question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Commonest spinal tumour is - | [
"Meningioma",
"Ependymoma",
"Neurofibroma",
"Neuroblastomas"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neurofibroma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the principal alkaloid obtained from seeds of nux vomica? | [
"Cerebrin",
"Strychnine",
"Hyoscyamine",
"Hyoscine"
] | B | Strychnine (kuchila) is a powerful alkaloid obtained from the seeds of strychnos nux vomica. The seeds contain two principal alkaloids; strychnine and brucine. The seeds also contain a glucoside, loganin. Strychnine is 10 to 20 times more poisonous than brucine. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 545. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subepidermal lesion are | [
"Bullous pemphigoid",
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Hailey-Hailey disease",
"Darier's disease"
] | A | A i.e. Bullous pemphigoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old male presented with chronic back pain since 5 years. He has been taking unnecessary medications for the same in the village. He was referred to an Ohopedician in the city. The doctor a x-ray and MRI of the spine. Which of the following structures are responsible for the above abnormality: - | [
"Dorsal sclerotome",
"Ventral sclerotome",
"Lateral sclerotome",
"Myotome"
] | B | This is a case of hemiveebra leading to secondary scoliosis. Occurs due to defective development of ventral sclerotome. Derivatives of somites: - Sclerotome Ventral sclerotome- Body of veebrae Lateral sclerotome - Pedicle, transverse process Dorsal sclerotome - Spinous process | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about G protein coupled receptors is | [
"G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface",
"All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind to each other for G proteins to act",
"G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit",
"G protein is bound to GTP in resting state"
] | C | Alpha subunit of GPCR has got adenyl cyclase stimulation of inhibition of adenyl cyclase- responsible for actions of GPCR Pg.no 46 KD TRIPATHI SEVENTH EDITION | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Row of tombstones' appearance is seen in: | [
"Irritant dermatitis",
"Pemphigus",
"Pemphigoid",
"Herpes zoster"
] | B | Ans. (b) Pemphigus(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 1167)DiseaseBiopsy featuresDIFPemphigus vulgaris* Suprabasal acantholytic vesicle (tombstone pattern) Q* Mixed perivascular infiltrate with eosinophils QIgG within suprabasal intercellular spaces-fishnet pattern Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triple ahrodesis does not involve September 2010 | [
"Calcaneocuboid Joint",
"Talanovicular Joint",
"Talocalcaneal Joint",
"Tibiotalar Joint"
] | D | Ans. D: Tibiotalar Joint A triple ahrodesis consists of the surgical fusion of the talocalcaneal (TC), talonavicular (TN), and calcaneocuboid (CC) joints in the foot. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnostic sign of a fracture: | [
"Abnormal mobility at fracture site",
"Pain at the fracture site",
"Tenderness",
"Swelling"
] | A | Tenderness is the commonest (consistent) sign of fracture. Abnormal mobility and loss of transmitted movements is surest sign of fracture Crepitus occurs because of rubbing of both fracture ends together and gives sense of friction between fractured ends, it should not be elicited as it may cause neurogenic shock or may cause comminution at fracture ends due to rubbing of bone ends. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most frequent direction in which the articular disc gets displaced is | [
"Anterior and lateral direction",
"Posterior and lateral direction",
"Anterior and medial direction",
"Posterior and medial direction"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Local anaesthetic with maximum ionized form at physiological pH – | [
"Lignocaine",
"Etidocaine",
"Bupivacaine",
"Chloroprocaine"
] | D | Local anaesthetics with pKa value closest at physiological pH (7.4) will have a higher concentration of nonionized (unionized) base. Thus, the agent with pKa value away from physiological pH will have more concentration of ionized form.
Chloroprocaine has highest pKa value, hence maximum ionized form at physiological pH.
Local anaesthetics with pKa value in increasing order
Mepivacaine (7.6) < Etidocaine (7.7) < Lidocaine (7.8) = Prilocaine (7.8) < Bupivacaine (8.1)
= Ropivacaine (8.1) < Tetracaine (8.2) < Cocaine (8.7) < Procaine (8.9) < Chloroprocaine (9.0) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following show hot spot on Bone Scan except? | [
"Multiple Myeloma",
"Fibrous Dysplasia",
"Pagets Disease",
"Osteomyelitis"
] | A | Bone scan: Done with: Tc99m-MDP (Methylene diphosphonate) Tc99m Medronate Hot uptake on bone scan indicates osteoblastic activity Cold uptake on bone scan indicates osteoclastic activity Hot uptake of bone scan seen with: Osteoblastic metastasis/ prostatic metastasis Paget's disease Fibrous dysplasia Osteoahritis Osteomyelitis (3 phase bone scan) Cold uptake of bone scan is seen in: Multiple myeloma (not preferred for bone scan) Focal coical defects | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adenoma sebaceum is a feature of – | [
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Tuberous sclerosis",
"Xanthomatosis",
"Incontinenetia pigmenti"
] | B | Adenoma sebaceum is the most common manifestation of tuberous sclerosis.
Ash leaf macules are the earliest manifestation, being present at birth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperacusis is due to the damage to which of the following muscles: | [
"Orbicularis oris",
"Styloglossus",
"Stylopharyngeus",
"Stapedius"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest feature of radiation toxicity is | [
"Erythema",
"Desquamation",
"Edematous rough skin",
"Hyperpigmentation"
] | A | Ans. a (Erythema). (Ref. Harrison, Principles of Medicine, 15th ed., 2562).RADIATION TOXICITY TO SKIN# Skin reaction can be seen with two weeks of fractionated radiotherapy (RT).# Erythema is the earliest observed feature followed by desquamation (dry/moist).# Chronic reaction can be seen starting at 6-12 months after irradiation.# Atrophic, easily damageable epidermis, hyperpigmentation, thin skin with hair loss also occur.# Rarely malignant change can occur.Educational points:Low-energy ORTHOVOLTAGE beams (150 to 400 kV) scatter when they strike the body, much like light diffuses when it strikes particles in the air resulting in more damage to adjacent normal tissues and less radiation delivered to the tumor.MEGAVOLTAGE radiation (1 MeV) has very low lateral scatter; this produces# a skin-sparing effect,# more homogeneous distribution of the radiation energy, and greater deposit of the energy in the tumor, or target volume. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following pigments are involved in free | [
"Lipofuscin",
"Melanin",
"Bilirubin",
"Hematin"
] | A | Ref Robbins 7/e p39; 9/e p64 Impoant points about lipochrome or lipofuscin Lipofuscin, or "wear-and-tear pigment," is an insoluble brownish-yellow granular intracellular material that accumulates in a variety of tissues (paicularly the hea, liver, and brain) as a function of age or atrophy. Lipofuscin represents complexes of lipid and protein that derive from the free radical-catalyzed peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes. It is not injurious to the cell but is a marker of past free radical injury. The brown pigment (Fig. 1-27), when present in large amounts, impas an appearance to the tissue that is called brown atrophy. By electron micros- copy, the pigment appears as perinuclear electron-dense granules | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fredrich's ataxia is caused by which type of mutation - | [
"Point mutation",
"Expanded trinucleotide repeat",
"Missense mutation",
"Inversion"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 21-year-old girl is having vaginal discharge one week after unprotected sexual intercourse. The smear of vaginal discharge is shown below. All are diagnostic criteria for the condition shown except: | [
"Vaginal pH<4.5",
"Positive whiff test",
"Clue cells >20% of cells",
"Presence of more Gardnerella with few lactobacillus"
] | A | Ans. A. Vaginal pH<4.5The image shows vaginal epithelial cells covered with coccobacilli, leading to stippled appearance of the cell. This appearance is called Clue cell and is diagnostic of bacterial vaginosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which compliment blinds with Fc poion of IgM in Classic pathway ? | [
"CI",
"C2",
"C3",
"C4"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., C1 C1q poion of C1 binds to the Fc poion of IgM (CH2 region) and IgG (CH4 region). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Predominant osteoblastic secondaries are seen in: | [
"Prostate Ca",
"Breast Ca",
"Bone Ca",
"Stomach Ca"
] | A | Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition. Bone misc tumors chapter Pg: 1205Explanation:The radiographic manifestations of metastases may he purely lytic, purely blastic. or mixed lytic and blastic.In lytic lesions, the metastatic cells secrete substances such as prostaglandins, cytokines, and PTH-related protein that stimulate osteoclast hone resorption; the tumor cells themselves do not directly resorb bone.Lysis of hone tissue rich in growth factors such as TGF-b, IGF-l, FGF, PDGF, and bone morphogenetic proteins, in rum helps create an environment conducive to tumor cell growth.Prostate adenocarcinoma secretes WNT proteins that stimulate osteoblastic hone formation.Most metastases induce a mixed lytic and blastic reactionPrimaries which produce predominantly Lytic bone lesionsCarcinoma of the kidneyCarcinoma of the JuneCarcinoma of ihe gastrointestinal tractMalignant melanomaPrimaries which produce predominantly Sclerotic/Osteoblastic lesionsProstate adenocarcinomaCa ColonCa Breast | train | med_mcqa | null |
Material of choice for single-step border moulding is | [
"Polyether",
"Greenstick compound.",
"ZOE",
"None"
] | A | Single step or simultaneous border moulding:
It is a process, in which the entire periphery of the tray is refined in a single step. Polyether impression material is the material of choice because it fulfills all the requisites. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about V. Cholerae is - | [
"One attack of V. Cholerae gives live-long immunity",
"Affects adults and children with equal propensity in non epidemic regions",
"Affects adults and children with equal propensity in non epidemic regions",
"Pathogencity of 0-139 vibrio is due to 0 antigen"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pathogenecity of 0-139 vibrio is due to 0 antigen I know this answer is going to raise many eyebrows but have patience and lets see each option one by one OptionA . This is very easily ruled out as an attack of Vcholera can give immunity lasting for only 6-12 months. Option B . In non-epidemic region cholera is mainly seen in the children. . During epidemics, it affects adults and children with equal propensity. . Harrison states . "Cholera is predominantly a pediatric disease in endemic areas, but it affects the adults and children equal when newly introduced into a population (as during epidemics)." Option C . Though chronic carrier states are seen is V.cholera, but its a rare phenomenon. . These infrequent chronic carriers are not able to maintain the organism in between epidemics. . The organism is maintained is between epidemics by its natural habitat in coastal salt water and brackish estuaries. . Harrison writes " The natural habitat of V. Cholerae is coastal salt water and brackish estuaries, where the organism lives in close relation to plankton. Humans become infected incidentally but, once infected, can act as vehicles for spread." Option D . This is going to be most controversial of all but read these lines from Harrison " V. Cholerae 0 139 Bengal strain is in fact viually identical to V. Cholerae 01 EL Tor strain except for two impoant differences, . Production of the new 0 139 LPS and . of an immunologically related 0-antigen polysaccharide capsule. . Both of these molecules are putative virulence factors, independently enhancing colonization in a murine infection model." . These lines very clearly state that the 0139 LPS (0 139 LPS and 0 antigen mean the same thing) is responsible for the virulence of this paicular 0 139 strain of V. Cholera. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hysteroscopy is used in all EXCEPT : | [
"Uterine synechiae",
"Abnormal vaginal bleeding",
"Infeility",
"None"
] | D | None | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following is complications of mumps | [
"Meningoencephalitis",
"Myocarditis",
"pancreatitis",
"Myositis"
] | D | The complications of mumps includes meningitis ,encephalitis ,oophoritis,epididymoorchitis,facial neuritis,transverse myelitis,cerebellar ataxia,auditory nerve damage,pancreatitis ,nephritis,myocarditis, mastitis Reference : Ghai essential pediatrics 8th edition pg no 217 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In mandibular deciduous tooth with poor prognosis, alveolar
abscess and necrotic pulp, the treatment of choice: | [
"Extraction",
"RCT",
"Apicoectomy",
"Drainage of abscess"
] | A | In mandibular deciduous tooth with poor prognosis, alveolar abscess and necrotic pulp, the treatment of choice is extraction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If urine sample darkens on standing, the most likely condition is : | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Alkaptonuria",
"Maple syrup disease",
"Tyrosinemia"
] | B | Alkaptonuria a condition d/t defective homogentisate 1, 2- dioxygenase (1/t defective tyrosine degradation) usually presents after age of 40 with characteristic triad of Homogentisic aciduria (which blacken/darkens on exposure to air /standing and is strongly Benedict's positive), Ochronosis (i.e black pigmentation of cailage & collagenous connective tissue), and Ahritis of large joints | train | med_mcqa | null |
A chronic alcoholic presents with repeated episodes of severe intractable abdominal pain. At evaluation the pancreatic duct was found to be dilated and stones were noted in the tail of pancreas. The most appropriate management is: | [
"Pancreatic Tail Resection",
"Pancreatico Jejunostomy",
"Percutaneous removal of stone",
"Medical management"
] | B | Pancreatico Jejunostomy is indicated in patients with severe unbearable pain and with the evidence of dilated pancreatic duct. Ref: CSDT, 12th Edition, Pages 618-19; Modern Surgical Care By Miller, 3rd Edition, Page 477; General Surgical Operations By Kirk, 4th Edition, Pages 421-22; High-yield Surgery By Raminder Nirula, 2nd Edition, Page 72; Essential Practice of Surgery, 2003, Pages 206-07 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient of contamination phobia was asked by therapist to follow behind and touch everything he touches in patients house Therapist kept talking quietly & calmly all the time. And the patient was asked to repeat the procedure twice daily. The procedure is | [
"Flooding",
"Modelling",
"Positive reinforcement",
"Aversion therapy"
] | B | B i.e. Modelling | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pathognomonic sign of acute iridocyclitis is: | [
"Small pupil",
"Aqueous flare",
"Keratic precipitates",
"All of the above"
] | C | Ans. Keratic precipitates | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left atrial filling pressure closely approximates with ? | [
"Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure",
"Central venous pressure",
"Intrapleural pressure",
"Intracranial pressure"
] | A | The pulmonary wedge pressure or PWP, or cross-sectional pressure (also called the pulmonary aerial wedge pressure or PAWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or PCWP, pulmonary venous wedge pressure or PVWP, or pulmonary aery occlusion pressure or PAOP), is the pressure measured by wedging a pulmonary catheter with an inflated balloon into a small pulmonary aerial branch Because of the large compliance of the pulmonary circulation, it provides an indirect measure of the left atrial pressure Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions? | [
"Carcinoma esophagus",
"Scleroderma",
"Achalasia cardia",
"Diffuse esophageal spasm"
] | D | Ans. (d) Diffuse esophagus spasmRef Sabiston 20th edition, Pages 1015-1018 Salient Points in DES:* Most common in women (Achalasia - Equal)* High amplitude repetitive contraction (Achalasia - Low Amplitude)* Chest pain and dysphagia* Cork screw appearance* Gold standard - Manometry* Main stay of management is Nonsurgical and medical with nitrates and CCB* Long esophagomyotomy is for failed cases and cases with epiphrenic diverticulumSalient Points in Nut cracker esophagus:* Super squeeze esophagus* MC and Most painful hypermotility disorder.* Medical management is the only option. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False statement regarding hemodynamic changes occurring during exercise is which of the following- | [
"Venous return is augmented by the pumping action of skeletal muscles",
"The increased adrenergic nerve impulses to the heart as well as an increased concentration of circulating catecholamines help to augment the contractile state of the myocardium",
"Venoconstriction in exercising muscles as well as increased... | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Murmur increasing with Valsalva manouvre - | [
"Ventricular septal defect",
"HCM(hyperophic cardio myopathy)",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Aoic stenosis"
] | B | Increases 65% of the time with hyperophic cardiomyopathy; decreased 30% of the time; Increased intensity 65% sensitive and 96% specific for hyperophic cardiomyopathy as opposed to other lesions Most other murmurs decreased intensity during Valsalva. Physiologic explanation: murmur intensity increases with decreased LV volume because of increased proximity of septum and mitral valve; decreased venous return with Valsalva Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1446 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used for functional reline method of complete dentures? | [
"Short term denture liners",
"Long term denture liners",
"Lab processed denture liners",
"None of the above"
] | A | Short term denture liners also called as tissue conditioners, are highly plasticized acrylic resins, that are used for treatment of abused tissues. Functional reline method employs use of tissue conditioners. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Interest in rubbing or touching sexually opposite person's private part for sexual pleasure is known as? | [
"Frotteurism",
"Exhibitionism",
"Voyeurism",
"Eonism"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Frotteurism o Frotteurism : is contact with another person in order to obtain sexual gratification. Sexual gratification by rubbing private parts against a female body in crowd. It is punishable under Section 290 I.P. C., with fine upto Rs 200.o Voyeurism : Sexual gratification is obtained by looking at the sexual organs of other persons, watching the act of sexual intercourse, or witnessing undressing by a woman.o Exhibitionism: It is a willful and intentional exposure of the genitalia in a public place while in the presence of others to obtain sexual pleasure.o Eonism (Transvestism): A transvestite is a person whose whole personality is dominated by the desire of being identified with the opposite sex | train | med_mcqa | null |
In giardiasis malabsorption is due to all except | [
"Loss of brush border enzymes",
"Bacterial overgrowth",
"Lactose intolerance",
"Hypogammaglobulinaemia"
] | A | Answer- A. Loss of brush border enzymesGiardia causes diarrhea and malabsorption. Malabsoion is due to loss of brush border enzyme activities, which cause fat malabsorption (steatonhea) and vitamin deficiency.There may be abdominal pain, bloating, nausea & vomiting flatulence and flatts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient? | [
"Escherichia coli",
"Salmonella typhi",
"Mycoplasma",
"Treponema pallidum"
] | C | Mycoplasma:
This is a naturally occurring bacteria without cell walls.
Mycoplasma is classified as an independent bacterial genus.
They don't require a hypertonic environment for maintenance and are stable in culture medium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
GLUT 4 Receptors are primarily found in which tissues: | [
"Brain, red blood cells",
"Liver, Kidney, Ileum",
"Neurones and placenta",
"Skeletal muscle, fat and cardiac tissue"
] | D | GLUT 4 receptors are primarily found in skeletal muscle, fat and cardiac tissue. Q Which GLUT is characteristically found in placenta GLUT 3 Q Which GLUT is characteristically a fructose transpoer GLUT 5 Q Blood to brain glucose transpo facilitated by GLUT 1 Q Main insulin responsive glucose transpoer is GLUT 4 Ref: Harper 30th edition Pgno: 191 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A gentleman of age 70 yrs, presents with complaints of tinnitus which is constant with a high buzzing pitch. Most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Acoustic neuroma",
"ASOM",
"Labyrinthitis",
"Acoustic trauma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates? | [
"Impedance audiometry",
"BAER",
"Free field audiometry",
"Behavioral audiometry"
] | B | * The Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER) test measures responses in brain waves that are stimulated by a clicking sound to check the central auditory (Hearing) pathways of the brainstem. The test can be done for all ages. * Infant test or (Bih to 1 year) * Toddler test or (1 to 3 years) * Preschooler Test or (3 to 6 years) * School age test or (6- 12 years) * Adolescent test (12 to 18 years) ' * The test is performed to help diagnose nervous system abnormalities, hearing losses (especially in low-bih weight newborns), and to assess neurologic functions. * The auditory brain stem values are in a normal range. * This range varies among patients and instruments used. * In a normal person, 7 waves are produced in the first 100 milliseconds | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classical markers for Hodgkin's disease is - | [
"CD 15 and CD 30",
"CD 15 and CD 22",
"CD 15 and CD 20",
"CD 20 and CD 30"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Myositis - Ossificans common at | [
"Shoulder joini",
"Elbow joint",
"Knee joint",
"Hipjoiiu"
] | B | B. i.e. (Elbow joint) (599 - Apley 8th) (369 - current Diagnosis and Treatment) 4th Myositis - ossificans (Post- traumatic ossification)* Ossification of the haematoma around a joint resulting in the formation of a mass of bone restricting joint movements often completely* Common at elbow joints (stress- reactive pseudo tumor)* Myositis ossificans histologically resembles to osteogenic sarcoma*** Quadriceps muscle is commonly involved* With maturation, ossification occurs in the traumatized muscle facial planes. Which may suggest the diagnosis of a synovial sarcoma or other calcifying sarcoma.* If the myositis pseudotumor is attached to the subjacent bone. It can mimic a parosteal osteosarcoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the meaning of 'Corpus delicti' in forensic medicine? | [
"Essence of crime",
"Inquest into death",
"Postmoem examination",
"Death by asphyxia"
] | A | The Corpus delicti (the body of offence or the essence of crime) means, the facts of any criminal offence, i.e., murder. The main pa of corpus delicti is the establishment of identity of the dead body, and identification of violence in a paicular way, at a paicular time and place, by the person or persons charged with a crime and none other. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 52. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Constrictions of the esophagus, when measured from upper incisors, are present at? | [
"15 cm, 20 cm, 40 cm",
"15 cm, 25 cm, 40 cm",
"20 cm, 30 cm, 40 cm",
"30 cm, 40 cm. 60 cm"
] | B | It is a fibromuscular tube, about 25 cm long in an adult.
It extends from the lower end of the pharynx (C6) to the cardiac end of the stomach (Til).
It runs Vertically but inclines to the left from its origin to thoracic inlet and again from T7 to oesophageal opening in the diaphragm.
It shows three normal constrictions and it is important to know their location at oesophagoscopy.
They are: At the pharyngo-oesophageal junction (C6) - 15 cm from the upper incisors. At the crossing of the arch of the aorta and left main bronchus (T 4) - 25 cm from upper incisors.
Where it pierces the diaphragm (T 10) - 40 cm from upper incisors. (Foreign bodies in the oesophagus can be held up at these constrictions) | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about palmar arch is | [
"Deep palmar arch is formed by ulnar artery and deep palmar branch of radial artery",
"Superficial palmar arch is formed by Radial artery and palmar branch of ulnar artery",
"Superficial palmar branch is formed by ulnar artery and radial artery",
"Deep palmar arch is formed by radial artery and deep palmar br... | D | Deep palmar arch is formed by radial artery and deep palmar branch of ulnar artery.
Superficial palmar branch is formed by uinar artery and palmar branch of radial artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chassar Moir technique is used in: | [
"VVF",
"Stress incontinence",
"Urethrocoele",
"Enterocoele"
] | A | Techniques for repairing VVF:
Layer Technique
Latzko procedure (for fistulas following hysterectomy)
Chassar moir technique | train | med_mcqa | null |
Magnesium level in blood increases in: | [
"Uncontrolled DM",
"Liver cirrhosis",
"Kidney failure",
"Chronic alcoholism"
] | C | The concentration of magnesium in serum is closely regulated within the range of 0.7–1 mmol/L (1.5–2 meq/L; 1.7–2.4 mg/dL), of which 30% is protein-bound and another 15% is loosely complexed to phosphate and other anions. One-half of the 25 g (1000 mmol) of total body magnesium is located in bone, only one-half of which is insoluble in the mineral phase. Almost all extraskeletal magnesium is present within cells, where the total concentration is 5 mM, 95% of which is bound to proteins and other macromolecules.
Because only 1% of body magnesium resides in the ECF, measurements of serum magnesium levels may not accurately reflect the level of total body magnesium stores.
Regulation of serum magnesium concentrations is achieved mainly by control of renal magnesium reabsorption. Only 20% of filtered magnesium is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, whereas 60% is reclaimed in the cTAL and another 5–10% in the DCT. Magnesium reabsorption in the cTAL occurs via a paracellular route that requires both a lumen-positive potential, created by NaCl reabsorption and tight-junction proteins encoded by members of the Claudin gene family. Magnesium reabsorption in the cTAL is increased by PTH, but inhibited by hypercalcemia or hypermagnesemia, both of which activate the CaSR in this nephron segment.
Reference: :Harrison’s medicine page no 2916 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old male suffering from auditory hallucination says that people staying upwards are talking about him and conspiring against him. He dropped a police compliant against them but the allegations were proved to be wrong. The diagnosis is: | [
"Depression",
"Dementia",
"Delusional disorder",
"Schizophrenia"
] | D | D i.e. Schizophrenia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weil felix reaction for Scrub typhus shows positivity for - | [
"OX-K",
"OXK + OX19",
"OX-2",
"OX-19"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Favus is type of: | [
"Tinea capitis",
"Alopecia areata",
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Non Cicatrizing alopecia"
] | A | Kerion, us, black dot, grey patch are all type of Tinea capitis. Tinea capitis broadly divided into - Inflammatory(kerion, us) causing scarring/cicatrizial alopecia or Non inflammatory( black dot , grey patch) causing non scarring/Non cicatrizing alopecia | train | med_mcqa | null |
C-3 nephritic factor is associated with which of the following conditions? | [
"MPGN Type 1",
"MPGN Type 2",
"Membranous nephropathy",
"Minimal change disease"
] | B | Dense-Deposit Disease (type II MPGN) Resulting in excessive activation of the alternative complement pathway. Normally, this C3 convease is labile, but more than 70% of patients with dense-deposit disease have a circulating autoantibody termed C3 nephritic factor (C3NeF) that binds the alternative pathway C3 convease and protects it from inactivation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scanty pubic hair is seen in: | [
"Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome",
"Turner Syndrome",
"Noonan Syndrome",
"Testicular feminizing syndrome"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. Testicular feminizing syndromeRef: Novak 14th/ed, p1037-1038The patient is presenting with primary amenorrhea along with well developed breast and scanty pubic hair and axillary hair -leave no doubt regarding Testicular feminizing syndrome as the diagnosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
“Tentative cuts” are seen in? | [
"Homicide",
"Accidents",
"Fall from height",
"Suicide"
] | D | Tentative/trial/hesitation/preliminary wounds: small multiple superficial somewhat parallel and skin deep cuts usually found on the anterior surface of extremities, chest and abdomen. Unintentional cuts: found on fingers, where razor blade has been gripped. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following nerve fibres has the highest conduction velocity? | [
"Aα",
"Aβ",
"Aγ",
"B"
] | A | Types of mammalian nerve fibers: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about HPLC and gas chromatography? | [
"In Gas Chromatography, the stationary phase is always solid",
"In HPLC, the stationary phase is solid",
"In HPLC, the mobile phase is a liquid or solid",
"In Gas chromatography, the mobile phase is always gas"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., In gas chromatography, the mobile phase is always gasif a solute has an affinity for the mobile phase, it moves faster. If a solute has an affinity for stationary phase, it gets retarded.That way, the solutes get separated based on differential distribution of them between a mobile phase and a stationary phase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reaction occuring in conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine? | [
"Hydroxylation",
"Oxidation",
"Glucuronidation",
"Methylation"
] | D | Ans. D. Methylation | train | med_mcqa | null |
During treatment for Wilson disease with trientine and penicillamine, free serum copper should be kept below which level? | [
"25 mcg/dl",
"50 mcg/dl",
"75 mcg/dl",
"100 mcg/dl"
] | A | The normal free copper value is 10-15 mcg/dL and it is often as high as 50 mcg/dL in untreated Wilson's disease. With treatment, free copper should be <25 mcg/dL. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3190 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Typical coloboma of iris occurs | [
"lnferotemporally",
"Superotemporally",
"Superonasally",
"lnferonasally"
] | D | CONGENITAL COLOBOMA OF THE UVEAL TRACT Congenital coloboma (absence of tissue) of iris,ciliarybody and choroid may be seen in association or independently. Coloboma may be typical or atypical. Typical coloboma: is seen in the inferonasal quadrant and occurs due to defective closure of the embryonic fissure. Atypical coloboma: is occasionally found in other positions. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-137 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nine days following splenectomy, a 13-year- old patient presents with fever and leukocytosis. The chest x-ray shows free air under the diaphragm. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Left lower lobe pneumonia",
"Postsplenectomy sepsis",
"Gastric wall ulcer",
"Left colon perforation"
] | D | Colon perforation is likely to show free air under the left hemidiaphragm. A subphrenic abscess presents with fever, leukocytosis, and a left pleural effusion. Gastric wall necrosis may likewise result in perforation with free air. There is air below the diaphragm following laparotomy, but it usually manifests symptoms clearly within the first week after operation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spider nevi are due to action of - | [
"Estrogen",
"Androgen",
"Steroids",
"Progesterone"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Estrogen o Spider nevi refer to dilated, visible small blood vessels in the skin.# It is called spider nevi because it consists of central "feeding" blood vessel with numerous fine radiating legs emanating from the central body.o Spider nevi are caused due to vasodilatation of vessels and are usually associated with cirrhosis.o Cirrhosis is associated with vasodilatation and hyperdynamic circulation.o "The cause of vasodilatation in c hr rhas is is uncertain but it is believed to be related to the increased level of estrogen in the body. Estrogen is a female sex hormone which is metabolized bv liver. Thus in liver diseases its level tends to increase which is believe to cause vasodilatation, resulting in spider naevi | train | med_mcqa | null |
Verotoxin producing E. coli 0157 :H7 serotype belong to? | [
"Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)",
"Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)",
"Entero invasive E. coli (EIEC)",
"Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)"
] | B | Ans. B. Entero hemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)a. All of the above classes of E. coli cause diarrhea.b. However, only EHEC produce a verotoxin that has many properties that are similar to Shiga toxin.c. EHEC has been associated with hemorrhagic colitis, a severe form of diarrhea, and with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). HUS is a disease resulting in acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia.d. coli O157:H7 belongs to the EHEC group of diarrheagenic E. coli. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classic Galactosemia is due to deficiency of: | [
"Hexosaminidase",
"Glucocerebroside",
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase"
] | D | Galactose 1-Phosphatase Uridyltransferase (GALT) the rate-limiting enzyme of galactose metabolism is deficient in galactosemia. Galactose undergoes an exchange reaction with UDP-glucose to produce glucose 1-phosphate and UDP-galactose, using the rate-limiting enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). Galactose metabolism: Galactose and its derivatives play a central role in the biosynthesis of complex carbohydrates, glycoproteins and glycolipids. In many organisms galactose also can serve as an impoant source of energy. No direct catabolic pathways exist for galactose metabolism. Galactose is therefore preferentially conveed into Glucose-1Phosphate, which may be shunted into glycolysis or into UDP galactose which can be used in synthetic pathways, including synthesis of lactose, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and glycosaminoglycans. Leloir pathway for Galactose metabolism: Galactose metabolism involves conversion of Galactose into Glucose-1-Phoshate, which may be shunted into Glycolysisor into UDP Galactose which can be used in synthetic pathways, including synthesis of Lactose, glycoproteins, glycolipids and glycosaminoglycans. This is carried out by the three principal enzymes in a mechanism known as Leloir pathways. Three major Enzymes of Galactose Metabolism and the metabolic consequence of result of their Deficiency: GALT: Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase (Classical Galactosemia; Most common: rate limiting Step) GALK: Galactokinase (Non classical Galactosemia; Less common) GALE: UDP-Galactose-4-Epimerase (Rare) These are diseases associated with deficiencies of each of these three enzymes the Leloir pathway Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 GALT GALK1 GALE Classic Galactosemia Galactokinase Deficient Galactosemia Galactose Epimerase Deficient Galactosemia Ref: Harper | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are sulphur containing amino acids found in proteins except | [
"Cysteine",
"Cystine",
"Methionine",
"Threonine"
] | D | Sulfur-containing amino acids: Cysteine, Methionine.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 24 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are asociated with secondary Sjogren's syndrome EXCEPT | [
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Primary biliary cirrhosis",
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus"
] | C | Ref - researchgate.net | train | med_mcqa | null |
All is true about Brown - sequard syndrome except | [
"Hemisection of spinal cord",
"Ipsilateral loss of vibration sensations",
"Ipsilateral loss of crude touch sensations",
"Ipsilateral paralysis below the level of lesion"
] | C | The patient present with contralateral loss of crude touch sensations, since anterior spinothalamic tract carrying these sensations, crosses the midline and runs on the opposite half of spinal cord. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allograft rejection is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? | [
"Immediate hypersensitivity",
"Delayed hypersensitivity",
"Swartzmans reaction",
"GVHD"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an encephala isole preparation, the transections is done at: | [
"First cervical spinal segment",
"Level of medulla",
"Midpontine level",
"Midcollicular level"
] | A | Ans. a. First cervical spinal segment | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following hormones are produced by endocrinal part of pancreas, except: | [
"Insulin",
"Somatostatin",
"Glucagon",
"Bombesin"
] | D | Bombesin is a 14 amino acid peptide isolated from amphibian skin, which was found to have stimulatory effects upon gastric and pancreatic secretions, release of gastrointestinal hormones, gallbladder contraction and bronchoconstriction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about Infraglottic carcinoma larynx | [
"Most common carcinoma",
"Second most common carcinoma",
"Commonly Spreads to submetal nodes",
"Commonly spreads to mediastinal nodes"
] | D | SUBGLOTTIC CANCER (1-2%) Subglottic region extends from glottic area to lower border of cricoid cailage. Lesions of this region are rare. Spread:- Growth stas on one side of subglottis and may spread around the anterior wall to the opposite side or downwards to the trachea. Upward spread to the vocal cords is late and that is why hoarseness is not an early symptom. Subglottic growths can invade cricothyroid membrane, thyroid gland and ribbon muscles of neck. Lymphatic metastases go to prelaryngeal, pretracheal, paratracheal and lower jugular nodes(mediastinal lymph nodes). Symptoms:- The earliest presentation of subglottic cancer may be stridor or laryngeal obstruction but this is often late and by this time disease has already spread sufficiently to encroach the airway. Hoarseness in subglottic cancer indicates spread of disease to the undersurface of vocal cords, infiltration of thyroarytenoid muscle or the involvement of recurrent laryngeal nerve at the cricoarytenoid joint. Hoarseness is a late feature of subglottic growth. Ref:-Dhingra; pg num:-309 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During laparoscopy the prefered site for obtaining cultures in a patient with acute PID is | [
"Endocervix",
"Endometrium",
"Pouch of douglas",
"Fallopain tubes"
] | D | Microbial diagnosis in acute PID Treatment is mainly staed emperically The materials for identification of organisms are from the cervical and urethral discharge and secretion from the bahoilin's gland During laparoscopic or laparotomy pus is collected from the fallopian tubes The materials are subjected to Gram's stain and culture Ref: D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; 6TH EDITION; PG NO:131 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hb is a good buffer because of | [
"Histidine residues",
"Protein nature",
"Acidic nature",
"Iron molecules"
] | A | Ref Robbins 9/e p650 Haemoglobin also functions in CO2 and proton transpo from tissues to lungs . Release of O2 from Oxy Hb at the tissue is accompanied by uptake of proton due to lowering of the pKa of histamine residues | train | med_mcqa | null |
MgSO4 is/are indicated in | [
"Severe pre eclampsia",
"Gestational trophoblastic disease",
"Gestation diabetes",
"Placenta prae"
] | A | The drug of choice for control and prevention of convulsion in eclampsia is magnesium sulphate ,usually given by Pritchard&;s regime.The mechanism of action thought to have a peripheral action at the neuromuscular junction,by competing with calcium for entry into the cells.It may also have central action. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.268 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which antiepileptic drug is least secreted in breast milk - | [
"Ethosuximide",
"Clonazepam",
"Gabapentin",
"Carbamazepine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clonazepam DrugBreast milk to plasma concentrationCarbamazepine0-69Clonazepam033Ethosuximide0-94Gabapentin0-7-1-3Lamotrigine0-057-1-47Phenobarbitone0-4-0-6Phenytoin018-0-45Primidone0-72Topiramate0-86-1-1Valproate0-42Zonisamide0-93 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with burns presents to the emergency room. He was started on intravenous fluids. The best method to assess the adequacy of volume replacement is | [
"Pulse rate",
"Urine output",
"Systolic blood pressure",
"Central venous pressure"
] | B | Answer: b) Urine output (Merck manual & Handbook of Evidence based critical care)Treatment of shock is directed at maintainingCVP of 8-12 mm HgMean arterial pressure of >65 mmHg (systolic pressure >90 mmHg)Cardiac index of 2-4 L/min/m2The urine output rate should be kept at >0.5 mL/kg per hourAdequate end-organ perfusion is best indicated by urine output of > 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hHeart rate, mental status, and capillary refill may be affected by the underlying disease process and are less reliable markers.Because of compensatory vasoconstriction, mean arterial pressure (MAP) is only a rough guideline; organ hypoperfusion may be present despite apparently normal values.An elevated arterial blood lactate level reflects hypoperfusion; however, levels do not decline for several hours after successful resuscitation.HEMODYNAMIC SUPPORT IN SHOCKNS or RL (crystalloids) is the first choice for acute stage of resuscitationWhen fluid requirements are high, colloids (Dextran, gelatin, 5% albumin) are of usePacked RBC should be given at 10 mL/kg to maintain hematocrit at 30% or Hb 9 g/dLBolus of 20ml/Kg given rapidly over 5-10 mins; if no response - repeat bolusPatients who do not respond to rapid boluses of 40-60ml/Kg in the first hour are labeled as fluid refractory shock and inotrophic support (dopamine or dobutamine) should be givenUse insulin only if it is needed to maintain the blood glucose concentration below 150 mg/dLFirst line Vasopressor inAnaphylactic shock: EpinephrineSeptic shock, Cardiogenic shock, Vasodilatory shock: NorepinephrineRefractory shock: EpinephrineIf shock persists - catecholamine resistant shock - give Hydrocortisone if adrenal insufficiency is suspectedACTH stimulation test is not useful for detecting less profound degrees of corticosteroid deficiency in patients who are critically illVasodilators (nitroprusside, nitroglycerine) in children remaining hypodynamic with high SVR despite fluid and ionotropic supportChildren remaining normotensive with low output state and high SVR despite epinephrine and vasodilator - phosphodiesterase III inhibitors (Amrinone, Milrinone) are givenRecombinant activated protein C (aPC) - for severe sepsis or septic shock | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elastomers except POLYETHER are | [
"Hydrophilic",
"Hydrophobic",
"Water loving impression materials",
"Potassium alginates"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs is most effective against an organism producing aminoglycoside inactivating enzymes? | [
"Amikacin",
"Streptomycin",
"Gentamicin",
"Tobramycin"
] | A | (Ref: KDT 6/e p724) Amikacin is most resistant to aminoglycoside inactivating enzymes. Aminoglycosides are not effective against anaerobes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the source of energy for a cardiac muscle at normal conditions? | [
"Fatty acids",
"Ketone bodies",
"Glucose",
"Any of the above"
] | A | Hea consumes more energy than any other organ. It utilizes about 6 kg of ATP per day, 20-30 times of its own weight. Cardiac muscle derives its energy by oxidative metabolism of fatty acids (60-90%) and glucose 10-40%. Ketone bodies are also normally metabolized. In addition, energy transfer to hea's myofibrils occurs by creatine kinase catalyzed energy shuttle. The metabolism of hyperophied hea switches from fatty acid to glucose. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students By D. M. Vasudevan, Sreekumari S, Kannan Vaidyanathan, 2013, Page 102. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male patient 59 year old complains of multiple swellings in the neck , fever, and weight loss. General examination reveals painless lymph node enlargement in the neck and on blood investigation anaemia is revealed. Serum albumin is 32 gm/l. Lymph node biopsy shows Reed Sternberg cells.
The 5-year rate of overall survival (%) for this patient , according to The Hasenclever prognostic index for advanced Hodgkin lymphoma is: | [
"90",
"74",
"70",
"59"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are motile except: | [
"Klebsiella",
"E. coli",
"Salmonella",
"Proteus"
] | A | Ans: A (Klebsiella) Ref: Ananthanarayan, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons; 2009.Explanation:Commonly encountered motile and non-motile bacteriaMotileNon-motileMost Enierobacteriaceae except (Shigella and Klebsiella)Eg: Proteus, E. coli, SalmonellaShigellaViorio (darting motility)KlebsiellaListeria monocytogenes {tumbling motility) Clostridium tetani (stately motility) Spirochaetes (Cork-screw motility) Types of flagella:Peritrichous (flagella present all around) - Escherichia coli, Salmonella Monotrichous (Single polar flagellum) - Vibrio, PseudomonasLophotrichous (tuft of flagella at one pole) - HelicobacterAmphitrichous {one or more flagella at both poles) - Campylobacter | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tuberculin testing done at - | [
"Dorsum of left arm",
"Dorsum of right arm",
"Ventral aspect of left forearm",
"Ventral aspect right forearm."
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ventral aspect of left forearm o In tuberculin test, injection is given intradermally on flexor (ventral) surface of left forearm, mid-wav between elbow & wrist.Intradermal injection of PPDon flexor aspect of forearm | Examined at 48-72 hours |||Induration > 10 mmInduration < 5 mmInduration 6-9 mm|||PositiveNegativeEquivocal | Repeat tuberculin test (two step testing) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following sites is Salmonella typhi most likely to be found during the carrier state? | [
"Blood",
"Gallbladder",
"Kidney",
"Liver"
] | B | Salmonella typhi is the most likely to be found in gall bladder during the carrier state. Carriage: Up to 5% of patients become carriers. - The carrier state is more common in women than in men and in the older people (over 40 years) than in young people. - Carriers usually harbour the organisms in the gallbladder or biliary tract. - Type of Carriers:- Convalescent - shed bacilli for 3 weeks-3 months after clinical cure. Temporary - shed bacilli for 3 months to 1 year after clinical cure. Chronic - shed bacilli for more than 1 year. - Carriers can be diagnosed by stool/ urine culture or sewer swab culture. - Treatment of carriers: Ampicillin or Amoxicillin + probenecid for 6 months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glue ear is | [
"Painful",
"Painless",
"Naf is useful",
"Radical mastoidectomy is required"
] | B | Otitis media with effusion/ Serous OM/Glue ear/Secretory OM is a painless condition following accumulation of non-inflammatory exudate in the middle ear. Commonly seen in children.OME is the commonest cause of conductive deafness in children, and due to adenoid hyperophyIn adults, Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is to be ruled out.Treatment of choice- Myringotomy with grommet inseion.Ref: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 146 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Depolarisation of atria on ECG is seen as | [
"P-wave",
"QRS complex",
"T-wave",
"ST segment"
] | A | P wave shows atrial depolarizationQRS complex shows ventricular depolarization T wave shows ventricular repolarizationST segment represents the duration from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarizationRef: Textbook of medical physiology by N Geetha,2nd edition, page no. 136 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs is not a pa of the &;Triple Therapy&; immunosuppression for post-renal transplant patients? | [
"Cyclosporine",
"Azathioprine",
"FK 506",
"Prednisolone"
] | C | Initial therapy is the treatment given to all recipients (except where the donor is an identical twin) for 0-3 months after transplantation. Initial therapy is usually 'triple therapy', in which a calcineurin inhibitor (traditionally ciclosporin) is used as the 'primary agent'in combination with a coicosteroid (prednisolone) and azathioprine. Calcineurin inhibitor with anti-proliferative agent alone or with steroids alone(DUAL THERAPY) REF.Bailey and Love 27e pg 1540. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Organ most vulnerable to ischaemic due to shock? | [
"Lungs",
"Adrenals",
"Kidney",
"Hea"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hea o The susceptibility of a tissue to hypoxia influences the likelihood of infarction. o Neurons are most sensitive to hypoxia (irreversible changes develop in 3-4 minutes) followed by myocardial cells (irrversible changes develop in 20-40 minutes). o Fibroblasts are amongst the most resistent cells to hypoxia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemodialysis associated amyloid is deposited in - | [
"Knee joint",
"Tongue",
"Liver",
"Tongue"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Knee joint Hemodialysis associated amyloid is deposited in synovium, Joints and tendon sheath. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used for neuroprotection in preterm deliveries? | [
"Betamethasone",
"Dexamethasone",
"Magnesium sulphate",
"Indomethacin"
] | C | Very low-bihweight neonates whose mothers were treated with magnesium sulfate for preterm labor or preeclampsia were found to have a reduced incidence of cerebral palsy at 3years. (Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest cause of vomiting in a one month old infant is – | [
"Pyloric stenosis",
"Cardiac chalasia",
"Aerophagy",
"Gastro–esophageal reflux"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Boiled lobster' skin appearance seen in | [
"Acetic acid poisoning",
"Boric acid poisoning",
"Alkali poisoning",
"Carbolic acid poisoning"
] | B | Boric acid dermal: Generalised erythema creating a 'boiled lobster' appearance. There is massive desquamation which is indistinguishable from epidermal necrolysis or staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome in neonates. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 416 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acromegaly is a disorder of: | [
"Excess growth hormone secretion during adulthood",
"Excess thyroxine secretion",
"Excess ACTH secretion",
"Excess FSH secretion"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acidophils secrete: | [
"GH",
"TSH",
"ACTH",
"FSH"
] | A | Acidophilic cell: Lactotrophs (10-30%) and Somatotrophs (50%).
Basophilic cell: Gonadotrophs (20%), Corticotrophs (10%) and Thyrotrophs (5%).
Somatotrophs – human growth hormone (hGH). Corticotropes – adrenocorticotropin (ACTH).
Thyrotrophs– thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Gonadotrophs – gonadotropic hormones, which include both luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormones (FSH).
Lactotrophs – prolactin (PRL).
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 940 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is sign named for infrequent blinking of eyelids in grave's ophthalmopathy | [
"Enroth sign",
"Stellwag sign",
"Gifford's sign",
"Vongraefe sign"
] | B | Infrequent Blinking : Stellwag sign Grave's Ophthalmopathy Signs Enroth sign - 'e' for edemameans fullness of eyelids. Joffroy sign- absent creases in the forehead on superior gaze. Grove sign- resistance to pulling down the retracted upper lid. Stellwag sign- incomplete and infrequent blinking - still meaning 'no movement'. Ballet sign- restriction of one or more extraocular muscles. Gifford sign- difficulty in eveing upper lid Jellink's sign Increased pigmentation on the lids IOP is increased in up-gaze. Von Graefe's sign - Lid lag | train | med_mcqa | null |
In type-4 thyroplasty, vocal cord is ? | [
"Medially displaced",
"Laterally displaced",
"Lengthened",
"Shoened"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lengthened Thyroplasty Isshiki divided thyroplasty procedures into 4 categories to produce functional alteration of vocal cords : - Type I : Medial displacement of vocal cord (done by injection of gel foam/Teflon paste) Type 2 : Lateral displacement of cord (done to improve the airway). Type 3 : Shoening (relax) the cord, to lower the pitch (gender transformation from female to male). Type 4 : Lengthening (tightening) the cord, to elevate the pitch (gender transformation from male to female), for example as a treatment of androphonia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sperm acquires motility in | [
"Seminal vesicle",
"Testes",
"Epididymis",
"Ejaculatory duct"
] | C | The seminiferous tubules of the testes are the staing point for the process, where spermatogonial stem cells adjacent to the inner tubule wall divide in a centripetal direction--beginning at the walls and proceeding into the innermost pa, or lumen--to produce immature sperm. Maturation occurs in the epididymis Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:625,626,627 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which substances are best suited to measure interstitial fluid volume? | [
"Inulin and heavy water",
"Inulin and 22Na",
"Heavy water and 125I-albumin",
"Inulin and 125I-albumin"
] | D | Interstitial fluid volume= ECF volume - Plasma volume Inulin best indicator of ECF volume and 125I-albumin is most commonly used for plasma volume estimation | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old male had fever for 1 week, abdominal distention and loss of appetite. It is not responding to antibiotics and antimalarials. Widal test is negative but RK39 dipstick test was positive. Which drug can be used? | [
"Bedaquiline",
"Linezolid",
"Fluconazole",
"Amphotericin B"
] | D | Ans. (D) Amphotericin B(Ref: KDT 8th/902)RK 39 dipstick test is positive in infection with Leishmania. So, it is a case of visceral Leishmaniasis or Kala azar. The drug of choice is amphotericin B. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Helicobacter pylori is implicated as causative agent in | [
"Hodgkin's Lymphoma",
"Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma",
"MALT Lymphoma",
"Mantle cell Lymphoma"
] | C | Helicobacter pylori infection is causative agent in MALT Lymphoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old pregnant female at 40 weeks gestational age presents with pain and regular uterine contractions every 4-5 min. ON arrival, the patient is in a lot of pain and requesting relief immediately. Her cervix is 5 cm dilated. What is the most appropriate method of pain control for this patient? | [
"Intramuscular morphine",
"Pudendal block",
"Local block",
"Epidural block"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. Epidural blockRef Williams 24/e, p 513When complete relief of pain is needed throughout labor, epidural analgesia is safest and simplest. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all except | [
"Decreasing cAMP",
"Increase glucose uptake",
"Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase",
"Increasing acetyl CoA"
] | C | BE CAREFUL: Questions says EXCEPT Insulin: Decreases cAMP Increases glucose uptake into peripheral tissues by recruiting GLUT-4 Increase the formation of Acetyl CoA by increasing the action of enzyme - Pyruvate Dehydrogenase i.e. Link reaction So, option C is wrong as insulin activates enzyme of Link reaction i.e. Pyruvate Dehydrogenase (not inhibits). Extra information: Insulin activates: All Anabolic pathways (HMP, Glycogenesis, Fatty Acid Synthesis, Cholesterol Synthesis and TG Synthesis). Two Catabolic pathway enzymes i.e. Glycolysis and Link reaction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about cryptorchidism,except: | [
"Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular tumor",
"Seminoma is the most common tumor",
"Contalateral testis is also at risk",
"Orchidopexy reduces the risk of malignancy"
] | D | Predisposing factors for testicular GCTs are
Cryptorchidism
Testicular feminization syndrome
GCT of one testis is a risk factor for the other testis
Testicular Ca in a sibling
Klienfelter syndrome - is associated with mediastinal GCT
Administration of estrogens (eg DES) to the mother during pregnancy is associated with increased incidence of testicular Ca in male offspring.
Some points are worth mentioning about cryptorchidism
Of the predisposing factors, cryptorchidism has the strongest association with testicular Ca.
Increased risk is seen for both the testis i.e. the cryptorchid testes as well as the normally descended testes
Abdominal cryptorchid testes are at a higher risk than inguinal cryptorchid testes.
Seminoma is the most common type of testicular cancer seen in a cryptorchid testes
Remember this : Placement of the cryptorchid testis into the scrotum (orchipexy) does not alter its malignant potential, however it facilitates examination and tumor detection
(Note that Harrison (17/e, p601) contradicts the above statement but we should follow what Campbell & Smith say) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following condition is tardy ulnar nerve palsy seen? | [
"Malunited supra condylar fracture",
"Malunited lateral condylar fracture",
"Malunited medial condylar fracture",
"Fracture both bones of forearm"
] | B | Tardy ulnar nerve palsy may develop after malunited fractures of the lateral humeral condyle in children, displaced fractures of the medial humeral epicondyle, dislocations of the elbow and contusions of the nerve. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy may also develop in patients who have a shallow ulnar groove on the posterior aspect of the medial humeral epicondyle. Complications associated with pediatric lateral condylar fracture include cubitus varus, cubitus valgus, fishtail deformity, and tardy ulnar nerve palsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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