question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The vitamin which can be treated for the treatment of hypercholesterolemia is | [
"Thiamine",
"Niacin",
"Pyridoxine",
"Vitamin b12"
] | B | Refer kDT 7/e 640 Treatments for purehypercholesterolemia often depend upon how severe the cholesterol levels and symptoms are. Almost all people with the condition will need to take a prescription medication to reduce overall cholesterol levels. The most common medications are called "statins." Niacin is effective in the treatment of combined hyperlipidemia (elevated cholesterol and TG) and in the management of low HDL levels as a primary or (more often) an adjunctive agent after an adequate attempt at lifestyle modifications has been undeaken. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Struma-lymphomatosa term is used for: | [
"De-Quervain thyroiditis",
"Hashimoto's thyroiditis",
"Reidle's thyroiditis",
"Suppurative thyroiditis"
] | B | (Hashimoto's thyroiditis): Ref: 957-LB, 2117-H (799-B &L 25th)Hashimoto's Thyroiditis (Struma-lymphomatosa or diffuse lymphocytic thyroiditis, goitrous autoimmune thyroiditis, autoimmune chronic lymphocytic)* The most common clinically apparent cause of chronic thyroiditis is hashimoto's thyroiditis, an auto immune disorder that often presents as a firm or hard goiter of variable size.Riedel's thyroiditis (Invasive fibrous thyroiditis, Riedel's struma, Woody thyroiditis, ligneous thyroiditis)* Rare insidious onset, painless goiter with local symptoms due to compression of the esophagus, trachea, neck veins or recurrent laryngeal nerves.* Thyroid dysfunction is uncommon*** There is an association between Riedel's thyroiditis and idiopathic fibrosis at other sites (retroperitoneum, mediastinum, biliary tree, lung and orbit) (2117-H) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renal cell carcinoma is related to gene located on chromosome ? | [
"3",
"X",
"22",
"20"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The fluid level and air bubble level in otoscopy indicates: | [
"CSOM",
"ASOM",
"Middle ear effusion",
"Otosclerosis"
] | C | (Middle ear effusion): Ref: 84-D (63-D 4th)Qtoscoopic Findings In Middle Ear Effusions* Typmpanic membrane is oftendull and opaque with loss of light reflex it may appear yellow, gray or bluish in colour.* Thin leash of blood vessels may be seen along the handle of malleous or at the periphery of tympanic membrane and differs from marked congesion of ASOM.* Tympanic membrane may show varying degree of retraction. Sometimes it may appear full or slightly bulging in its posterior part due to effusion* Fluid level and air bubbles may be seen when fluid is thin and tympanic membrane transparent* Mobility of the tympanic membrane is restricted* Complication of chronic serous ottitis media:1. Atrophic tympanic membrane and ateletctasis of the middle ear2. Ossicular necrosis3. Tympanosclerosis4. Retraction pockets and cholesteatoma5. Cholesterol granuma* Surgical treatment of chronic secretory otitis media1. Myringotomy and aspiration of fluid2. Grommet insertion3. Tympanotomy or cortical mastoidectomy4. Surgical treatment of causative factor (Adenectomy tonsillectomy/or wash out of maxillary antra, done at the of time of myringotomy) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Second-order neuron | [
"Optic nerve",
"MGB",
"LGB",
"Layer of retina"
] | A | Second order neurons are the ganglionic cells in ganglionic cell layer of retina. The axons of the ganglionic cells form optic nerve. The optic nerve leaves the eye and terminates in lateral geniculate body. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:672,673,674 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old G2P1 is undergoing an elective repeat caesarean section at term. The infant is delivered without any dificulties, but the placenta cannot be removed easily because a clear plane between the placenta and uterine wall cannot be identified. The placenta is removed in pieces. This is followed by uterine atony and haemorrhage. All of the following are true regarding the condition except | [
"Previous LSCS is a predisposing factor",
"Absence of Nitabuch's membrane",
"May require obstetric hysterectomy",
"If Placenta invades muscle and reaches serosa it is known as placenta increta"
] | D | With placenta accreta a cesarean hysterectomy may be required. This is because there is uncontrollable bleeding often when placental delivery is attempted. Hysterectomy is frequently required since regular methods of reducing bleeding with suturing mostly don't work. Nitabuch's layer limits invasion of the decidua by the trophoblast. The membrane is absent in the placenta accreta. It causes morbid adhered placenta Placenta accreta:- Paial or complete absence of decidua with adherence of placenta directly to the superficial myometrium Placenta increta :- Villi invade into but not through the myometrium Placenta percreta :- Villi invade through the full thickness of myometrium to the serosa | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28 years old female with a history of 8 wks amenorrhoea complains of vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On USG examination there is gestational sac with absent fetal parts. The diagnosis is: | [
"Ectopic pregnancy",
"Incarcerated abortion",
"Threatened abortion",
"Corpus luteum cyst"
] | B | Friends, let’s consider each option one by one.
Option ‘a’: i.e. Ectopic pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common twin after assisted reproduction: | [
"Monozygotic",
"Acardiac twin",
"Dizygotic twin",
"Conjoined twin"
] | C | Ans. c. Dizygotic twinRef: Williams Obstetrics 24th Ed; Page No-274Dizygotic twins are most common.Identifiable risk factors include by race, geography, family history, or ovulation induction.Risk of twinning is up to 10% with clomiphene citrate and up to 30% with human menopausal gonadotropin.Monozygotic twins have no identifiable risk factors.MULTIPLE PREGANCY FLOW-CHART | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the cause of nephrocalcinosis in granulomatous disease? | [
"Increased absorption",
"Increased conversion to 1,25 OH",
"Dystrophic calcification",
"Mutation in calcium sensing receptor"
] | B | . Increased conversion to 1,25 OH | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 44-year-old man with a stab wound was brought to the emergency depament and a physician found that the patient was suffering from a laceration of his right phrenic nerve. Which of the following conditions has likely occurred? | [
"Injury to only general somatic efferent fibers",
"Difficulty in expiration",
"Loss of sensation in the pericardium and mediastinal pleura",
"Normal function of the diaphragm"
] | C | Loss of sensation in the pericardium and mediastinal pleura because Phrenic nerve supply (sensory) central pa of diaphragm, pain from pericardium, mediastinal and diaphragmatic pleurae and peritoneum in the undersurface of diaphragm. Difficulty in inspiration on injury to phrenic nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic cystitis is referred to a urologist because of hematuria. Cystoscopy reveals a mass in the dome of the bladder. Biopsy shows tumor cells arranged as gland-like structures. Special stains demonstrate mucin in the cytoplasm of the tumor cells. What is the appropriate diagnosis? | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Inverted papilloma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Urothelial cell carcinoma"
] | A | Adenocarcinoma of the bladder accounts for only 1% of all malignant tumors of the bladder. It originates from foci of cystitis glandularis or intestinal metaplasia or from remnants of urachal epithelium in the bladder dome. Most bladder adenocarcinomas are deeply invasive at the time of initial presentation and are not curable. The other choices do not feature mucin production. Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder (choice C) develops in foci of squamous metaplasia, usually due to schistosomiasis.Diagnosis: Adenocarcinoma of bladder | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the veins directly open into right atrium except | [
"Coronary sinus",
"Anterior cardiac veins",
"Thebesian veins",
"Great cardiac veins"
] | D | THE VEINS OF THE HEA These are the great cardiac vein, the middle cardiac vein, the right marginal vein, the posterior vein of the left ventricle, the oblique vein of the left atrium, the right marginal vein, the anterior cardiac veins, and the venae Cordis minimi . All veins except the last two drain into the coronary sinus which opens into the right atrium. The anterior cardiac veins and the venae cordis minimae open directly into the right atriumReference: Vishram Singh Anatomy; 2nd edition; Page no: 265 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Special sensory nerve supply of soft palate: | [
"Lesser palatine nerve",
"Greater palatine nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Accessory nerve"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which lipoprotein levels are indirectly proportional to coronary artery disease? | [
"HDL",
"LDL",
"Cholesterol",
"TG"
] | A | Ans: A (HDL) Ref: Harrison's 18th edn. pg 1987: Davidson 21st edn. pg 451Explanation:Increased levels of atherogenic lipoproteins, especially LDL, IDL, lipoprotein (a) and chylomicron contribute to the development of atherosclerosisTheir increased plasma concentration and reduced diameter favor sub endothelial accumulation of these lipoproteinsAfter oxidation, they are not cleared normally, trigger an inflammatory responseThey are taken up by macrophages to form foam cells, which have abnormal effect on the endotheliumHDL removes cholesterol from the tissues to the liver, where it is metabolized and excreted in bileHDL also counteracts some components of the inflammatory response, such as expression of vascular adhesion molecules by the endothelium.Low HDL associated with high TG predispose to atherosclerosis and CAD | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not seen in faecal pollution - | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Streptococcus",
"E. Coli",
"Clostridium perfringens"
] | A | The primary bacterial indicators of contamination of water are the coliform group. Supplementary indicators include faecal streptococci and sulphite-reducing clostridia(C.perfringens) Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 780,781 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70 year old woman had hip surgery 2 days back for a hip fracture after a fall. There is no history of any past surgery or medication. Over the past 24 hours, she complaint of abdominal discomfo and distension. O/E- she is afebrile with: BP of 140/80 mmHg HR=110 bpm, RR=16 breaths/min She has a distended tympanic abdomen with absent bowel sounds. There is no rebound tenderness. Her erect abdominal X-ray is shown: The most likely diagnosis in this case is? | [
"Acalculous cholecystitis",
"Colonic pseudo-obstruction",
"Perforated duodenal ulcer",
"Small bowel obstruction"
] | B | The X-ray shows a massively dilated colon extending to the rectum. These findings are consistent with colonic pseudo-obstruction or Ogilvie syndrome. The presence of gas in the colon makes small bowel obstruction unlikely COLONIC PSEUDO-OBSTRUCTION (OGILVIE'S DISEASE) Etiology: It is a form of colonic ileus which is usually caused due to Electrolyte disorders Narcotic and anticholinergic medications Immobility (as after surgery) Retroperitoneal hemorrhage or mass The patient is mostly elderly and often presents with: Abdominal distention and discomfo Abdomen is tympanic Dilated colon on plain abdominal radiography Treatment Neostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) is used to stimulate colonic motility. It can be used once it is sure that there is no mechanical obstruction. Cardiac monitoring Atropine in case of symptomatic bradycardia Intravenous administration induces defecation and flatus within 10 minutes Surgical therapy in cases of bowel perforation or impending perforation. Oral vancomycin is the treatment for C difficile infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Expectation of life, free of disability is known as:- | [
"Park's index",
"Smith's index",
"Sullivan index",
"Life index"
] | C | Sullivan's index is defined as Disability free life expectancy (DFLE). Sullivan's index = Life expectancy -- duration of disability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin resistance is seen in all, except- | [
"Werner's syndrome",
"Addison's disease",
"Ataxia telengiectasia",
"Lipodystrophy"
] | B | Ans is option 2 - Addison&;s disease Insulin resistance or diabetes mellitus occurs in Cushing&;s syndrome and not in Addison&;s disease. Insulin resistance is seen in - - - Obesity, lipodystrophic states, ataxia telengiectasia, werner&;s syndrome,rabson manden hall syndrome, alstrom syndrome, pineal hyperplasia syndrome, leprechaunism, type A syndrome, type B syndrome. Ref Harrison 16/2158,2153 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following provides the best explanation for neostigmine being preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis? | [
"It is better absorbed orally",
"It has longer duration of action",
"It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate",
"It penetrates blood brain barrier"
] | C | Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium derivative and is water soluble. Its absorption from GIT and penetration in the brain and cornea is much less than physostigmine. It produces additional action on NM receptors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cystic blood filled spaces of variable size in the liver lined by endothelial cells is know as: | [
"Peliosis hepatis",
"Hemangioma liver",
"Hepatic adenoma",
"Regenerative nodules"
] | A | Peliosis hepatis is characterized by the presence of cystic, blood-filled spaces of variable size in the liver. Endothelial cells cover the internal surface of these cavities, and adjacent hepatocytes are normal. Ref: World J Gastroenterol 2006 June 14; 12(22): 3612-3615. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Pasteur effect is | [
"Inhibition of glycolysis",
"Oxygen is involved",
"Inhibition of enzyme phosphofructokinase",
"All of these"
] | D | The inhibition of glycolysis by oxygen is referred to as Pasteur effect. This is due to inhibition of the enzyme phosphofructokinase by ATP and citrate (formed in the presence of O2) Ref : Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 251 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transpo of neutral substances across the cell membrane occurs | [
"Porins",
"Lonophore",
"Lipopolysaccharides",
"Diffusion"
] | D | D i.e. DiffusionTranspo simple passive diffusion is oured by small size, lipid solubility (hydrophobicity) absence of charge (neutrality), and absence of polarity (nonpolar nature)Q. | train | med_mcqa | null |
15 months old child feeding on cow milk with water wih severe wasting and bipedal edema with poor appetite ? | [
"Kwashiorkar",
"Marasmus",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kwashiorkar | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nuchal translucency is used in - | [
"Head scan",
"MRI neck",
"ANC USG",
"Anthropometry"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., ANC USGo Nuchal translucency is used for screening of down syndrome in antenatal USG. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the uppermost intercostal space used for hepatic biopsy : | [
"5th",
"7th",
"9th",
"11th"
] | B | Answer is B 7th The right surface of the liver is in contact with the diaphragm opposite the 7th to 11th ribs. In needle biopsy of the liver through the intercostal route, the needle may be inseed through the 6th 7th, 8th, 9th or 10th right intercostal space in the mid-axillary line. The 8th and 9th intercostal spaces are most commonly used. Inseion in the 6th or 7th intercostal space may also be used but is associated with risk of injury to the Lung. Needle is typically inseed at the end of expiration (Attempted Apnoea). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metabolic Syndrome has following features except | [
"High triglycerides",
"High blood pressure",
"High blood sugar",
"High HDL levels"
] | D | The metabolic syndrome (syndrome X, insulin resistance syndrome) consists of a constellation of metabolic abnormalities that confer increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD) and diabetes mellitusThe major features of the metabolic syndrome include central obesity, hyperiglyceridemia, low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, hyperglycemia, and hypeensionRef: Harrison; 19th ed; Pg 2449 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ramesh 60 years, presents with generalized bone pain. On examination there is elevated ESR of 100 mm, serum globulin 7, lytic lesions in the skull, serum creatinine of 3.5 mg/dL and serum calcium of 11mg/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Osteomalacia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anandamide is ? | [
"Opioid",
"CK 1 antagonist",
"D2 blocker",
"Cannabinoid neurotransmitter"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cannabinoid neurotransmitter Anandamide, also known as N-arachidonoylethanolamine or AEA, is an endogenous cannabinoid neurotransmitter.The name is taken from the Sanskrit word Ananda, which means "bliss, delight", and amide.It is synthesized from N-arachidonoyl phosphatidylethanolamine by multiple pathways.It is degraded primarily by the fatty acid amide hydrolase (FAAH) enzyme, which conves anandamide into ethanolamine and arachidonic acid.As such, inhibitors of FAAH lead to elevated anandamide levels and are being pursued for therapeutic use. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least common symptoms in Friedrich's ataxia is | [
"Moderate mental retardation",
"Scoliosis",
"Cardiac abnormality",
"Diabetes mellitus"
] | A | (A) Moderate mental retardation # Neurologic examination reveals nystagmus, loss of fast saccadiceye movements, truncal titubation, dysarthria, dysmetria, and ataxia of trunk and limb movements. Extensor plantar responses (with normal tone in trunk and extremities), absence of deep tendon reflexes, and weakness (greater distallythan proximally) are usually found. Loss of vibratoryand proprioceptive sensation occurs.> Median age of death is 35 years. Women have a significantly better prognosis than men. Cardiac involvement occurs in 90% of patients. Cardiomegaly, symmetric hypertrophy, murmurs, and conduction defects are reported. Moderate mental retardation or psychiatric syndromes arepresent in a small percentage of patients.> High incidence of diabetes mellitus (20%) is found and is associated with insulin resistance and pancreatic -cell dysfunction. Musculoskeletal deformities are common and include pes cavus, pes equinovarus, and scoliosis. MRI of the spinal cord shows atrophy | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the mother, suckling leads to which of the following responses? | [
"Decrease of oxytocin",
"Increase of prolactin-inhibiting factor",
"Increase of hypothalamic dopamine",
"Increase of hypothalamic prolactin"
] | D | The normal sequence of events triggered by suckling is as follows: through a response of the central nervous system, dopamine is decreased in the hypothalamus. Dopamine suppression decreases production of prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF), which normally travels through a portal system to the pituitary gland; because PIF production is decreased, production of prolactin by the pituitary is increased. At this time, the pituitary also releases oxytocin, which causes milk to be expressed from the alveoli into the lactiferous ducts. Suckling suppresses the production of luteinizing hormone-releasing factor and, as a result, acts as a mild contraceptive (because the midcycle surge of luteinizing hormone does not occur). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following would you expect to find in a patient whose diet has been low in cakcium for 8 weeks? | [
"Increased phosphate levels",
"Raised calcitonin levels",
"Increased parathormone secretion",
"Activation of 24-25 dihydrocholecalciferol"
] | C | C i.e. Increased Parathormone secretion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Flumazenil false is ? | [
"It is a specific antagonist of BZD",
"It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor GABAA",
"Given intravenously",
"Acts on GABAA receptor"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor GABAA Flumazenil is specfic antagonist of BZDs. i.e., it acts on BZDs binding site of GABAA receptors, which is different from Baributurate binding site. Therefore, flumazenil does not antagonize barbiturates not effective in barbiturates poisoning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in pseudogout - | [
"Small joints affected",
"Large joints affected",
"Chondrocalcinosis",
"Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate"
] | A | It is one of the forms of "calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate" (CPPD) arthropathy.
Pseudogout commonly involves the larger joints.Knee joint is most commonly involved; other sites are wrist, elbow, shoulder, ankle. Involvement of small joints is uncommon.
The radiologic hallmark of CPPD is "chondrocalcinosis". Chondrocalcinosis is seen as punctate and/or linear radiodense deposits in fibrocartilaginous joint menisci or articular hyaline cartilage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
At full term pregnancy all of the following parameters are raised except: | [
"Blood volume",
"Minute ventilation",
"Glomerular filtration rate",
"Cardiac output"
] | B | Ans. D. Cardiac outputCardiac Outputa. At full term pregnancy cardiac output decreases.b. During later months of pregnancy in a supine woman, the large uterus rather consistently compresses the venous return from the lower body and also may compress the aorta.c. In response, cardiac filling may be reduced and cardiac output diminishedPhysiological Changes in PregnancyIncreases during pregnancyDecreases during pregnancyBlood, plasma, red cell volumeHb massWBC countAll clotting factors except 11 and 13ESRPlatelet countHb concentrationClotting factor 11 and 13Renal blood flowGFRClearance of urea, uric acidSerum urea, uric acid and creatinineTidal volumeMinute ventilationRespiratory rateVital capacityResidual volumeTotal lung capacityFunctional residual capacity | train | med_mcqa | null |
National Family Health Survey has successfully completed | [
"One rounds",
"Two rounds",
"Three rounds",
"Four rounds"
] | C | Is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of households throughout India
3 rounds of the survey have been conducted till 2006:
NFHS–1: 1992–93
NFHS–2: 1998–99
NFHS–3: 2005–06 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following ion is exchanged in the stomach for H+ secretion? | [
"Na+",
"K+",
"Ca+",
"Cl-"
] | B | The unique characteristic of gastric secretion is its high concentration of hydrochloric acid, a product of the parietal cells. As the concentration of H+ rises during secretion, that of Na+ drops in a reciprocal fashion. K+ remains relatively constant at 5-10 meq/L. Chloride concentration remains near 150 meq/L, and gastric juice maintains its isotonicity at varying secretory rates. Acid secretion at the apical membrane is accomplished by a membrane-bound H+/K+-ATPase (the proton pump); H+ is secreted into the lumen in exchange for K+. Ref: Dohey G.M., Way L.W. (2010). Chapter 23. Stomach & Duodenum. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is used in PET scan: | [
"FDG",
"DTP A",
"MAG-3",
"I 131"
] | A | Ans: A (FDG) Ref: Radiology by Wolfgang Dahnert 5th ed; pg 1113Explanation:"Fluorine-18 Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) is the most common positron-labeled radiotracer in positron emission tomography fPET), in most tissues, including cancer, there is little phosphatase activity. The intracellular metabolite, FDG-6-phosphate cannot undergo further conversions and is therefore trapped inside the cell. FDG is useful in staging and metastasis of Renal cell cancer by PET. " (Ref: Wolfgang)Positron Emission Tomography (PET)* It is a nuclear medicine imaging technique that produces a three-dimensional image or picture of functional processes in the body.The system detects pairs of gamma rays emitted indirectly by a positron-emitting radionuclide (tracer), which is introduced into the body on a biologically active molecule. Three-dimensional images of tracer concentration within the body are then constructed by computer analysis. In modern scanners, three dimensional imaging is often accomplished with the aid of a CT X-ray scan performed on the patient during the same session, in the same machine.If the biologically active molecule chosen for PET is FDG, an analogue of glucose, the concentrations of tracer imaged then give tissue metabolic activity, in terms of regional glucose uptake.The electron-positron decays result in two 511 keV gamma photons being emitted at almost 180 degrees to each other; hence, it is possible to localize their source along a straight line of coincidence (also called the line of response, or LOR).A collimator is a device that narrows a beam of particles or waves. Lead collimators are used in X-rays and linear accelerators. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actinomycete is the source of which of the following anti microbials ? | [
"Tetracycline",
"Polyene",
"Aztreonam",
"Colistin"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The only condition amongst the following associated with cystoid macular edema is? | [
"Overuse of ocular analgesics",
"Glaucoma",
"Central Retinal Vein Occlusion",
"Topical steroid therapy"
] | C | Ans. (c) Central Retinal Vein OcclusionRef : A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /214, 271, 294CYSTOID MACULAR EDEMA (CME)* Collection of fluid in the outer plexiform (Henle's layer) a nuclear layer of the retina is called CME.* It is associated with Central Retinal Vein Occlusion/ post operative complication of cataract extraction and penetrating keratoplasty/ diabetic retinopathy/ Retinitis pigmentosa* Minimal to moderate loss of vision is seen.* It is best examined with slit lamp/+90D lens* Ophthalmoscopy shows "honeycomb appearance" of macula.* Fundus flurorescein angiography shows "flowerpetal appearance".* Treatment of underlying primary cause and drugs (topical steroids triamcinofone/ topical NSAIDs like flurbiprofen) is beneficial.Also Know* 100 day glaucoma' is seen with CRVO* CATTLE TRUCK appearance seen with CRAO* IRVIN GASS SYNDROME is seen with post cataract CME | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thrombosis seen in which stage of lupus nephritis? | [
"Class I",
"Class II",
"Class III",
"Class IV"
] | C | Thrombosis is seen in class 3 ie Focal lupus nephritis. Affected gglomeruli may exhibit swelling and proliferation of endothelial and mesangial cells associated with leukocyte accumulation, capillary necrosis and hyaline thrombi. Ref:Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition-9 volume 1.page no.222 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cut off for TIA definition: | [
"12 hours",
"24 hours",
"48 hours",
"36 hours"
] | B | Ans. B. 24 hoursThe standard definition of TIA requires that all neurologic signs and symptoms resolve within 24 hours regardless of whether there is imaging evidence of new permanent brain injury; stroke has occurred if the neurologic signs and symptoms last for >24 hours. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are the principles of primary health care except- | [
"Social equity",
"Intersectoral coordination",
"Specialty services",
"Community paicipation"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Speciality, services | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a child which of the following diseases is misdiagnosed as appendicitis: | [
"Gastroentritis",
"Lymphadenitis",
"Intussusception",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. (d) All of the aboveInfantsPre-school ChildrenSchool ChildrenPyloric StenosisIntussusceptions, Meckel'sDiverticulitis, AcuteGastroenteritisThe most common mimicker of appendicitis in this population is mesenteric lymphadenitis AdultsWomen In Their Childbearing YearsElderlyPyelonephritis,ColitisDiverticulitis(Higher incidence of false- positive diagnoses in this group) Pelvic InflammatoryDisease (PID), Tubo-OvarianAbscess, Ruptured OvarianCyst Or Ovarian Torsion, AndEctopic Pregnancy.DiverticulitisBowelObstructionMalignanciesOfTheG.I Tract&ReproductiveSystemPerforated UlcersCholecystitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sign of antemoal hanging is? | [
"Dribbling of saliva",
"Ligature mark",
"Fracture of hyoid bone",
"Seminal emission"
] | A | Dribbling of saliva REF: Parikh 6th edition page 3.44 Antemoem hanging Postmoem hanging Motive Usually suicidal (Homicidal only in Lynching) Homicidal Ligature mark Well developed with parchment like base and is yellow or brown Not well developed Saliva Dribbling of saliva present Absent Injuries No other injuries seen Other injuries causing death seen Signs of asphyxia Present Absent Circumstantial evidence Closed room No signs of struggle Signs of struggle present Drag marks on body May be seen Not seen Suicide note May or may not be present Never present Rope fibres May be seen in the hands Not seen | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is associated with poor prognosis in acute pancreatitis : | [
"Hypocalcaemia",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hypernatremia",
"All"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. hypocalcemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are methods of health promotion except- | [
"Immunization",
"Nutritional changes",
"Behavioral changes",
"Health education"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Immunization o All the given options are examples of primary prevention. o Primary prevention has two main components :- i) Health promotion ii) Specific protection Mode of intervention of Primary prevention Health promotion Specific protection Health education 1. Immunization Environmental modifications 2. Use of specific nutrients iron and folic acid tablet Nutritional intervention 3. Chemoprophylaxis Life style and behavioral changes 4. Protection against occupational Hazards Protection against accident Protection from carcinogens Avoidance of allergens Control of specific Hazards in general environment e.g. air pollution, noise control Control of consumer product quality and safety of food and drug Using a mosquito net Contraception | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnosis of a man with diffuse hair loss involving crown & frontal scalp with maintenance of frontal hairline – | [
"Alopecia areata",
"Anagen effluvium",
"Male pattern baldness",
"Female pattern baldness"
] | D | Information in this question are :-
Diffuse hair loss involving crown and frontal scalp.
Maintenance of frontal hair live.
These two suggest the diagnosis of female pattern hair loss :-
Information (i) above suggests the diagnosis of androgenic alopecia which may be either male pattern or female pattern → Essential feature in both type is patterned hair loss over the crown.
Information (ii) differentiates between two and suggests the diagnosis of female pattern hair loss → frontal hairline is preserved in the female pattern, whereas frontal hairline is lost in male pattern hair loss.
A female pattern of hair loss may be seen in males and a male pattern of hair loss may be seen in females.
So, in this question, a male is showing female pattern baldness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Criteria for Ovarian Pregnancy Diagnosis are all of the following except- | [
"The fallopian tube on the affected side must be intact",
"Ovarian tissue must be located in the sac wall",
"The ovary must be connected to the uterus by the ovarian ligament",
"The fetal sac must occupy the position lateral to the ovary"
] | D | Criteria for Ovarian Pregnancy Diagnosis- Speigelberg's Criteria The fallopian tube on the affected side must be intact. The fetal sac must occupy the position of the ovary. The ovary must be connected to the uterus by the ovarian ligament. Ovarian tissue must be located in the sac wall. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tall R wave in ECG represents: | [
"Right atrial overload",
"Left atrial overload",
"Right ventricular hypertrophy",
"All of the above"
] | C | Right ventricular hypertrophy due to a sustained, severe pressure load (e.g. due to right pulmonary valve stenosis or certain pulmonary artery hypertension syndromes) is characterized by a relatively tall R wave in lead V, (R >S wave), usually with right axis deviation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Joseph Wolpe developed the following behaviour
management technique - | [
"Modeling",
"Tell-Show-Do",
"Desensitization",
"Voice control"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common association with atherosclerosis is? | [
"Less physical activity",
"DM",
"Increased uptake of unsaturated fatty acids",
"Cigarette smoking"
] | D | The chemicals in tobacco smoke harm your blood cells. They also can damage the function of your hea and the structure and function of your blood vessels. This damage increases your risk of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is a disease in which a waxy substance called plaque builds up in the aeries. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 445 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shag Carpet appearance is associated with | [
"MTA",
"Dentin Bonding agent",
"Amalgam",
"Composite"
] | B | Microscopic appearance of substrate dentin and etchant is known as Shag Carpet Appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most potent stimulus for bile secretion | [
"Cholecystokin",
"Secretin",
"Bile acid",
"Bile salt"
] | D | The bile salts have a number of impoant actions: they reduce surface tension and, in conjunction with phospholipids and monoglycerides, are responsible for the emulsification of fat preparatory to its digestion and absorption in the small intestine. They are amphipathic, that is, they have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic domains; one surface of the molecule is hydrophilic because the polar peptide bond and the carboxyl and hydroxyl groups are on that surface, whereas the other surface is hydrophobic. Therefore, the bile salts tend to form cylindrical disks called micelles. Their hydrophilic poions face out and their hydrophobic poions face in. Above a ceain concentration, called the critical micelle concentration, all bile salts added to a solution form micelles. Lipids collect in the micelles, with cholesterol in the hydrophobic center and amphipathic phospholipids and monoglycerides lined up with their hydrophilic heads on the outside and their hydrophobic tails in the center. The micelles play an impoant role in keeping lipids in solution and transpoing them to the brush border of the intestinal epithelial cells, where they are absorbed. Ninety to 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine. Once they are deconjugated, they can be absorbed by nonionic diffusion, but most are absorbed in their conjugated forms from the terminal ileum (Figure 26-18) by an extremely efficient Na+-bile salt cotranspo system powered by basolateral Na+-K+ATPase. The remaining 5-10% of the bile salts enter the colon and are conveed to the salts of deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid. Lithocholate is relatively insoluble and is mostly excreted in the stools; only 1% is absorbed. However, deoxycholate is absorbed. The absorbed bile salts are transpoed back to the liver in the poal vein and excreted in the bile (enterohepatic circulation). Those lost in the stool are replaced by synthesis in the liver; the normal rate of bile salt synthesis is 0.2 to 0.4 g/d. The total bile salt pool of approximately 3.5 g recycles repeatedly the enterohepatic circulation; it has been calculated that the entire pool recycles twice per meal and six to eight times per day. When bile is excluded from the intestine, up to 50% of ingested fat appears in the feces. A severe malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins also results. When bile salt reabsorption is prevented by resection of the terminal ileum or by disease in this poion of the small intestine, the amount of fat in the stools is also increased because when the enterohepatic circulation is interrupted, the liver cannot increase the rate of bile salt production to a sufficient degree to compensate for the loss.REF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, KIM BARRETT, HEDDWEN BROOKS, SCOTT BOITANO, SUSAN BARMANTWENTY THIRD EDITIONPAGE NO:438,439,440 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The nerve of Kuntz is an impoant landmark in ? | [
"Lumbar sympathectomy",
"Cervicodorsal sympathectomy",
"Obturator neurectomy",
"Splanchnicectomy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cervicodorsal sympathectomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amber coloured tooth translucency, blue sclerae and bone fragility and a history of previous bone fractures are characteristic findings in: | [
"Osteoporosis",
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"Osteitis deformans",
"Osteitis fibrosa cystica"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maintainence of BP according to intracranial pressure is- | [
"Cushing reflex",
"Cushing disease",
"Starling's reflex",
"Gometz reflex"
] | A | Ans. is ''a' i.e., Cushing reflex o When intracranial pressure is increased, the blood supply to RVLM neurons is compromised, and the local hypoxia and hypercapnia increase their discharge.o The resultant rise in systemic arterial pressure (Cushing reflex) tends to restore the blood flow to the medulla and over a considerable range, the blood pressure rise is proportional to the increase in intracranial pressure,o The rise in blood pressure causes a reflex decrease in heart rate via the arterial baroreceptors.o This is why bradycardia rather than tachycardia is characteristically seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure.o Cushing reflex consists of hypertension, bradyacardia and tachypnoea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The minimum distance for two point discrimination on fingeips - | [
"2 mm",
"5 mm",
"7 mm",
"10 mm"
] | A | Ans. is'a'i.e., 2mmlRef: Ganong 25th/ep. 170 6 24'h/e p. 1621The magnitude of two point discrimination thresholds varies from place of place on the body and is smallest where touch receptors are most abundant.Stimulation points on the back must be separated by at least 65 mm before they can be distinguished as separate, whereas on the fingeips two stimuli are recognized if they are separated by as little as 2 mm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cholinomimetic drugs can be used for the treatment of all the following conditions EXCEPT | [
"Closed angle Glaucoma",
"Bradycardia",
"Cobra bite",
"Myasthenia gravis"
] | B | Ref: 7th edition KD Tripathi (page no:103) ACh hyperpolarizes SA nodal cells, as a results bradycardia occur.so cholinomimetics can't be used for bradycardia. Anticholinergics like atropine should be used for bradycardia Cardiac muscuranic receptor is M2 subtype | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weils' disease is caused by ? | [
"Leptospira",
"Listeria",
"Mycoplasma",
"Legionella"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Leptospira | train | med_mcqa | null |
Long thyroid stimulating agent is | [
"Antibody to thyroid globulin",
"Antibody to thyroid cell receptors",
"Antibody to thyroxine",
"Antibody to thyroid cells"
] | B | Answer is option 2, antibody to thyroid receptors. Thyrotropin receptor (TSHR) antibodies that stimulate the thyroid (TSAb) cause Graves' hypehyroidism and TSHR antibodies which block thyrotropin action (TBAb) are occasionally responsible for hypothyroidism. Unusual patients switch from TSAb to TBAb (or vice versa) with concomitant thyroid function changes. We have examined case repos to obtain insight into the basis for "switching." | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child died soon after bih. On examination there was hepatosplenomegaly and edema all over body. Most probable diagnosis in: | [
"a-thalassemia",
"b-thalassemia",
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"ABO incompatibility"
] | A | - This case history suggests NON IMMUNE HYDROPS - seen in severe variety of alpha thalassemia (HbH or Hb Bas). - ABO incompatibility usually leads to mild hemolysis, which is not severe enough to lead to hydrops fetalis. - b-thalassemia - Doesn't present immediately after bih | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tetanus affects trimarily - | [
"Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord",
"Post synaptic terminal of spinal cord",
"Neuromuscular junction",
"Muscle fibres"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord | train | med_mcqa | null |
Working formulation in staging of non-hodgkins lymphoma is based on: March 2010 | [
"Morphology of cells",
"Cell surface markers",
"Survival characteristic of cells",
"Cellular genetics"
] | A | Ans. A: Morphology of cells The 1982 Working formulation is a classification of non-hodgkin lymphoma. It excluded the Hodgkin lymphomas and divided the remaining lymphomas into four grades (Low, Intermediate, High, and Miscellaneous) related to prognosis, with some fuher subdivisions based on the size and shape of affected cells. This purely histological classification included no information about cell surface markers, or genetics, and it made no distinction between T-cell lymphomas or B-cell lymphomas. The working formulation was widely accepted at the time of its publication but is now obsolete. It was superseded by subsequent classifications but it is still used by cancer agencies for compilation of lymphoma statistics and historical comparisons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actinomycetoma is caused by all except | [
"Actinomyces",
"Nocardia",
"Streptomyces",
"Madura mycosis"
] | D | Madurai mycosis causes Eumycetoma. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about pasteurization? | [
"It kills all bacteria and spores",
"It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria",
"It kills 95% of microorganisms",
"All bacteria are destroyed"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It kills all bacteria except thermoduric bacteria (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 31, 8th/e, p. 31-32) Thermoduric bacteria - Bacteria which can survive, to varying extents, the pasteurization process.Pasteurization kills nearly 90% of bacteria in milk except certain bacteria like Coxiella burnetti which is resistant to Holders method of sterilization but killed by Flash method of Sterilization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Teeth prepared and restored using rubber dam isolation are less prone to postoperative problems related to contamination from oral fluids. The statement is | [
"TRUE",
"Partially True",
"FALSE",
"Partially False"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of dementia is : | [
"Vitamin B12",
"Parkinsonism",
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Road traffic accidents"
] | C | Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frothy discharge with red ulceration in the vagina is seen with infection of : | [
"Trichomoniasis",
"Moniliasis",
"Chlamydia",
"Bacterial vaginosis"
] | A | Trichomoniasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hoarseness secondary to bronchogenic carcinoma is usually due to extension of the tumour into - | [
"Vocal cord",
"Superior laryngeal nerve",
"Left recurrent laryngeal nerve",
"Right vagus nerve"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The abundant glycoprotein in the basement membrane and has binding domain for both ECM and cell-surface receptor is | [
"Laminin",
"Fibronectin",
"E - cadherins",
"Tenascin"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an accepted method of randomization | [
"Computer drawn randomization",
"Odd/even day hospital admission",
"Lottery",
"Random number table"
] | B | Basic steps in conducting randomized control trials include Drawing up a protocol Selecting reference and experimental population Randomization Manipulation or intervention Follow up Assessment of outcome (refer pg 81, park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are fibrous joints : | [
"Pubic symphysis",
"Fronto parietal suture",
"Manubrio sternal joint",
"Inf. radio ulnar joint"
] | B | B. i.e. Frontoparietal sutureSkull sutures (except sphen-occipital), vomer- sphenoid rostrum schindylesisQ, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis and dentoalveolar gomphosis (tooth socket) joints are fibrous joints. A Schindylesis is a specialized suture where a rigid bone fits into a groove on a neighbouring element eg a cleft between the alae of vomer, which receives the rostrum of the sphenoid. (i.e. vomer - sphenoidal rostrum junction)Q- Epiphyseo-diaphyseal growth plateQ, costochondral, 1st chondrosternal and sphenoocipital joints are synchondrosis/ syncendrosis or primary cailaginous joints; whereas, symphysis pubis, symphysis menti, sacrococcygeal, interveebral and manubriosternal jointsQ are symphyses or secondary cailaginous joints.Aicular cailage of most (not all) synol joints are lined by hyaline cailage Q. In some synol joints the cavity is paially or completely subdivided into two by an aicular disc, made up of fibrocailage eg. Temporomadibular jt, sternoclavicular jt, menisci of knee joint. More mobile the joint the more commonly it discloates eg shoulder jtQ. MCP Jt. is a condylar - synol joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young boy presents with failure to thrive. Biochemical analysis of a aspirate after a meal reveals a deficiency of enteropeptidase (enterokinase). The levels of which digestive enzymes would be affected? | [
"Amylase",
"Colipase",
"Lactase",
"Trypsin"
] | D | Enteropeptidase formerly called enterokinase activates trypsinogen by limited proteolytic digestion to give trypsin is itself capable of activating trypsinogen, which produces a positive feedback effect. Trypsin also activates chymotrypsinogen (and several other proteolytic enzymes), so deficiency of enteropeptidase results in a severe deficiency of enzymes that digest protein. Amylase aids in the breakdown of starches to oligosaccharides, maltose, and maltotriose. Colipase along with other lipases functions to digest fats. Lactase is a brush-border disaccharidase that hydrolyzes the bond between galactose and glucose in lactose. Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme secreted in an inactive form (pepsinogen) by the chief cells .of the stomach. Pepsinogen is activated by stomach acid, and so is not dependent on enteropeptidase. Pepsin alone will not replace the activities of other proteolytic enzymes, paly because food does not remain in the stomach for an extended period of time. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sabaroud's medium is used for ? | [
"Protozal parasites",
"Nematodes",
"Fungi",
"Anaerobes"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fungi | train | med_mcqa | null |
The screening method of choice in an area where the prevalence of leprosy is 1/1000 is - | [
"Contact survey",
"Group survey",
"Mass survey",
"Any of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child is brought to the paediatric OPD with fever of 24 hours duration. History reveals 3 episodes of chest infection and passage of foul smelling stools. The most probable diagnosis is – | [
"Cystic Fibrosis",
"Maple Syrup urine Disease",
"Bilirubin Congugation Defect",
"Criggler Najar Syndrome"
] | A | Recurrent chest infection in a child with evidence of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (bulky, foul smelling stool) suggest a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monoprotic acid are - | [
"Formic acid",
"Acetic acid",
"Nitric acid",
"All of these"
] | D | Monapratic acids (HA) can donate 1 proton (H+) per molecule. Examples are hydrochloric acid (HCl), nitric acid (HNO3), formic acid, acetic acid, lactic acid and benzoic acid.
Polyprotic acids can donate more than one protons (H+) per molecules. These can be divided into :-
(i) Diprotic acid (H2A) :- These can donate upto 2 protons (RE) per molecule. Examples are carbonic acid, sulphuric acid, succinic acid and glutaric acid.
(iii) Triprotic acid (H3A) :- These can donate upto 3 protons (H+) per molecule. Examples are phosphoric acid and citric acid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methemoglobinemia is associated with: | [
"Aicaine",
"Prilocaine",
"Bupivacaine",
"Mepivacaine"
] | B | A unique systemic side effect associated with a specific local anesthetic is the development of methemoglobinemia after the administration of large doses of prilocaine. In general, 600-mg doses are required for the development of clinically significant levels of methemoglobinemia in adults. Ref: Miller's anesthesia-7th ed, Chapter 30. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an indication for thrombolysis in stroke patient? | [
"Ischemic stroke of less than 3 hours",
"CT scan showing no hemorrhage or edema > 1/ 3rd of the MCA territory",
"Sustained blood pressure> 185/110 mm Hg despite treatment",
"Clinical diagnosis of stroke"
] | C | Sustained blood pressure> 185/110 mm Hg despite treatment is not an indication of thrombolysis in stroke patient. INDICATION Clinical diagnosis of stroke Onset of symptoms to time of drug administration <=4.5 hours CT scan showing no hemorrhage or edema of >1/3 of the MCA territory Age 18 >= years CONTRAINDICATIONS Sustained BP >185/110 mmHg despite treatment Bleeding diathesis Recent head injury or intracerebral hemorrhage Major surgery in preceding 14 days Gastrointestinal bleeding in preceding 21 days Recent myocardial infarction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type 2 lepra reaction occurs in: | [
"Pauci bacillary leprosy",
"Multi bacillary leprosy",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | B | There are two principal types of Lepra reactions. Type 1 and Type 2. Type 1 Lepra Reaction also known as Reversal Reaction may occur both in Pauci Bacillary (PB) and Multi Bacillary (MB) leprosy. Type 2 reaction is also known as Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) andoccurs only in MB leprosy. Ref: | train | med_mcqa | null |
During bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's disease, intraoperative dose of hydrocortisone should be given after : | [
"On opening the abdomen",
"Ligation of left adrenal vein",
"Ligation of right adrenal vein",
"Excision of both adrenal glands"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Excision of both adrenal glands About corticosteroids given in adrenalectomy, the maximum we could get is mentioned below. The answer has been confirmed by a good knowledgeable Prof, in Surgery.Schwartz 9th/e pl397 writes- "Patients undergoing surgery for a primary adrenal adenoma secreting glucocorticoids require preoperative and postoperative steroids due to suppression of the contralateral adrenal gland. Duration of steroid therapy is determined by the ACTH stimulation test. Exogenous steroids may be needed for up to 2 years but are needed indefinitely in patients who have undergone bilateral adrenalectomy. This latter group of patients also may require mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. "Sabiston 18/e pl013 writes- "Perioperative and postoperative glucocorticoid administration is obviously essential in the care of patients with Cushing's syndrome. For patients undergoing adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome, perioperative "stress dose" steroids (hydrocortisone, 100 mg IV every 8 hours for 24 hours) are recommended. "Note that Bailey (25th/e p811) & CSDT (13th/e p749) differ from Schwartz and Sabiston. According to them only post-operative steroids are given. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An eleven-year-old rape victim is brought to casualty for medical examination. The medical officer is required to do the following things,except - | [
"The consent is to be taken from the patient",
"The patient should be examined in presence of a female attendant",
"The patient should be given necessary emergency treatment",
"All the necessary forensic samples should be collected"
] | A | Consent for medical examination can be given by a person above 12 years of age. The victim in question is eleven years old. Thus the consent of parents (or guardian) is required in this case:
All other options are true and do not require specific explanation here. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following increases the prevalence of the disease- | [
"Immigration of healthy people",
"Increase in cure rates",
"Decrease in the number of new cases",
"Increase in duration of disease"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Increase in duration of disease Prevalence refers "to all current cases (old + new) existing at a given point in time (point prevalence) or over a period of time (period prevalence) in a given population"It thus includes all the new cases, as well as those old persisting cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cause of segmental peripheral neuropathy is - | [
"Gullain-barre syndrome",
"Amyloidosis",
"Syringomyelia",
"Poliomyelitis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
IUD is recommended to a women in these situations except | [
"Has one child",
"Has normal menstrual cycle",
"Has access to follow - up",
"Has multiple sexual partners"
] | D | IUD is not recommended to a women with multiple sexual partner and who has not born a child. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macewan's sign is seen in: | [
"Cyanide poisoning",
"Alcoholism",
"Lead",
"Arsenic poison"
] | B | Alcoholism | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 34 year old housewife reports a three month history of feeling low, lack of interest in activities, lethargy, multiple body-aches, ideas of worthlessness, decreased appetite and disturbed sleep with early morning awakening. She is likely to benefit from - | [
"Anti-psychotics",
"Anti-depressants",
"Anxiolytics",
"Hypno-sedatives"
] | B | This patient has (for 3 months)
Depressed mood (feeling low)
Lack of interest
Loss of energy / fatigue (lethargy)
Ideas of worthlessness
Disturbed sleep (insomnia / hypersomnia)
Decreased appetite
As more than 5 symptoms are present for more than 2 weeks, Diagnosis is major depression Antidepressant should be given. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child is brought to the casualty with a swollen, painful knee. The child has high fever with no history of trauma. Acute osteomyelitis is suspected. Which is the earliest pa of the bone to be involved in haematogenous osteomyelitis? | [
"Metaphysis",
"Diaphysis",
"Epiphysis",
"Area around the nutrient aery"
] | A | Acute osteomyelitis: The metaphysis is commonly involved. The end vessels of the nutrient aery empty into much larger sinusoidal veins, causing a slow and turbulent flow of blood at this junction. Low oxygen tension in this region may compromise phagocytic activity of white blood cells. These conditions predispose bacteria to migrate through adjacent gaps in the endothelium and adhere to the matrix. Also, Must know: Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causes of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in children. The most common causes of septic ahritis are Neisseria gonorrhoeae, S. aureus, and group A Streptococcus. Bacterial Species Associated with Common Conditions: Staphylococcus aureus Most common organism in osteomyelitis, acute hematogenous osteomyelitis (90%), and infected metal implants. Group B strep Infants < 1 year old Haemophilus influenzae Children 1-16 years old Pseudomonas aeruginosa Nosocomial, puncture wound through shoe Pasteurella multocida Animal bite Eikenella corrodens Human bite Salmonella Sickle cell disease Anaerobes Diabetic ulcers, fight bites Candida albicans Immunocompromised Aspergillus Immunocompromised Atypical mycobacteria Immunocompromised Escherichia coli Neonatal Neisseria gonorrhoeae Septic ahritis in young sexually active adult Ref: Wilson S.C., Skinner H.B. (2006). Chapter 8. Ohopedic Infections. In H.B. Skinner (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment in Ohopedics, 4e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about drug induced lupus | [
"Anti histone antibody",
"Rare anti-ds DNA",
"Renal involvement",
"all the above"
] | A | Ref Harrison&;s internal medicine 20e p2517 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The vasodilatation produced by carbon dioxide is maximum in one of the following | [
"Kidney",
"Brain",
"Liver",
"Hea"
] | B | The vasodilation produced by carbon dioxide is maximum in the brain Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:360,361,362 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coenzyme in carboxylation reactions: | [
"Pyridoxine",
"Thiamine",
"Biotin",
"Cyanocobalamin"
] | C | Biotin/ Vitamin H/ Coenzyme RIt is a water-soluble B-vitamin (vitamin B7).It is composed of a ureido (tetrahydroimidizalone) ring fused with a tetrahydrothiophene ring.A valeric acid substituent is attached to one of the carbon atoms of the tetrahydrothiophene ring.Biotin is a coenzyme for carboxylase enzymes, involved in the synthesis of fatty acids, isoleucine, and valine, and in gluconeogenesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a feature of high altitude pulmonary edema | [
"Associated with low cardiac output",
"Associated with pulmonary hypertension",
"Occurs only in unacclamatized persons",
"Exercise has no effect"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. associated with pulmonary hypertension [Ref: Harrison 17/e, p 1707 (16/e, p 1617); ACP Medicine ' (2006); Ganong 22/e, p 685; www.emedicine.com/MED/topicl956.htmJHigh altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) is a life-threatening form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema that occurs in otherwise healthy mountaineers at altitudes above 2,500 meters (8,200 feet).HAPE belongs to a spectrum of High altitude illness. HAPE and High Altitude Cerebral Edema are most ominous forms of High altitude illness. Milder forms are - acute mountain sickness, retinal hemorrhages, and peripheral edema.The initial insult that causes HAPE is excessive hypoxia caused by the lower air pressure at high altitudes. The mechanisms by which this shortage of oxygen causes HAPE are poorly understood, but two processes are believed to be important:Increased pulmonary arterial and capillary pressures (pulmonary hypertension) secondary to hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstrictionAn idiopathic non-inflammatory increase in the permeability of the vascular endothelium.* Treatment includesDescent from altitude,BedrestOxygen " Inhaled nitric oxideNifedipine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trotter's triad consists of all of the following EXCEPT: | [
"Palatal paralysis",
"Trigeminal Neuralgia",
"Sensorineural deafness",
"Conduction deafness"
] | C | Ans. (c) Sensorineural deafnessRef. Dhingras ENT 6th ed./ 446-47* Trotters triad is seen in case of nasopharyngeal carcinoma. It is also called Sinus of Morgagni Syndrome. Trotter's triad includes:# Ipsilateral soft palate palsy# Conductive hearing loss# Trigeminal neuralgia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dark field microscopy used in ? | [
"Vibrio",
"Syphilis",
"TB",
"Brucellosis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Syphilis Dark field microscopy is used for spirochetes (for example T pallidum which causes syphilis). Dark ground/ Dark field microscope Very slender organisms such as spirochetes and filamentous organs such as flagella are not visible under ordinary illumination. The contrast in dark field microscopy gives an illusion of increased resolution so that these structures can be seen under the dark field mcroscope. In dark field microscopy reflected light is used instead of the transmitted light used in the ordinary microscope. | train | med_mcqa | null |
what is the most common Cause of single veebra collapse ? | [
"Trauma",
"Tuberculosis",
"Metastasis",
"All of the above"
] | D | Veretebreal compression fractures can be caused by Osteoporosis Trauma TUBERCULOSIS METASTASIS Disease affecting bone(pathological fractures) REF : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Features of obsessive-compulsive neurosis are | [
"Repetitiveness",
"Irresistibility",
"Unpleasantness",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Repetetiveness; B i.e. Irresistibility; C i.e. Unpleasantness | train | med_mcqa | null |
Linear accelerator produces? | [
"X rays",
"Beta rays",
"Gamma rays",
"Neutrons"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) X raysREF: Oxford oncology 2nd edition page 398, O P Tondon's Inorganic chemistryRepeat from December 2009Linear accelerator and Betatron are used to produce X Rays by accelerating electronsCyclotron is used to produce Gamma rays. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary dentition period is: | [
"From birth to 11 years",
"From 6 months to 11 years",
"From 6 months to 6 years",
"From 6 years to 11 years"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eustachian tube opens in the middle ear in - | [
"Floor",
"Anterior wall",
"Superior wall",
"Posterior wall"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anterior wall o The middle ear is shaped like a cube.o When seen in the coronal section, the cavity of the middle ear is biconcave, o The boundaries of the middle ear are as follows:-I-Roof or tegmental wallo Separates the middle ear from the middle cranial cavity.o It is formed by a thin plate of bone called tegmen tympani.II-Floor or jugular wallo Formed by a thin plate of bone which separates the middle ear from the superior bulb of the internal jugular vein.o The floor also presents the tympanic canaliculus which transmits the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve.III-Anterior or carotid wallo The uppermost part bears the opening of the canal of the tensor tympani.o The middle part has the opening of the auditory tube.o The inferior part of the wall is formed by a thin plate of bone which forms the posterior wall of the carotid canal. This plate separates the middle ear from the internal carotid artery.IV Posterior or mastoid wallo Superiorly, is the aditus through which the epitympanic recess communicates with the mastoid antrum.o Below it is the fossa incudis which lodges the short process of the incus.o Below it is the pyramid giving attachment to the tendon of stapedius.o The vertical part of the facial canal for facial nerve.V Lateral or membranous wallo Tympanic membrane along with the tympanic ring and sulcus.VI Medial or labyrinthine wallo Promontory - rounded bulge produced by the first turn of the cochlea.o Oval window - it is posterosuperior to the promontory. It is closed by the footplate of the stapes.o The horizontal part of the facial canal - runs just above the oval window.o Round window - posteroinferior to the promontory. It is closed by the secondary tympanic membrane.o Processus cochleariformis - forms a pulley for the tendon of the tensor tympani.o The prominence of the lateral semicircular canal - above the facial canal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Sjogren syndrome except | [
"Interstitial nephritis",
"Subcutaneous fibrosis",
"Lack of tear",
"Xerostomia"
] | B | Ref - Davidsons 23e p1039 | train | med_mcqa | null |
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