question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The following complications are likely to increase in a case of severe anemia during the pregnancy except : | [
"Pre-eclampsia",
"Intercurrent infection",
"Hea failure",
"Subinvolution"
] | D | Subinvolution | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dislocation of the veebra is uncommon in thoracic region because in this region: | [
"The aicular process are interlocked",
"The veebral body is long",
"Anterior longitudinal ligament is strong",
"Spinous process is long and pointed"
] | A | In the thoracic and lumbar region of the veebral column the adjoining veebrae are maintained in position by the close interlocking of the aicular process. As a result dislocation in this region is highly uncommon and usually takes place after fracture of the aicular process. Interveebral disc herniation is more common in the lumbar region than cervical.The discs usually affected are those between fouh and fifth lumbar veebrae and between fifth lumbar and veebrae and sacrum. A lateral herniation may press on one or two nerve roots going to interveebral foramen just below. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paget's disease of the nipple is | [
"Superficial manifestation of underlying breast Ca",
"Galactocele",
"Eczema",
"All of the above"
] | A | Paget's disease of the nipple is superficial manifestation of an intraductal breast carcinoma. The malignancy spreads within the duct up to the skin of the nipple and down into the substance of the breast. It mimics eczema of nipple and areola. In Paget's disease, there is a hard nodule just underneath the areola, which later ulcerates and causes destruction of nipple. Histologically, it contains large, ovoid, clear Paget's cells with malignant features. Paget's hyperchromatic cells are located in rete pegs of epidermis containing intracellular mucopolysaccharides as clear halo in cytosol. Reference : page 533 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding fetal BBC's except – | [
"Elevated 2,3 DPG",
"Decreased carbonic anhydrase activity",
"Decreased life span",
"High RBC volume"
] | A | Fetal RBC contains less 2, 3 DPG. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the ideal treatment for a 55-years female with Simple hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia : | [
"Simple Hysterectomy",
"Medroxy Progesterone Acetate (DMPA)",
"Levonorgesterol (LNG)",
"IUCD"
] | A | With atypia, hysterectomy is the best option There is 25% association with coexisting endometrial carcinoma and a high risk of progression to endometrial cancer Reference : Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Pg no: 247 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A coronally positioned pedicle graft is used when a single tooth exhibits gingival recession and | [
"Bleeding",
"Pus discharge",
"Irreversible pulpitis",
"Sensitivity"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Absorption of vitamin A can be enhanced by giving the child a diet rich in – | [
"Fat",
"Protein",
"Minerals",
"Carbohydrates"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemodialysis is used in all EXCEPT: | [
"Barbiturates",
"Organophosphates",
"Salicylates",
"Theophylline poisoning"
] | B | B i.e. Organophosphates | train | med_mcqa | null |
Membrana tectoria is continuation of: | [
"Anterior longitudinal ligament",
"Posterior longitudinal ligament",
"Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane",
"Posterior atlanto-occipital membrane"
] | B | Ans. b. Posterior longitudinal ligament | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Tuberculate spores" are characteristic features of- | [
"Candida",
"Histoplasma",
"Coccidioidomycosis",
"Cryptococcus"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The differentiation of the Gonad into Male is dependent on: | [
"Presence of SRY gene",
"Lack of SRY gene",
"Presence of AMH",
"Presence of Testosterones"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
This might be seen in <img src=" /> | [
"Alcoholic cirrhosis",
"Irritable bowel disease",
"Celiac sprue",
"Pernicious anaemia"
] | A | This is spider angioma, With release of central compression, the aeriole fills from the center and spreads out peripherally. Seen in cirrhosisFeatures of alcoholic cirrhosisOn physical examination, the liver and spleen may be enlarged, with the liver edge being firm and nodular. Other frequent findings include scleral icterus, palmar erythema, spider angiomas, parotid gland enlargement, digital clubbing, muscle wasting, or the development of edema and ascites. Men may have decreased body hair and gynecomastia as well as testicular atrophyWomen may have menstrual irregularities usually occur, and some women may be amenorrheic.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 2059 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shakir's tape is used in age group of:- | [
"3 months to 5 years",
"6 months to 5 years",
"9 months to 5 years",
"1 year to 5 years"
] | B | Mid Arm Circumference:- Field instrument used to measure Mid arm circumference is Shakir's tape Used in age group 6 months to 5years. Normal value is > 13.5cms Mild to moderate PEM = 12.5 -13.5 cms Severe PEM = <12.5 cms | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are reduced in Iron deficiency anaemia EXCEPT: | [
"T.I.B.C",
"Percentage saturation of Transferrin",
"Hemoglobin",
"Ferritin"
] | A | Ref: Robbins E- Book P 454Iron deficiency anaemia has all parameters reduced except Total iron binding capacity. Iron deficiency anemiaHematocrit| to |||MCV| to |||MCHC|Serum iron| to |||Serum TIBCNormal to | Serum ferritin| to ||Stainable iron in marrowAbsentReticulocytesNormal to | | train | med_mcqa | null |
Back washing is a recommended technique for | [
"Rapid Sand Filter",
"Slow Sand Filter",
"Community Well",
"Domestic Filter"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best way to prevent infection after cataract surgery is? | [
"Antibiotics",
"Yebrows shaving",
"Through irrigation",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antibiotics Perioperative measures toprevent infection The most impoant source of potential infectious organisms is the patient's own natural conjunctival and skin flora. So, prophylactic antibiotic should adequately cover these organisms. The pre- operative topical antibiotic should be staed 3 days prior to surgery. Preferred antibiotics are fouh generation fluoroquinolones (gatifloxacin, moxifloxacin). Other antibiotics are aminoglycosides, traditional fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) and gramicidin- neomycin - polymyxin B combination. Never the less, complete conjunctival sterility is not usually possible with the use of preoperative antibiotics alone. The topical antiseptic povidone iodine 5% instilled as a single drop 10- 30 minutes before surgery is one of the most effective measure to decrease this bacterial flora. Intraoperatively, a large poion of surgeons (66.4%) also use subconjunctival antibiotic. Intracameral antibiotic at the end of surgery showed significant benefit in reducing the rate of bacterial endophthalmitis. Post- operatively topical antibiotics (eye drops) are given along with steroids for 10 -14 days. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An elderly patient complains of recurrent episodes of amaurosis fugax. This is attributable to microembolization of which of the following? | [
"Facial artery",
"Retinal artery",
"Occipital artery",
"Posterior auricular artery"
] | B | Amaurosis fugax, one type of TIA, is a manifestation of carotid bifurcation atherosclerotic disease. It is manifested by unilateral blindness, being described by the patient as a window shade across the eye, lasting for minutes or hours. It is caused by micro emboli from a carotid lesion lodging in the retinal artery, the first intracerebral branch of the internal carotid artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Virus causing hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is - | [
"Coxsakie A24",
"Poxvirus",
"Measels",
"Mumps"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coxsakie A24 o Repeat from previous sessions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about amiloride are true EXCEPT : | [
"It antagonises the action of aldosterone",
"It is the drug of choice for the treatment of lithium induced diabetes insipidus",
"It decreases calcium loss in the urine",
"It is more potent than triamterene"
] | A | Amiloride acts by blocking epithelial Na+ channels. It has no effect on aldosterone receptors.
It is more potent than triamterene.
It decreases Ca2+ loss in the urine
It is the drug of choice for lithium-induced DI. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heberden done denotes involvement of | [
"Distal inetrphalangeal joint",
"Proximal interphalangel joint",
"Metacarpophalangeal joint",
"Metatarsophalangeal joint"
] | A | In osteoahritis of hand:Distal interphalangeal joint: Heberden's nodeProximal interphalangeal joint: Bouchard's node(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 88, 101, 127) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skin TB from an underlying structure is called: | [
"Scrofuloderma",
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Erythema nodosum",
"Erythema gangrenosum"
] | A | Scrofuloderma: multibacillary type of cutaneous tuberculosis. Earlier known as Tuberculosis cutis colliquativa. It develops as infection into the skin from an underlying focus, usually lymph nodes and occasionally bone, joint. MC in children. MC lymph node involved: Cervical Begins as asymptomatic, bluish red, subcutaneous swellings that persist for several months and overlie an infected gland or joint. Numerous fistulae may intercommunicate beneath ridges of a bluish skin and some may open draining sinuses onto skin surface. Spontaneous healing can occur, but the course is very protracted and leaves typical, cord like scars. Histology shows marked caseating necrosis, in which there are usually numerous bacteria. Antituberculous therapy is usually effective. The differential diagnosis includes Syphilitic gumma, Deep fungal infections, Actinomycosis, and Hidradenitis suppurativa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug when combined with Electro-convulsive therapy leads to post ictal delirium | [
"Succinylcholine",
"Lithium",
"Desipramine",
"Clozapine"
] | B | Lithium when combined with ECT Lowered seizure threshold - Prolonged seizures(lasting > 3 min). Results in post-ictal delirium. Doses are withheld for 24 hours prior to treatment | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of a new left breast lump that she discovered 1 week ago. The nodule is not painful; she feels well and has no other symptoms. On physical examination the lump is palpable, and there are no axillary lymph nodes. The mammogram confirms the presence of a 1-cm breast mass which on biopsy is positive for invasive breast cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate local therapy for her tumor? | [
"simple mastectomy with axillary dissection",
"radiation therapy to breast and axilla",
"local excision plus radiation therapy",
"local excision and axillary dissection followed by radiation therapy"
] | D | Breast-conserving surgery is now recommended for small tumors. Radiation therapy will decrease local recurrence rates. For tumors < 1 cm, adjuvant therapy is indicated only if axillary nodes are positive. Therefore, in this case, an axillary dissection will provide important therapeutic information. However, this is an area of rapidly changing knowledge and practice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prophylaxis against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis ( SBP) in case of cirrhosis with ascites is indicated in: | [
"Patients with high protein ascites",
"Prior history of SBP",
"Serum creatinine 1 mg/dl",
"Child pugh < 8"
] | B | The risk factors for SBP are 1.Ascitic fluid protein < 1 g/dl 2.Variceal hemorrhage 3.Prior episode of SBP Acute variceal bleeding patients need prophylaxis against SBP & Drugs used for prophylaxis are: 1.Inj.Ceftriaxone 1 g/day 2. Oral. Ofloxacin 400 mg/day or Norfloxacin 400 OD Primary prophylaxis is indicated in patients with features of : Ascitic fluid protein < 1.5 g/dl With at least one of the following 1. Serum creatinine > 1.2 mg/dl 2. BUN > 25 mg/dl 3. Serum Na < 130 mEq/L 4. CTP > 9 points with bilirubin > 3 mg/dl 5. DRug is Norfloxacin 400 mg OD for long time. Ref: AASLD practice guidelines:Hepatology, Vol.49 ,No.6 ,2009. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old woman is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the following organ system complications is she most likely to have over the course of her lifetime? | [
"Cardiopulmonary",
"Cutaneous",
"Renal",
"Musculoskeletal"
] | D | SLE is a multisystem disease with diverse organ involvement. The most common system to be involved is the musculoskeletal system. Most commonly as ahralgias or myalgias. Ahritis is also common and is one of the diagnostic criteria for SLE. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spider leg appearance is found in – | [
"Polycystic kidney",
"Pyelonephritis",
"Hydronephrosis",
"Renal artery stenosis"
] | A | Spider leg appearance on IVP is seen in Polycystic kidney disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Globi is - | [
"Histiocyte containing acid fast bacillus",
"Lymphocyte containing acid-fast bacillus",
"Neutrophile containing acid-fast bacillus",
"Large lymphocyte containing acid fast bacillus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Histiocyte containing acid-fast bacillus | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of Rheumatic heart disease developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely organism causing this is: | [
"Streptococcus viridans",
"S.epidermidis",
"S.aureus",
"Pneumococci"
] | A | Following tooth extraction, Streptococcus viridans gets lodged into previously damaged valve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hormone (s) that uses cAMP as Second Messenger System includes? | [
"Calcitonin",
"Angiotensin Converting enzyme",
"Prolactin",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. A. Calcitonin. (Ref. Guyton & Halls Textbook of Medical Physiology ll,h/pg. 913; Table 74-2)Some Hormones That Use the Adenylyl Cyclase-cAMP Second Messenger SystemSome Hormones That Use the Phospholipase C Second Messenger System# Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)# Angiotensin II (epithelial cells)# Angiotensin II (vascular smooth muscle)# Catecholamines (a receptors)# Calcitonin Catecholamines (b receptors)# Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)# Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)# Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)# Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)# Oxytocin# Glucagon# Thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)# Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)# Vasopressin (VI receptor, vascular smooth muscle)# Luteinizing hormone (LH) # Parathyroid hormone (PTH) # Secretin # Somatostatin # Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) # Vasopressin (V2 receptor, epithelial cells) Mechanisms of Action of Hormones:Ion Channel-Linked Receptors.# Virtually all the neurotransmitter substances, such as acetylcholine and norepinephrine, combine with receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.G Protein-Linked Hormone Receptors.# Many hormones activate receptors that indirectly regulate the activity of target proteins (e.g., enzymes or ion channels) by coupling with groups of cell membrane proteins called heterotrimeric GTP-binding proteins (G proteins).Enzyme-Linked Hormone Receptors.# Some receptors, when activated, function directly as enzymes or are closely associated with enzymes that they activate. These enzyme-linked receptors are proteins that pass through the membrane only once, in contrast to the seven-transmembrane G protein-coupled receptors. One example of an enzyme-linked receptor is the leptinreceptor. In the case of the leptin receptor, one of the signaling pathways occurs through a tyrosine kinase of the janus kinase (JAK) family, JAK2.Intracellular Hormone Receptors and Activation of Genes.# Several hormones, including adrenal and gonadal steroid hormones, thyroid hormones, retinoid hormones, and vitamin D, bind with protein receptors inside the cell rather than in the cell membrane.Additional educational points;# cAMP is not the only second messenger used by the different hormones. Two other especially important ones are (1) calcium ions and associated calmodulin and (2) products of membrane phospholipid breakdown.# Binding of norepinephrine with its receptor on the outside of many cells increases the activity of the enzyme adenylyl cyclase on the inside of the cell, and this causes formation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). The cAMP in turn can initiate any one of many different intracellular actions, the exact effect depending on the chemical machinery of the effector cell.# For a few peptide hormones, such as ANP, cGMP, which is only slightly different from cAMP, serves in a similar manner as a second messenger.# The normal calcium ion concentration in most cells of the body is 10-8 to 10-7 mol/L, which is not enough to activate the calmodulin system. But when the calcium ion concentration rises to 10-6 to 10-5 mol/L, enough binding occurs to cause all the intracellular actions of calmodulin. It is interesting that troponin C is similar to calmodulin in both function and protein structure.# Most hormones are present in the blood in extremely minute quantities; some concentrations are as low as one billionth of a milligram (1 picogram) per milliliter. Therefore, it was very difficult to measure these concentrations by the usual chemical means. An extremely sensitive method that revolutionized the measurement of hormones, precursors, and their end product is called radioimmunoassay (RIA). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which muscles are known as 'Triceps surae'? | [
"Gastro-soleus",
"Popliteus",
"Extensor hallucis longus",
"Extensor digitorum longus"
] | A | TRICEPS SURAE:-Two heads of gastrocnemius + soleus ("three-headed of the calf") These muscles both inse into the calcaneus and form the major pa of the muscle of the posterior leg, ie calf muscle. GastrosoleusLarge size of gastrosoleus is a human character and is directly related to the adoption of an erect posture and to the bipedal gait of man. GASTROCNEMIUS:-Superficial to soleus Origin:- medial and lateral head.Medial head- larger. Arises from medial condyle of femur behind the adductor tubercle, capsule of knee joint, and popliteal surface of femur.Lateral head:-lateral condyle, lateral supracondylar line, and capsule of knee joint. SOLEUS:-sole-shaped, multipennate Origin: fibula- head and upper 1/4th of shaft.Tibia-soleal line,medial border of shaft.Tendinous soleal arch. Inseion: fuses with tendon of soleus to form tendocalcaneus or tendoachilles.Inseed into the middle 1/3 rd of posterior surface of calcaneum. Nerve supply: Tibial nerve (S1, S2) Action:-strong plantar flexors of foot. The gastrocnemius is also a powerful flexor of knee.Soleus- more powerful Gastrocnemius- fast acting In walking soleus overcomes the ineia of the body weight, like the button gear of a car.when movement, is underway, the quicker acting gastrocnemius increase the speed. Soleus/ peripheral hea:-Contractions of these muscles help in venous return from the lower limb. There are large, valveless, venous sinuses in its substance. When the muscle contracts the blood in these sinuses pumed out. When it relaxes, it sucks the blood from the superficial veins through the perforators. <img src=" /> {Reference: BDC 6E pg no.106, chapter 9} | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mycosis fungoides affects - | [
"T Cells",
"B Cells",
"NK Cells",
"K Cells"
] | A | The histological hallmark of the mycosis fungoides is the presence of the Sezary-Lutzner cells. These are CD4 helper T cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old woman with epigastric pain, which did not improve on ranitidine, is found to have a nonhealing pyloric channel ulcer on upper endoscopy. Her serum calcium level is 12 mg/dL. | [
"Watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria (WDHA) syndrome",
"Somatostatinoma",
"Multiple endocrine neoplasia type-1 (MEN)-1",
"MEN-2A"
] | C | MEN-1, or Werner's syndrome, and autosomal dominant disorder, involves tumors or hyperplasia of two or more glands, most commonly parathyroid, pancreas, and pituitary glands. Hyperparathyroidism is most common, followed by various pancreatic isle cell tumors and pituitary adenomas. MEN-2A (Sipple's syndrome) consist of pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and often hyperparathyroidism. MEN-2B is characterized by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma, neuromas and marfanoid body habitus. MEN-2A and -2B are also autosomal dominant. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shape of septal cartilage of nose is | [
"Diamond shaped",
"Triangular",
"Quadrilateral",
"Pentagonal"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Quadrilateral * The septal cartilage of the nasal septum is a quadrilateral cartilage."Cartilage of the septum, also known as the quandragular cartilage because it is roughly quadrilateral in shape - separates the nostrils".Medial nasal wall or Nasal septum* Nasal septum is the osseo - cartilaginous partition between the two halves of the nasal cavity.* Nasal septum consists of1) Columellar septum It is formed by columella containing the medial crura of alar cartilages united together by fibrous tissue.2) Membranous septum It consists of double layer of skin with no bony or cartilaginous support.3) Septum properThis forms the major portion of nasal spetum and consists of osteocartilagenous framework which is coverd by mucous membrane. Its constituents arei) Osseous part# The vomer# Perpendicular plate of ethmoid# Nasal spine of frontal bone# Rostrum and crest of sphenoid# Nasal crest of nasal bone# Nasal crest of palatine bone# Nasal crest of maxillary bone ii) Cartilaginous part# Septal (Quadrilateral or Quadrangular) cartilage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rao and Singh's index is? | [
"Age-dependent index",
"Age-independent index",
"Age and sex-dependent index",
"Independent of wt and ht"
] | B | RAO & SINGH'S INDEX: - It is calculated as Weight (in kg) x 100/height2 (in cm) - Normal value: 0.14 - In children with malnutrition: 0.12 - 0.14 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding Grave's disease except: March 2008 | [
"Orbital proptosis",
"Presents as primary thyrotoxicosis",
"Anti-TPO antibodies",
"Pretibial myxoedema"
] | C | Ans. C: Anti-TPO antibodies | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following is good prognostic factor for bipolar disorder EXCEPT: | [
"Acute onset",
"Early age of onset",
"Early responsive treatment",
"Associated depression"
] | B | Ans. (b) Early age of onsetGood Prognostic FactorsPoor Prognostic Factors* Acute or abrupt onset* Typical clinical features* Severe depression* Well-adjusted premorbid personality* Good response to treatment* Co-morbid medical disorder, personality disorder or alcohol dependence* Double depression (acute depressive episode superimposed on chronic depression or dysthymia)* Catastrophic stress or chronic ongoing stress* Unfavourable early environment and early age of onset* Marked hypochondriacal features, or mood incongruent psychotic features* Poor drug compliance | train | med_mcqa | null |
Community health centre covers a population of | [
"20000",
"40000",
"60000",
"80000"
] | D | Community health centres were established by upgrading the primary health centres.Cover the population of 80000-1.2 lakh (one in each community development block) with 30beds and specialists in surgery, medicine, obstetrics and gynaecology and paediatrics.Park 23e pg: 907 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood supply of the uterus is by: | [
"Ovarian aery",
"Uetrine aery",
"Both",
"None of the above"
] | C | The uterus is chiefly supplied by the two uterine aeries and paly by ovarian aeries | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following molecules serve as the earliest marker in myocardial infarction | [
"Myoglobin",
"Troponin",
"HbA2",
"CK MB"
] | A | Myoglobin is found in cardiac and skeletal muscle. It is released more rapidly from infarcted myocardium than troponin and CK-MB and may be detected as early as two hours after an acute myocardial infarction. Ref: Biochemistry by U. Satyanarayana 3rd edition Pgno : 107-112 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sphenopalatine neuralgia is also known as: | [
"Lower half headache.",
"Sluder's headache.",
"Horton's syndrome.",
"All of the above."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Scutum is present in middle ear ? | [
"Roof",
"Lateral wall",
"Medial wall",
"Floor"
] | B | Lateral wall | train | med_mcqa | null |
Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in: March 2009 | [
"Pneumonia",
"ARDS",
"Pulmonary edema",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D: All of the above Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a term used in mechanical ventilation to denote the amount of pressure above atmospheric pressure present in the airway at the end of the expiratory cycle. It is indicated in Hypoxemia due to the following: ARDS Pneumonia Pulmonary edema Atelectasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paradoxical carriers are- | [
"A person who acquires the microorganism due to his contact with the patient.",
"A person who acquires the microorganism another carrier.",
"A person who is clinically recovered from an infectious disease but still capable of transmitting the infectious agent to others.",
"None"
] | B | Ans. B.A person who acquires the microorganism another carrier.Paradoxical carrier are defined as person who acquires the microorganism another carrier. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of chest radiography in Tetralogy of fallot except: September 2007 | [
"Boot shaped hea shadow",
"In 80% right sided arch of aoa",
"Oligemic lung fields",
"Right ventricular enlargement"
] | B | Ans. B: In 80% right sided arch of aoa Findings associated with TOF: Right ventricular predominance on palpation May have a bulging left hemithorax Systolic thrill at the lower left sternal border Aoic ejection click Single S2 - Pulmonic valve closure not heard Systolic ejection murmur More cyanotic patients have greater obstruction and a softer murmur. An acyanotic patient with tetralogy of Fallot (pink tetralogy) has a long, loud, systolic murmur. Cyanosis and clubbing - Variable Squatting position Scoliosis - Common Retinal engorgement Chest roentgenography - Coeur en sabot (boot-shaped hea) secondary to uplifting of the cardiac apex from right ventricular hyperophy and the absence of a normal main pulmonary aery - Normal hea size due to the lack of pulmonary blood flow and congestive hea failure Decreased pulmonary vascularity - Right atrial enlargement - Right-sided aoic arch (30% of patients) with indentation of leftward-positioned tracheobronchial shadow - May be normal in acyanotic tetralogy of Fallot or may resemble findings of small-sized to moderate-sized ventricular septal defect (VSD) with mild right ventricular hyperophy, right atrial enlargement, and increased pulmonary vascular markings Echocardiography: Reveals a large VSD with an overriding aoa and variable degrees of right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT) obstruction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP ? | [
"Glycolysis",
"TCA Cycle",
"Fatty Acid Oxidation",
"HMP Pathway"
] | D | The pentose phosphate pathway is an alternative route for the metabolism of glucose. It does not lead to formation of ATP but has two major functions:
The formation of NADPH for synthesis of fatty acids and steroids , and maintaining reduced glutathione for antioxidant activity, and
The synthesis of ribose for nucleotide and nucleic acid formation.
Harper 30TH EDITION PG- 197 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Safety pin appearance is shown by? | [
"Hemophilus ducreyi",
"Chlamydia",
"Donovani granulomatis",
"Mycoplasma"
] | A | Hemophilus ducreyi is a sho ovoid bacillus with a tendency to occur in the end to end pairs or sho chains. It is Gram-negative but may often appear Gram-positive and frequently shows Bipolar staining. The bacilli may be arranged in small groups or whole or in parallel chains giving a School of Fish or Railroad track appearance Other examples: Yersinia pestis REF:Ananthanarayan & panickers Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition page no331 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Winging of scapula is due to injury to | [
"Long thoracic nerve",
"Sho thoracic nerve",
"Axillary nerve",
"Suprascapular nerve"
] | A | Winging of scapula is due to the injury to long thoracic nerve(C5, C6, and C7). Long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle and injury to this nerve causes the prominence of interior angle and medial border of scapula. The patient is unable to perform pushing action. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 12 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gemfibrozil is:- | [
"HMG CoA inhibitor",
"PPAR-a activator",
"Inhibit cholesterol synthesis",
"Inhibit cholesterol absorption"
] | B | Gemfibrozil: MOA: Activation of the nuclear transcription receptor "peroxisome proliferator - activated receptor alpha" (PPAR-a). Major effects are to increase plasma HDL and to decrease plasma TG. Myopathy risk highest when used with statins Statins: Inhibit HMG COA reductase Inhibit cholesterol synthesis. EZETIMIBE- Inhibit intestinal cholesterol absorption. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In alpha-thalassemia trait, electrophoresis shows: | [
"Increased HbF & normal HbA2",
"Normal HbF & normal HbA2",
"Normal HbF & decreased HbA2",
"Decreased HbF & normal HbA2"
] | B | Electrophoresis is a screening test for hemoglobinopathies Normal individual Sickle cell anaemia a thalassemia b thalassemia HbA 95% Absent Less HbF 2% Present Normal Increased HbA2 3% Present Normal Increased Note: In sickle cell anemia absence of HbA means the disease severity is very high. But in sickle cell trait HBA is present. Note: Screening test for both a & b thalassemia is NESTROF IOC for both a & b thalassemia is HPLC | train | med_mcqa | null |
S1 ejection click & severe pulmonary stenosis relation is- | [
"In severe pulmonary stenosis gap increases",
"In severe pulmonary stenosis gap reduces",
"In severe pulmonary'' stenosis no change",
"In severe pulmonary stenosis ejection click comes before"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., In severe pulmonary stenosis gap reduceso S1 occurs due to the closure of the A. V. valveEjection click occurs due to flow of blood through the pulmonary or the Aortic valve.The ejection of the blood does not begin immediately after the closure of A- V valve.The pulmonary valve opens when the right ventricular pressure exceeds the pressure in plumonary artery. The ejection of the blood begins only after, opening of the A V valve and is preceeded by the time it takes for ventricular pressure to sufficiently exceed the Aortic and pulmonary diastolic pressure therefore there is the time interval between S1 and ejection click.o The interval between the S1 and the pulmonary ejection sound is directly related to the right ventricular isovolumic contraction time which is usually prolonged in pulmonary hypertension explaining a relative late occurrence of the ejection sound in these patients.o With increasing severity of pulmonary valve stenosis, the isovolumetric contraction shortens and the pulmonary ejection sound therefore tend to occur soon after S1.o In patient with very severe pulmonary stenosis, the ejection sound can fuse with S1 and max not he recognized.In severe pulmonary stenosis ejection click may be absent or it is very close to S1 because in severe pulmonary stenosis the increased Right ventricular pressure keeps the pulmonary' valve open before ventricular systole begins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasal triangle is - | [
"Includes vestibule of nose",
"From comers of mouth",
"Extends to the bridge of nose",
"All of the above"
] | D | (All of the above) (Internet)Kiesselbach's plexus, which lies in Kiesselbach's area, Kiesselbach's triangle, or Little's area, is a region in the anteroinferior part of the nasal septum where four arteries anastomose to form a vascular plexus of that name.The arteries are:* Anterior ethmoidal artery (from the ophthalmic artery)* Sphenopalatine artery (terminal branch of the maxillary artery)* Greater palatine artery (from the maxillary artery)* Septal branch of the superior labial artery (from the facial artery)Ninety percent of nose bleeds (epistaxis) occur in Little's area, as it is exposed to the drying effect of inspiratory currentThe danger triangle of the face consists of the area from the comers of the mouth to the bridge of the nose, including the nose andmaxilla. Due to the special nature of the blood supply to the human nose and surrounding area, it is possible (although very rare) for retrograde infections from the nasal area to spread to the brain.This is possible because of venous communication (via the ophthalmic veins) between the facial vein and the cavernous sinus. The cavernous sinus lies within the cranial cavity, between layers of the meninges and is a major conduit of venous drainage from the brain.It is a common misconception that the veins of the head do not contain one-way valves like other veins of the circulatory system. In fact, it is not the absence of venous valves but the existence of communications between the facial vein and cavernous sinus and the direction of blood flow that is important in the spread of infection from the face. Most people, but not ail, have valves in the veins of the faceSoft triangle is the area of the top of the triangle-shaped nostrils which has no cartilage and only consists of skin. Damaging this area duringincisions on the nose can cause scarring and notching, and should be avoided.The danger triangle consist of the area from the corners of the mouth to the bridge of the nose, including the nose and maxilla.* Sphenopalatine artery also called the artery of epistaxis.* The ostiomeatai complex consists of a narrow cleft between uncinate process and bulla ethmoidalis and comprising of ethmoidal infundibulum, maxillary ostium and frontal recess.* The olfactory area is considered as the dangerous area of nose as the infection from this area can be carried through the cribriform plate to the anterior cranial fossa.* The angle formed by three semicircular canal is solid angle.* Trautman's triangle - bounded by the bony labrysinth anteriorly, signoid sinus posteriorly and dura superiorly, weakest part, commonest site for extradural abscess.* Gradeniogo's syndrome - Triada) External rectus palsy (Vlth nerve palsy).b) Deep seated ear or retro-orbital pain (Vth nerve involvement).c) Persistent ear discharge (Otorrhea).* Gresingerfs sign - Inflamed swelling and oedema in the middle of the posterior border of the mastoid seen in Lateral sinus thrombosis (picket fence fever). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non depolarizing neuromuscular blocker is | [
"Non competitive neuromuscular blocker",
"Reversed by neostigmine",
"Persistent stimulator of nicotinic cholinergic receptors",
"Induces fasciculations"
] | B | Non depolarising neuromuscular blocker is competitive antagonist at nicotinic cholinergic receptor. It doesn’t cause fasciculations . it is reversed by neostigmine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
PDS is absorbed within? | [
"7 days",
"21 days",
"100 days",
"180 days"
] | D | Polydioxanone (PDS): A synthetic smooth suture that is delayed absorbable, monofilament and lasts longer than dexon. It is absorbed in 6 months; other propeies are the same as dexon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the blood cells secrete major basic protein? | [
"Neutrophil",
"Basophil",
"Platelet",
"Eosinophil"
] | D | Major basic protein is a 117 amino acid enzyme with potent activity against helminths, bacteria and mammalian cells. It is released by eosinophils. It is the enzyme associated with immune hypersensitivity reactions. It also stimulates the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, activates neutrophils and alveolar macrophages, and is involved in epithelial cell damage and bronchospasm in asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following shall be seen with use of a small size BP cuff? | [
"False elevation of BP",
"Falsely low value of BP",
"Cancels the effect of calcified aeries",
"Increases trans-arm impedance"
] | A | False elevation of BP is seen with use of small cuff Blood Pressure Cuff size Bladder width >= 40% of mid-arm circumference. Bladder length 80-100% of arm circumference. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bullous impetigo is caused by: March 2013 | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Haemophilus influenzae",
"Clostridium perfringenes"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Staphylococcus aureus Conditions caused by Staphylococcal aureus SSSS (Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome), Bullous impetigo/Impetigo contagiosa, Furuncles/ Boils, Sycosis barbae and Sycosis nuchae | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stellate ganglion is seen in- | [
"Cerebellum",
"Mid brain",
"Medulla oblongata",
"Near lower cervical spine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Near lower cervical spine * The stellate ganglion (or cervicothoracic ganglion) is a sympathetic ganglion formed by the fusion of the inferior cervical ganglion and the first thoracic ganglion,* Stellate ganglion is located at the level of C7, anterior to the transverse process of C7 and the neck of the first rib, superior to the cervical pleura and just below the subclavian artery* Damage to stellate ganglion (cervicothoracic or inferior cervical ganglion) causes Horner's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Avascular necrosis of head of femur occurs commonly at: | [
"Transcervical region",
"Trochanteric region",
"Subcapital region",
"Subchondral region"
] | C | C i.e. Subcapital | train | med_mcqa | null |
A preterm baby suffered perinatal asphyxia and was found to have Periventricular leucomalacia on CNS imaging, as shown below:Which imaging modality was used? | [
"MRI brain",
"CECT head",
"SPECT brain",
"Transcranial ultrasound"
] | D | d. Transcranial ultrasoundThis picture shows Transcranial ultrasound of an infant done through the open anterior fontanelle.It shows the 2 lateral ventricles & areas of echogenicity near it, suggestive of PVL | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angiography of Choroidal melanoma shows | [
"Collar stud appearance",
"Mushroom shape appearance",
"Double circulation",
"None of the above"
] | C | Choroidal melanoma
B-scan ⇒ Collar stud appearance / Mushroom shape appearance
Angiography ⇒ Double circulation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of Helicobacter pylori are EXCEPT | [
"Clarithromycin",
"Cisapride",
"Bismuth subsalicylate",
"Metronidazole"
] | B | (Cisapride) (1124-CMDT- 08) (949-H17th)Helicobacter pylori* Drug of choice - Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)* Alternative drugs - Bismuth subsalicylate + Tetracycline + metronidazole + PPI | train | med_mcqa | null |
Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) which plays an impoant role in graft rejection is present on chromosome: | [
"Sho arm of chromosome 6",
"Long arm of chromosome 6",
"Sho arm of chromosome 3",
"Long arm of chromosome 3"
] | A | The genes for the HLA antigens are clustered in the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), located on the sho arm of chromosome 6. Three of these genes (HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C) code for the class I MHC proteins. Several HLA-D loci determine the class II MHC proteins (i.e., DP, DQ, and DR). Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 62. Major Histocompatibility Complex & Transplantation. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 62-year-old man presents to the OPD for an annual physical examination. After noting a PSA level of 12.3 ng/dL, you refer him to an urologist for fuher workup. Following a prostatic biopsy, the results show the presence of adenocarcinoma of the prostate, which is given a Gleason score of 8. The Gleason score is a measurement of: | [
"The extent of cancer within the prostate gland",
"The extent of the cancer within the abdomen",
"The likelihood that the cancer will grow and spread",
"The number of cancer cells expressing prostate specific antigen (PSA) on their cell surface"
] | C | Gleason grading system: Developed to provide a measurement of the potential for prostate cancer to grow and spread Prostate biopsies involve sampling of tissue from several different areas of the gland (normally at least six). Two samples that appear to be most heavily involved, then histologically graded on a scale from 1 to 5 numbers are combined to give a Gleason score of 2 to 10 Tumors graded from 2 to 4- Slow growing Tumors graded 5 to 6- Intermediate Tumour graded 7 to 10 considered highly aggressive. Gleason score has nothing to do with the: stage (extent) of the cancer, expression of prostate specific antigen estimated survival time. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old boy comes to the physician for a routine examination. He reveals that he wants to kill his girlfriend because she cheated on him. He also states that he intends to buy a gun for personal protection. Who is the treating physician required to contact? | [
"Another physician who knows the girl",
"Another physician who knows the patient",
"Law enforcement authorities and/or the girl",
"Law enforcement authorities only"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about prions: | [
"Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid",
"Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell",
"Viruses which are genetically deficient",
"Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Guinea worm infestation is common in workers of | [
"Step wells",
"Ponds",
"Fields",
"Cotton mills"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best predictor for coronary aery disease - | [
"HDL",
"LDL",
"VLDL",
"Chylomicron"
] | B | LDL is the best indicater of the risk for CAD.high level of LDL is the indicater | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emergence or reemergence seen in which of the following organisms - | [
"Polio virus",
"Measles virus",
"Nipah virus",
"West Nile virus"
] | C | <p> Nipah virus is a new infectious disease recognised in 1999. Emerging infectious diseases are those whose incidence in humans has increased during the last two decades or which threaten to increase in the near future. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:355-357. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a causative organism for malignant ot externa | [
"Virus",
"Bacteria",
"Fungi",
"Protozoa"
] | B | Ans. (b) BacteriaRef: Dhingra's ENT 5th ed. 157-58* Malignant otitis externa is caused by pseudomonas infection in elderly, diabetics & patients on the immune- compromised drugs .* Early manifestation resembles diffuse otitis externa. Patients have severe pain & appearance of granulation in meatus.Infectious Etiology of Ear CanalBacterialFungalViral* Localized otitis externa* Diffuse otitis externa* Malignant otitis externa* Otomycosis* Herpes zoster oticus* Otitis externa hemorrhagica | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is: | [
"Ethanolamine oleate",
"Octreotide",
"Propranolol",
"Phytonadione"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
C-peptide occurs in: | [
"Proinsulin",
"Glucagon",
"Parathormone",
"Thyroxine"
] | A | Preproinsulin contains a signal peptide of 23-amino acid. The signal peptide is removed as it enters the endoplasmic reticulum. The remainder of the molecule is pro-insulin. This peptide contains A, B chains and the connecting peptide (C peptide). Separation of C peptide produces insulin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
To eradicate measles the percentage of population to be vaccinated is at least............% | [
"70",
"80",
"85",
"95"
] | D | 95 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rain drop pigmentation is seen in – | [
"Chronic lead poisoning",
"Chronic Arsenic poisoning",
"Chronic Mercury poisoning",
"All of the above"
] | B | Rain drop pigmentation is characteristic of chronic arsenic poisoning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
LDH 5 is seen in ? | [
"Kidney",
"Hea",
"Liver",
"Prostate"
] | C | LDH is an enzyme present in the cytoplasm of cells. LDH is present in the hea, liver, RBCs, kidney, skeletal muscles, lung and brain. When there is an injury to the cells LDH spells into the bloodstream. Five isoenzymes make the total LDH. These are; LDH 1 is present in the cardiac muscle and RBCs. LDH 2 is present in the cardiac muscle and RBCs. LDH 3 is present mainly in the lung and other tissues. LDH 4 is present in the kidneys, pancreas, and placenta. LDH 5 is present in the skeletal muscles and liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Internal thoracic aery is a branch of ? | [
"Common carotid aery",
"Brachiocephalic trunk",
"Subclan aery",
"External carotic aery"
] | C | Internal thoracic aeryIt arises from Ist pa of subclan aery and descends through anterior ends of upper six intercostal spaces lying 1.25 cm lateral to sternal margin.It divides into two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric in 6th intercostal space.Branches of internal thoracic aery are (i) mediastinal branches, (ii) pericardial branches, (iii) sternal branches, (iv) pericardiophrenic branches, (v) anterior intercostal aeries (in upper six spaces), (vi) perforating branches, and (vii) two terminal branches, musculophrenic and superior epigastric. | train | med_mcqa | null |
FEVI/FVC is decrease in: | [
"Asthma",
"Kyphosis",
"Scoliosis",
"Fibrosis"
] | A | Answer is A (Asthma): Decreased FEV1/FVC suggests a diagnosis of Obstructive Lung Disease. Amongst the options provided Asthma is the only condition that leads to Obstructive Pattern of Lung Disease and hence is the answer of choice Kyphosis, Scoliosis and Fibrosis are Restrictive Lung Diseases that are characterized by Normal or Elevated FEVI/FVC ratios. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intercostobrachial nerve is a branch of - | [
"1st intercostal nerve",
"2nd intercostal nerve",
"3rd intercostal nerve",
"Upper trunk of brachial plexus"
] | B | Intercostobrachial nerve
- Lateral cutaneous branch of 2nd intercostal nerve
- Supplies
Skin of floor of axilla.
Upper part of medial aspect of arm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Russel bodies are - | [
"Intracellular accumulation of protein",
"Homogenous eosinophilic deposits",
"Seen in multiple myeloma",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infectious disease shows iceberg phenomenon. That means it has ? | [
"More case fatality rate",
"More SAR",
"More subclinical cases",
"More complications"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., More subclinical cases Iceberg of disease Disease in a community may be compared with an iceberg. The floating tip of the iceberg represents what the physian sees in the community, i.e. clinical cases (Diagnosed case, symptomatic case or clinically apparent case). The vast submerged poion of the iceberg represents the hidden mass of disease, i.e. latent, inapparent, presymptomatic and undiagnosed cases and carriers in the community. The "waterline" represents the demarcation between apparent and inapparent disease. Epidemiologist is concerned with Hidden poion of iceberg whereas clinician is concerned with tip of iceberg. Screening is done for Hidden poion of iceberg whereas diagnosis is done for tip of iceberg. Iceberg phenomenon of disease is not shown by rabies, tetanus and measles. The clinician concerned only with the tip of iceberg, i.e symptomatic cases that are seen in clinical treatment, this can result in inaccurate view of the nature and causes of a disease results because the minority of the cases are studied (hidden cases :- submerged poion of ice berg is not studied) -3 Clinician's Fallacy. iseases with a great deal of subclinical infection (therefore have iceberg phenomenon) are :- Rubella Polio Japanese encephalitis Influenza Mumps Hepatitis A and B Diphtheria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine ? | [
"Antimycobacterial",
"Antifungal",
"Antimalarial",
"Antiamoebic"
] | C | Lumefantrine is a fluorene arylaminoalcohol derivative, it has marked blood schizonticidal activity against a wide range of plasmodia. So it is used as an antimalarial drug. It exes its antimalarial effect by interacting with heme, a degradation product of hemoglobin metabolism. Ref: Malaria Control in Complex Emergencies: An Inter-agency Field Handbook By World Health Organization, Page 77; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 26 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lower 1/3 of vagina is formed by | [
"Mesonephric duct",
"Paramesonephric duct",
"Sinovaginal bulb",
"Mesoderm of mullerian duct"
] | C | Lower 2/3rd of vagina formed from sinovaginal bulb which comes from endoderm of urogenital sinus. Upper 1/3rd of vagina is derived from fused paramesonephric duct. Mesonephric duct forms the collecting pa or ductular pa of male reproductive system. Mesoderm of Mullerian duct is basically paramesonephric duct. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Banding technique used for studying translocations involving centromere is | [
"Q banding",
"G banding",
"R banding",
"C banding"
] | D | M/c used for cytogenetic analysis - G banding.
For studying translocations involving centromere - C banding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deepest layer of the scalp is - | [
"Superficial fascia",
"Pericranium",
"Falea Aponeurotica",
"Occipitofrontalis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pericranium * The scalp is soft tissue which covers the calvaria of skull. It consists of five layers and can be memorised by a mnemonic using the initial letters of the word. SCALP :-a) Skinb) Close network of connective tissue (superficial fascia)c) Aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) with occipitofrontalis musclesd) Loose areolar (subaponeurotic) tissuee) Pericranium (outer periosteum of skull)* First three layers are intimately connected and move as one unit, and are called surgical layers of scalp or scalp proper.* Connective tissue (superficial fascia) contains large blood vessels and nerves of the scalp. The walls of the vessels are adherent to the fibrous network, so that when the vessels are torn in an open wound they are unable to retract and produce profuse bleeding. Bleeding can be arrested by pressure against the underlying bone.* Loose subaponeurotic areolar tissue (4th layer) is called dangerous area of scalp because it contains emissary veins through which infection in subaponeurotic space may spread readily to intracranial venous sinuses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a step in the ‘three step build up’ of direct filling gold? | [
"Tie formation",
"Stepping",
"Shoulder formation",
"Banking of walls"
] | B | A. Three step build-up for the restoration
“Tie formation”
This involves connecting two opposing point angles or starting points filled with gold with a transverse bar of gold. Such a “tie” forms the foundation for any restoration in direct gold. Of course, its resistance to displacement should be tested before proceeding to the next step.
“Banking of walls”
This is accomplished by covering each wall from its floor or axial wall to the cavosurface margin with the direct gold material. A wall should be banked in a way that will not obstruct tie formation or banking of other walls in the cavity preparation. “Banking” should be performed simultaneously on the surrounding walls of the preparation.
“Shoulder formation”
Sometimes, to complete a build-up, it is necessary to connect two opposing walls with the direct gold material. These three steps should completely fill up the cavity preparation, but the build-up should continue until the preparation is overfilled.
Ref: Marzouk .page 399 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common presenting finding of multiple sclerosis is - | [
"Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia",
"Optic neuritis",
"Transverse myelitis",
"Cerebellar ataxia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest type of Anal canal Ca is - | [
"Sq. cell Ca",
"Adeno Ca",
"Adenoacanthoma",
"Papillary type"
] | A | Mainly 3 types of malignant neoplasm are seen in anal canal
Squamous cell Ca (MC)
Basal cell Ca (IInd mc)
Melanoma
Remember
MC type of rectal & colon Ca → Adenocarcinoma*. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In parathyroid crisis with sudden elevations of calcium over 16 mg /dl ; the treatment consist of -a) Intravenous vitamin Db) Parathyroidectomy for removal of adenomac) Thyrocalcitonind) Intravenous bicarbonatee) All of the above | [
"bc",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Government (public) expenditure on health as percentage of GDP is | [
"1.2",
"12",
"0.12",
"5"
] | D | Current India’s public health expenditure on health is 3.9% of GDP | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 54-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a stab wound of the thoracic wall in the area of the right fourth costal cartilage. Which of the following pulmonary structures is present at this site? | [
"The horizontal fissure of the left lung",
"The horizontal fissure of the right lung",
"The oblique fissure of the left lung",
"The apex of the right lung"
] | B | The horizontal fissure of the right lung is a fissure separating the superior lobe from the middle lobe. It usually extends medially from the oblique fissure at the midaxillary line to the sternum, along the lower border of the fourth rib. The apex of the right lung reaches to a level above the clavicle and is therefore superior to the stab wound in the fourth costal cartilage. The other answers are related to features of the left lung, which is not addressed in the question. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is a muscle splitting incision: September 2012 | [
"Kocher's",
"Rutherford-Morris",
"Pfannensteil",
"Lanz"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Lanz | train | med_mcqa | null |
Proinflammatory cytokines include all of the following except | [
"IL1",
"IL10",
"IL6",
"TNF alpha"
] | B | ref Robbins 8/e p56 ; cytokines and pain p3,9/e p86 the following are anti inflammatory cytokines-IL10,TGF-beta,IL _13 An inflammatory cytokine or proinflammatory cytokine is a type of signaling molecule (a cytokine) that is excreted from immune cells like helper T cells(Th) and macrophages, and ceain other cell types that promote inflammation. They include interleukin-1(IL-1), IL-12, and IL-18, tumor necrosis factor alpha(TNF-a), interferon gamma (IFNg), and granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) and play an impoant role in mediating the innate immune response. Inflammatory cytokines are predominantly produced by and involved in the upregulation of inflammatory reactions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal Respiratory quotient- | [
"0.5",
"0.8",
"1",
"1.5"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 0.8 Respiratory quotient* For working out the energy balance, it is important to estimate the energy expenditure of the body under various conditions. A convenient way of estimating is respiratory quotient (RQ). RQ is the ratio of the amount of CO2 released to the amount of O2 consumed. 200 ml of CO2 is removed from tissues per minute and 250 ml of O2 is delivered to the tissues per minute, the normal RQ can be calculated to be 0.8 (= 200/250).RQ =CO2 removed--------O2 consumed* RQ of Carbohydrate is 1.00, for fat is 0.70 and for proteins it is about 0.82. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following anti glaucoma drug increases uveoscleral outflow – | [
"Latanoprost",
"Timolol",
"Pilocarpine",
"Acetazolamide"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gestational diabetes develops only during | [
"Old age",
"Younger age",
"Pregnancy",
"Infancy"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gonococcus affects tubes mainly by _________ | [
"Hematogeous spread",
"Lymphatic spread",
"Parametrium spread",
"None of the above"
] | D | Gonococcus ascends up to the tube mainly mucosal continuity and contiguity, which is facilitated by sexually transmitted vectors such as sperms and Trichomonas. The mucous membrane is first affected and it is edematous, infiltrated with leucocytes and plasma cells. Another route is through reflux of mucosal blood. Mycoplasma spreads across parametrium Lymphatics are involved in spread of secondary organisms and PID following post-aboal and pueperal infection. Organisms from gut affect tubes directly. Ref: Shaw&;s textbook of Gynaecology 17th edition Pgno: 339 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except | [
"Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix",
"Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).",
"Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.",
"Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 41 year old male complains of pain in lower right back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals deep caries in relation to 47 and IOPA examination reveals deep dentinal caries not involving the pulp. Dentist excavates the caries and restored it with zinc oxide eugenol. Which of the following substance can be used to clean this cement from the instruments? | [
"Essential oil",
"White rosin",
"Clove oil",
"Oil of orange"
] | D | MANIPULATION
Powder/liquid system:
Powder/liquid ratio - 4:1 to 6:1 by weight.
The bottles are shaken gently. Measured quantity of powder and liquid is dispensed onto a cool glass slab. The bulk of the powder is incorporated into the liquid and spatulated thoroughly in a circular motion with a stiff bladed stainless steel spatula. Zinc oxide eugenol exhibits pseudothickening. Although it appears to thicken early during spatulation, further vigorous spatulation or stropping loosens the mix. Smaller increments are then added, until the mix is complete.
For temporary restorations, a thick putty-like consistency is recommended.
Oil of orange is used to clean eugenol cement from instruments.
Reference – Manappallil p; 101 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old male presents with weight loss, steatorrhea, and malabsorption. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a questionable mass in the head of the pancreas. A biopsy specimen microscopically reveals chronic inflammation and atrophy of the pancreatic acini with marked fibrosis. No malignancy is identified. What is the most common cause of this patient's disease in adults? | [
"Abdominal trauma",
"Chronic alcoholism",
"Gallstones",
"Hyperlipidemia"
] | B | Chronic pancreatitis is characterized histologically by chronic inflammation and irregular fibrosis of the pancreas. The major cause of chronic pancreatitis in adults is chronic alcoholism, while in children the major cause is cystic fibrosis. Recurrent attacks of acute pancreatitis also result in the changes of chronic pancreatitis. Hypercalcemia and hyperlipidemia also predispose to chronic pancreatitis (since they are causes of acute pancreatitis), while in as many as 10% of patients, recurrent pancreatitis is associated with pancreas divisum. This condition refers to the finding of the accessory duct being the major excretory duct of the pancreas. Chronic ductal obstruction may be a cause of chronic pancreatitis and may be associated with gallstones, but it is more appropriate to relate gallstones with acute ductal obstruction and resultant acute pancreatitis. Complications of chronic pancreatitis include pancreatic calcifications, pancreatic cysts and pseudocysts, stones within the pancreatic ducts, diabetes, and fat malabsorption, which results in steatorrhea and decreased vitamin K levels. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC for lithium induced Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus | [
"Spiranolactone",
"Furosemide",
"Amiloride",
"None of the above"
] | C | AMILORIDE Mechanism of action:- The luminal membrane of late DT and CD cells expresses a distinct 'renal epithelial' or 'amiloride sensitive' Na+ channel through which Na+ enters the cell down its electrochemical gradient which is generated by Na+K+ ATPase operating at the basolateral membrane. This Na+ entry paially depolarizes the luminal membrane creating a -15 mV transepithelial potential difference which promotes secretion of K+ into the lumen through K+ channels. Though there is no direct coupling between Na+ and K+ channels, more the delivery of Na+ to the distal nephron--greater is its entry through the Na+ channel--luminal membrane is depolarized to a greater extent--driving force for K+ secretion is augmented. As such, all diuretics acting proximally (loop diuretics, thiazides, CAse inhibitors) promote K+ secretion. Amiloride and triamterene block the luminal Na+ channels and indirectly inhibit K+ excretion( Pottasium sparing diuretic). side effects:- Nausea, diarrhoea and headache. Uses:- Amiloride blocks entry of Li+ through Na+ channels in the CD cells and mitigates diabetes insipidus induced by lithium. Given as an aerosol it affords symptomatic improvement in cystic fibrosis by increasing fluidity of respiratory secretions. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-589,590 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasal mucosa is supplied by: | [
"only external carotid aery",
"Only internal carotid aery",
"Mainly external carotid aery",
"Mainly internal carotid aery"
] | C | Both the internal and external carotid aery supply the nose but main aery is the external carotid aery. Ref.Dhingra5/e p 189 | train | med_mcqa | null |
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