question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
During peristalsis which of the following is not involved? | [
"NO",
"Substance P",
"Noradrenalin",
"VIP"
] | C | Ach & Substance P are responsible for the proximal contracting segment of peristalsis NO & VIP are responsible for the distal Relaxation Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 497 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common facial vein drains into | [
"Internal jugular vein",
"External jugular vein",
"Subclavian vein",
"Suboccipital veinous plexus"
] | A | Key concept:
The superficial temporal vein descends in front of the tragus, enters the parotid gland, and joins the maxillary vein to form the retromandibular vein. The anterior division of the retromandibular vein unites with the facial vein to form the common facial vein which drains into the internal jugular vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Krukenberg spindle" are seen in - | [
"Pigmentary glaucoma",
"Sympathetic ophthalmitis",
"Retinitis pigmentosa",
"Retinoblastoma"
] | A | (A) (Pigmentary glaucoma) (249-Nema 6th) (249 A.K.K. Khurana 5th)PIGMENTARY GLAUCOMA* Type of secondary open angle glaucoma.* About 50% of patients with the Pigment Disperson Syndrome (PDS) develop glaucoma.* Common in young myopic males* Raised IOP, mild-peripheral iris pigment atrophy and dispersion of pigments on the comeal endothelium in a vertical spindle pattern (Krukenberg Spindle)**, trabecular mesh work, Schwalbe's line, iris surface and lens equator characterize the pigmentary glaucoma.* Gonioscopy shows pigment accumulation along the Schwalbe's line especially inferiorly (Sampaolesi's line).* Iris transillumination shows radial slit like transillumination defects in the mid periphery (Pathognomic features).* Dalen Fuch's nodules are seen in sympathetic ophthalmitis**** Flexner Wintersteiner rosette (highly specific of retinoblastoma), Homer Wright rosettes, pseudorosettes and fleurettes formation are histopathological features of Retinoblastoma*** | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the right middle ear pathology, weber's test will be | [
"Normal",
"Centralized",
"Lateralised to right side",
"Lateralised to left side"
] | C | Right middle ear pathology means right conductive deafness. In conductive deafness, Weber is lateralized to the worse ear. (in question right ear) In SN deafness, Weber is lateralized to the better ear. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 22 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Whiff" Test is done for: | [
"Bacterial vaginosis",
"Trichomonas",
"Candida",
"Gonorrhoea"
] | A | Bacterial vaginosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which test uses oligomer with single base pair substitution as a primer - | [
"PCR",
"RFLP",
"Error coded mutation analysis with PCR",
"Site directed mutagenesis"
] | D | Site-directed mutagenesis or oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis uses oligomer with single base pair substitution as a primer to create a specific DNA sequence change (in gene), thus producing modified proteins with a change in primary structure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not directly drain into right atrium- | [
"Great cardiac vein",
"Anterior cardiac vein",
"Thebasian vein",
"Venaecordis minimi"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Great cardiac vein o Great cardiac vein does not directly drains into right atrium. It drains into coronary sinus, which in turn drains into right atrium.Veinous drainage of heart1. Coronary sinus: Opens into right atrium and has following tributries : (i) Great cardiac vein, (ii) Middle cardiac vein, (iii) Posterior vein of left ventricule, (iv) Small cardiac vein, (v) Oblique vein of left atrium and (vi) Sometimes right marginal vein.2 Anterior cardiac vein : Opens into right atrium.3. Venae cardis minimi (thebasian veins) : Open into right atrium.4. Right marginal vein : More often opens into right atrium but sometimes into coronary sinus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reverse splitting of S2 is seen in all except - | [
"LBBB",
"WPW typeA",
"LV pacing",
"Systemic hypeension"
] | C | Reverse splitting seen in : TR RV pacemaker WPW syndrome Eisen menkers syndrome AS LVF LBBB Harrison's 20th edition pg 1521 | train | med_mcqa | null |
McArdles disease is due to the deficiency of: | [
"Glucose 1 phosphatase",
"Glucose 1, 6 diphosphatase",
"Glucose 6 phosphatase",
"Myophosphorylase"
] | D | Ans: D (Myophosphorylase) Ref: Harper's illustrated Biochemistry,28th edition,Chapter 19,pp 160Explanation:McArdles diseaseType V Glycogen storage diseaseDeficiency: muscle phosphorylase/myophosp- horylasePremature chain termination, incorrect folding etc can cause loss of catalytic activitySkeletal muscle is affectedExercise-induced muscular pain, cramps, progressive weakness, myoglobinuriaNo increase in blood lactate after exerciseGlycogen storage disordersDisorderAffected TissueEnzyme defectType 0LiverGlycogensynthaseType I; Von Gierke'sLiver, kidney, intestineGlucose-6-phosphataseType II; Pompe'sAilLysosomal alpha glucosidaseType III; Forbe'sLiver, muscle, heartGlycogendebranching enzymeType IV; Anderson'sLiverBranching enzymeType V; Mc Ardle'sMusclesmuscle phosphory laseType VI; Her'sLiverLiver phosphon/laseType VII; Tauri'sSkeletal muscle, RBCMuscle and Liver PFK | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following inducing agent produces cardiac stability? | [
"Etomidate",
"Ketamine",
"Halothane",
"Thiopentone"
] | A | Etomidate
It is another induction anaesthetic (0.2- 0.5 mg/kg) which has a briefer duration of action (4-8 min).
than thiopentone; produces little cardiovascular and respiratory depression, but motor restlessness and rigidity is more prominent as are pain on injection or nausea and vomiting on recovery. It is a poor analgesic and has not found much favour ,except for patients with compromised cardiovascular status.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 410 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is true about safety muscle of tongue - | [
"Innervated by cranial part of accessory nerve",
"Hypoglossal nerve",
"Attached to hard palate",
"None of the given options"
] | B | Genioglossus (saftey muscle) is supplied by hypoglossal nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pea-soup stool is characteristically seen in: | [
"Cholera",
"Botulism",
"Typhoid",
"Polio"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Typhoid Pea-soup stool - It is khaki-green, slimy stools typically occurs in a week of typhoid fever, at which point the patients are in toxic state and at greatest risk for the intestinal perforation and hemorrhage.Extra edge point - Similar stools occur in Enteropathogenic E. coli infection of infants. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about autoimmune atrophic gastritis | [
"Loss of parietal cell",
"Hyperplasia of G cells",
"Hyperchlorhydria",
"Hyperophy of enterochromaffin cell"
] | C | TypeA gastritis (Autoimmune gastritis): Type A gastritis involves mainly the body-fundic mucosa. It is also called autoimmune gastritis due to the presence of circulating antibodies and is sometimes associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis and Addison's disease. As a result of the antibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor, there is depletion of parietal cells and impaired secretion of intrinsic factor. These changes may lead to significant gastric atrophy where intestinal metaplasia may occur, and a small propoion of these patients may develop pernicious anaemia. Due to depletion of gastric acid-producing mucosal area, there is hypo- or achlorhydria and hyperplasia of gastrin-producing G cells in the antrum resulting in hypergastrinemia. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY HARSH MOHAN 6TH EDITION PAGE NO:547 | train | med_mcqa | null |
" Phossy jaw" is caused by | [
"Lead",
"Mercury",
"Phosphorus",
"Arsenic"
] | C | Chronic Phosphorus Poisoning (Phossy Jaw/Glass Jaw/Lucifer's Jaw) : Due to inhalation of fumes over years. Tooth ache (earliest symptom) & swelling of the jaw Loosening of the teeth & Necrosis of lower jaw Sequestration of bone in the mandible & multiple sinuses discharging foul-smelling pus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The great cardiac vein drains into: | [
"Right atrium",
"Inferior venacava",
"Coronary sinus",
"Superior venacava"
] | C | Ans: c (Coronary sinus) Ref: BDC, Vol-1,4th ed, p. 257All the veins of the heart except the anterior cardiac vein and the venae cordis minimi drains into the coronary sinus. These two open directly into right atrium.CORONARY SINUS: Largest vein of heart, opens into posterior wall of right atrium.It receives:1. Great cardiac vein--in Anterior interventricular sulcus2. Middle cardiac vein--in Posterior interventricular sulcus (mnemonic; A Great Prime Minister)3. Small cardiac vein4. Posterior vein of left ventricle5. Oblique vein of left atrium6. Right marginal veinCONTENTS OF CORONORY SULCUS:* Great cardiac vein* Coronary sinus* Small cardiac veinArterial supply of heart: | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following disease without splenomegaly for which splenectomy is effective - | [
"Sickle cell disease",
"Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura",
"Aplastic anaemia",
"Thalassemia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wernicke's area lesion causes? | [
"Fluency, meaningful",
"Fluency, meaningless",
"Non fluent, meaningful",
"Non fluent, meaningless"
] | B | *Although speech sounds grammatical, melodic, and effoless (fluent), it is viually incomprehensible due to errors in word usage, structure, and tense and the pres-ence of paraphasic errors and neologisms ("jargon"). Comprehension of written and spoken material is severely impaired, as are reading, writing, and repetition. The pt usually seems unaware of the deficit and is not frustrated. Reference Harrison20th edition pg 2756 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Granulomatous infantisepticum is caused by: | [
"HSV-1",
"HSV-2",
"Listeria",
"Group B streptococcus"
] | C | Ans. is. 'c' i. e., Listeria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of all following is not a Goldman revised cardiac risk index | [
"History of ischemic hea disease",
"History of preoperative treatment with insulin",
"History of preoperative serum creatinine >2.0 mg/dL",
"Age > 80 yrs"
] | D | . In 1977 Goldman, et al., developed the first cardiac risk index, which included nine variables associated with an increased risk of perioperative cardiac complications. This became known as the Original Cardiac Risk Index (or alternatively the Goldman Index). Revised Cardiac Risk Index. ...1999 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder? | [
"Clomipramine",
"SSRI's",
"Cognitive behavioral therapy",
"Systematic desensitisation"
] | D | (D) Systematic desensitisation # SSRIs are drug of choice. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline have been approved for OCD# Antidepressants: Some patients may improve dramatically with specific serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Clomipramine (75-300 mg/day), a non specific serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI), is the first drug used effectively in the treatment of OCD. The response is better in presence of depression, but many patients with pure OCD also improve substantially. Fluoxetine (20-80 mg/day) is a good alternative to clomipramine. Fluvoxamine (50-200 mg/day) is marketed as a specific anti-obsessional drug, while paroxetine (20-40 mg/day), and sertraline (50-200 mg/day) are also effective in some patients.> Antipsychotics: These are occasionally used in low doses (e.g. haloperidol, risperidone, olanzapine, pimozide) in the treatment of severe, disabling anxiety.> Buspirone has also been used beneficially as an adjunct for augmentation in some patients.# Second line drugs include> Valproate, lithium, or carbamazepine, venlafaxine, pindolol, & MAO inhibitors esp phenelzine, buspirone, 5 -hydroxy tryptamine (5-HT), L- tryptophan, & clonazepam.MANAGEMENT OF OCDBehavior therapyPharmacotherapyIs treatment of choiceSSRIs are drug of choice. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline have been approved for OCDIncludes: Exposure and response prevention, desensitization, thought stopping, flooding implosion therapy and aversion conditioning.Clomipramine: of all the tricyclic and tetracyclic drugs, clomipramine is the most selective for serotonin reuptake exceeded in this respect only by SSRI> People with OCD who fear dirt and germs are encouraged to get their hands dirty and wait increasing amounts of time before washing them.> The therapist helps the person cope with the anxiety that waiting produces; after the exercise has been repeated a number of times, the anxiety diminishes.> Systematic desensitization techniques involve gradually exposing the client to ever-increasing anxiety-provoking stimuli.> It is important to note here, though, that such a technique should not be attempted until the client has successfully learned re- laxation skills and can demonstrate their use to the therapist.> Exposing a patient to either of these techniques without increased coping skills can result in relapse and possible harm to the client | train | med_mcqa | null |
Draughtsman colonies are seen in | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Salmonella",
"Pneumococcus",
"Corynebacterium"
] | C | (Pneumococcus) (259-P Chakraborty 2nd) (217, 221-Ananthanarayan 7th)* Pneumococci are typically a haemolytic. In prolonged incubation autolysis occurs at central depression (umbonation) of the colony which creates a typical draughtsman or carom coin appearanceDifferentiation between Str. pneumoniae and Strep, viridans Str. pneumoniae Str. viridansMorphologyCapsulated, lanceolate diplococciNoncapsulated, oval or round cells in chainsQuellung testPositive NegativeColoniesInitially dome-shaped later 'draughtsman' colonies Dome shapedGrowth in liquid mediaUniform turbidity Granular turbidityBile solubilityInvariably positive Invariably negativeInulin fermentationPositive NegativeOptochin sensitivityPositive NegativeIntraperitoneal inoculation in miceFatal infection Non pathogenicC. diphtheriaGravis strainsIntermedius strainsMitis strains* Colonies on Telluriteblood Agar* Haemolysis"Daisy head" coloniesin 48-72 hoursVariable"Frog's egg" colonies"Poached egg" coloniesUsually haemolytic Non haemolytic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renin is secreted from - | [
"JG cells",
"Mesangial cells",
"Macula densa cells",
"Lacis cells"
] | A | (A) (JG cells) (525 - A. K. Jain 5th) (705 - Ganong 24th) (220- Guyton 12th)* The renin in kidney extracts and the bloodstream is produced by the Juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells).* JG cells are located in afferent arterioles immediately proximal to the glomeruli.* Renin itself is an enzyme, not a vasoactive substance.* The JG cells are baroreceptors and respond to changes the transmural pressure gradient between the afferent arterioles and the interstitium.* They are innervated by sympathetic nerve fibres.* These vascular volume receptors monitor renal perfusion pressure and are stimulated by hypovolemia or decreased renal perfusion pressure.* Normal plasma renin level: 200 ng/dL.* Mesangial cells or Lacis cells, the JG cells and the macula densa constitute the Juxtaglomerular apparatus.REGULATION OF RENIN SECRETIONStimulatoryINHIBITORY* Increased sympathetic activity via renal nerves* Increased Na+ and Cl- reabsorption across macula densa.* Increased circulating catecholamines* Increased afferent arteriolar pressure* Prostaglandins* Angiotensin II* Vasopressin (ADH)Conditions that increase renin secretion - Na+ depletion, Diuretics, Hypotension, Hemorrhage, Upright posture, Dehydration, Cardiac failure, Cirrhosis, Constriction of renal artery or aorta, Various psychologic stimuli. | train | med_mcqa | null |
AFP (alpha feta protein) is raised in: September 2005 | [
"Renal carcinoma",
"Pancreatic carcinoma",
"Prostatic carcinoma",
"Hepatic carcinoma"
] | D | Ans. D: Hepatic carcinomaThe human fetus has the highest amount of AFP levels found in humans. These AFP levels gradually decrease after bih down to the low, but detectable levels found in adults by the time a newborn reaches 8 to 12 months.AFP has no known function in healthy adults. In normal fetuses, AFP binds the hormone estradiol. AFP is measured in pregnant women, using maternal blood or amniotic fluid, as a screening test for a subset of developmental abnormalities; it is principally increased in open neural tube defects and omphalocoele and decreased in Down syndrome. In adults, raised levels of AFP are commonly seen in three situations: Hepatocellular carcinoma, Germ cell tumors, and metastatic cancer in the liver originating from other primary tumors elsewhere. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of actinomycin D is - | [
"Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis",
"Activates DNA dependent RNA synthesis",
"Inhibits RNA dependent DNA synthesis",
"Activates RNA dependent DNA synthesis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis The anticancer antibiotics are :o Actinomycin - D (Dactinomycin)o Daunorubicin (Rubidomycin)o Mitomycin C* Doxorubicino Mitoxantroneo Mithramycin (plicamvcin)o Bleomycins o These anticancer, antibiotics obtained from micro-organisms and have prominent antitumour activity,o Mechanism of action : They are intercalated betw een DNA strands and interfere w ith its template functionActinomycin "D' inhibits DNA dependent RNA synthesis.Bleomycin cause DNA breakage and free radical formation .Doxo-and daunorubicin inhibit Topoisomerase I & II.Mitomycin acts like alkylating agents.Mitoxantrane binds to DNA to produce strand breakage and inhibits both DNA & RNA synthesis.RememberAll antitumor antibiotics are cell cycle nonspecific except for bleomycin which acts in G2 phase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The number of Anganwadi workers supervised by a Mukhyasevika is: | [
"10",
"15",
"25",
"30"
] | C | MukhyaSevika is a middle level supervisor. She supervises 20 to 25 Anganwadi workers. She is required to be a graduate in social work or home science or a related field. She is trained for three months. Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 312 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In chylomicrons, the Principle Apo-protein is: | [
"Apo A-I",
"Apo A-II",
"Apo B-100",
"Apo B-48"
] | D | Apo B-48 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of autoimmune hepatitis? | [
"Anti-SMA antibodies",
"Anti-LKM1 anitbodies",
"Anti-mitochondrial antibodies",
"Anti-Sm antigen antibodies"
] | D | Anti-Sm antigen antibodies are found in SLE. Autoantibodies found in Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis: Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) Anti-smooth muscle actin (SMA) antibodies Antibodies against soluble liver antigen/liver-pancreas antigen (SLA/LPA) Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA, more typical of primary biliary cholangitis) Autoantibodies found in Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis: Anti-liver kidney microsome-1 (LKM-1) antibodies, which are directed against CYP2D6 Anti-liver cytosol-1 (ACL-1) antibodies | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following markers is specific for gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST): | [
"CD 117",
"CD 34",
"CD123",
"S-100"
] | A | Ans. (a) CD 117(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 775; 8th/pg 789)Most useful diagnostic marker is c-kit (CD117) detectable in 95% of the patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best preservative for protozoal cysts is | [
"10 % formalin",
"Isopropyl alchol",
"HCL Solution",
"Naoh solution"
] | A | 10 % formalin is ALL - purpose fixative used for preservation of morphology of helminth eggs, larvae, protozoan cysts and coccidian. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with a frontal abscess. Foul-smelling pus is aspirated. Pus shows red fluorescence on the ultraviolet examination. The most likely organism causing the frontal abscess is | [
"Prevotella",
"Peptostreptococcus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Acanthamoeba"
] | A | The causative organism is likely to be Prevotella melaninogenica. It is easy to recognize because of the black or brown color of colonies. Culture or specimen under ultraviolet light may show a bright red fluorescence. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 275 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are medically important streptococci except - | [
"Strep. pyogenes",
"Strep. agalactiae",
"Strep. equisimilis",
"Strep. salivarius"
] | D | STREPTOCOCCI
Streptococci are gram-positive, nonmotile, non-spore-forming, catalase & oxidase negative medically important bacteria.
Many organisms of streptococcus genus cause human diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the etiological agent for the given case below: | [
"Congenital",
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Degenerative arthritic",
"Idiopathic"
] | A | Ans. (A) Congenital(Ref: Apley's System of orthopedics and Fracture 9th Ed; Page No- 465-66)Presence of a hemivertebra- Congenital Scoliosis.Neurofibromatosis: It is associated with scoliosis. The scoliotic curve is typically 'short and sharp and is associated with skin lesions.Idiopathic: It usually resolves spontaneously, measurement of the rib-vertebra angles at the curve apex in the early stages of the deformity is a good prognostic factor.Neuromuscular: The typically paralytic curve is long, convex towards the side with weaker muscles (spinal, abdominal, or intercostal), and at first is mobile. An X-ray obtained with traction would show the extent to which the deformity is correctable. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wickmann's straie seen in ? | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatomyositis",
"Was"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lichen planus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal rhythm of Distraction osteogenesis is? | [
"Continuous",
"0.25 mm four times a day",
"0.33 mm three times a day",
"1.0 mm four times a day."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient on phenytoin therapy develops depression, for which he was prescribed tricyclic anti-depressants. He now complains of lassitude and his Hb reading is 8 gm/dl, the next step in the management of this patient is: | [
"Chest X ray",
"MCV should be estimated",
"GGT should be estimated",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. (B) MCV should be estimated(Ref: KD T 8/e p441)Phenytoin can induce folate deficient megaloblastic anemia that can be diagnozed by measuring MCV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best prognosis following nerve injury is seen for | [
"Radial nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Common peroneal nerve",
"All"
] | A | Radial nerve has best prognosis following nerve injury Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number: 74,75,76 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Good-pasture syndrome is characterized by - | [
"Anti GBM antibody",
"Crescents",
"Diffuse alveolar damage",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are third generation Cephalosporin EXCEPT: | [
"Cefuroxime axetil",
"Ceftazidime",
"Cefpodoxime proxetil",
"Cefoperazone"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Cefuroxime REF: Goodman and Gillman 11th edition page 746-747, KDT 5TH edition page 663 See APPENDIX-36 for classification of "Cephalosporins" APPENDIX - 36 Cephalosporins: Parenteral Oral Mnemonic Exception to mnemonic First generation Cephalothin Cefazolin Cephalexin Cephradine Cefadroxil Fa, pha, phra in the name Cefaclor is 2ad gen Second generation Cefuroxime Cefoxitin Cefotetan Cefaclor Cefuroxime axetil Third generation Cefotaxime Ceftizoxime Ceftriaxone Ceftazidime Cefoperazone Cefixime Cefpodoxime proxetil Cefdinir Ceftibuten 'cef' followed by (a,e,i,o,u) - optional and then either D, P,T Cefixime Fourth generation Cefepime Cefpirome have pi in the name Oral or Parenteral Cefotaxime, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime and anything that start with "cef" or "ceph" and have a "tin", "thin", "z", or "pi" in the name is parenteral and others are oral | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20 yr old girl presents with 9 month history of neck swelling with thyrotoxic symptoms. On investigation increased T4 and decreased TSH with palpable 2 cm nodule was found. Next investigation will be | [
"USG",
"Thyroid scan",
"Radioactive iodine uptake",
"CT scan"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Probenecid interacts with ? | [
"Streptomycin",
"Ampicillin",
"Vancomycin",
"Erythromycin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ampicillin Interactions of probenecid Probenecid inhibits urinary excretion of penicillins, cephalosporins, methotrexate, sulfonamides and indomethacin. It inhibits biliary excretion of rifampicin. Salicylates block uricosuric action of probenecid. Probenecid inhibits tubular secretion of nitrofurantoin. Pyrazinamide and ethambutol may interfere with uricosuric action of probenecid. Note : Ampicillin is a penicillin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mallory - Weiss tear occurs at | [
"Root of aorta",
"Oesophago gastric junction",
"Middle cerebral artery",
"Vertebro basilar artery"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common carotid artery is palpable at: | [
"Upper border of thyroid cartilage",
"Upper border of cricoid cartilage",
"At hyoid bone",
"Lower border of cricoid cartilage"
] | A | Common carotid: It is a branch of brachiocephalic trunk on right side and a direct branch of arch of aorta on the left side. The artery runs upwards along medial border of stemocleidomastoid muscle enclosed within the carotid sheath. The artery ends by dividing into internal carotid and external carotid at the upper border of thyroid cartilage.
The anterior tubercle of the transverse process of the sixth cervical vertebra is the largest of all suchprocesses and is called the carotid tubercle of Chassaignac. The common carotid artery can be best pressed against this tubercle, deep to the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Key Concept:
Upper border of thyroid cartilage lies at C3-4 vertebral level. Common carotid artery bifurcates into two branches at this level.
Reference: B D Chaurasia’s Head and Neck anatomy, 6th ed page no 79 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Garre's chronic non suppurative sclerosing osteomyelitis
is characterized clinically by | [
"EndosteaL bone formation",
"Periosteal bone formation",
"Resorption of medullary bone",
"Resorption of cortical bone"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presents with peripheral circulatory failure. The aerial pH is 7.0, pCO2 of 15 mmHg, p0276 mmHg. Which of the following will be the immediate therapy- | [
"Sodium bicarbonate infusion",
"Bolus of Ringers lactate",
"Bolus of hydroxyethyl starch",
"Dopamine infusion"
] | B | Ans. is b' i.e., Bolus of Ringers lactate It is a case of metabolic acidosis (lactic acidosis) due to peripheral circulatory failure (It is a common knowledge that in cases of peripheral circulatory failure metabolic acidosis occurs due to production of lactic acid). In moderate or mild cases of metabolic acidosis i.e., when the pH is > 7.2 metabolic acidosis needs no specific t/t. T/T of the underlying cause is sufficient.(it will correct the acidosis) Once the underlying cause (here tissue perfusion) is corrected the pH will return to normal But when the pH is < 7.2 specific bicarbonate therapy is warranted because this degree of acidosis may depress cardiac contractility. According to Harrison "In general severe acidosis (pH < 7.20) warrant the intravenous administration of 50-100 meq of NaHCO3 over 30-45 minutes during the initial, 1 to 2 hours of therapy". So here, besides fluid administration to correct tissue perfusion, HCO3 transfusion is also required because pH is 7. The question is which complication should be first attended to, peripheral circulatory failure or severe metabolic acidosis. Harrison states: "The underlying condition that disrupts lactate metabolism must first be corrected, tissue perfusion must be restored when it is inadequate". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retinoblastoma is seen in - | [
"Children",
"Adults",
"Old age",
"At any age"
] | A | Ans. is 'a1 i.e., Children RETINOBLASTOMAo Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular tumor in children. The tumor is confined to infancy and very young children (1-2 years). There is no sex predisposition. Retinoblastoma is unilateral in 70-75% of cases and bilateral in 25-30% of cases.Etiologyo Retinoblastoma gene (RB gene) is located on 14 band on the long arm of chromosome 12 (13ql4). RB gene is a tumor supressor gene. Retinoblastoma develops when both the normal alleles of the RB genes are inactived or alteredAi is typical example of Knudson's two hit hypothesis. In Hereditary retinoblastoma first genetic change (first hit) in RB gene is inherited from an affected parent, where as second mutation (second hit) occurs in postnatal life and both alleles are lost. In non- hereditary retinoblastoma, both mutations (first and second hits) occur postnataly.Pathologyo The tumor arises from smalt round cells with large nuclei, i.e., it is a tumor of a group called small round blue cell tumors. Microscopic features of a well differentiated tumor include Flexner- wintersteiner rosettes (specific for retinoblastoma), Homer- wright rosettes, pseudorosettes and fleurettes formation. There are areas of necrosis and calcification.Clinical featureso Retinoblastoma can present with following featuresLeukocoria or amauratic cat's eye reflex this is the most common manifestation. The leukocoria or the white glow' in the pupil is caused by reflection of light from the white intraocular tumor.Strabismus - second most common manifestationSecondary' glaucomaRedeyeExcessive tearsBuphthalmos & proptosisCorneal clouding due to elevated intraocular pressureDiscoloration of iris (due to neovascularization of iris)Orbital cellulitisPainful red eye usually associated with pseudohypopyon and or hyphaemia (picture simulating iridocyclitis),o Spread of retinoblastoma to distant structures occursDirect extension by continuity to the optic nerve and brain is common. Therefore, after enucleation optic nerve is always examined to see invasion of optic nerve, which helps to decide about postoperative chemoradiation.Lymphatic spread to preauricular lymph nodesMetastasis by blood stream to cranial and other bones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Essential fructosuria is due to deficiency of | [
"b-galactosidase",
"Aldolase-B",
"Fructokinase",
"Aldose reductase"
] | C | Fructosuria is a benign metabolic defect due to deficiency of fructokinase. There is no abnormality in other than excretion of fructose in urine.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 138 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleeding time is prolonged in: | [
"Von willibrand's disease",
"Christmas disease",
"Haemophilia",
"Polycythemia"
] | A | Ans: a | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl presents, with cystic swelling at the junction of lower 1/3rd and upper 2/3rd of anterior wall of vagina at 10 O' Clock position. The Diagnosis is: | [
"Baholin's cyst",
"Ganer's duct cyst",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Vaginal Inclusion Cyst"
] | B | - Ganer's duct cyst Arises from remnant of the mesonephric duct Located in the anterolateral wall aspect of the vagina Small cyst: Asymptomatic Large cyst if causes dyspareunia : excision - A Baholin cyst occurs due to blockage of duct of baholin glands. It is located on the inner side of labia minora in the postero-lateral vaginal wall usually. It might get infected leading to symptoms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is most resistant to gonococcal infection | [
"Prostate",
"Epididymis",
"Testis",
"Urethra"
] | C | In men, gonococcal infection is manifested as urethritis. The infection extends along the urethra to prostate, seminal vesicle and epididymis. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker&;s; 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decidual space is obliterated by: | [
"10 th week",
"12 th week",
"18 that week",
"16 th week"
] | D | Decidual space is the space between decidua capsularis and parietalis seen in early pregnancy because the gestational sac does not fill the uterine cavity. By 14-16 weeks the gestational sacred has enlarged to fill the uterine cavity completely by 4 th month (16 weeks). Ref: Datta Observe 9e pg 22. | train | med_mcqa | null |
35yrs male repoed to health clinic with fever and difficulty in urination associated with pain in groin. On digital rectal examination extreme tenderness is felt on anterior aspect. Lab. Examination of urine revealed leucocytosis and findings consistent with bacterial infection. What should be the most likely diagnosis for this condition? | [
"Prostatitis",
"Pyelonephritis",
"Urinary tract infection",
"Benign prostatic hyperplasia"
] | A | Signs and symptoms of pt. are consistent with Acute Prostatitis. As the prostate is extremely tender, digital rectal examination should be done gently and also to prevent release of bacterias into bloodstream Pyelonephritis and nephrolithiasis are not associated with pain in perineum BPH although may present with same symptoms like urgency, frequency but there is association of pain or fever. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Quiescent cells belong to which phase of cell cycle? | [
"G1",
"G0",
"M",
"S"
] | B | To achieve DNA replication and division, the cell goes through a tightly controlled sequence of events known as the cell cycle. The cell cycle consists of G1 (presynthetic), S (DNA synthesis), G2 (premitotic), and M (mitotic) phases. Quiescent cells that have not entered the cell cycle are in the G0 state. Ref: Robbins, 8th edition, Chapter 3. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease? | [
"Atropine",
"Ondansetron",
"Metoclopramide",
"Sodium citrate"
] | C | Metoclopramide is an effective drug in the treatment of patients with GERD. It is a prokinetic drug that speeds up gastric emptying by increasing gastric peristasis while relaxing the pylorus and first pa of duodenum. It also enhance the tone of lower esophageal sphincter thereby preventing reflux. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 602, 605-606 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is false regarding hypernephroma? | [
"Leather workers have an increased risk",
"Arises from the proximal tubular epithelium",
"Hb levels may be elevated",
"It produces osteosclerotic secondaries on flat bone"
] | D | It produces vasculitis pulsatile osteolytic secondaries on flat bones. Note: - Anaemia may also occur in RCC which may be dispropoional to haematuria. Ref: Manipal Manual of Surgery, Pages 550-51. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trachea is lined by | [
"Simple columnar",
"Pseudostratified columnar",
"Simple cuboidal",
"Stratified squamous, non-keratinized"
] | B | Ciliated columnar epithelium is seen in trachea and bronchus Inderbir Singh&;s textbook of human Histology Seventh edition Pg no 45 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are the pas of anterior segments of eye except | [
"Lens",
"Cornea",
"Vitreous",
"Aqueous"
] | C | Anterior segment includes lens and structures anterior to it. Crystalline lens Iris Cornea Two aqueous humour-filled spaces : anterior and posterior chambers. Posterior segment includes the structures posterior to lens Vitreous humour Retina Choroid Optic disc Reference : A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no:4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is/ are the imaging criteria for unresectable carcinoma of pancreas? | [
"Metastatic spread to vertebrae",
"Invasion in duodenal wall",
"Irregular increase in density of omental fat",
"All the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above Imaging criteria of unresectable pancreatic carcinoma* Vascular invasion is a relative criterion for the lack of resectability, depending on the extent of vascular involvement. A circumferential vessel involvement over 50% makes tumor unresectable, However, in between 25% of vascular invasion makes its resectability questionable.* Metastatic spred outside the pancreas makes tumor irresectable.* Tumor invasion into adjacent organs signifies unresectability.* Ascites is seen in advanced stages and implies peritoneal carcinomatosis or invasion of the lesser sac. Irregular increase in density of the omental fat is highly suggestive of peritoneal carcinomatosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
GFR is increased when - | [
"Plasma oncotic pressure is increased",
"Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is decreased",
"Tubular hydrostatic pressure is increased",
"increased renal blood blow"
] | D | D i.e., Increased renal blood flow | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pituitary adenomas are regarded as macroadenomas when their size is | [
"> 1 cm",
"> 1.5 cm",
"> 2 cm",
"> 2.5 cm"
] | A | Pituitary adenomas are usually found in adults the peak incidence is from 35 to 60 years of age. They are descibed as microadenomas if they are less than 1cm in diameter and as macro if they exceed 1cm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old man has recently been the recipient of a hea transplant. Which one of the following drug is least likely to cause tachycardia in this patient | [
"Amphetamine",
"Dobutamine",
"Epinephrine",
"Norepinephrine"
] | A | The transplanted hea doesn't have sympathetic innervation. Hence an indirectly acting sympathomimetic like Amphetamine has the least likelihood of causing tachycardia when compared to the directly acting ones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
About O2 dissociation curve, true is: | [
"Affinity of O2 with Hb decreases as Hb attaches to O2 in linear fashion",
"1 Hb attaches to 2 molecules of 2,3 DPG",
"O2 affinity will be equal in both HbF and HbA in the absence of 2, 3DPG is removed",
"Carboxy Hb increases releases of O2 in blood (shift O2 dissociation curve to right)"
] | C | (Refer: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By S Ramakrishnan. Pg no: 102)
Affinity of Hb F for oxygen and carbon dioxide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heller’s cardiomyotomy done for: | [
"CHPS",
"Achalasia",
"GERD",
"Duodenal stenosis"
] | B | Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 1099
Management of achlasia cardia
1st line: calcium channel blockers
2 nd line: Pneumatic dilatation
3rd line: surgery -Hellers cardiomyotomy - it involves cutting the lower oesophgus and cardia.
The major complication is Gastroesophageal reflux and therefore additional Partial anterior fundoplication is done H(ellers -Dorr operation)
Botulinum toxin injection is used in recurrent cases of achalasia cardia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathognomic sign of traumatic fracture is | [
"Tenderness",
"Swelling",
"Crepitus",
"Bruising"
] | C | C. i.e. (Crepitus) (545 - Apley 8th)* Crepitus or abnormal movement is pathognomic to traumatic fracture.* Posterior - interosseous nerve invovemet in Monteggia fracture dislocation* Peroneal nerve involvement in knee dislocationMotor cyclists fractures - The motorcyclists sustains a ring fracture and the pillion rider an atlanto - occipital avulsion with dural tear Anteroflexion without impact on the occiput seems to be a rare casual mechanism of the 'ring' fracture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibrous pericardium is attached to - | [
"Central tendon",
"Right crus",
"Left crus",
"Pleura"
] | A | Fibrous pericardium is the part which is attached to the central tendon of diaphragm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orthostatic hypotension is said to be present, if systolic blood pressure falls by_____while assuming standing posture from sitting posture. | [
">10 mm Hg",
">20 mm Hg",
">30 mm Hg",
">40 mm Hg"
] | B | Orthostatic hypotension is defined by a fall in systolic pressure > 20 mmHg or in diastolic pressure > 10 mmHg in response to assumption of the upright posture from a supine position within 3 min. There may also be a lack of a compensatory tachycardia, an abnormal response that suggests autonomic insufficiency, as may be seen in patients with diabetes or Parkinson's disease. Orthostatic hypotension is a common cause of postural lightheadedness/syncope and should be assessed routinely in patients for whom this diagnosis might pertain.
Reference: : Harrison’s medicine page no 126 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meissner's plexus are present in: | [
"Mucosa",
"Submucosa",
"Muscularis layer",
"Serosa"
] | B | Ans: B (Submucosa) Ref: Ganong Medical Physiology, 21st ed.Explanation:All segments of the Gl tract are divided into four layers:The mucosa (epithelium, lamina propria, and muscular mucosae)The submucosa (Meissner's plexus)The muscularis propria (inner circular muscle layer, intermuscular space and outer longitudinal muscle layer) (Myenteric Auerbach plexus - between longitudinal and circular layers)The serosa | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is an antiapoptotic gene - | [
"Bax",
"Bad",
"Bcl-X",
"Bim"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Bcl-XProapoptic Anti-apopticApaf-1 (Apoptosis activating factor -1) Bc1-2/BCI-Xcytochrome C FLIPBak Mc1-1Bax IAPsBim AIFP53 geneCaspasesTNFRIFas FADD (Fas associated death domain)BH3 only proteins (Bim, Bid, Bad)Smac/DIABLOClinical impoance of these genes.1. Inhibition of apoptosis results in uncontrolled cell proliferation and cancer.o Human papilloma virus and cervical cancer. P53 protein is proapoptotic gene, i.e., it induces apoptosis. HPV produce a protein E6 that binds and inactivates p53 --> Apoptosis --> T Cell survival and growth --> Cervical carcinoma.o EBV and B-cell lymphoma EBV produces a protein like BCL-2. BCL-2 inhibits apoptosis --> B - cell lymphoma. Some other B-cell lymphomas also have high expression of BC1- 2.o Melanoma In this tumor, there is decreased expression of Apaf-1. Apaf-1 is an antiapoptotic protein, Its decreased expression induce apoptosis and malignancy.2. Ionizing radiations and cytotoxic drugs cause DNA damage and induce apoptosis tumor suppressor gene p53. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intracellular soing and packing done for: | [
"ER",
"Golgi apparatus",
"Ribosome",
"Cytoplasm"
] | B | B i.e. Golgi apparatus | train | med_mcqa | null |
The rest seat for a lingual rest is | [
"Triangular shaped",
"Round shaped",
"V-Shaped",
"Oval Shaped"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Substance commonly used for tissue preservation commonly is: | [
"Ethyl alcohol",
"Formalin",
"Sodium Chloride",
"Normal Saline"
] | B | Formalin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum & minimum score in Glasgow coma scale is? | [
"15 & 0",
"14 & 3",
"15 & 3",
"15 & 1"
] | C | Ans. (c) 15 & 3Ref: Schwartz 9thed table 42-2, Sabiston 18thed table 20-2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42-year-old man is hit on the left side of his body by a car and is brought to the emergency department with fractures of the left tenth, eleventh, and twelfth ribs and left tibia and fibula fractures. The patient's blood pressure is 120/90 mm Hg, pulse rate is 100 bpm, and respiration rate is 24 breaths per minute. He has hematuria and left flank pain. Intravenous lines are inserted. IVP shows no excretion from the left kidney but normal excretion from the right. What would be the next step in management? | [
"Exploratory laparotomy",
"CT scan with intravenous contrast",
"Arteriography",
"Cystogram"
] | C | Arteriography is used to assess possible renal artery injury in these circumstances. It is used if the kidney is not visualized with an IVP or CT a scan. Operative intervention without arteriography is not necessary in a stable patient. Peritoneal lavage is useful in determining the presence of intraperitoneal bleeding; if arteriography shows a need for surgery, peritoneal lavage will not be necessary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood Urea Nitrogen is decreased in: | [
"Hypo-ammonemia",
"Hyper-ammonemia",
"Hyperventilation",
"Hypoventilation"
] | B | Blood Urea Nitrogen is decreased in urea cycle defects,where Hyper-ammonemia occurs C/f of urea cycle defects:- Increased blood glutamine Decreased BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) Cerebral oedema Vomiting Lethargy Blurred vision Slurred speech & hyperventilation. Note:-Severe ammonia toxicity can lead to coma and eventually death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the adrenal gland, androgens are produced by the cells in the - | [
"Zona glomerulosa",
"Zona reticularis",
"Zona fasciculata",
"Medulla"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rhabdomyosarcoma with best prognosis depending on site is: | [
"Orbit",
"Bladder",
"Prostrate",
"None of the above"
] | A | The prognosis for rhabdomyosarcoma is related to the site of origin. Primary sites associated with more orable prognoses include the orbit and nonparameningeal head and neck, paratestis and vagina (nonbladder, nonprostate genitourinary), and the biliary tract. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mental foramen is located near | [
"First premolar of mandible",
"Second molar of mandible",
"Canine of mandible",
"Canine of maxilla"
] | A | On the medial surface of the mandible is the mandibular foramen for inferior alveolar nerve and vessels. The foramen leads in to mandibular-canal which opens on the lateral surface of the mandible at mental foramen, situated below the second premolar tooth.
Fracture of mandible most commonly involves neck. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Globus pallidus and putamen are present in? | [
"Pons",
"Thalamus",
"Cerebellum",
"Basal ganglia"
] | D | Ans. (d) Basal gangliaRef: Ganong 25th ed. / 244 | train | med_mcqa | null |
GLP-1 analogue used in diabetes mellitus - | [
"Exenatide",
"Pramalintide",
"Sitaglipin",
"Canagliflozin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Exenatide ANTI-HYPERGLYCEMIC AGENTS | | |OralParenteral|| | ||||Release insulinOther mechanismInsulinGLP-analogsAmylin analogs| |||||||||| o Exenatideo Liraglutideo Pramlintide|| Sulfonyl ureasMeglitinides ||o Repaglinideo Nateglinide ||First generationo Chlorpropamide o TolbutamideSecond generationo Glipizideo Gliclazideo Glibenclamide ||||||BiguanidesThiazolidinedionesa-glucosidase inhibitorsD2 AgonistDPP-4 inhibitorSGLT-2 inhibitoro Metformino Pioglitazoneo Rosiglitazoneo Bromocriptineo Sitagliptino Vildagliptino Saxagliptino Alogliptino Dapagliflozino Canagliflozino Acarboseo Miglitol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about oath : | [
"Not compulsory",
"Compulsary and binds witness for evidence given",
"holds witness responsible for consequence of evidence",
"Witness is liable for prosecution if he does not take oath"
] | B | B i.e. Compulsory & binds witness for evidence given | train | med_mcqa | null |
Yuzpe and Lance regimen for 'post -- coital' contraception : | [
"100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours",
"Same as above but followed by same dose after 24 hours",
"Use of 150 mg of DMPA every 3 months",
"200 mg NET -- EN every 60 days"
] | A | 100 mg of ethinyl oestradiol and 0.5 mg of levonoregestel initially followed by the same dose after 12 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
To decrease PPH, drug used prophylactically is : | [
"Oxytocin",
"Methergin",
"Progesterone",
"Prostaglandin"
] | B | Methergin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Who proposed the classification of primary dentition based on distal surface of second molar? | [
"Angle",
"Baume",
"Simon",
"Dewey"
] | B | Classification of Primary Dentition given by Baume, 1959 | train | med_mcqa | null |
which muscle of the follwoing belongs to the 3rd layer of muscles of foot | [
"abductor hallucis",
"flexor hallucis brevis",
"plantar interossii",
"lumbricals"
] | B | First layer Muscles 1. Flexor digitorum brevis. 2. Abductor hallucis. 3. Abductor digiti minimi Features They cover whole of the sole Second layer 1.Flexor digitorum accessories Flexor digitorum accessorius and 2.Four lumbricals. lumbricals are attached to the 3.Two tendons (tendon of flexor digitorum tendon of flexor digitorum &;onus longus and tendon of flexor hallucis longus) Third layer 1. Flexor hallucis brevis. 2. Flexor digiti minimi brevis. 3. Adductor hallucis 1. They are confin. to the metatarsal region of the sole. 2. Two of these muscles act on the big toe and one on the little toe 1. Interossei (3 plantar interossei and 4 dorsal Fouh interossei). They fill up the intermetatarsal layer 2. Tendon of tibialis posterior. spaces 3. Tendon of peroneus longus There are 2 neurovascular planes between the muscle layers of the sole ref : bd chaurasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
In urea cycle, hydrolysis occurs during: | [
"Cleavage of Arginine",
"Cleavage of ornithine",
"Formation of Argininosuccinate",
"Formation of citrulline"
] | A | Arginase the final enzyme of urea cycle is a hydrolase i.e. it uses water to break the bond in arginine It breaks arginine into urea and ornithine Urea is transpoed to kidneys from liver blood and then excreted in urine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Smoking increase the risk of all of the following cancer's, except: | [
"Ca Larynx",
"Ca Nasopharynx",
"Ca Bladder",
"Ca Esophagus"
] | B | Role of smoking and development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is still not clear. Ref: Diet, Nutrition and Cancer: Proceedings of The 16th International Symposium on Mycotoxins By Takamatsu No Miya, Page 51; Carcinomas of The Head and Neck: Evaluation and Management By Charlotte Jacobs, Page 275; Cancer Prevention: The Causes and Prevention of Cancer By Graham A. Colditz, David John Hunter, Page 327 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic feature of atopic drmatitis is | [
"Pruritus",
"Dennie's Lines",
"Scalling skin (Lichenification)",
"Rash"
] | A | A i.e. Pruritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not an alkylating agent: | [
"Iphosphamide",
"Chlorambucil",
"Paclitaxel",
"Nitrosoureas"
] | C | Ans) c (Paclitaxel) Ref: Katzung 11th editionAlkylating agents AltietamineDacarbazineBend amu stineLomu stineBusulfanMechlorethamineCarmustineMelphalanChlorambucilTemozolomideCyclophosphamide/ThiotepaIphosphamide This table is very important. Do remember it well!Cell Cycle-SpecificNonspecific(CCS) AgentsCell Cycle-(CCNS) AgentsAntimetabolitesAlkylating agentsCapecitabineCladribineCytarabineFludarabine5- Fluorouracil (5-FU) Gemcitabine6- Mercaptopurine (6-MP) Methotrexate (MTX)6-Thioguanine (6-TG)BusulfanCarmustineCyclophosphamideLomustineMechlorethamineMelphalanThiotepaAnthracyclinesDaunorubicinDoxorubicinEpirubicinIdarubicinMitoxantroneAntitumor antibioticBleomycinEpipodophyllotoxinsEtoposideTeniposideAntitumor antibioticsDactinomycinMitomycinTaxanesAlbumin-boundPaclitaxelDocetaxelPaclitaxelCamptothecinsIrinotecanTopotecanVinca alkaloidsVinblastineVincristineVinorelbinePlatinum analogsCarboplatinCisplatinOxaliplatin | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most impoant determinant of prognosis of a patients with Wilms tumor is: | [
"Stage of disease",
"Histology",
"Loss of chromosome 1p",
"Age of presentation"
] | B | Most impoant factor for prognosis of Wilm's tumor is Histology. Higher the degree of anaplasia - Poorer the prognosis. Presence of anaplasia associated with p53 gene mutation isresponsible for adverse prognosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a cardioselective β - blocker | [
"Timolol",
"Metaprolol",
"Carvedilol",
"Propanolol"
] | B | Metaprolol is a selective β1 receptor blocker, hence cardioselective.
Note: Carvedilol is prefered in CHF cases even though its non selective β - blocker. Because it has additional anti-oxidant & anti-inflammatory property. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are used for treating Pulmonary hypeension except: | [
"Endothelin receptor antagonists",
"Phosphodiesterase inhibitors",
"Calcium Channel Blockers",
"Beta blockers"
] | D | Beta blockers Repeat .from May10 Q no.69 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Singnet ring in an ovarian tumour is characteristic of : | [
"Krukenberg's tumour",
"Dysgerminoma",
"Granulosa cell carcinoma",
"Papillary cysatadenocarcinoma"
] | A | Krukenberg's tumour | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bilateral Renal cell carcimoma is seen in - | [
"Eagle Barrett's syndrome",
"Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome",
"Von Hippel Lindau disease",
"Bilateral Angiomyolipoma"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Asha worker works for___ population: | [
"3000",
"1000",
"5000",
"400"
] | B | Ans. (b) 1000Ref: K. Park 23rd ed. / 449, 21st ed. 1407* ASHA is Accredited Social Health Activist.* One ASHA works for 1000 population.* In tribal, hilly and desert areas, the norm is one ASHA per habitation.Impact Indicators of ASHA* Infant mortality rate* Child malnutrition rate* Number of TB/leprosy case detection as compared to previous year.Must knowASHA* ASHA must be the resident of the village preferably in the age group of 25-45 years.* Minimum education required for ASHA: 8th pass* ASHA is selected by village panchayat/Gram Sabha* ASHA comes under national Rural Health Mission (NRHM): 2005-2012* Act as bridge between village and ANM (Auxiliary Nurse midwife)* Training of ASHA is done by ANM and AWW for a minimum duration of 23 daysAlso know* One multi-purpose worker (MPW) is for: 5000 population* One village health guide (VHG) is for: 1000* One Anganwadi worker (AWW) is for: 400-800 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used to perform stress ECHO – | [
"Thallium",
"Dobutamine",
"Adrenaline",
"Adenosine"
] | B | Stress echocardiography is done either by Physical stress (Exercise :- treadmill or cycling) or by pharmacological stress (dobutamine). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not anterior triangle of neck: | [
"Digastrics",
"Subclavian",
"Carotid",
"Submental"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding typhoid ulcer EXCEPT: September 2012 | [
"Ileum is the common site",
"Bleeding is common",
"Stricture is usual and causes obstruction",
"Perforation is common"
] | C | C i.e. Stricture is common and causes obstruction Typhoid ulcers Longitudinal, Ulceration of Peyer's patches, Stricture is rare | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcium channel blockers are used for all except | [
"Angina",
"Supraventricular Arrythymia",
"Sick sinus syndrome",
"Hypeension"
] | C | Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome along with beta blockers . Sick sinus syndrome, also known assinus node dysfunction (SND), is adisorder of the sinoatrial (SA) node caused by impaired pacemaker function and impulse transmission producing a constellation of abnormal rhythms Refer kDT 6/e p532 | train | med_mcqa | null |
After undergoing surgery for Carcinoma of the colon, a patient developed single liver metastasis of 2cm. What is the next line of management? | [
"Resection",
"Chemoradiation",
"Acetic acid injection",
"Radiofrequency ablation"
] | A | Total resection of the tumor is optimal management when a tumor is detected in the large bowel.The detection of metastases should not preclude surgery in patients with tumor-related symptoms.Radiation therapy to the pelvis is recommended to reduce the 20-25% probability of recurrence of stage II or III tumors after complete surgical resection.Preoperative radiotherapy is indicated for patients with large, potentially unresectable rectal cancers.Systemic therapy has become more effective.5-Fluorouracil remains the backbone of treatment of this disease. It acts as a radiosensitizer when delivered together with radiation therapy.FOLFIRI regimen: Irinotecan with 5-FU and Leucovorin.FOLFOX regimen: leucovorin with 5-FU and Oxaliplatin.MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: EGFR Ab -Cetuximab, Panitumumab, VEGF-Bevacimumab.Patients with solitary hepatic metastases without clinical or radiographic evidence of additional tumor involvement should be considered for paial liver resection.(Ref: Harrison's 18/e 773,774) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Branches of celiac trunk are all except- | [
"Splenic artery",
"Left gastric artery",
"Hepatic artery",
"Inferior phrenic artery"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Inferior phrenic artery Inferior phrenic artery is a branch of abdominal aorta, not of Celiac trunk. Branches of Celiac trunk is a extremely important topic for PG exams. Branches of important arteries are very often asked in PG exams. I am giving a list of important arteries. Learn their branches by heart if you want to get selected Celiac trunk Superior mesentric artery Inferior mesentric artery Abdominal aorta Thoracic aorta Internal iliac artery Subclavian artery Axillary artery Carotid artery Maxillary artery Basilar artery Don't waste time on learning the course or relation of arteries. They are never or very rarely asked. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs can be used for the management of malaria due to chloroquine resistant vivax except:- | [
"Quinine",
"Doxycycline",
"Aesunate",
"Fluoroquinolones"
] | D | Fluroquinolones are not used for malaria DOC for chloroquine resistant malaria is ACT. ACT of choice all over India (except noh-east) is aesunate + sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine. ACT of choice for noh east states is aemether + lumefantrine. Other ACT approved by WHO are: Aesunate + amodiaquine Aesunate + mefloquine Dihydroaemisinin + Piperaquine Quinine with doxycycline (or clindamycin) is alternative drug for chloroquine resistant malaria | train | med_mcqa | null |
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