Edn) page No:209 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient died after a blunt trauma to chest. Most common cause of death in blunt trauma to chest is: | [
"Esophageal rupture",
"Tracheobronchial rupture",
"Pulmonary laceration",
"Pneumothorax"
] | B | THORACIC INJURIES MC cause of moality in blunt thoracic trauma: Tracheobronchial injuries MC Cause of moality in penetrating thoracic trauma: Hemothorax (Secondary to pulmonary laceration) MC thoracic injuries: Chest wall injuries | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ramesh 40 yrs male patient presenting with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea, vomitting, altered sensorium was found to have bronchogenic carcinoma. The electrolyte abnormality seen in him would be - | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypocalcaemia",
"Hypercalcemia"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in | [
"Obesity",
"Hypehyroidism",
"Feeding",
"Exercise"
] | A | The remaining options utilise energy. Basal metabolic rate and obesity The basal metabolic rate accounts for about 60 to 75% of the daily calorie expenditure by individuals. It is influenced by several factors. BMR typically declines by 1-2% per decade after age 20, mostly due to loss of fat-free mass, although the variability between individuals is high. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e pg843 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20yr old patient with swelling in waist joint Histopathology shows spindle cells and verrocay bodies Most likely diagnosis | [
"schwannoma",
"Neurofibroma",
"Neuroma",
"Lipoma"
] | A | Histopathology of Schwannoma shows Antoni A pattern Antoni B pattern and verrocay bodies/ ref : robbins 10th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glomus cells are found in | [
"Bladder",
"Brain",
"Chemoreceptors",
"Kidney"
] | C | The glomus cells (type I) are specialized glandular-like cells, mainly located in the carotid bodies and aoic bodies, that control the respiratory activity.The glomus cells have a high metabolic rate and good blood perfusion and synapses directly or indirectly with nerve endings. Thus are sensitive to changes in aerial blood gas (specially to low pO2)(Ref: Guyton & hall, pg- 367) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Two alleles expressing in heterozygous state is an example of | [
"Codominance expression",
"Dominant expression",
"Recessive expression",
"Hemizygous expression"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with fibroid uterus may present with all of the following, EXCEPT: | [
"Infeility",
"Pelvic mass",
"Amenorrhoea",
"Polymenorrhea"
] | C | Menstrual abnormalities associated with fibroids are menorrhagia, metorrhagia and dysmenorrhea. It does not cause amenorrhea. Subserous, broad ligament or cervical fibroids are unassociated with menstrual abnormalities. Other features associated with fibroids are lower abdominal pain, pressure symptoms, infeility, aboion, preterm labor, and IUGR. Ref: Textbook of gynecology by D C Dutta 4th edition Page 255 - 8; Johns Hopkins Manual of Gynecology and Obstetrics, 3rd Edition, chapter 33 - Uterine Leiomyomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In estimation of bilirubin, the solution is examined at | [
"540 nm",
"450 nm",
"480 nm",
"580 nm"
] | B | Ans: b (450nm) Ref: Vasudevan 4th ed/p.480The characteristic absorption maximums of some importantsubstances are:- Protein, peptide linkage- 220 nmProtein, tryptophan units- 280 nmNucleic acids- 260 nmDeoxy haemoglobin- 565 nmBilirubin- 450 nmNADH- 340 nmFAD- 450 nmFADH2- 570 nmPorphyrin- 400 nm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice of Nodulocystic Acne is : | [
"Erythromycin",
"Isoretinoin",
"Tetracycline",
"PUVA"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Isotretinoin [Ref Harrison 16/e, p 295 (Page 3151 Rexburg's 16/e Page 1561According to this table 3 choice are correct but Harrison says "that severe nodulocystic acne not responsive to oral antibiotics, hormonal therapy or topical therapy may be treated with synthetic retinoid, Isotretinoin." | train | med_mcqa | null |
HLA -A, B, C belongs to which class of HLA Complex of genes located on 6th chromosome | [
"Class I",
"Class II",
"Class III",
"Class IV"
] | A | HLA-A, HLA B HLC -Class I HLA DR DQ DP -Class II HLA BF C2 TNF etc. -Class III There is no class IV Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 133 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following causes PSA is raised | [
"BPH",
"Prostate Ca",
"Prostatitis",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soap bubble appearance on MRI brain is a feature of? | [
"Neurocysticercosis",
"Cryptococcosis",
"Tuberculosis",
"Toxoplasmosis"
] | B | SOAP BUBBLE appearence on MRI brain- Cryptococcal meningitis. SOAP BUBBLE appearence on USG abdomen- Multicystic dysplastic kidney. SOAP BUBBLE appearence on Knee radiograph- GCT. SOAP BUBBLE appearence on X-Ray in New borns-Meconium ileus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following increases drug metabolism by activating cytochrome enzyme, EXCEPT: | [
"Tetracycline",
"Cimetidine",
"Rifampicin",
"Phenobarbitone"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
RET gene mutation is associated with which malignancy | [
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Medullary carcinoma thyroid",
"Lymphoma",
"Renal cell carcinoma"
] | B | Ref Robbins 8/e p280,9/e p284 The RET protein is a receptor for the glial cell line derived neurotrophic factor and structurally related proteins that promote cell survival ring neural development .RET is normally expressed in neuroendocrine cells, such as parafollicular C cells of the thyroid ,adrenal medulla ,and parafollicular cell precursor .point mutations in the RET proto oncogenes are associated with dominatnly inherited MEN types 2A and 2B and familial medullary thyroid carcinoma RET gene mutation is more commonly associated with medullary thyroid cancer than pheochromocytoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
CT severity index is a measure for | [
"Hepatitis",
"Pancreatitis",
"Cerebral trauma",
"Meningitis"
] | B | Computed Tomography severity index(CTSI) for acute pancreatitis CTSI= Balthazar grade score + necrosis score Highest attainable score =10 CTSI score 0-3: Moality 3%,Morbidity 8% 4-6: Moality 6%, Morbidity 35% 7-10: Moality 17%, Morbidity 92% Refer CTSI table Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1527 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In translation process , proof reading of mRNA is done by : | [
"RNA polymerase",
"Amino - acyl-t - RNA synthetize",
"Leucine zipper",
"DNA"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Amino acyl-t- RNA synthetase : Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetase :"This family of enzymes is required for attachment of amino acids to their corresponding tRNAs. Each member of this family recognized a specific amino acid and the tRNA that correspond to that amino acid. Each amino acyl - tRNA synthetase catalyzes a two-step reaction that results in the covalent attachment of an amino acid to its corresponding tRNA . The extreme specificity of the synthetase in recognising these two structures is largely responsible for the high fidelity of translation of the genetic message". - Lippincott, 2/e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Longitudinal ulcers in the intestine are seen in: September 2008 | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Typhoid",
"Amoebiasis",
"Yersinia"
] | B | Ans. B: Typhoid In typhoid fever there is at first a general swelling of the Peyer's patch; it is an inflammatory swelling accompanied by abundant infiltration of leucocytes which occupy both the closed follicles and the mucous membrane. As the time goes on the whole tissue gets more and more infiltrated with leucocytes, and the raised patch gets more solid and its surface more homogeneous. On this condition follows Necrosis. The infiltrated and altered patch or solitary follicles forms a slough, of larger or smaller size. Mucosal shedding creates oval ulcers, oriented along the long axis of the ileum, that may perforate. Serpentine, elongated ulcers, oriented along the long axis of bowel is seen in Crohn's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which anesthetic has a maximum MAC? | [
"Nitrous oxide",
"Halothane",
"Desflurane",
"Isoflurane"
] | A | MAC (age 30-55 years) % of 1 atmosphere Halothane 0.76 Isoflurane 1.15 Enflurane 1.63 Sevoflurane 1.85 Desflurane 6.0 Nitrous oxide 104 Basics of Anaesthesia 7e pg: 94 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In infective endocarditis which of the following is not immune mediated - | [
"Roth spots",
"Osiers nodes",
"Glomerulonephritis",
"None"
] | D | Ans. is 'None' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most pathognomic in pelvic abscess is: | [
"Constipation",
"Mucopurulent Discharge",
"Loose stool",
"Bleeding"
] | B | (Mucopurulent discharge) (1263-65-Baily & Love 24th) (753-CSDT 12th) (996-B &L 25th)* Most common pathology for pelvic - abscess is - Anal gland infections* The most characteristic symptoms are diarrhea and the passage of mucus in the stool* A patients with fistula in ano may report a history of severe pain, blood purulent drainage associated with resolution of the pain and subsequent chronic mucopurulent discharge* Ano-rectal abscess* Usually produces a painful, throbbing swelling in the anal region patient often has swinging pyrexia.* Subdivided according to site into perianal (Most common) ischiorectal, submucous and pelvirectal.* Underlying conditions include fistula is ano (most comon) Crohn's disease, DM, Immunosuppression.* Treatment is drainage of pus in first instance, together with appropriate antibiotics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immersion syndrome is also called as | [
"Hydrocution",
"Wet drowning",
"Dry drowning",
"Secondary drowning"
] | A | Immersion Syndrome (Hydrocution): Death in immersion syndrome is due to cardiac arrest as a result of vagal inhibition. It is produced by (i) cold water stimulation by water striking the epigastrium and (ii) by cold water entering the ear drums, mucosa of pharynx or Larynx. Alcohol increases such effects due to general vasodilatation. Reff: The synopsis of forensic medicine & Toxicology 28th edition pg:191 | train | med_mcqa | null |
High level disinfectant are used for: | [
"Stethoscopes",
"Electronic thermometers",
"Bronchoscopes",
"Surgical instruments"
] | C | Ans. is. 'c' i. e., Bronchoscopes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monu, a 30 year old male, a chronic alcoholic presents with sudden onset of epigastric pain that radiates to the back. All are seen Except: | [
"Low serum lipase",
"Increased LDH",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Increased serum amylase"
] | A | Answer is A (Low serum Lipase) The presence of sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates to the back in an alcoholic patient suggests the diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis is characterized by, an elevated serum lipase !eve and not a low serum lipase 'An elevated serum lipase is more specific for pancreatitis than a serum amylase level'- Harrison | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which side clefts are most common | [
"Left",
"Right",
"Midline",
"Paramedian"
] | A | Explanation
The embryonic fusion of the facial processes of the right side occurs before that on the left side. Hence, there is more time for deformity to occur on left side. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zileuton is - | [
"5 lipooxygenase inhibitor",
"TX A2 inhibitor",
"Leukotriene receptor antagonist",
"Prostaglandins synthesis inhibitor"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5 lipooxygenase inhibitor 5-lipoxygenase inhibitoro 5-lipoxygenase involved in production of leukotrienes especially LTB4 (chemoattractant) and LTC4, LTD4 (Bronchoconstrictor). These are the most important mediators in bronchial asthma.o Zileuton inhibits 5-lip>>xygenase and thereby the production of leukotrienes. Therefore, Zileuton is useful in the treatment of asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true except - | [
"The source of in fection is mainly clinical cases",
"The disease is more common in dry and cold month of the year",
"Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended",
"The vacciens is not effective in children below 2 year of age"
] | A | The meningococcal organism is found in the nasopharynx of cases and carriers. Clinical cases present only a negligible source of infection. Reference : Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 175 | train | med_mcqa | null |
FG, FFG, FFFG is used to indicate: | [
"Caridge",
"Black powder size",
"Base of gun",
"Wadding of caridge"
] | B | Black Gun Powder: Described as FG, FFG, FFFG, FFFFG depending on the fineness of the grain. The finer grains have more number of 'F' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wound injury sequence of appearance of cells is: | [
"Macrophage → Platelet → Neutrophils → Fibroblast",
"Neutrophils → Macrophages → Platelet → Fibroblast",
"Platelet → Neutrophils → Macrophages → Fibroblast",
"Platelet → Macrophages → Neutrophils → Fibroblast"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crocodile skin appearance is seen in : | [
"High voltage burns",
"Electric shocks",
"Drowning",
"Mummifications"
] | A | A i.e. High voltage burn Lightening stroke produce three types of burn - linear burns (in moist creases & folds of skin), surface burns (beneath worn metallic objects) and Filigree or Arborescent or Lichtenberg's flowers burnQ (superficial, thin, irregular touous marking resembling branches of tree or fern(2) Filgree/ Arborescent/ Lichtenberg's Flower's Burn are superficial, thin, irregular toous markings resembling branching of a tree or fere. These are formed d/t rupture of smaller blood vessels, in an injury d/t lightenine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Animal and clinical studies have shown that administration of lactated Ringer's solution to patients with hypovolemic shock may | [
"Increase serum lactate concentration",
"Impair liver function",
"Improve hemodynamics by alleviating the deficit in the interstitial fluid compartment",
"Increase metabolic acidosis"
] | C | Infusion of lactated Ringer's solution is an effective immediate step, both clinically and experimentally, in managing hypovolemic shock. Use of this balanced salt solution helps correct the fluid deficit (in the extracellular, extravascular compartment) resulting from hypovolemic shock. This procedure may decrease requirements for whole blood in patients with hemorrhagic shock. If blood loss has been minimal and is controlled, whole blood transfusion may be avoided entirely. The theoretical objection to infusion of lactated Ringer's solution is that it will increase lactate levels and compound the problem of lactic acidosis. This has not been borne out in animal or clinical studies. Along with the hemodynamic improvement that follows volume restitution, liver function improves, lactate metabolism is improved, excess lactate levels drop, and metabolic acidosis improves. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nabothian cysts are | [
"Remnant of Wolffian duct in females",
"Mucus retention cysts of cervix",
"Infected gartners duct cyst",
"Due to HPV infection of cervix"
] | B | Nobothian cysts are retention cysts of endocervical columnar cells occurring where a cleft has been covered by squamous metaplasia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following types of nerve fibres carry fast pain: | [
"A alpha",
"A beta",
"A gamma",
"A delta"
] | D | A delta | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about corynebacterium diptheriae is | [
"All types produce toxin",
"Toxin production is dependent upon critical concentration of iron",
"Heat stable toxin",
"Inhibit cAMP"
] | B | Toxin production is also influenced by the concentration of iron in the medium. The optimum level of iron for toxin production is 0.1mg/ l. The concentration of 0.5 mg / l inhibits the formation of the toxin. Only virulent strain produce powerful exotoxin. It inhibits protein synthesis. It is heat liable. Incubation at 37deg C for 4-6 weeks conve toxin to toxoid. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 240 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basophilic inclusion bodies are seen in: | [
"Adenovirus",
"Polio virus",
"Measles virus",
"Herpesvirus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenovirus Inclusion bodies are aggregates of stainable substances in the nucleus or cytoplasm.Cowdry inclusion bodies are classified into two groups called type A and B.Type A included those (a) which were granular and (b) which produced a severe reaction in the cell leading to death.Type B were those (a) which were amorphous irregular masses or hyaline spheres and (b) which produced only mild reactions in the cell.Viral inclusion bodies:Intracytoplasmic:1. Henderson - Peterson bodies in Molluscum Contagiosum.2. Negri bodies in Rabies.3. Guarnieri bodies (B type inclusion bodies) in Smallpox.Intranuclear:1. AcidophilicCowdry Type A.- Varicella Zoster Virus.- Herpes Simplex Virus.- Yellow Fever Virus (Torres bodies).Cowdry Type B- Polio.2. BasophilicCowdry Type B - Adenovirus.Cytomegalovirus - Owl eye.Intranuclear and Intracytoplasmic: Measles virus.Inclusion Bodies in Red Blood Cells:1. DevelopmentalHowell Jolly Bodies.Basophilic Stipplings.Pappenheimer Bodies.Cabot Rings.Polychromatophilic Red Cells.2. Hemoglobin PrecipitatesHeinz bodies.Hemoglobin H inclusions.3. ProtozoalMalaria.Babesia.Inclusion Bodies in Skin Conditions:1. Asteroid bodies - Sporotrichosis.2. Cowdry A - Herpes Simplex.3. Donovan bodies - Granuloma Inguinale.4. Dutcher bodies - Multiple Myeloma, Primary cutaneous marginal zone lymphoma.5. Pustulo-ovoid bodies - Granular cell tumor.6. Medlar bodies - Chromoblastomycosis.7. Michaelis - Gutmann bodies - Malakoplakia.8. Rocha Lima bodies - Verruga peruana.9. Russell bodies - Multiple myeloma.10.Rhinoscleroma bodies.11.Verocay bodies - Schwannoma.12.Virchow bodies - Leprosy.Councilman Bodies:Eosinophilic bodies found in the liver in the following cases:1. Yellow Fever.2. Acute Viral Hepatitis.3. Viral Hemorrhagic Fever.Dohle Bodies:Dohle bodies are basophilic inclusions found in cytoplasm of neutrophils and are thought to be remnants of rough endoplasmic reticulum.Dohle bodies are seen in:1. Burns.2. Infections.3. Physical trauma.4. Neoplastic diseases.5. Wissler's disease.6. May-Hegglin anomaly.7. Chediak-Steinbrinck - Higashi's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recurrent chalazion has the risk of | [
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Malignant melanoma",
"Sebaceous cell carcinoma",
"All the above"
] | C | Complications of Recurrent chalazion are meibomian gland adenocarcinoma and sebaceous cell carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
While watching a golf tournament, a 37-year-old man is struck on the side of the head by a golf ball. He is conscious and talkative after the injury, but several days later he is noted to be increasingly lethargic, somewhat confused, and unable to move his right side. (SELECT 1 DIAGNOSIS) | [
"Subdural hematoma",
"Epidural hematoma",
"Carotid dissection",
"Brain contusion"
] | A | Subdural hematomas usually arise from tears in the veins bridging from the cerebral cortex to the dura or venous sinuses, often after only minor head injuries. They can become apparent several days after the initial injury. Treatment is with drainage of the hematoma through a burr hole; a formal craniotomy may be required if the fluid reaccumulates. Significant brain contusions due to blunt trauma are usually associated with at least transient loss of consciousness; similarly, epidural hematomas result in a period of unconsciousness, although a "lucid interval" may follow during which neurologic findings are minimal.Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) in the absence of antecedent trauma most commonly arises from a ruptured intracranial aneurysm, which typically is found at the bifurcation of the major branches of the circle of Willis. Other less frequent causes include hypertensive hemorrhage, trauma, and bleeding from an arteriovenous malformation. Patients present with the sudden onset of an excruciating headache. Complaints of a stiff neck and photophobia are common. Loss of consciousness may be transient or evolve into frank coma. Cranial nerve palsies are seen as a consequence both of increased intracranial pressure due to hemorrhage and pressure of the aneurysm on adjacent cranial nerves. CT scans followed by cerebral arteriography help to confirm the diagnosis as well as to identify the location of the aneurysm. Treatment consists of surgical ligation of the aneurysm by placing a clip across its neck. Early surgical intervention (within 72 h of SAH) may prevent aneurysmal rebleeding and allow aggressive management of post hemorrhage vasospasm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 19 year old patient presents with primary amenorrhoea. She has well developed breasts and axillary and pubic hair. Uterus and vagina are absent. The diagnosis is most likely: | [
"XYY syndrome",
"Gonadal dysgenesis",
"Mullerian agenesis",
"Klinefelter's syndrome"
] | C | Mullerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome) is the second most common cause of primary amenorrhea. Clinical features: Normal ovarian development Normal endocrine function Normal female sexual development Shoened or absent vagina in addition to absence of the uterus Individuals have 46,XX karyotype Ref: Rosen M.P., Cedars M.I. (2011). Chapter 13. Female Reproductive Endocrinology and Infeility. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds),Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metaplasia arises from reprograming of | [
"Stem cells",
"Stellate cells",
"Squamous cells",
"Columnar cells"
] | A | Ans. (a) Stem cells(Ref: 9th/pg 36; 8th/pg 8)Mechanism of metaplasia: Reprogramming of stem cellsQ in normal tissues or of undifferentiated mesenchymal cells present in connective tissue.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heat labile immunoglobulin | [
"IgA",
"IgG",
"IgE",
"IgM"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgE Only heat labile Ig Inactivated at 56 degrees C in one hour. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resistant hypertension when goal is not achieved- | [
"4 drugs + diuretics",
"2 drugs + diuretics",
"3 drugs + diuretics",
"5 drugs + diuretics"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3 drugs + diuretics o Resistant hypertension is defined in the 2008 American Heart Association guideline as blood pressure that remains above goal in spite ofconcurrent use of'"three antihvpertensive agents^ of different classes, one of which should be a diuretic.o Patients whose blood pressure is controlled with "four or more" medications are considered to have resistant hypertension.Pharmacologic therapyo The pharmacologic treatment of resistant hypertension, by definition, involves combinations of "three or more " drugs, including a "diuretic".o Three drugs with different mechanism of action should be sequentialy combine:o The triple combination consists ofAn ACE inhibitor or ARBA long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (usually amlodipine), andA long-acting thiazide diuretic (preferably chlorthalidone) well tolerated.o This triple combination is often effective and generally well tolerated. Among patients with uncontrolled hypertension who are already being treated with such a three drug regimen at maximum recommended and tolerated doses, spironolactone is added.o Most patients with resistant hypertension are being treated with a three-drug regimen different from ihe preferred regimen of an angiotensin inhibitor, long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, and diuretic chlorthalidone; in addition, most who are prescribed four or more antihypertensive drags are not receiving an aldosterone antagonist.Diureticso Persistent volume expansion (typically not sufficient to produce edema) contributes to resistant hypertension, even among patients who have been on conventional doses of thiazide diuretics,o Effective diuretic use is almost always necessary to achieve blood pressure control in patients with resistant hypertension.o Diuretics should be titrated until the blood pressure goal or the maximum recommended dose (as described below) has been reached or the patient has signs suggestive of overdiuresis such as fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, or decreased tissue perfusion as evidenced by an otherwise unexplained elevation in ihe serumcreatinine concentration. If overdiuresis is suspected, diuretic therapy needs to be reduced.o In those with little renal impairment, chlorthalidone is preferred to hydrochlorothiazide for the treatment of resistant hypertension.Aldosterone antagonistso The available aldosterone antagonists, spironolactone and eplerenone, are mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists, while potassium-sparing diuretics (eg, amiloride and triamterene) block collecting tubule sodium channels that are normally opened by aldosterone. Spironolactone, eplerenone, and amiloride provide significant antihypertensive benefit when added to existing multiple drug regimens in patients with resistant hypertension.o This should be done in patients with resistant hypertension:o If the patient is on hydrochlorothiazide, switch to chlorthalidone.o If the current regimen includes a drug not from the three recommended drug classes, add the missing preferred drug and assess the response.o If the patient is still hypertensive despite being treated with the three preferred drugs, add an aldosterone antagonist.o If the patient is still hypertensive, additional medications are added sequentially.o Possible agents that may be used includeVasodilating beta blockers (labetalol, carvedilol, or nebivolol)Centrally acting agents (clonidine or guanfacine), andDirect vasodilators (hydralazine or minoxidil). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most diffusible ion across membrane: | [
"Na+",
"K+",
"Cl-",
"None"
] | B | Ans. (b) K+(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.35)At rest, cell membrane is freely permeable for potassium ionThis is the reason behind development of RMP which is due to potassium ion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common cause of bowel obstruction | [
"Hernia",
"Ulcers causing obstruction",
"Adhesions",
"Structure"
] | C | Adhesion will cause dynamic bowel obstruction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most essential medicines should be formulated as ? | [
"No compound",
"Single compound",
"Multiple compound",
"Fixed dose combinations"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Single compound | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an anchoring protein? | [
"Myosin",
"Actinin",
"Troponin",
"Tropomyosin"
] | B | Some additional structural proteins that are impoant in skeletal muscle function include actinin, titin, and desmin. Actinin binds actin to the Z lines. Titin, the largest known protein (with a molecular mass near 3,000,000 Da), connects the Z lines to the M lines and provides scaffolding for the sarcomere. It contains two kinds of folded domains that provide muscle with its elasticity. At first, when the muscle is stretched there is relatively little resistance as the domains unfold, but with fuher stretch, there is a rapid increase in resistance that protects the structure of the sarcomere. Desmin adds structure to the Z lines in pa by binding the Z lines to the plasma membrane. Ref: Ganong 25th ed, p 101 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bile salts act as- | [
"Emulsifying agent",
"Detergent",
"Surface tension lowering agents",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is'd' i.e., All of the aboveBile saltso Bite salts are the most important constituents of the bile.o They are sodium and potassium salts of bile acids, conjugated to amino acids, glycine or taurine,o The important bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid.o Bile acids are derived from cholesterol.o Bile salts help in digestion and absorption of fat by emulsification and micelles formation,o Bile salts act as detergents, i.e., they have surface tension lowering action.o Detergent action is dne to amphipathic nature of bile salts (Note : Amphipathic molecules are molecules that contain both hydrophobic non-polar as well as hydrophilic-polar ends). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is: | [
"Ketoconazole",
"Amphotericin B",
"5-Flucytosine",
"Griseofulvin"
] | A | IMIDAZOLES AND TRIAZOLES: These are presently the most extensively used antifungal drugs. Four irnidazoles are entirely topical, while ketoconazole is used both orally and topically. Two triazoles fluconazole and itraconazole have largely replaced ketoconazole for systemic mycosis because of greater efficacy, longer tlh, fewer side effects and drug interactions. The imidazoles and triazoles have broadspectrum antifungal activity covering dermatophytes, Candida, other fungi involved in deep mycosis (except mucor), Nocardia, some grampositive and anaerobic bacteria, e.g. Staph. aureus, Strep. faecal is, Bac. fragilis and Leishmania. The mechanism of action of irnidazoles and triazoles is the same. They inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme &;lanosterol l4--demethylase&; and thus impair ergosterol synthesis leading to a cascade of membrane abnormalities in the fungus. The lower host toxicity of triazoles compared to irnidazoles has correlated with their lower affinity for mammalian CYP450 enzymes and lesser propensity to inhibit mammalian sterol synthesis. However, because they are active against ceain bacteria as well (which do not have ergosterol), other mechanisms of action also appear to be involved. Ketoconazole (KTZ): It is the first orally effective broad-spectrum antifungal drug, useful in both dermatophytosis and deep myc osis. The oral absorption of KTZ is facilitated by gastric acidity because it is more soluble at lower pH. Hepatic metabolism is extensive; metabolites are excreted in urine and faeces. Elimination of KTZ is dose dependent: tlh varies from llh to 6 hours. Penetration in CSF is poor: not effective in fungal men ingitis. However, therapeutic concentrations are attained in the skin and vaginal fluid. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:761,762 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vit A deficiency produces -a) Bitots Spotsb) Trantas spotsc) Keratomalaciad) Xerophthalmia e) Color blindness | [
"abc",
"ad",
"bc",
"acd"
] | D | The most characteristic and specific signs of vitamin A deficiency are eye lesions.
These develop before the age of 2 years.
The term xerophthalmia comprises all the occular manifestations of vitamin A deficiency.
Xerophthalmia (Dry eye)
It is a syndrome due to deficiency of vitamin A.
a It has following stages
Night blindness → Earliest ocular symptom
Conjunctival xerosis → Earliest ocular sign
Bitot's spot
Corneal xerosis
Keratomalacia & corneal ulcers | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which wall of the hea is enlarged first in a patient with McCallum patch? | [
"Left atrium",
"Right atrium",
"Left ventricle",
"Right ventricle"
] | A | In MacCallum's patch the basic concept is regarding VALVULITIS (Inflammation of valves) Left atrium :enlarged first in a patient with McCallum patch | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased acidosis and hypoxaemia is seen in : | [
"Normal Doppler wave form",
"Increased fetal diastolic flow in the middle cerebral aery with absent diastolic flow in the aoa",
"Presence of the 'notch' in the uterine aery",
"Absent umbilical aery"
] | B | Increased fetal diastolic flow in the middle cerebral aery with absent diastolic flow in the aoa | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reperfusion is believed to restore contractile function of: | [
"Stunned Myocardium",
"Hibernating Myocardium",
"Ischemic non-ble myocardium",
"Non ischemic ble myocardium"
] | B | Answer is B (Hibernating Myocardium) The contractile function of Hibernating Myocardium can be completely restored after reperfusion. `Hibernating Myocardium is a reversible state of contractile dysfunction observed in the course of chronic ischemia associated with reduction of coronary blood flow without major evidence of irreversible myocardial damage (ble myocardium). The contractile function of the hibernating myocardium can be almost completely restored after reperfusion (revascularization)' Stunned Myocardium 'Stunned Myocardium refers to a state of postischemic 'reversible' myocardial contractile dysfunction that persists despite myocardial reperfusion. Myocardial stunning essentially describes the postischemic metabolic and contractile compromise in ble myocardium after a transient coronary occlusion (i.e. post successful reperfusion in AMI). In stunned myocardium contraction does not return to baseline for a prolonged period of time after restoration of blood supply and the eventual recovery of contractile dysfunction is believed to be 'spontaneous'. Stunned myocardium is typified by a normal or near normal regional blood flow and represents a mismatch between flow and function. Hibernating Myocardium Hibernating myocardium refers to a state of ischemic (chronic) reversible myocardial contractile dysfunction that is almost completely restored after myocardial reperfusion. Myocardial Hibernation essentially describes a chronic state of contractile dysfunction at rest in non-infarcted ble myocardium as a result of persistently reduced blood flow, which has the potential to improve function after restoration of myocardial blood supply. In Hibernating myocardium the eventual return of contractile dysfunction is believed to be directly related to myocardial reperfusion/revascularization. Hibernating myocardium is typified by reduced regional blood flow and reduced flow matches contractile dysfunction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In blood buffers Bicarbonates buffers is ideal why? | [
"Pka is equal to Ph",
"High concentration",
"Weak acid and weak base combination",
"easy to measure"
] | B | (High concentration): (711-/2- Shinde 8th edition)Bicarbonate Buffer system* Consists of weak acid "Carbonic acid" (H2CO3) and strong base (HCO3), NaHCO3 (Sodium bicarbonate)* Normal ratio in blood =NaHCO3H2CO3=201* They are the chief buffers of blood and constitute the so called Alkali reserve* Neutralisation of strong and non volatile acids entering the ECF is achieved by the bicarbonate buffers* Bicarbonate buffer system is directly linked up with respiration* Bicarbonate buffers system serve as an index to understand the disturbance in the acid base balance of the body (476- U. Satyanarayan 4th)Advantages of bicarbonate buffer system* It is present in very high concentration than other buffer system (26 to 28 millimole per littre )* Produces H2CO3 which is weak acid and volatile and CO2 is exhaled out* Hence it is a very good physiological buffer and acts as a front line defense.Disadvantages - As a chemical buffer, it is rather weak, pKa is further away from the physiological pH | train | med_mcqa | null |
Seoli cell secrets | [
"Androgen binding protein",
"Testosterone",
"LH",
"FSH"
] | A | Androgen binding protein is a protein secreted by testicular Seoli cells along with inhibin and mullerian inhibiting substance. Androgen binding protein probably maintains a high concentration of androgen in the seminiferous tubules.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 421 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The bifurcation of trachea occurs most commonly at- | [
"T3",
"T5",
"T7",
"T9"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., T5 'The level of bifurcation of the trachea varies from the lower third of the fourth to the middle of the seventh thoracic vertebrae. The average position is at the level of the lower third of the fifth thoracic vertebra.' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy: September 2005, 2010 March 2007 | [
"Hard exudate",
"Soft exudate",
"Ambylopia",
"Microaneurysm"
] | D | Ans. D: Microaneurysm Diabetic retinopathy is an ocular manifestation of systemic disease which affects up to 80% of all patients who have had diabetes for 10 years or more. Diabetic retinopathy often has no early warning signs. As new blood vessels form at the back of the eye as a pa of proliferative diabetic retinopathy, they can bleed (hemorrhage) and blur vision. On fundoscopic exam, one can see cotton-wool spots, flame hemorrhages, and dot-blot hemorrhages. Diabetic retinopathy is the result of microvascular retinal changes. Hyperglycemia-induced pericyte death and thickening of the basement membrane lead to incompetence of the vascular walls. The initial loss of pericytes leads to the formation of the dilatations of the vessels seen as microaneurysms and breakdown of the blood-retinal barrier making the retinal blood vessels more permeable. Small blood vessels in the eye are especially vulnerable to poor blood sugar control. An over accumulation of glucose and/or fructose damages the tiny blood vessels in the retina. During the initial stage, called nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), most people do not notice any change in their vision. Some people develop macular edema. It occurs when the damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the pa of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision. As the disease progresses, severe nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy enters an advanced, or proliferative, stage. The lack of oxygen in the retina causes fragile, new, blood vessels to grow along the retina and in the clear, gel-like vitreous humour that fills the inside of the eye. Without timely treatment, these new blood vessels can bleed, cloud vision, and destroy the retina. Fibrovascular proliferation can also cause tractional retinal detachment. The new blood vessels can also grow into the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye and cause neovascular glaucoma. Nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy shows up as cotton wool spots, or microvascular abnormalities or as superficial retinal hemorrhages. Diabetic retinopathy is detected during an eye examination that includes: Visual acuity test: Ophthalmoscopy: Note that hand-held ophthalmoscopy is insufficient to rule out significant and treatable diabetic retinopathy. Ocular Coherence Tomography or OCT: This is a scan similar to an ultrasound which is used to measure the thickness of the retina. Digital Retinal Screening Programs: This involves digital image capture and transmission of the images to a digital reading center for evaluation and treatment referral. Slit Lamp Biomicroscopy Retinal Screening Programs: Systematic programs for the early detection of diabetic retinopathy using slit-lamp biomicroscopy. Early signs of the disease (over retina): Leaking blood vessels, Retinal swelling, such as macular edema, Pale, fatty deposits on the retina (exudates) - signs of leaking blood vessels, Damaged nerve tissue (neuropathy), and Any changes in the blood vessels. Panretinal photocoagulation, or PRP (also called scatter laser treatment), is used to treat proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR).Rather than focus the light on a single spot, hundreds of small laser burns are made away from the center of the retina, a procedure called scatter laser treatment or panretinal photocoagulation. The treatment shrinks the abnormal blood vessels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs causing pharmacological adrenalectomy are all except | [
"Ketoconozole",
"Mitotane",
"Aminoglutethemide",
"Methotrexate"
] | D | Aminoglutethimide, Ketoconazole, Mitotane, Trilostane, Metyrapone inhibits synthesis of steroids Pharmacological adrenelectomy refers to mimicking a situation of adrenelectomy where the complete synthesis of coicosteroids is stopped by using drugs line glucocoicoid synthesis inhibitors. Ref: Katzung 11th ed pg 695. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a major cell infiltrate in rheumatoid arthritis? | [
"CD4+helper cell",
"Macrophage",
"Lymphocyte",
"Dendritics cells"
] | C | Ref. Robbins Pathology. 9th edition. Page. 1209
Rheumatoid Arthritis
CD4+ T helper (TH) cells may initiate the autoimmune response in RA by reacting with an arthritogenic agent, perhaps microbial or a self-antigen
IFN-γ from TH1 cells activates macrophages and resident synovial cells.
IL-17 from TH17 cells recruits neutrophils and monocytes.
TNF and IL-1 from macrophages stimulates resident synovial cells to secrete proteases that destroy hyaline cartilage.
RANKL expressed on activated T cells stimulates bone resorption.
Microscopy:
The characteristic histologic features include
Synovial cell hyperplasia and proliferation
Dense inflammatory infiltrates (frequently forming lymphoid follicles) of cd4+ helper t cells, b cells, plasma cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages
Increased vascularity due to angiogenesis
Fibrinopurulent exudate on the synovial and joint surfaces;
Osteoclastic activity in under- lying bone | train | med_mcqa | null |
IL1 antagonist is ? | [
"Anakinra",
"Abatacept",
"Adalimumab",
"Leflunomide"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anakinra | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal biologic solvent is | [
"Water",
"Coconut oil",
"Ethyl alcohol",
"Liquified nitrogen"
] | A | WATER IS AN IDEAL BIOLOGIC SOLVENTA water molecule is an irregular, slightly skewed tetrahedron with oxygen at its center.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 2; Water & pH | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following aren't included in the WHO classification of operating dental auxiliaries? | [
"Dental hygienist",
"School dental nurses",
"Therapists",
"Denturists"
] | D | Non-operating auxiliaries
Dental surgery assistant
Dental secretary/receptionist
Dental laboratory technician
Dental health educator
Operating auxiliaries
School dental nurse
Dental therapist
Dental hygienist
Expanded function dental auxiliaries
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
Soben Peter
5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a MRI feature of Mesial temporal sclerosis? | [
"Atrophy of mammillary body",
"Atrophy of fornix",
"Blurring of Grey white matter junction of ipsilateral temporal lobe",
"Atrophy of hippocampus"
] | C | Classical MRI findings in mesial temporal sclerosis include decrease volume (atrophy) and abnormally increased T2 signal of the hippocampus. Associated findings may include atrophy of ipsilateral mammillary body, fornix and other parts of the limbic system. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common malignant tumour of parotid is | [
"Acinic cell carcinoma",
"Mucoepidermoid carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Adenocystic carcinoma"
] | B | Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is the most common malignant tumor of the parotid gland and can be divided into low-grade and high-grade tumorsRef: Sabiston, 20e, page no: 830 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gartners duct cyst lies in | [
"Lateral aspect of uterine wall",
"Upper edge of broad ligament",
"Anterolateral wall of vagina",
"Posterior to ovarian ligament"
] | C | Gartners duct cyst lies in anterolateral wall of vagina. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient from Himachal Pradesh presents with fever from 5 days, altered sensorium increased JPV, maculo-papular rash & erythima on back with black necrotic tissue. Treatment includes- | [
"Aminoglycosides",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Tetracycline",
"Doxycycline"
] | A | Ecthyma gangrenosum is a cutaneous infection most commonly associated with Pseudomonas bacteraemia. Ecthyma gangrenosum usually occurs in patients who are critically ill and immunocompromised. The characteristic lesions of ecthyma gangrenosum are haemorrhagic (bloody) pustules that evolve into necrotic (black) ulcers The initial lesions of ecthyma gangrenosum appear as painless, round, red patches in the skin which rapidly become pustular with surrounding redness. A haemorrhagic focus appears in the centre, forming a blister. As the haemorrhagic blister spreads peripherally, it evolves into a gangrenous ulcer with a black/gray scab surrounded by a red halo. An early lesion may transform into a necrotic ulcer in as little as 12 hours. Ecthyma gangrenosum may appear at any site but mainly affects the anogenital area and armpits. The arms and legs, trunk and face are less often involved The presence of ecthyma gangrenosum should ale the physician to the likelihood of an accompanying Pseudomonas septicaemia. While awaiting culture results, piperacillin is usually given in combination with an aminoglycoside Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adult non-pregnant female requires, calcium per day - | [
"400 mg",
"600 mg",
"800 mg",
"1000 mg"
] | B | 600 mg/dl calcium is required for a non pregnant adult female.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-588. Table no.29 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following bacteria act by increasing CAMP- | [
"Which of the following bacteria act by increasing CAMP-",
"Staphyloccus aureus",
"E. coli, heat stable toxin",
"Salmonella"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vibrio cholerae . V. cholerae and heat labile toxin of E.coli cAMP . Heat stable toxin of E coli --> cGMP | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism? | [
"Phenytoin",
"Gabapentin",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Primidone"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gabapentin Antiepileptics interfering with folic acid metabolism. 1. Phenytoin 2. Phenobarbitone 3. Primidone | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are the well established modifiable risk factors of coronary hea disease except - | [
"Cigarette smoking",
"Genetic factors",
"High blood pressure",
"Elevated serum cholesterol"
] | B | Non modifiable risk factors:- Age Sex Family history Genetic factors Personality Modifiable Risk factors Cigarette smoking High blood pressure Elevated serum cholesterol Diabetes Obesity Sedentary habits Stress Ref- Park&;s textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 24th edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ramesh ,a 45 years old male hypertensive patient became unconscious while bathing. On examination there was complete flaccid hemiplegia and patient had difficulty in speaking, word ordering and articulation, though could understand commands. Patient was diagnosed with left MCA territory infarct. What is type of aphasia patient has | [
"Wernicke’s aphasia",
"Broca’s aphasia",
"Global aphasia",
"Anomic aphasia"
] | B | Since language comprehension is intact and only fluency is impaired it is broca’s aphasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old woman had abdominal surgery, after which she complains about difficulty in urination. Cholinomimetic stimulation with bethanechol or neostigmine is beneficial in relieving post-operative urinary retention. Neostigmine and bethanechol in moderate doses are likely to have different effect on? | [
"Vascular endothelium",
"Salivary glands",
"Ureteral tone",
"Gastric secretory cells"
] | A | Because neostigmine acts on the cholinesterase enzyme, which is situated at all cholinergic synapses, neostigmine increases acetylcholine effects at nicotinic and muscarinic junctions. Bethanechol is a directly acting drug that activates muscarinic receptors whether the nerve supply is present or not. The muscarinic receptors on vascular endothelial cells are not innervated and respond only to direct-acting drugs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cystinuria presents with excess of | [
"Cysteine",
"Tyrosine",
"Glutamine",
"Valine"
] | A | Ans. (a) CysteineRef: Harper's Biochemistry 30th edn. 1301 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve supply above pectinate line is through ? | [
"Inferior rectal nerve",
"Pudendal nerve",
"Autonomic nerves",
"Perineal branch of S4"
] | C | Nerve supply of anal canalMucous membrane above pectinate line is supplied by autonomic nerves (sympathetic L1 L2 and parasympathetic: S2 S3 S4) and therefore is insensitive to pain.Pa below the pectinate line is supplied by somatic nerves (inferior rectal nerve a branch of pudendal nerve) and therefore is sensitive to pain.Thus pain sensations are carried by pudendal nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs can precipitate acute attack of asthma except: | [
"Phenylbutazone",
"Naproxen",
"Glucocorticoids",
"Aspirin"
] | C | Ans. (C) Glucocorticoids(Ref: KDT 8th/e p250)COX inhibitors like aspirin, indomethacin, naproxen and phenylbutazone etc. inhibit the formation of PGs from arachidonic acid. This results in diversion of metabolism of arachidonic acid to produce LTs. Large excess of LTs are therefore produced with the use of NSAIDs. These drugs therefore, can result in precipitation of acute attack of asthma (because LTs are bronchoconstrictors).Glucocorticoids are useful in the treatment and prophylaxis of bronchial asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Persistence of Moro&;s reflex is abnormal beyond the age of ________ | [
"3rd month",
"4th month",
"5th month",
"6th month"
] | D | Moro&;s reflex disappears by 3 - 6 months in normal infants. Persistence of the reflex after 6 months is abnormal and is common in children with MR without motor disturbance including Down's syndrome and in children with CP of the athetoid type. It is also sometimes observed in children with a severe brain malformation or with CP of the spastic type, encephalopathy, hydrocephaly, injury of the cerebral or the pyramidal tract. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about relations of thoracic esophagus ? | [
"Trachea posteriorly",
"Aoic arch on right side",
"Left bronchus anteriorly",
"Thoracic duct on right side"
] | C | Ans. is'c'i.e., Ieft bronchus anteriorly(Ref: Snell's p. 128)The relations of the thoracic pa of the esophagus from above downward are as follows:Anteriorly: The trachea and the left recurrent laryngeal nerve: the left principal bronchus which constricts it; and the pericardium, which separates the esophagus from the left atrium.Posteriorly : The bodies of the thoracic veebrae, the thoracic duct, the azygos veins, the right posterior intercostal aeries and at its lower end the descending thoracic aoa.Right side: The mediastinal pleura and the terminal pa of the azygos vein.Left side: The left subclan aery, the aoic arch, the thoracic duct the mediastinal pleura. | train | med_mcqa | null |
There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in ? | [
"Posterior urethral valve.",
"Bladder ex stroph y",
"Anorectal malformation",
"Neonatal sepsis"
] | A | Ans is 'a' Posterior urethral valve The term renal dysplasia is technically a histological diagnosis. It occur due to abnormality in metanephric differentiation and is characterized histologically by the persistence in the kidney of abnormal structures - cailage, undifferentiated mesenchyme and immature collecting ductules and by abnormal lobar organization. C/F of Renal dysplasia (i) It can be unilateral or bilateral and is almost always cystic (ii) Kidney is enlarged, extremely irregular and multicystic. (presents as a flank mass) (iii) In unilateral dysplastic kidney the prognosis is good, where as in B/L dysplastic kidney renal failure may ultimately result. Dysplastic kidney is associated with? posterior urethral valve (as pa of VURD syndrome) V --> posterior urethral valves U --> unilateral reflux R --> renal dysplasia Uretero pelvic obstruction Ureteral agenesis or atresia Other anomalies of lower urinary tract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Man is a definitive host for - | [
"Echinococcos",
"Malaria",
"Filariasis",
"Rabies"
] | C | Ans. is 'c ' i.e., Filariasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eruption of Deciduous Mandibular Lateral incisor occur at | [
"8-9 months",
"10-11 months",
"19-20 months",
"15-16 months"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about grade 4 burns | [
"Involves all layers of the skin",
"Involves the whole skin along with subcutaneous tissue",
"Includes electric burns",
"Involves the dermis paially"
] | B | Answer- B. Involves the whole skin along with subcutaneous tissue | train | med_mcqa | null |
Section of the vagus nerve results in | [
"Increased rate of respiration",
"Decreased depth of respiration",
"Irregular breathing patterns",
"Increases in breath - holding time"
] | D | Vagus nerve causes contraction of bronchial muscle helping in expiration. Section of vagus nerve leads to difficulty in expiration and therefore increasing breath holding time. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg: 267; table 17-1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MARINA trial is being organized to do what? | [
"Role of new antibiotics in fungal ulcer",
"Role of Anti VEGF in diabetes.",
"Role of Aflibercept in wet ARMD",
"Role of ranibizumab in ARMD"
] | D | TRIALS IN RETINA *STOP, CRYO-ROP, ETROP-ROP *CATT- WET ARMD (Ranibizumab) *LUMINATE- Volcosporine AIIMS(q) *ANCHOR- Ranibizumab *MARINA- Ranibizumab *AREDS- Dry ARMD *ETDRS- Diabetic Retinopathy *DRCRNet are the latest trials going in drugs that can be used in Diabetic Retinopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which gene is most commonly mutated in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)? | [
"PKD1",
"PKD2",
"NHPS1",
"HEF"
] | A | PKD1 gene codes for polycystin-1 and is located on chromosome 16p13.3. Polycystin-1 is expressed in tubular epithelial cells, paicularly those of the distal nephron. It contains domains that are usually involved in cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions. Mutations in PKD1 account for about 85% of cases. Numerous small cysts in the coex and medulla give the kidney a spongelike appearance. Cysts have a uniform lining of cuboidal cells. Multiple epithelium-lined liver cysts are also seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.