question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease is : | [
"Intravenous immunoglobulin",
"Steroids",
"Azathioprine",
"Aspirin"
] | A | All patients of Kawasaki's disease should be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG).
Aspirin should be used for fever and inflammation. It should be continued if a coronary aneurysm develops.
Methylprednisolone should follow if disease symptoms persist after two injections of IVIG.
Drugs for refractory cases include infliximab, cyclophosphamide and methotrexate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice of Bell's palsy ? | [
"Surgical decompression",
"Coicosteroids",
"Electric stimulation",
"Antiviral drugs"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coicosteroids Treatment of Bell's palsy Treatment of Bell's palsy is divided into three : - 1) Medical treatment, 2) Physical treatment, 3) Surgical treatment 1. Medical treatment Prednisolone (steroid) is the drug of choice and is staed at initial visit. Initiation of therapy during first 24 hours of symptom confers a higher likelihood of recovery. Antiviral therapy (Acyclovir) is a newer adjunct in treating acute facial palsy of viral origin (both Bell's palsy and Ramsay hunt syndrome). Most surgeons these days advocate combination of steroids and antiviral drugs. 2. Physical treatment Physical treatment includes : - Eye care : - Aificial tear drops, ocular ointment and use of sunglasses to prevent eye complication due to dry eye. Electric stimulation : - To maintain membrane conductivity and reduce muscle atrophy. If the patient of Bell's palsy is not responding to conservative treatment, electrodiagnostic study (electrophysiological study) should be done. Electrodiagnostic study includes, electromyography (EMG), Electroneurography (ENG), minimal excitibility test and maximal excitibility test. Surgery is reserved for those who meet electrodiagnostic (electrophysiological) study criteria or are worsening on medial treatment. 3. Surgical treatment Nerve decompression relieves pressure on the nerve fibers and thus improves the microcirculation of the nerve. Usually veical and tympanic segments of nerve are decompressed. However, some worker's suggest total decompression including labyrinthine segment. Decompression is done in cases who have a poor prognosis for complete recovery with medical therapy alone or in cases who do not respond to medical therapy after 8-12 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a cause of upper GIT bleeding | [
"Meckel's diveiculum",
"Mallory Weiss Syndrome",
"Gastric antral vascular ectasia",
"Poal hypeension"
] | A | Meckel's diveiculum - Found in Ileum distal to ligament of Treitz( Cause of lower GI BLEED) Location of Ligament of Treitz is Duodenojejunal flexure | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following parasitic infections predispose to malignancies - | [
"Pargibunuasus",
"Guinea worm infection",
"Clonorchiasis",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clonorchiasis Parasites associated with malignancy Clonorchis sinensis - Liver, bile duct (cholangiocarcinoma) and Pancreas (adenocarcinoma) Opisthorchis viverrini Bile duct (chalangio carcinoma) Schistosoma haematobium Urinary bladder (squamous cell Ca) Fasciola hepatica Cholangiocarcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Features of focal sclerosing osteomyelitis often include: | [
"A nonvital pulp test.",
"A history of recent restoration of the tooth in question.",
"A radiolucent lesion which, in time, becomes radiopaque.",
"None of the choices is true."
] | B | A history of recent restoration of the tooth in question. Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis (FSO) consists of a localized, usually uniform zone of increased radiopacity adjacent to the apex of a tooth that exhibits a thickened periodontal ligament space or an apical inflammatory lesion. The size of the lesions usually measure less than 1 cm in diameter. There is no radiolucent halo surrounding this type of lesion. The osteitis microscopically appears as a mass of dense sclerotic bone. FSO is most often found in patients younger than 20 years of age, around the apices of mandibular teeth (most commonly molars) with large carious lesions and chronically inflamed pulps or with recent restorations. Most sources agree that the associated tooth may or may not be vital. Gender is not a predisposing factor. FSO can be asymptomatic or the patient can experience mild pain, depending on the cause. FSO is usually discovered upon radiographic analysis. It represents a chronic, low-grade inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug not causing hyperuricemia : | [
"Probenecid",
"Thiazide",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Ethambutol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Capsule endoscopy is used for? | [
"GI Bleeding",
"Motility disorders",
"GERD",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans ACommon indications for capsule endoscopy are: Obscure gastrointestinal bleeding, Crohns disease, polyps, recurrent abdominal pain, celiac disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of: | [
"Oxidase",
"Hydrolase",
"Peroxidase",
"Dehydrogenase"
] | A | A i.e. OxidaseThe electron transpo chain system responsible for the respiratory burst is 'NADPH oxidase' (on oxidase enzyme)The biochemical mechanism of microbial killing and degradation following phogocytosis is called 'respiratory burst'.This is accomplished largely by oxygen dependent mechanisms.'The generation of reactive oxygen intermediates is due to rapid activation of an oxidase (NADPH oxidase)'. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The urge for micturition is felt when the bladder is filled with - | [
"100-200cc of urine",
"200-300cc of urine",
"500-700cc of urine",
"500-700cc of urine"
] | A | A i.e., 100 - 200 ml of urine | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the lungs bronchial aeries supply the bronchopulmonary tree | [
"Till teiary bronchi",
"Till segmental bronchi",
"Till respiratory bronchioles",
"Till alveolar sacs"
] | C | Bronchial aery supplies the bronchial tree till respiratory bronchiole. BD CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUME 1. 6TH EDITION.page no.242 fig 16.9 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindication of rota virus vaccine is - | [
"SC1D",
"Intussusception",
"Severe allergic raction",
"All of above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of aboveGuide to Contraindications1 and Precautions to Commonly Used VaccinesVaccineContraindicationsPrecautionsHepatitis B (HepB)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Infant weighing less than 2000 grams (4 lbs, 6.4 oz)Rotavirus(RV5 RV1 )o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)o History of intussusceptiono Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Altered immunocompetence other than SCIDo Chronic gastrointestinal diseaseo Spina bifida or bladder exstrophyDiphtheria,tetanus, pertussis(DTaP)Tetanus,diphtheria,pertussis (Tdap)Tetanus,diphtheria (DT, Td)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento For pertussis-containing vaccines: encephalopathy (e.g., coma, decreased level of consc iousness, prolonged seizures) not attributable to another identifiable cause within 7 days of administration of a previous dose of DTP or DTaP (for DTaP); or of previous dose of DTP, DTaP, or Tdap (for Tdap)o Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) within 6 weeks after a previous dose of tetanus toxoid-containing vaccineo Historyr of arthus-type hypersensitivity reactions after a previous dose of tetanus or diphtheria toxoid-containing vaccine; defer vaccination until at least 10 years have elapsed since the last tetanus-toxoid containing vaccineo For pertussis-containing vaccines: progressive or unstable neurologic disorder (including infantile spasms for DTaP), uncontrolled seizures, or progressive encephalopathy until a treatment regimen has been established and the condition has stabilizedFor DTaP only:o Temperature of 105c F or higher (40.5degC or higher) within 48 hours after vaccination with a previous dose of DTP/DTaPo Collapse or shock-like state (i.e., hypotonic hyporesponsive episode) within 48 hours after receiving a previous dose of DTP/DTaP o Seizure within 3 days after receiving a previous dose of DTP.'DTaPo Persistent, inconsolable crying lasting 3 or more hours within 48 hours after receiving a previous dose of DTP/DTaPHaemophilusinfluenzae type b(Hib)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Age younger than 6 weekso Moderate or severe acute illness with or without feverInactivatedpoliovirus vaccine(IPV)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero PregnancyPneumococcal (PCVI3 orPPSV23)o For PCV13, severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose of PCV7 or PCV13 or to a vaccine component, including to any vaccine containing diphtheria toxoido For PPSV23, severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Moderate or severe acute illness with or without feverMeasles, mumps,rubella (MMR)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Known severe immunodeficiency (e.g.. from hematologic and solid tumors, receipt of chemotherapy, congenital immunodeficiency, or long-term immunosuppressive therapyS or patients with human immunodeficiency virus infection who are severely i mmunocompromi sed) o Pregnancyo Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Recent (within 11 months) receipt of antibody-containing blood product (specific interval depends on product)o Histoiy of thrombocytopenia or thrombocytopenic purpurao Need for tuberculin skin testingY'aricella (Var)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Known severe immunodeficiency (e.g., from hematologic and solid tumors, receipt of chemotherapy, primary or acquired immunodeficiency, or long-term immunosuppressive therapy5 or patients with HIV infection who are severely immunocomprom i sed)o Pregnancyo Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Recent (within 11 months) receipt of antibody-containing blood product (specific interval depends on product)o Receipt of specific antivirals (i.e., acyclovir, famciclovir, or valaevclo- vir) 24 hours before vaccination; avoid use of these antiviral drugs for 14 days after vaccinationHepatitis A(HepA)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Moderate or severe acute illness with or without feverInfluenza, inactivatedinjectable (IIV)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose of any IIV or LAIV or to a vaccine component, including egg proteino Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Histoiy of GBS within 6 weeks of previous influenza vaccinationo Persons who experience only hives with exposure to eggs may receive RIV (if age 18-49) or, with additional safety precautions, IIV.Influenza,recombinant (Riffo Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose of RIV or to a vaccine component. RIV does not contain any egg proteino Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero History of GBS within 6 weeks of previous influenza vaccinationInfluenza, liveattenuated(LAIV)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose of IIV or LAIV or to a vaccine component, including egg proteino Conditions for which the ACIP recommend, against use, but which are not contraindications in vaccine package insert: immune suppression, certain chronic medical conditions such as asthma, diabetes, heart or kidney disease, and pregnancyo Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fever o History of GBS within 6 weeks of > previous influenza vaccination o Receipt of specific antivirals (i.e., amantadine, rimantadine, zanamivir, or oseltamivir) 48 hours before vaccination. Avoid use of these antiviral drugs for 14 days after vaccinationHumanPapillomavirus(HPV)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero PregnancyMen ingococcal: conjugate (MCV4), polysacch aride (MPSV4)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after a previous dose or to a vaccine componento Moderate or severe acute illness with or without feverZoster (HZV)o Severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) to a vaccine componento Known severe immunodeficiency (e.g., from hematologic and solid tumors, receipt of chemotherapy, or long-term immunosuppressive therapy5 or patients with HIV infection who are severely immunocompromised),o Pregnancyo Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fevero Receipt of specific antivirals (i.e., acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir) 24 hours before vaccination; avoid use of these antiviral drugs for 14 days after vaccination. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sex cord stromal tumors are all except: | [
"Granulosa cell tumor",
"Leydig cell tumor",
"Yolk sac tumor",
"Sertoli cell tumor"
] | C | Ans: C (Yolk sac tumor) Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology 15th EditionExplanation:WHO Classification of Ovarian tumorsCommon epithelial tumors:* Serous tumors* Mucinous tumors* Endometrioid tumors* Clear cell (mesonephroid tumors)* Brenner tumors* Mixed epithelial tumors* Undifferentiated carcinoma* Unclassified epithelial tumorsIISex cord (gonadal stromal) tumors:* Granulosa-stromal cell tumors, theca cell tumors* Androblastomas: Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors* Gynandroblastomas* UnclassifiedIIILipid (lipoid) cell tumorsIVGerm cell tumors:* Dysgerminoma* Endodermal sinus tumor ( Yolk sac tumor)* Embryonal carcinoma* PoSyembryoma* Choriocarcinoma* Teratoma* Mixed formsVGonadoblastoma:* Pure* Mixed with dysgerminoma or other germ cell tumorsVISoft tissue tumors not specific to ovaryVIIUnclassified tumorsVIIISecondary (metastatic) tumorsIXTumour-like conditionsClassification of Sex Cord-Gonadal Stromal Tumours by Their Histology Cell/tissue normal location Ovary(Female)Testicle(Male)MixedCell/tissuetypeSex cordGranulosa a cell tumourSertoli cell tumourGynandroblas-toma GonadalstromaThecoma,fibromaLeydig cell tumorGynandroblas-toma Mixed Sertoli-Leydig cell tumorGynandroblas-toma | train | med_mcqa | null |
In polygraph test 'GSR' stands for: Karnataka 11 | [
"Guilt Score Reaction",
"Galvanic Skin Reaction",
"Galvanic Sensor Reaction",
"Guilt Sensitivity Reaction"
] | B | Ans. Galvanic Skin Reaction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum energy store in | [
"Adipose",
"Liver",
"Muscle",
"Blood glucose"
] | A | It is the storehouse of energy in the body (about 1,35,000 kcal)The free fatty acid (FFA) mobilized from adipose tissue is the preferred fuel for muscle during starvationThe energy is stored in the concentrated form, triacylglycerol. The chylomicrons and VLDL are hydrolyzed by lipoprotein lipase present on capillary walls. It is activated by insulin.Ref: DM Vasudevan Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 87 | train | med_mcqa | null |
High Glycemic index is defined as value more than? | [
"55",
"60",
"70",
"100"
] | C | High Glycemic index foods have values of 70 or greater and include baked potato, white bread and white rice. Low Glycemic index foods have values of 55 or lesser and include multi grain breads, pasta, legumes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rituximab is an antibody against? | [
"CD20",
"CD 52",
"TNF",
"CD 68"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) CD20 REF: Goodman and Gillman 11th edition page 901, Katzung 12th edition page no 646 Repeat Pharmacology December 2009 See APPENDIX-34 below for "FDA APPROVED MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES" "Rituximab, sold under the trade names Rituxan and MabThera, is a chimeric monoclonal antibody against the protein CD20, which is primarily found on the surface of B cells. Rituximab is used in the treatment of many lymphomas, leukemias, transplant rejection and some autoimmune disorders" APPENDIX - 34 FDA Approved Monoclonal Antibodies Antibody Type Target Indication (What it's approved to treat) Abciximab chimeric Inhibition of glycoprotein Ilb/IIIa Cardiovascular disease Adalimumab human Inhibition of TNF-alpha signaling Several auto-immune disorders Alemtuzumab humanized CD52 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Basiliximab chimeric IL-2Rc; receptor (CD25) Transplant rejection Bevacizumab humanized Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) Colorectal cancer, Age-related macular degeneration (off-label) Cetuximab chimeric Epidermal growth factor receptor Colorectal cancer, Head and neck cancer Certolizumab pegol humanized Inhibition of TNF-alpha signaling Crohn's disease Daclizumab humanized IL-2Rcr receptor (CD 2 5) Transplant rejection Eculizumab humanized Complement system protein C5 Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Efalizumab humanized CDlla Psoriasis Gemtuzumab humanized CD33 Acute myelogenous leukemia (with calicheamicin) Ibritumomab tiuxetan murine CD20 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (with yttrium- 90 or indium-111) Infliximab chimeric Inhibition of TNF-alpha signaling Several autoimmune disorders Muromonab-CD3 murine T cell CD3 Receptor Transplant rejection Natalizumab humanized Alpha-4 (c4) integrin, Multiple sclerosis and Crohn's disease Omalizumab humanized Immunoglobulin E (IgE) Mainly allergy-related asthma Palivizumab humanized An epitope of the RSV F protein Respiratory Syncytial Virus Panitumumab human Epidermal growth factor receptor Colorectal cancer Ranibizumab humanized Vascular endothelial growth factor A (VEGF-A) Macular degeneration Rituximab chimeric CD20 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Tositumomab murine CD20 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Trastuzumab humanized ErbB2 Breast cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ophthalmology, muscle resection leads to | [
"Weakening of muscle",
"Strengthening of muscle",
"Muscle paralysis",
"No effect"
] | B | Ans. (b) Strengthening of muscleRef Kanski 8/e, p. 769Weakening procedures on recti muscleStrengthening proceduresRecessionResection[?]Retro equatorial myopexy (FADEN)AdvancementMarginal myotomyDouble breasting or tuckingMyectomyCinchingFree tenotomy or disinsertionTransposition | train | med_mcqa | null |
On MRI, the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is: | [
"Myelodysplasia",
"Myelomalacia",
"Myeloschisis",
"Cord tumors"
] | B | Myelomalacia is a increased T2w signal in the spinal cord where the spinal cord is atrophic with gliosis producing small and bright appearence of spinal cord | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are false about epiglottitis EXCEPT: | [
"It is more common in infants",
"Seen in elderly using crack cocaine",
"Blood culture is almost always positive",
"Coamoxiclav is the treatment of choice"
] | B | Ans: b (Seen in elderly using crack cocaine)Ref: Dhingra, 5th ed. pg. 309, Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics, 18th ed. pg. 1763,1764, www.wikipedia.comFirst statement that it is common in infant is a wrong one. Epiglottitis typically affects young children, and is associated with fever, difficulty in swallowing, drooling, hoarseness of voice, and stridor. In the past, Haemophilus influenzae type b was the most commonly identified aetiology of acute epiglottitis. But with the use of the HiB vaccine, invasive disease due to H. influenzae type b in pediatric patients has been reduced by 80-90%.Other agents, such as Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Staphylococcus aureus, now represent a larger portion of paediatric cases of epiglottitis in vaccinated children. In the prevaccine era, the typical patient with epiglottitis due to H. influenza type b was 2 -4yr of age.Cases in adults are most typically seen amongst abusers of crack cocaine and have a more subacute presentation. The diagnosis is often made on clinical grounds, although direct fiberoptic laryngoscopy is frequently performed in a controlled environment in order to visualize and culture the typical edematous "cherry-red" epiglottis and to facilitate placement of an endotracheal tube.Direct visualization in an examination room is not recommended because of the risk of immediate laryn- gospasm and complete airway obstruction. Neck radiographs typically reveal an enlarged oedematous epiglottis called as "thumbprint sign", usually with a dilated hypo pharynx and normal subglottic structures.Laboratory tests characteristically document mild to moderate leukocytosis with a predominance of neu- trophils.Blood cultures are positive in a significant proportion of cases but the statement that it is almost always positive is an ambiguous statement and is unlikely to occur. So can exclude that statement also.Epiglottitis is a medical emergency and warrants immediate treatment with an artificial airway placed under controlled conditions. All patients should receive oxygen en route unless the mask causes excessive agitation. Cultures of blood, epiglottic surface, and, in selected cases, cerebrospinal fluid should be collected after airway stabilization.Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or a combination of ampicillin and sulbactam should be given parenterally,depending upon the pending culture and susceptibility reports, because from 10- 40% of H. influenzae type b cases are resistant to ampicillin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after losing control during a motorbike race in which he was run over by several of the other racers. Physical examination reveals several cuts and bruises. He is unable to extend the left wrist, fingers, and thumb, although he can extend the elbow. Sensation is lost in the lateral half of the dorsum of the left hand. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured to result in these signs, and in what part of the arm is the injury located? | [
"Median nerve, anterior wrist",
"Median nerve, arm",
"Radial nerve, mid-humerus",
"Ulnar nerve, mid-lateral forearm"
] | C | The radial nerve innervates the extensor compartments of the arm and the forearm. It supplies the triceps brachii proximal to the spiral groove, so elbow extension is intact here. It also provides sensory innervation to much of the posterior arm and forearm as well as the dorsal thumb, index, and middle fingers up to the level of the fingernails. Symptoms are described only in the distal limb due to the mid-humeral location of the lesion. The median nerve innervates flexors of the forearm and thenar muscles and provides sensory innervation to the lateral palmar hand. The ulnar nerve supplies only the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus in the forearm. Additionally, its sensory distribution is to both the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial hand. It does not supply extensor muscles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following cannot be done by 3 years old child ? | [
"Draw a triangle",
"Draw a circle",
"Can arrange 9 cubes",
"Can go up and down"
] | A | Triangle drawn by the age of 5 years Circle drawn by the age of 3 years Arrange a tower of 9 blocks by 3 yrs(Mnemonic:3yrs=36 months=3+6=9blocks ) These are fine motor skills of a child Ref : OP GHAI - ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS - 8 TH edition .page no .50 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most important side effect of insulin: | [
"Hypoglycaemia",
"Lipodystrophy",
"Insulin resistance",
"Antibodies to insulin"
] | A | Ans: a (Hypoglycaemia) no referance needed for this one !!!CAUSES OF HYPOGLYCAEMIAFasting (Postabsorptive) Hypoglycemia DrugsEndogenous hyperinsulinismEspecially insulin, sulfonylureas, ethanolInsulinomaSometimes quinine, pentamidineOther beta cell disordersRarely salicylates, sulfonamides, othersInsulin secretagogue (sulfonylurea)Critical illnessesAutoimmune (autoantibodies to insulinHepatic, renal, or cardiac failureor the insulin receptor)SepsisEctopic insulin secretionInanitionDisorders of infancy or childhoodHormone deficienciesTransient intolerance of fastingCortisol, growth hormone, or bothCongenital hyperinsulinismGlucagon and epinephrineInherited enzyme deficiencies(in insulin -deficient diabetes) Non-beta-cell tumors Reactive (Postprandial) HypoglycaemiaAlimentary (postgastrectomy) hypoglycaemiaNoninsulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndromeIn the absence of prior surgeryFollowing Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.Other causes of endogenous hyperinsulinismHereditary fructose intolerance, galactosaemiaIdiopathic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Symphalangism is: | [
"Reduplication of fingers",
"Fusion of the interphalangeal joints",
"Shortening of the fingers as a result of decreased length of the phalanges",
"Joined fingers"
] | B | Ans. B. Fusion of the interphalangeal jointsFusion of interphalangeal joints usually the middle with the proximal phalanx, it usually accompanies syndactylism.Treatment is by fusing in the functional position of partial flexion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following simple tests is used to measure/assess urethral hypermobility? | [
"Office cystometry",
"Q tip test",
"Voiding diary",
"Postvoid residual urine"
] | B | In Q tip test - A cotton swab is introduced into the urethra following which the patient is asked to perform valsalva manoeuver and the angle of urethra is assessed. An angle of excussion of > 300 from the horizontal indicates urethral hypermobility. Note:- Stress test can also be used to assess urethral hypermobility. Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 338. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ciliary staphyloma occurs due to all of the following except: | [
"Scleritis",
"Perforating injury",
"Absolute glaucoma",
"Episcleritis"
] | D | Ans. Episcleritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adequacy of D-penicillamine treatment in wilson is monitored by measuring the: | [
"24 hour urinary copper",
"Serum ceruloplasmin",
"Disappearance of KF ring",
"Serum copper level in the fasting state"
] | A | D-Penicillamine treatment in wilson disease: Adequacy of treatment is monitored by measuring 24-hour urinary copper excretion while on treatment. The most impoant sign of efficacy is a maintained clinical and lab improvement. Serum ceruloplasmin decrease after initiation of treatment. Ref: Journal of Hepatology 2012 vol. 56 / 671-685. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Krabbe's disease is due to deficiency of- | [
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Beta galactocerebroside",
"Hexosaminidase",
"Arylsulfatase"
] | B | Ans. B. Beta galactocerebrosidase Examples of SphingolipidosesDiseaseEnzyme DeficiencyLipid AccumulatingClinical SymptomsTay-Sachs diseaseHexosaminidaseACer--Glc-Gal(NeuAc)-GalNAcGM2 GangliosideMental retardation, blindness, muscular weaknessFabry diseasea-GalactosidaseCer-Glc-Gal-GalGlobotriaosylceramideSkin rash, kidney failure (full symptoms only in males; X-linked recessive)Metachromatic leukodystrophyArylsulfatase ACer--Gal-OSO3 3- SulfogalactosylceramideMental retardation and psychologic disturbances in adults; demyelinationKrabbe diseaseb-GalactosidaseCer-Gal Galactosyl ceramideMental retardation; myelin almost absentGaucher diseaseb-GlucosidaseCer-Glc GlucosylceramideEnlarged liver and spleen, erosion of long bones, mental retardation in infantsNiemann-Pick diseaseSphingomyelinaseCer--P--choline SphingomyelinEnlarged liver and spleen, mental retardation; fatal in early lifeFarber diseaseCeramidaseAcyl--Sphingosine CeramideHoarseness, dermatitis, skeletal deformation, mental retardation; fatal in early life | train | med_mcqa | null |
Notching of ribs on X-ray is seen in: | [
"PDA",
"ASD",
"Ebstein Sanomaly",
"Coarctation of aoa"
] | D | Ans. Coarctation of aoa | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule that progressed to an ulcer. Several nodules then developed along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely etiological agent would be | [
"Aspergillus fumigatus",
"Candida albicans",
"Histoplasma capsulatum",
"Sporothrix schenkii"
] | D | Sporotrichosis is a chronic infection involving cutaneous, subcutaneous and lymphatic tissue. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii. Pathogenesis: 1. Lesions on the exposed pas of the skin follow minor trauma. Nodules are first formed, followed by ulceration and necrosis of nodules. 2. From the lesions in skin and subcutaneous tissue, the infection can spread by lymphatic channels to lymph node and lymphatics are hardened and cord-like. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atropine and acetylcholine show the following type of antagonism? | [
"Competitive",
"Non competetive",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Competetive | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all cases intensity of murmur increases on sit-up and hand grip except? | [
"MS",
"HOCM",
"AS",
"TR"
] | B | On standing: The venous return is going be reduced & there is decrease blood coming to the hea, therefore intensity of murmurs get reduced. Eg : Valsalva, Amyl nitrate (Except HOCM: louder murmur; MVP: longer murmur) Note: All murmurs increase on doing sit ups, hand grip as there is increase of peripheral resistance HOCM: soften MVP: shoer HOCM: AD defect in chromosome 14, b- myosin gene disorder | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bilateral uveitis in 10 year old child, proper investigation (s) for his work up would be – a) C.T scan b) Tuberculin testb) X–ray sacroiliac jointc) HIV testd) X–ray chest | [
"abd",
"bd",
"bcde",
"cd"
] | C | First see causes of uveitis in children | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the biochemical marker of choice from cholestatic jaundice of pregnancy? | [
"Serum Bilirubin",
"Bile acids",
"Bile salts",
"Alkaline phosphatase levels"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
The normal adult CSF pressure is | [
"1-2 mm Hg",
"6-12 mm Hg",
"15-30 mm Hg",
"730 mm Hg"
] | B | 5-15mmHg OR 65- 200 mm CSF/water | train | med_mcqa | null |
Differentials for acute appendicitis in a kid is all except | [
"Gastroenteritis",
"Volvulus",
"Trauma",
"Torsion"
] | C | Differential diagnosis The differential diagnosis includes: Perforated peptic ulcer Biliary colic Acute cholecystitis Pneumonia Pleuritic pain Myocardial infarction Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sentinel lymph node biopsy in carcinoma breast is done if | [
"LN palpable",
"Breast mass but no lymph node palpable",
"Breast lump with palpable axillary node",
"Metastic CA breast"
] | B | Sentinel lymph node is the first axillary lymph node draining the breast. SLNB is done in all cases of early breast cancers ,T1 and T2 without clinically palpable nodes. It is not done in clinically palpable axillary nodes as tgere is already distoion of lymphatic flow due to tumour. SRB's Manual of Surgery.Edition -5. Pg no:543 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the followinu aery does not supply medulla? | [
"Anterior spinal aery",
"Veebral aery",
"Posterior inferior cerebellar aery",
"Superior cerebellar aery"
] | D | Ans. d. Superior cerebellar aeryMedulla is supplied by anterior spinal aery, branches of veebral aery and posterior inferior cerebellar aery (but not the Superior cerebellar aery).Blood supply of Medulla Oblongata1. Anterior spinal aeryQThe anterior spinal aery supplies the whole medial pa of the medulla oblongata.A blockage (such as in a stroke) will injure the pyramidal tract, medial lemniscus, and the hypoglossal nucleus.This causes a syndrome called medial medullary syndrome.2. Posterior inferior cerebellar aery (PICA)Q:The posterior inferior cerebellar aery, a major branch of the veebral aery, supplies the posterolateral pa of the medulla, where the main sensory tracts run and synapse.3. Direct branches of the veebral aeryQ;The veebral aery supplies an area between the other two main aeries, including the nucleus solitarius and other sensory nuclei and fibers.Lateral medullary syndrome can be caused by occlusion of either the PICA or the veebral aeries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ratio of fat cells and blood cells in bone marrow is - | [
"1:04",
"1:02",
"1:01",
"2:01"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1:1o In normal adults, the ratio of fat cells to hematopoietic cells is about 1:1. o In bone marrow, myeloid to erythroid ratio is 3:1 or 4:1.4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen with: March 2011 | [
"Ovarian cancer",
"Stomach cancer",
"Colon cancer",
"Pancreatic cancer"
] | B | Ans. B: Stomach cancer Gastric tumour may spread the abdominal cavity to the umbilicus (Sister Joseph's nodule) Sister May Joseph's nodule: Periumbilical nodule/ hard mass Represents metastatin involvement of the paraumbilical nodes from intrapelvic or intraabdominal malignancies Seen with: - Stomach - Large bowel - Ovary - Pancreatic tumour Indicates poor prognosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 72-year-old woman complains of a cramplike pain in her thigh and leg. She was diagnosed as having a severe intermittent claudication.Following surgery, an infection was found in the adductor canal, damaging the enclosed structures. Which of the following structures remains intact? | [
"Femoral aery",
"Femoral vein",
"Saphenous nerve",
"Great saphenous vein"
] | D | The Great Saphenous Vein remains intact because it is not in the Adductor Canal. The Adductor Canal contains the Femoral Vessels, the Saphenous Nerve, and the Nerve to the Vastus Medialis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mastitis in infants - | [
"Treated with antibiotics",
"More common in boys",
"It is a congential infection",
"Most common organism is E Coli"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Treated with antibiotics Infatile mastitiso Mastitis (infection of breast tissue) typically occurs in infants after 2 months of age. During the first 2 weeks of life, it occurs with equal frequency in males and females; thereafter, it is more common in girls, with a female:male ratio of approximately 2:1o This is thought to be related to the longer duration of physiologic breast hypertrophy in female infants. The majority of cases of neonatal mastitis are caused by Staphylococcus aureus; less common causes include gramnegative enteric organisms (e.g. Escherichia coli, Salmonella), anaerobes, and Group B Streptococcuso Clinically, infants usually present with unilateral swelling, erythema, warmth, tenderness, and induration of the breast, occasionally with purulent discharge from the nipple, and/or fluctuation suggesting breast abscesso Mastitis in infancy is usually a local infection, and systemic symptoms such as fever, vomiting, lethargy, and irritability are uncommon.o Much of the literature recommends treatment with parenteral antibiotics with good coverage for S. aureus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Precautions advised after outpatient Radioiodine (I-131) therapy are all, EXCEPT: | [
"Carry treatment ceificate for 90 days",
"To stay 2 meters away from children and pregnant women",
"Do not use household chlorine bleaches for cleaning",
"Use contraception for three months"
] | C | There is no such contraindication as do not use household chlorine bleaches for cleaning. Children and Pregnant Women: If there are pregnant women, infants, and children under 16 years of age in the home, arrangements should ensure that a distance >6 feet (or 2 meter) can be maintained between the patient and these occupants for the entire restricted time. Carry Treatment Card: Information card or letter at the time of treatment which show the date, type and amount of radioiodine. The card should be carried for at least 3 months following treatment. In an event of traffic accident or any other medical emergency during the ?rst week after your treatment the card should be produced. Contraception: It is advised that full feility may not occur until after 1 year, and attempts to produce pregnancy should best await a time when they are fully recovered from 131 I therapy, a period of at least 3 months. Ref: Radiation Safety in the Treatment of Patients with Thyroid Diseases by Radioiodine 131 I: Practice Recommendations of the American Thyroid Association, James C. Sisson et al. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in: March 2005 | [
"AV fistula",
"Raynaud's disease",
"Buerger's disease",
"Aneurysm"
] | C | Ans. C: Buerger's disease Risks for superficial thrombophlebitis include: Chemical irritation of the area Disorders that involve increased blood clotting Infection Pregnancy Sitting or staying still for a prolonged period Use of bih control pills Varicose veins Superficial thrombophlebitis may be associated with: Abdominal cancers (such as pancreatic cancer) Deep vein thrombosis Factor V Leiden Prothrombin gene mutation Thromboangiitis obliterans | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes: | [
"SA node decreases firing",
"Increased AV node excitability",
"Decreased ventricular contraction",
"Tachycardia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about human chorionic gonadotrophin except | [
"Glycosylated peptide hormone",
"Detected in serum 7 → 9 days after LH surge",
"hcG promotes apoptosis in nontrophoblastic neoplasia",
"Elevated hcG Levels are seen is down syndrome"
] | C | hcG inhibits apoptosis in nontrophoblastic tumors, thereby allowing rapid growth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Locking muscle of Knee joint is | [
"Vastus Lateralis",
"Vastus Medialis",
"Vastus Intermedius",
"Rectus Femoris"
] | B | Locking is a mechanism that allows the knee to remain in the position of full extension as in standing without much muscular effoLocking occurs as a result of medial rotation of the femur during the last stage of extension. Vastus medialis prevents lateral displacement of the patella.Reference: Chaurasia Volume II; 7th edition; Page no: 169 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 26-year-old woman experiences the sudden onset of left-sided lower abdominal pain with radiation to the back, pelvis and thigh. Following a negative test for pregnancy, abdominal radiography shows an enlarged left ovary with multiple calcifications. Laparoscopy reveals adnexal torsion and an ovarian tumor. Ovariectomy is performed. The tumor is most likely ? | [
"Granulosa cell tumor.",
"Brenner tumor.",
"Serous cystadenoma.",
"Dermoid cyst"
] | D | The radiographic calcifications are highly suggestive of a mature teratoma (dermoid cyst). This tumor is composed of all three germ layers and often contains skin (including adnexal structures, such as sebaceous glands and hair follicles), bone, teeth, cailage and gastrointestinal, neurologic, respiratory and thyroid tissues. As the tumor enlarges, it is at risk of torsion. Granulosa cell tumor presents with signs and symptoms of excess estrogen production. Brenner tumor is rare and histologically resembles transitional epithelium of the bladder. Serous cystadenoma is commonly bilateral. Struma ovarii is a monodermal teratoma composed of functional ectopic thyroid tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pentothiol sodium should preferablay be injected into – | [
"Femoral vein",
"Antecubital vein",
"Neck vein",
"Veins on outer aspect of fore arm"
] | D | Inadverent intra-arterial injection occurs when thiopentone is injected in antecubital vein because in 10% of the cases brachial artery divides above elbow giving a very superficial abnormal artery which lies deep to antecubital vein. Therefore thiopentone injection should be given in the veins over the outer aspect of forearm (not in antecubital vein). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A term newborn presents with frothing, excessive drooling and coughing with feeds. There was a history of polyhydramnios in the antenatal period. A chest X-ray was done which showed the following finding. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Congenital diaphragmatic hernia",
"Esophageal atresia only",
"Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula",
"Hyperophic pyloric stenosis"
] | C | * Chest X ray showing a feeding tube coiled in upper esophagus with no gases in bowel loops, in a newborn with frothing, excessive drooling & coughing with feeds, with history of antenatal polyhydramnios suggests a diagnosis of Esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula (EA with TEF) Classification of TEF: Type A: Atresia only (60%) Type B: Atresia with proximal TEF (2%) Type C: Atresia with distal TEF (85%): most common Type D: Atresia with both proximal and distal TEF (rare) Type E: Isolated TEF (H-type) (1%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ARDS, which type of respiratory failure occurs? | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | A | TYPE I: ACUTE HYPOXEMIC RESPIRATORY FAILUREThis type of respiratory failure occurs with alveolar flooding and subsequent intrapulmonary shunt physiology. Alveolar flooding may be a consequence of pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or alveolar haemorrhage.Type I respiratory failure occurs in clinical settings such as sepsis, gastric aspiration, pneumonia, near-drowning, multiple blood transfusions, and pancreatitis.Pulmonary edema can be fuher categorized as occurring due to elevated pulmonary microvascular pressures, as seen in hea failure and intravascular volume overload or ARDS ("low-pressure pulmonary edema,"Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1731 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ca breast in females is least related to | [
"BRCA-1",
"BRCA-2",
"Li Fraumeni syndrome",
"Ataxia telangiectasia"
] | D | Mutation of tumour suppressor genes BRCA1 % BRCA2 is thought to be involved with high risk of breast carcinoma. BRCA1 mutation is having more risk (35-45%) than BRCA2 mutation. BRCA1 is located in the long arm of chromosome 17, whereas BRCA2 is located on the long arm of chromosome13. Li-Fraumen's syndrome(LFS) is autosomal dominant condition with breast cancer inheritance(90%). Breast cancer is also associated with ataxia telangiectasia. But comparing others it is least related to. Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 522. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastric motility is increased in: | [
"Acid in duodenum",
"Tryptophan in duodenum",
"Distension of stomach",
"Fatty food in stomach"
] | A | Acid in duodenum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased level lipoprotein A predisposes to | [
"Liver cirrhosis",
"Atherosclerosis",
"Nephrotic syndrome",
"Pancreatitis"
] | B | Familial lipoprotein(a) excess leads premature coronary hea disease due to atherosclerosis, plus thrombosis due to inhibition of fibrinolysis.Ref: Harper 30th edition pg: 275 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28 year old labourer, 3 yrs back presented with penile ulcer which was not treated. Later he presented with neurological symptoms for which he got treated. Which is the test to monitor response to treatment? | [
"VDRL",
"FTA ABS",
"TPI",
"RPR"
] | A | This is a case of neurosyphilis. A positive nontreponemal CSF serologic test result (CSF VDRL) establishes the diagnosis of neurosyphilis (and an increased cell count in response to the spirochete documents the presence of active disease). In VDRL test, the inactivated serum is mixed with cardiolipin antigen on a special slide & rotated for 4 minutes. Cardiolipin remains as uniform crystals in normal serum but it forms visible clumps on combining with regain antibody. The reaction is read under low power microscope. By testing serial dilutions, the antibody titre can be estimated. The results are repoed as reactive, weak by reactive / not reactive. The VDRL test can be used for testing CSF also, but not plasma. A number of modification of VDRL test have been developed, of which the Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) is the most popular. In RPR test. VDRL antigen containing carbon paicles which make the result more clear cut & evident to the naked eye The RPR test is done with unheated serum / plasma but is not suitable for testing CSF. Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Paniker's textbook of microbiology Ed 8 Pg - 375; Klausner J.D., Hook III E.W. (2007). Chapter 20. Neurosyphilis. In J.D. Klausner, E.W. Hook III (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment of Sexually Transmitted Diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with chronic liver disease developed spider naevi dilation on chest. It may be due to excess of the following hormone: | [
"Estrogen",
"Testosterone",
"Aldosterone",
"Hepatotoxin"
] | A | The spider nevus, or spider angioma, is the most representative and classic vascular lesion of chronic liver disease. Clinically, it has a central aeriole from which numerous small, twisted vessels radiate. Vascular spider nevi and palmar erythema are generally attributed to estrogen excess, paicularly because they also occur during pregnancy and because estrogens have an enlarging, dilating effect on the spiral aerioles of the endometrium. This would also explain spider nevi in men receiving estrogen therapy for prostatic cancer. Ref: Johnston G.A., Graham-Brown R.A. (2012). Chapter 150. The Skin and Disorders of the Alimentary Tract, the Hepatobiliary System, the Kidney, and the Cardiopulmonary System. In L.A. Goldsmith, S.I. Katz, B.A. Gilchrest, A.S. Paller, D.J. Leffell, N.A. Dallas (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine, 8e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl from shimla presented to OPD with fever, hypotension, malaise and axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy. Culture in glucose broth shows stalactite growth. Most likely causative organism is? | [
"Yersinia pestis",
"Francisella tularensis",
"Brucella abous",
"Coxiella burnetii"
] | A | This is a case of bubonic plague. Plague is caused by Yersinia pestis. It is sho plump, ovoid, gram negative bacillus, shows bipolar staining (safety pin appearance), pleomorphism which is characteristically enhanced in media containing 3% NaCl. It is enveloped by a slime layer & is non motile, non sporing, non acid fast bacteria. Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Paniker's textbook of microbiology 8th ed pg 322. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Minimum hCG level that a urine pregnancy test can detect is? | [
"5 m IU/ ml",
"10-20 m IU/ ml",
"20-30 rn IU/ ml",
"35 m IU/ ml"
] | A | 5 m IU/ ml REF: Danfoh's Obstetrics and Gynecology, 10th Edition page 4, Current OB/GYN > Chapter 9. Normal Pregnancy & Prenatal Care > Normal Pregnancy > URINE PREGNANCY TEST: Sensitive, early pregnancy test measure changes in levels of hCG. There is less cross-reaction with luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyrotropin, which all share common a subunit with hCG, when the /3 subunit of hCG is measured. hCG is produced by the syncytiotrophoblast 8 days after feilization and may be detected in the maternal serum after implantation occurs, 8-11 days after conception. hCG levels peak at approximately 10-12 weeks of gestation. Levels gradually decrease in the second and third trimesters and increase slightly after 34 weeks. The half-life of hCG is 1.5 days. After termination of pregnancy levels drop exponentially. Normally, serum and urine hCG levels return to nonpregnant values (< 5 m U/mL) 21-24 days after delivery. hCG is measured in milli-international units per milliliter (m IU/ml) The detection of greater than 35 m IU of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the first morning void has a very high specificity for pregnancy /3 Hcg in m IU/m1 Result Under 5 m IU/ml Negative- Not pregnant Between 5-25 m IU/ml: "Equivocal"- Maybe pregnant may not be- Repeat test Over 25 m IU/ml Positive- Pregnant | train | med_mcqa | null |
Porencephaly seen in – | [
"Trisomy 13",
"Fetal alcohol syndrome",
"Down syndrome",
"Dandy Walker syndrome"
] | D | Porencephaly is the presence of cyst and cavities in the brain.
It is due to infarction.
In Dandy - walker syndrome also cyst occurs in brain due to expansion of 4th ventricle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizures 32 hours after birth. The most probable cause would be? | [
"Hypoglycemia",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Birth asphyxia",
"Intraventricular hemorrhage"
] | A | Ans. A. Hypoglycemia* The neonate has seizures developed at around 32 hrs after birth. There are two possibilities in this neonate i.e. hypoglycemia and hypocalcemia.* Hypoglycemia in first 18-36 hrs is usually due to transient neonatal hypoglycemia and after 36 hrs metabolic and other causes are likely.* Hypoglycemia develops in about 25-50% of infants of diabetic mothers and 15-25% of infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, but only a small percentage of these infants become symptomatic. The probability of hypoglycemia developing in the infant increases, and glucose levels are likely to be lower at higher cord or maternal fasting blood glucose levels.* In those infants with HIE who have seizures, onset of seizures is generally within the first 24 hours after birth. However, the timing of onset is not a reliable indicator of the timing of the neurologic injury.* Seizures due to intracranial hemorrhage may also be associated with hypoxic-ischemic or traumatic injury since these events are frequently associated with each other.* Onset of seizures due to subarachnoid hemorrhage or subdural hemorrhage is usually the second or third day of life, while those due to germinal matrix-intraventricular hemorrhage present after the third day. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 16 yr old boy is brought to the emergency room by ambulance after suffering a concussion during a football game. When he awoke he had difficulty expressing himself verbally but was able to understand and follow commands. His condition is most likely caused by damage to which of the following? | [
"The hippocampus",
"The temporal lobe",
"The parietal lobe",
"The limbic system"
] | B | Aphasia is a language disorder in which a person is unable to properly express or understand ceain aspects of written or spoken language. It is caused by lesions to the language centers of the brain, which, for the majority of persons, are located within the left hemisphere in the poions of the temporal and frontal lobes known as Wernicke's and Broca's areas, respectively Language disorders caused by memory loss, which could be the result of a hippocampal lesion, are not classified as aphasias. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most potent cardiac stimulant of the following is: | [
"Adrenaline",
"Noradrenaline",
"Ephedrine",
"Salbutamol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about HIV | [
"Not transmitted through semen",
"More chances of transmission during LSCS than normal labour",
"More infectious than hepatitis B",
"Male to female transmission > female to male"
] | D | (D) Male to female transmission > female to male > One reason for high incidence of HIV infection in male homosexuals is because of large numbers of sexual partners they have> Homosexual and bisexual men are more affected more than heterosexuals.> Male to female propagation is more because of large receptive area in females.> More chances of transmission during normal labuor, therefore LSCS is perferred.> Hepatitis B is more infectious than HIV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rule of 9 in burns is used to denote - | [
"Depth of bums",
"% of total body surface area",
"Severity of bums",
"Type of bums"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., % of total body surface areao Rule of 9 (Wallace's formula) - it is used for estimation of bum area The surface area burnt is more important than the degree of bum, in assessing prognosis of a given case. For example, a first degree bum over a wide area is more dangerous than a third degree bum over a limited area.Area of bodyIn Children (Lund and browder chart)In Adults (Rule of nine: Wallace's formula) 1-4 years5-9 years10-14 yearsAdultHead and Neck1915139Trunk (front)16161618 (Front of chest + abdomen)Trunk back16161618 (Back of chest + abdomen)Upper limbs19191918 (Right+left upper limbs)Lower limbs30343536 (Front+back of right and left lower limbs)Genitals0011 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fluoride helps in | [
"Vision",
"Dentition",
"Myelinaon",
"Joint stability"
] | B | Fluoride helps in denon and reduces tooth decay,
Flourine is oen called a two edged sword
Excess intake →Causes Endemic fluorosis
Inadequate →Causes dental caries | train | med_mcqa | null |
HIV patient is admitted with malabsorption, fever, chronic diarrhoea and acid fast positive organism. What is the likely causative agent? | [
"Giardia",
"Microsporidia",
"Isospora",
"E. histolytica"
] | C | The coccidian parasite Isospora belli causes human intestinal disease. Infection is acquired by the consumption of oocysts, after which the parasite invades intestinal epithelial cells and undergoes both sexual and asexual cycles of development. Oocysts excreted in stool are not immediately infectious but must undergo fuher maturation. In patients who have AIDS, infections often are not self-limited but rather resemble cryptosporidiosis, with chronic, profuse watery diarrhea. Eosinophilia, which is not found in other enteric protozoan infections, may be detectable. The diagnosis is usually made by detection of the large (25-m) oocysts in stool by modified acid-fast staining. Oocyst excretion may be low-level and intermittent; if repeated stool examinations are unrevealing, sampling of duodenal contents by aspiration or small-bowel biopsy (often with electron-microscopic examination) may be necessary. Ref: Weller P.F. (2012). Chapter 215. Protozoal Intestinal Infections and Trichomoniasis. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e | train | med_mcqa | null |
A previously healthy florist presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood in his flower shop. While waiting to be seen he has another episode of hematemesis. What is the most likely cause of his bleeding? | [
"Peptic ulcer disease (stomach or duodenum)",
"Hiatal hernia",
"Mallory-Weiss tear",
"Gastric carcinoma"
] | A | Peptic ulcer disease is the most common cause of UGI bleeding in patients presenting to the emergency department. Most bleeding ulcers (80%) will stop with conservative measures. A visible vessel seen during endoscopy can have up to a 55% chance of rebleeding. Other causes of bleeding include gastritis, gastric cancer, esophagitis, Mallory-Weiss tear, Dieulafoy's lesion, and esophageal varices, but these occur less commonly than peptic ulcer as a likely cause of bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Therapeutic drug monitoring is essential for the following drug? | [
"Diazepam",
"Pencillin",
"Cyclosporine",
"Metformin"
] | C | TDM is required for drugs with narrow therapeutic range like1. Immunosuppressants like cyclosporin and tacrolimus,2. Lithium,3. Antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, Phenobarbitone, Carbamazepine etc.Ref: KD Tripathi 7th ed.Pg 34 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except | [
"Occulomotor nerve",
"Optic nerve",
"Hypophysis cerebri",
"Trochlear nerve"
] | A | Millard-Gubler syndrome (MGS) is one of the classical brainstem-crossed syndromes caused due to a unilateral lesion in ventral pons, manifesting as ipsilateral palsy of CN VI and VII with contralateral hemiplegia Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2234 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the naturally occurring form of vitamin D in the human skin? | [
"Calciferol",
"7 hydroeholesterol",
"25 hydroxy cholecalciferol",
"1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol"
] | A | Calciferol is a fat-soluble, crystalline unsaturated alcohol produced by ultraviolet irradiation of ergosterol in plants. It is used as a dietary supplement in the prophylaxis and treatment of rickets, osteomalacia, and other hypocalcemic disorders. Also called ergocalciferol, ole vitamin D2, vitamin D2. See also rickets, viosterol.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-377 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 years old patient of head injury was brought to the emergency. NCCT was performed and the findings are given below. All of the following are true about this condition except: | [
"Aerial bleeding",
"Lucid interval is positive",
"Full recovery is rare even after the treatment",
"Immediate surgical evacuation should be done"
] | C | The given NCCT image showsbiconvex/lentiform hyperdensity, which is a characteristic feature of Epidural hematoma (EDH) Epidural Hematoma Due to rupture of middle meningeal aery Happens due to of Pterion (H shaped suture) Has lucid interval Treatment: Immediate surgical evacuation should be done - BURR HOLE Has good prognosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Degloving injury is overlsion injury involving | [
"Skin only",
"Skin and subcutaneous tissue, with intact fascia",
"Skin and subcutaneous tissue along with fascia",
"Skin, subcutaneous tissue and muscle"
] | C | Degloving injury is avulsion injury involving skin and subcutaneous tissuewith intact fascia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about Herpes group virus except- | [
"Ether sensitive",
"May cause malignancy",
"HSV II involves below diaphragm",
"Burkitt's lymphoma involves Tcells"
] | D | Herpes viruses are susceptible to fat solvents like alcohilic ether chlorofirm and bike salts. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:466 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A two-year-old boy is brought to emergency with severe anemia (Hb = 2 gm%) and features of congestive hea failure. The most appropriate immediate therapy for this boy would be- | [
"Packed cell transfusion",
"Paial exchange transfusion",
"Whole blood transfusion",
"Parenteral iron injection"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Packed cell transfusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemophilia B is due to deficiency of - | [
"Factor VIII",
"Factor VII",
"Factor IX",
"factor X"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Factor IX o Hemophilia is of 2 typeso In the questions they have not specified about the type of hemophilia they are referring to.o So we can consider both hemophilia A and hemophilia B.o Hemophilia A-Due to deficiency of factor VIIIo Hemophilia B-.Due to deficiency of factor IX.o Both these hemophilias have identical clinical picture, even the tests used to evaluate the bleeding disorders give identical results i.e.o "in both these disorders whole blood clotting time and partial thromboplastin time is prolongedQ, while all the other tests are normal, "In both the disease Hemarthrosis is the common presentation,o This occurs because both factor VIII and factor IX are part of intrinsic pathway of coagulation and the absence or deficiency of these factors will factors will lead to defect in the intrinsic pathway.You know,* Partial thromboplastin time-Is a test usedfor assessing the integrity of intrinsic pathway so it will be abnormal in both these disorders.* Whole blood clotting time-Measures the time taken for blood to clot. It is an index for assessing the integrity of the whole clotting system so this Will also be abnormal or prolonged.* All other tests will be-Normal in both these disorders. LABORATORY FEATURES OF HEMOPHILIA Tourniquet testBleeding timeWhole blood clotting timePlatelet countPITPTHemophilia ANN|N|NHemophiliasNN|N|N | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wool soer disease is | [
"Cutaneous anthrax",
"Pulmonary anthrax",
"Intestinal anthrax",
"Nasal anthrax"
] | B | Bacillusanthracis:*First bacterial attenuated vaccine*First pathogenic bacteria seen under microscope*First communicable disease transmitted by infected blood *First bacteria to be isolated in cultureGeneral characteristicsCultural characteristics--Non motile , capsulated , spore producing , gram positive bacilli--Bamboo stick/Box car appearance--Susceptible to g phage --Selective media - PLET medium--Agar plate - Frosted glass appearance--Microscopy - Medusa head appearance--Gelatin stab - Inveed Fir tree appearance--Solid media - String of pearl reaction--Transmitted light - Cut glass appearanceVirulence factorsClinical features--Capsular poly D glutamic acid (poly peptide capsule) - plasmid mediated --Plasmid coded toxins --Factor I - edema factor--Factor II - protective factor--Factor III - lethal factor--CHARBON (Cutaneous anthrax) - painless malignant pustule--Wool soer disease - pulmonary anthrax--Hide poer disease - cutaneous anthraxDiagnosisTreatment--Mc Faydeans reaction positive--To detect antigen - Ascoli thermoprecipitin test--Epidemiological studies and Strain characterization - Multiple locus variable number tandem repeat analysis & Amplified fragment length polymorphism --DOC - Pencillin --Penicillin allergy - Ciprofloxacin, Erythromycin, Tetracyclin or Chloramphenicol--Live attenuated spore vaccine - Sterne , Mazucchi strains(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p247) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surgical lobes of liver are divided on the basis of -a) Hepatic artery b) Hepatic vein c) Bile ducts d) Portal vein e) Central veins | [
"c",
"bd",
"ab",
"ac"
] | B | French anatomist Couinaud divided liver into 8 segments based on portal vein blood supply and hepatic venous outflow. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the investigation modalities can diagnose gestational diabetes in a primigravida? | [
"HbA1C",
"FBS",
"GCT",
"GTT"
] | D | The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is based on the result of the glucose tolerance test. If a GCT is +ve a GTT should be done to confirm gestational diabetes. Procedure: Screening with 50g, 1-hr glucose challenge test (GCT) Plasma glucose >140 mg/dL. Diagnosis with 100g, 3-hr glucose tolerance test (GTT) Fasting - 95 mg/dL 1 hr - 180 mg/dL 2 hrs - 155 mg/dL 3 hrs - 140 mg/dL Two abnormal values on GTT confirm gestational diabetes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary sites of lymphocyte production are | [
"Bone marrow and Thymus",
"Spleen and Lymph nodes",
"Lymph nodes and mucosa associated lymphoid tissue",
"Spleen and mucosa associated lymphoid tissue"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mr. James has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. You are his physician and are considering different therapies for his disease. Neostigmine and pyridostigmine may cause which one of the following ? | [
"Bronchodilation",
"Diarrhea",
"Cycloplegia",
"Irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase"
] | B | They cause cholinergic adverse effects - Diarrhoea, increase secretions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Potato nose is seen in - | [
"Acne vulgaris",
"Rhinosporoidosis",
"Acne rosacea",
"Lupus vulgaris"
] | C | Rosacea:-Chronic skin infection characterised by symptoms of facial flushing and a spectrum of signs including erythema, telangiectasia,coarseness of skin and inflammatory papulopustular lesion.Features:-1. Red papules and pustules on nose ,forehead,cheeks and chin.2. Frequent blushing 3. Aggravated by sun exposure.4. Ocular Rosacea-red,sore/gritty eyelid margin including papules and styes.5. Rhinophyma:!enlarged unshapely nose with prominent pores. Potato nose appearance.6. Blepharophyma-firm swelling of eyelids. Iadvl textbook of dermatology page 856 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Functional matrix theory is hypothesized by | [
"Scott",
"Sicher",
"Petrovic",
"Moss"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phenylketonuria is ? | [
"AD",
"AR",
"X linked dominant",
"X linked recessive"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., AR | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug NOT metabolised by liver is- | [
"Penicillin G",
"Phenytoin",
"Erythromycin",
"Cimetidine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Penicillin G o Penicillin G is metablized mainly in kidney. o Approximatly 10% of the drug is eliminated by glornerular filtration and 90% by tubular secretion. Erythromycin (KDT - 728), cimetidine (KDT - 629) and Pheytoin (404) are metabolized in liver. Note ? In this question examinar just wants to see whether you know that penicillin G is primarily excreted from kidney. o This question is different from previous ones where examinar has asked about the drugs which have high hepatic metabolism. The drugs in this question, (erythromycin, cimctidine), though metabolized in liver to some extent, but they dont have high liver first pass metabolism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atrophy of intrinsic muscles of the hand, sensory deficit on medial side of forearm and hand, and diminished radial pulse on turning the head on the affected side could be because of | [
"Carpal tunnel syndrome",
"Cervical rib",
"Enlarged axillary lymph nodes",
"Supracondylar fracture of humerus"
] | B | Cervical ribs (present in up to 1% of people) aiculate with the C7 veebra are clinically significant because they may compress spinal nerves C8 and T1 or the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus supplying the upper limb. Tingling and numbness may occur along the medial border of the forearm. They may also compress the subclan aery, resulting in ischemic muscle pain (caused by poor blood supply) in the upper limb. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most striking haematological finding in agranulocytosis is | [
"Decreased absolute neutrophil count",
"Increased absolute easinophil count",
"Decreased absolute hasophil count",
"Increased absolute monocyte count"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keloid scar is made up of - | [
"Dense collagen",
"Loose fibrous tissue",
"Granulamatous tissue",
"Loose areolar tissue"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs used in acute myocardial infarction are all EXCEPT: | [
"Plasminogen activation inhibitors",
"Thrombolytics",
"Antiplatelet drugs",
"Alteplase"
] | A | Tissue plasminogen activators are used in acute MI (not the inhibitors) Thrombolytic agents like streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase and reteplase are used to lyse the thrombus. Antiplatelet drugs like aspirin are staed to prevent the re-infarction. Thrombolytics reduces moality in the treatment of MI if the patient arrives within 12 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tadalafil should NOT be used in | [
"Diabetics",
"Patient on Nitrates therapy",
"Pulmonary arterial hypertension",
"Erectile dysfunction"
] | B | (B) Patient on Nitrates therapy[?]Sildenafil, Tadalfil, Vardenafil & Avanafil are the only approved & effective oral agents for the treatment of Erectile Dysfunction.oThese 4 drugs markedly improved the management of erectile dysfunction, because they are effective for the treatment of a broad range of causes, including psychogenic, diabetic, vasculogenic, post-radical prostatectomy (nerve-sparing procedures), & spinal cord injury.oThese are Selective & Potent Inhibitors of PDE-5, the predominant phosphodiesterase isoform found in the penis.DrugOnset of ActionHalf-lifeDoseAdverse EffectsContraindicationsTadalafilTmax,30-60 min Duration, 12-36 h Plasma concentration Not affected by food or ETOH17.5 h10 mg, 20 mg; 2.5 or 5 mg or daily doseHeadache,dyspepsia,back pain,nasalcongestion,myalgiaNitratesHypotensionCardiovascular risk factorsRetinitis pigmentosaChange dose with some antiretroviralsShould be on stable dose of alpha blockers[?]Significant Drug Interactions & Contraindications:oPhosphodiesterase 5 (PDE5) inhibitors include Sildenafil (Viagra), Vardenafil (Levitra), & Tadalafil (Cialis).-The administration of any of these drugs with doses of any Nitrate is contraindicated.-The combination can cause dangerously low blood pressure.[?]Contraindications of Tadalafil Black 80 mg:oThe consumption of this drug is chiefly avoided due to some medical issues in men like:-Abnormal conditions or deformity of genitals-Hypersensitivity problem to any ingredient of this drug.-Heart related problems-Severe renal insufficiency-History of stroke & heart attack-Severe pulmonary disorders.-Patients with history of AMI/stroke/fatal arrhythmias <6 month Nitrates - total contraindication/PDEIs in small dose + spacing at least 24 hrs (48 hrs with Tadalafil) for fear of developing IHD/AMI due to severe hypotension.oPrecautions for Tadalafil:-With alpha blockers (except Tamsulosin) - orthostatic hypotension.-With hepato/renal insufficiency.-With Pyronie's disease-With bleeding tendencies (leukemia's, hemophilia, Vitamink K deficiency, Antiphospholipid syndrome... etc).-With quinidine, procainamide, amiodarone (class I & III antiarhtmics) (Vardenafil).-Dose adjustment; when using drugs that have interaction on hepatic livery microsomal enzymes i.e., inhibitors or inducers.-Retinitis pigmentosa.OTHER OPTIONS[?]Nitrates are vasodilators acts by producing vascular smooth muscle relaxation through cGMP pathway.-Cyclic GMP is hydrolyzed to 5 GMP by PDE5-Tadalafil is a Phosphodiesterase 5 (PDE5) inhibitors-Inhibition of PDE5 prolongs and accentuates the cGMP in smooth muscle causes relaxation.-Taking tadalafil with vasodilator drug like nitrate can cause sudden & serious decrease in blood pressure.oTadalafil in treatment of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension is used to improve haemodynamics & excercise ability oTadalafil in treatment of Sexual dysfunction like Erectile dysfunction is treated by5-20 mg taken 1-2 h before sex, is now the standard treatment for maintaining erections.oRemember1-Combination with vasodilators results in sudden changes of blood pressure values:-Tadalafil relaxes muscles of the blood vessels and increases blood flow to particular areas of the body.-Used to treat erectile dysfunction, and symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy-Also in treatment of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension is used to improve haemodynamics & excercise ability.oWhen given alone to men with severe coronary artery disease, these drugs have modest effects on blood pressure, producing >10% fall in systolic, diastolic & mean systemic pressures & in pulmonary artery systolic & mean pressures.oSildenafil, tadalafil & vardenafil all have a significant & potentially dangerous interaction with organic nitrates, the therapeutic actions of which are mediated via their conversion to NO with resulting increases in cyclic GMP.oIn the presence of a PDE5 inhibitor, nitrates cause profound increases in cyclic GMP and can produce dramatic reductions in blood pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can cause megakaryocyte thrombocytopenia, except: | [
"Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus",
"Aplastic anemia",
"Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)"
] | C | . Aplastic anemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about vaccines is false | [
"Thiornersal is preservative in DPT vaccine",
"Magnesium chloride is stabilizer used in OPV",
"Kanamycin is preservative in measles",
"Neomycin is preservative in BCG vaccine"
] | D | Neomycin is preservative in BCG vaccine [Ref: see below[Repeat.from Nov 08 Neomycin is used as a preservative in Measles, mumps, rubella (as well as the MMR vaccine), varicella, and poliovirus vaccines but not in BCG. About option a i.e "Thiomersal is preservative in DPT vaccine" [ Ref: Thiomersal is a mercury-based substance that has been used widely in vaccines for over 60 years as a preservative to prevent bacterial and fungal contamination, paicularly in multi-dose ls. It is used as preservative in following vaccines- DPT, Hib, Hepatitis A & B and influenza vaccines. Recently, concerns have been raised and much debate is done over the safety of thiomersal in vaccines. It is said that it being mercury based compound it can cause neurotoxicity. It is being related to autism in children. However The World Health Organization's Global Advisory Committee on Vaccine Safety (GACVS) has concluded in November 2002 that there is no evidence of toxicity in infants, children or adults exposed to thiomersal in vaccines. Still thiomersal is being replaced or reduced in vaccines. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A10-year-old child with pain and mass in right lumbarregion with no fever, with right hip flexed and X-ray shows spine changes. Most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Psoas abscess",
"Pyonephrosis",
"Retrocecal appendicitis",
"Torsion of right undescended testes"
] | A | ANS. A# Psoas abscessAn abscess in the psoas muscle of the abdomen may be caused by lumbar tuberculosis. Owing to the proximal attachments of the iliopsoas, such an abscess may drain inferiorly into the upper medial thigh and present as a swelling in the region. The sheath of the muscle arises from the lumbar vertebrae and the intervertebral discs between the vertebrae. The disc is more susceptible to infection, from tuberculosis and Salmonella discitis. Ihe infection can spread into the psoas muscle sheath.Treatment may involve drainage and antibiotics | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common type of scleritis ? | [
"Non-necrotizing",
"Necrotizing",
"Posterior",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Non-necrotizing Classification of scleritis It can be classified as follows : I. Anterior scleritis (98%) 1. Non-necrotizing scleritis (85%) Diffuse Nodular 2.Necrotizing scleritis (13%) With inflammation Without inflammation (scleromalacia perforans) H) Posterior scleritis (2%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Speed of onset of action of local anaesthetics is indicated by - | [
"Minimum alveolar concentration",
"Blood : gas paition coefficient",
"Oil : gas paition coefficient",
"All of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blood : gas paition coefficient Minimal alveolar concentration It is the lowest concentration of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individuals. It is the measure of potency of inhalation GAs. Blood : gas paition cofficient It is the measure of solubility of agent in blood. It determines the speed of onset and recovery. Higher the blood : gas paition cofficient, lesser the speed of induction and recovary --> more blood soluble agents have slower induction and recovery. Oil : gas paition cofficient It is the measure of lipid solubility of the agent, and therefore solubility in the fat - rich tissues of the CNS. This equates with the potency of individual agents. There is a direct relationship between the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) value of inhaled anaesthetic agents and lipid solubility in terms of the oil/gas paition cofficient. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 59-year-old woman comes to a local hospital for uterine cancer surgery. As the uterine aery passes from the internal iliac aery to the uterus, it crosses superior to which of the following structures that is sometimes mistakenly ligated during such surgery?, | [
"Ovarian aery",
"Ovarian ligament",
"Uterine tube",
"Ureter"
] | D | The ureter runs under the uterine aery near the cervix; thus, the ureter is sometimes mistakenly ligated during pelvic surgery. The other structures mentioned are not closely related to the uterine aery near the uterine cervix. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most commonly used scoring system to assess moality and risk of rebleeding in the setting of nonvariceal upper GI bleeding is: | [
"Blatchford Score",
"The Clinical Rockall Score",
"Aificial neural network score",
"The complete rockall scoring"
] | D | Pre-endoscopy scoring systems for nonvariceal bleeding Blatchford Score The Clinical Rockall Score Aificial neural network score. The most commonly used post endoscopy scoring system is -Complete Rockall Score The Complete Rockall Score includes The Clinical Rockall Score + endoscopic findings. It correlates well with moality but not with the risk for rebleeding. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-293. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is labile cell - | [
"Cardiac cell",
"Liver parenchymal cell",
"Vascular endothelial cells",
"Surface epithelium"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Surface epithelium o When a cell proliferates, it pass through a cell cycle,o Cell cycle has a series of phases : -* Gtphase-Rest phase (Presynthetic phase)* Sphase-Synthetic phase in which synthesis of DNA takes place.* Gphase-Resting phase (Postsynthetic or postmitotic phase).* Mphase-Mitotic phase in which mitosis takes place. # Go phase-When cell is not proliferating, it remains in quiescent phase (Go).Based on their proliferative capacity, cells are divided into1. Labile cells (Continouslv dividing cells) or intermitotic cells.o Have capacity to proliferate and regenerate.o Have very short Go and almost always remain in cell cycle. Example are : -Surface epithelium (stratified squamous) of skin, oral cavity, vagina and cervix.Lining mucosa of all excretory ducts of glands (Salivary gland, pancreas, biliary duct).Columinar epithelium of GIT and uterus.Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract.Bone marrow cells and hematopoietic cells.Basal cells of epithelia.2. Stable or quiescent or reversible postimitotic cells,.o Have limited capacity to proliferate and regenerate.o Ramain in Go phase of cell cycle but can enter in G1 phase when stimulated i.e., they usually remain quiescent, but proliferate in response to stimuli. Example are -Parenchymal cells of liver, kidney and pancreas.Mesenchymal cells, e.g., fibroblast and smooth muscles.Vascular endotheliumOsteoblast, chondroblastResting lymphocytes and other leukocytes.3. Permanent or nondividing or irreversible postmitotic cells.o Cannot divide and regenerate.o These cells are nondividing and have left the cell cycle, i.e., they do not belong to any phase of cell cycle. Example are -NeuronsCardiac muscleSkeletal muscle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crohn's disease may be caused by which one of the following infectious agents? | [
"Clostridium difficle",
"Mycobacterium paratuberculosis",
"Cytomegalo virus (CMV)",
"Mycoplasma"
] | A | A possible infectious etiology for IBD includes clostridium difficile, maparatuberculosis, paramyxovirus and helicobacter species, salmonella shigella, campylobacter species. M.para tuberculosis does not have a confirmed disease association and antimycobacterial agents are not effective in treating Crohn's disease. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 1176-78; Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, 19th Edition, Page 808 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for? | [
"To screen for recombinant vectors",
"To detect gene mutations",
"To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors",
"To detect host DNA in situ"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prior H/O ear surgery Scanty, foul smelling, painless discharge from the ear is characteristic feature of which of the following lesions - | [
"ASOM",
"Cholesteatoma",
"Central perforation",
"Otitis externa"
] | B | Cholesteatoma / attico antral type of CSOM / marginal perforation is characterised by scanty foul smelling, painless discharge from the ear. The foul smell is due to saprophytic infection and osteitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ehlers-Darlos syndrome characterized by hypermobile joints and skin abnormalities is due to: | [
"Abnormality in gene for procollagen",
"Deficiency of lysyl oxidase",
"Deficiency of prolyl hydroxylase",
"Deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase"
] | A | Ans. A. Abnormality in gene for procollagenEhlers-Danlos syndrome comprises a group of inherited disorders whose principal clinical features are hyperextensibility of the skin, abnormal tissue fragility, and increased joint mobility. The clinical picture is variable, reflecting underlying extensive genetic heterogeneity. At least 10 types have been recognized, most but not all of which reflect a variety of lesions in the synthesis of collagen. Type IV is the most serious because of its tendency for spontaneous rupture of arteries or the bowel, reflecting abnormalities in type III collagen. Patients with type VI due to a deficiency of lysyl hydroxylase, exhibit marked joint hypermobility and a tendency to ocular rupture. A deficiency of procollagen N- proteinase, causing formation of abnormal thin, irregular collagen fibrils, results in type VII C manifested by marked joint hypermobility and soft skin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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