question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes - | [
"Epidemic typhus",
"Kala-azar",
"Relapsing fever",
"Trench fever"
] | B | Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 836 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A dead born fetus does not have | [
"Rigor mortis at birth",
"Adipocere formation",
"Maceration",
"Mummification"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Adipocere formation All the four can be seen in a dead bom fetus but adipocere formation being rare should be the answer."A dead born child is one which has died in utero and may show signs of rigor mortis, maceration or mummification *"Rarely a child which has remained surrounded in amniotic fluid after death may get converted into adipocere".Rigor mortisRigor mortis is common in a dead born fetus before birth causing difficult labour. The most common cause of such rigor mortis is antenatal haemorrhage.MacerationIf the dead fetus remains for some time in the uterus surrounded by liquor amnii but without air, an aseptic autolysis of the foetus occurs. This is known as macerationMummificationIt occurs when death of a foetus results from a deficient supply of blood or when liquor amnii is scanty and when no air has entered the uterus. In this condition the fetus is dried up and shrivelled. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dalen Fuch's nodules are seen in: | [
"Sympathetic ophthalmia",
"Phthisis bulbi",
"Absolute glaucoma",
"Pseudo xanthoma elasticum"
] | A | Sympathetic ophthalmia | train | med_mcqa | null |
What are telomerases which plays a role in DNA replication? | [
"DNA dependent DNA polymerase",
"RNA dependent DNA polymerase",
"DNA dependent RNA polymerase",
"RNA dependent RNA polymerase"
] | B | Telomerase is a RNA dependent DNA polymerase that is expressed in stem cells and most cancer cells, but not in somatic cells. Using an RNA template, telomerase adds GT-rich hexanucleotide repeat sequences ranging from a few hundred (yeast) to several thousand (humans) nucleotides in length to the ends of linear DNA molecules to restore their telomeres to full length. Must know: Telomeres are composed of long strings of GT-rich hexanucleotide repeats that cap the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. The telomeres at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes progressively shoen with each cycle of replication. Ref: Kennelly P.J. (2011). Chapter 54. The Biochemistry of Aging. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is | [
"Lung",
"Liver",
"Spleen",
"Heart"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prevention or treatment of osteoporosis in post- menopausal women may be acheived by all EXCEPT | [
"Estrogen and progesterne hormone replacement therapy",
"Calcium and vitamin D supplementation",
"Bisphosphonates",
"Multivitamins"
] | D | Multivitamins do not play any role in treatment of osteoporosis. Vitamin D is the essential vitamin. (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 330) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transamination of pyruvate with glutamate leads to: | [
"Oxaloacetate and aspartate",
"Alanine and aspartate",
"Oxaloacetate and alpha ketoglutarate",
"Alanine and alpha ketoglutarate"
] | D | Transamination, a chemical reaction that transfers an amino group to a ketoacid to form new amino acids. This pathway is responsible for the deamination of most amino acids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the mechanism by which catecholamines stabilize blood glucose concentration in response to hypoglycemia? | [
"Catecholamines stimulate glycogen phosphorylase to release glucose from muscle",
"Catecholamines inhibit glycogenolysis in the liver",
"Catecholamines stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas",
"Catecholamines stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver"
] | D | Catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver, causing glucose to be synthesized and released into the blood.Catecholamines stimulate glycogen phosphorylase in muscle to free glucose for use by the muscle. Muscle cannot release glucose into the circulation because it lacks glucose-6-phosphatase. However, the muscle can release lactate, which can be used in gluconeogenesis by the liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by- | [
"CT. scan",
"M.R.I.",
"Barium swallow",
"Angiography"
] | D | A pulmonary sequestration (bronchopulmonary sequestration)is a medical condition wherein a piece of tissue that ultimately develops into lung tissue is not attached to the pulmonary aerial blood supply.An angiogram/aeriogram has been considered vital in documenting the systemic blood supply,allowing definitive diagnosis as well as preoperative planning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is enzyme inducer? | [
"Erythromycin",
"Isoniazid",
"Rifampicin",
"Cimetidine"
] | C | Ans. C. RifampicinDugs which act as enzyme inducera. G- Griseofulvinb. P- phenytoinc. R-Rifampicind. S-smokinge. Cell- carbamazepinef. Phone- phenobarbitone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyoid bone is a derivative of | [
"First pharyngeal arch",
"First and second pharyngeal arches",
"Second and third pharyngeal arches",
"Fourth pharyngeal arch"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An old man presented with fever and abdominal pain. Diveiculitis is suspected. If it is Meckel's diveiculum is involved, it can be best diagnosed by: | [
"X-ray",
"Ultrasound",
"CT Scan",
"Tc99 peechnetium scan"
] | D | Diagnosis of Meckel diveiculum is made with a Meckel scan. Technetium-99 (99mTc)-peechnetate is taken up by the heterotopic gastric mucosa in the diveiculum and outlines the diveiculum on a nuclear scan. Giving pentagastrin or cimetidine before administering the radionuclide increases 99mTc-peechnetate uptake and retention by the heterotopic gastric mucosa and can increase the sensitivity of the test. The sensitivity of CT scanning for the detection of Meckel's diveicula is too low to be clinically useful. Ref: Sundaram S.S., Hoffenberg E.J., Kramer R.E., Sondheimer J.M., Furuta G.T. (2012). Chapter 21. Gastrointestinal Tract. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old man is suspected of having bronchogenic ca : TB has been ruled out in this pt.What should be the next investigation - | [
"CT guided FNAC",
"Bronchoscopy and biopsy",
"Sputum cytology",
"X - Ray chest"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The lesion characteristic of secondary syphilis – | [
"Ulcer",
"Condyloma acumicata",
"Condyloma lata",
"Gtmima"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Salivary amylase is inactivated by | [
"Enteropeptidase",
"Low pH of stomach",
"High pH of intestine",
"None"
] | B | Salivary amylase is secreted by the salivary glands.The oral pH is about 7.0 and it is the optimum pH for the action of salivary amylase.The pH of stomach is about 1.2 and this inhibit the action of salivary amylase.(Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Complex sectioning (transverse) at mid pons level along with vagi results in | [
"Asphyxia",
"Hyperventilation",
"Rapid and shallow breathing",
"Apneusis"
] | D | → Section A: Cut at upper part of pons: (Decerebration): Normal rhythmic breathing continues. Loss of voluntary breath holding. If vagi are cut, increase in depth and slow breathing.
→ Section B: Cut at mid-pons: Apneustic center (Ap) intact but pneumotaxic centre separated. Ap stimulates Inspiratory (I) neurons, which increase depth of breathing.
Vagi intact: Regular respiration with deep and slow breathing (increase in TV and a slight decrease in RR).
Vagi cut: Arrest of respiration in maximum inspiratory phase (apneusis) interrupted by brief expiration.
→ Section C: Cut at inferior portion of pons: All the pontine tissue is separated
Vagi intact: Irregular and gasping but it is rhythmic (because pacemaker tissue is intact).
Vagi cut: Same effect as above, because vagi are connected to Ap center.
→ Section D: Cut below medulla: Complete transection of brainstem:
Stops all respiration (apnoea and death).
Bilateral vagotomy only: Regular respiration with deep and slow breathing (increase in TV and a slight decrease in RR). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Burns involving skin superficial pa of dermis is categorized as | [
"First degree burns",
"Superficial 2nd degree burn",
"Deep 2nd degree burn",
"Third degree burns"
] | B | First degree burns involve only epidermis Superficial second degree involve upper layer of dermis Deep second degree involves reticular layers of dermis Third degree involves all layers of skin Fouh degree burns involve not only skin but also subcutaneous fat and deeper structures | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dexmedetomidine is a | [
"Centrally acting alpha 2 agonist",
"Peripherally acting alpha2 agonist",
"Centrally acting alpha 2 antagonist",
"Peripherally acting alpha 2 antagonist"
] | A | Ref: KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 384) Dexmedetomidine is a centrally active a2A agonist It is introduced for sedating critically ill/ventilated patients in the intensive care unit. It is used as an adjunct to anaesthesia. Analgesia and sedation are produced with little respiratory depression, amnesia, or anaesthesia | train | med_mcqa | null |
In hemolytic anemia, all of the following are true except: March 2005 | [
"Bone marrow hyperplasia",
"Reticulocytosis",
"Increased unconjugated bilirubin",
"Increased haptoglobulin"
] | D | Ans. D: Increased haptoglobulin Hemolysis presents as acute or chronic anemia, reticulocytosis, or jaundice. The diagnosis is established by reticulocytosis, increased unconjugated bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase, decreased haptoglobin, and peripheral blood smear findings. In most of the cases, a bone marrow aspirate is not necessary in the diagnostic workup; if it is done, it shows erythroid hyperplasia. Premature destruction of erythrocytes occurs intravascularly or extravascularly. The etiologies of hemolysis often are categorized as acquired or hereditary. Common acquired causes of hemolytic anemia are autoimmunity, microangiopathy, and infection. Immune-mediated hemolysis, caused by antierythrocyte antibodies, can be secondary to malignancies, autoimmune disorders, drugs, and transfusion reactions. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia occurs when the red cell membrane is damaged in circulation, leading to intravascular hemolysis and the appearance of schistocytes. Infectious agents such as malaria and babesiosis invade red blood cells. Disorders of red blood cell enzymes, membranes, and hemoglobin cause hereditary hemolytic anemias. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency leads to hemolysis in the presence of oxidative stress. Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by spherocytes, a family history, and a negative direct antiglobulin test. Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are hemoglobinopathies characterized by chronic hemolysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following Intrauterine device has a minimum failure rate | [
"Progestase",
"Cu T-380 A",
"Levonorgestrel IUD",
"T Cu -200"
] | C | Mirena (Levonorgestrel IUD) has least failure rate among IUD's Contraceptive implants (Implanon) have the least failure rates among all contraceptive methods. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 496 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The primordia of the craniofacial complex develops from | [
"Hensen's node",
"Notochordal process",
"Cloacal membrane",
"Blastopore"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about pentose phosphate pathway, EXCEPT: | [
"CO2 is produced",
"Oxidation utilises NADP",
"No ATP is generated",
"None of the above"
] | D | Although glucose 6-phosphate is common to both pathways, the pentose phosphate pathway is markedly different from glycolysis. Oxidation utilizes NADP rather than NAD, CO2, which is not produced in glycolysis, is a characteristic product No ATP is generated in the pentose phosphate pathway, whereas it is a major product of glycolysis. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 21. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common complication of pathological myopia? | [
"Glaucoma",
"Cataract",
"Haemorrhage",
"Retinal detachment"
] | D | Ans. (d) Retinal detachmentMost common complication of myopia is macular degeneration, followed by rhegmatogenous retinal detachment."Retinal detachment is the most dreaded and one of the most common complications of myopia'. Duke -ElderMost common cause of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is pathological myopia | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about posttraumatic stress disorder -a) Recall of traumatic eventsb) Associated with major trauma like pelvic fracturec) Treatment is ECTd) Disturbed sleep | [
"b",
"c",
"ad",
"ab"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital rubella syndrome is most prominent in an infant when a pregnant woman becomes infected? | [
"During the first trimester of pregnancy",
"One week before a full-term delivery",
"One month before a full-term delivery",
"Hours before childbih"
] | A | The route of infection of rubella virus is the respiratory tract, with spread to lymphatic tissue and then to the blood (viremia). Maternal viremia is followed by infection of the placenta, which leads to congenital rubella. Many organs of the fetus suppo the multiplication of the virus, which does not seem to destroy the cells but reduces the rate of growth of the infected cells. This leads to fewer than normal numbers of cells in the organs at bih. Therefore, the earlier in pregnancy infection occurs, the greater the chance for the development of abnormalities in the infected fetus. A vast percentage of maternal infections that occur during the first trimester of pregnancy result in such fetal defects as pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, cataracts, glaucoma, deafness, mental retardation, and other maladies. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 40. Paramyxoviruses and Rubella Virus. In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dentigerous cyst arises from- | [
"An unerupted tooth",
"Apex of an infected tooth",
"Nasopalatine cysts",
"Solitary bone cyst"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 21-year-old woman experiences abruptio placentae with severe bleeding during the delivery of a term fetus. Five months later, she presents with profound lethargy, pallor, muscle weakness, failure of lactation and amenorrhea. Which of the following pathologic findings is expected in this patient? | [
"Atrophy of the endocrine pancreas",
"Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal coex",
"Infarction of the pituitary",
"Pituitary prolactinoma"
] | C | - Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of Sheehan syndrome. SHEEHAN SYNDROME - Caused d/t postpaum ischemic necrosis of anterior pituitary. - Occurs after severe hypotension induced by postpaum hemorrhage. - The pituitary is paicularly susceptible at this time because its enlargement during pregnancy renders it vulnerable to reduction in blood flow. - C/F of panhypopituitarism : Pallor (d/t decreased MSH) Hypothyroidism (d/t decreased TSH) Failure of lactation (d/t decreased prolactin) Adrenal insufficiency (d/t decreased ACTH) Ovarian failure (d/t decreased FSH and LH). - None of the other choices lead to this constellation of hormone deficiencies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Great saphenous vein canulation is done at- | [
"Ant to medial malleolus",
"At fossa ovalis",
"Above popliteal fossa",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ant. to medial malleolus o Saphenous removes cut down at ankle provide excellent access. It is reliably found 1cm. anterior and 1 cm. superior to the medial malleolus. o Saphenous venous cut down at ankle provides excellent access. It is reliably found 1 cm. anterior and 1 cm. superior to the medial malleolus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleomycin toxicity affects which organ predominantly:March 2011 | [
"Bone marrow",
"Lungs",
"Liver",
"RBC"
] | B | Ans. B: LungsToxicity of Bleomycin is nausea, vomiting, dermographia, scleroderma like changes in skin, pneumonitis and occasionally pulmonary fibrosis.It is rarely a myelosuppressnatBleomycinIt is a glycopeptide antibiotic produced by the bacterium Streptomyces veicillus.Bleomycin refers to a family of structurally related compounds.When used as an anticancer agent, the chemotherapeutical forms are primarily bleomycin A2 and B2.It works by causing breaks in DNA.The drug is used in the treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma (as a component of the ABVD regimen), squamous cell carcinomas, and testicular cancer, as well as in the treatment of plantar was and as a means of effecting pleurodesisBleomycin acts by induction of DNA strand breaks.DNA cleavage by bleomycin depends on oxygen and metal ions, at least in vitro.Therefore bleomycin is used in combination with doxorubicin in Hodgkins lymphoma, as they have additive and complementary effects on the DNA, since doxorubicin acts by intercalating between DNA strands, and also acts on topoisomerase II enzyme thus relaxing the topoisomerase complexesThe most serious complication of bleomycin is pulmonary fibrosis and impaired lung function.It has been suggested that bleomycin induces sensitivity to oxygen toxicityOther side effects include fever, rash, dermatographism, hyperpigmentation, alopecia (hair loss) and Raynaud's phenomenon (discoloration of fingers and toes). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Collagen affected in Osteogenesislmperfecta | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | A | Ans, is 'a' i.e., Type I o Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as brittle bone disease, or "Labstein syndrome" is a congenital bone disorder.o People with OI are bom with defective connective tissue, or without the ability to make it, usually because of a deficiency of Type-1 collagen.o This deficiency arises from an amino acid substitution of glycine to bulkier amino acids in the collagen triple helix structure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Grape - like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in 4 - year old girl is characteristic of | [
"Fibrosarcoma",
"Leiomyosarcoma",
"Inflammatory polyp",
"Sarcoma botryoides"
] | D | sarcoma botryoides :
It is a variant of embryonal from of rhabdomyosarcoma.
Here tumour project into body cavity like a bunch of grapes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primordial prevention is for: | [
"Persons without risk factors",
"Persons with risk factors",
"Cure of disease",
"Treatment of complications"
] | A | It is first prevention in its purest form i.e. prevention of emergence of development of risk factor in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared. Efforts taken to discourage children from adopting harmful habits.
Primordial prevention is for persons without risk factors
Main intervention is through the individual or the mass education. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laryngeal membranes are classified into extrinsic and intrinsic. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all, EXCEPT: | [
"Cricothyroid membrane",
"Thyrohyoid membrane",
"Quadrangular membrane",
"Cricotracheal membrane"
] | C | Extrinsic membranes of larynx:Thyrohyoid membraneCricothyroid membraneCricotracheal membraneIntrinsic membranes of larynx:Cricovocal membraneQuadrangular membrane Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra, 4th edition, Page 54, 55. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Female patient with multiple, way lesions sessile, seen on vulva. Don't bleed on touch? | [
"Condyloma accuminata",
"Chancroid",
"Molluscum",
"Herpes genitalis"
] | A | Condyloma acuminata Caused by HPV 6>11 C/F- Pointed lesions ,Asymptomatic, pink verrucous lesion. Site - In males- Coronal sulcus, frenulum In females- Posterior fourchette Treatment- Topical {Imiquimod> Podophyllotoxin} | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sequence of putrefaction: WB 07 | [
"Hea-brain-uterus-spleen",
"Spleen-brain-hea-uterus",
"Hea-spleen-brain-uterus",
"Hea-brain-spleen-uterus"
] | B | Ans. Spleen-brain-hea-uterus | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which case cystometric study is indicated - | [
"Neurogenic bladder",
"Stress incontinence",
"Fistula",
"Urge incontinence"
] | A | Cystometric studies are urodynamic studies in which the pressure changes in the bladder is simultaneously measured with bladder filling and during micturition.
It helps in accurate assessment of detrusor and sphincter activity especially if a neurogenic abnormality is suspected.
Though it is also used in stress incontinence but the aim here is to rule out any neurogenic cause. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of Oxygen – Hemoglobin dissociation curve? | [
"Increased hydrogen ions",
"Decreased CO2",
"Increased temperature",
"Increased BPG"
] | B | Hb-O2 dissociation curve shift to left indicates more affinity of Hb to O2 and thus less delivery of O2 to tissues. Exercise causes increased 2,3 DPG.
Shift to left seen in
- Increased pH
- Decreased 2,3 DPG, temperature, PCO2
- HbF (Fetal)
Shift to right seen in
- Decreased pH
- Increased 2,3DPG, temperature, PCO2
- HbS (Sickle cell) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which following are postulated mechanism by which propofol acts as antiemetic:- | [
"Antidopaminergic activity",
"Depressant effect on the chemoreceptor trigger zone",
"Decreased release of glutamate and aspect able in the olfactory coex and decreased serotonin",
"All of the above"
] | D | causes of antiemetic effect of propofol Antidopaminergic activity Depressant effect on the chemoreceptor trigger zone Decreased release of glutamate and aspect able in the olfactory coex and decreased serotonin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Third-generation cephalosporins include all of the following EXCEPT : | [
"Ceftizoxime",
"Cefoperazone",
"Cefoxitin",
"Cefixime"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant presents to OPD with a history of vomiting and poor feeding. Musty odor is present in baby's urine. Guthrie test was done and found to be positive. The most likely diagnosis is? | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Alkaptonuria",
"Tyrosinemia",
"Maple syrup urine disease"
] | A | Clinical Presentation of Phenylketonuria
The affected infant is normal at birth.
Profound intellectual disability develops gradually if the infant remains untreated.
Vomiting, sometimes severe enough to be misdiagnosed as pyloric stenosis.
Older untreated children become hyperactive with autistic behaviors including purposeless hand movements, rhythmic rocking and athetosis.
The infants are lighter in their complexion than unaffected (Phenylalanine not converted to Tyrosine, so decreased melanin synthesis).
These children have an unpleasant mousy or musty odor of phenylacetic acid.
Lab Diagnosis of PKU
Guthrie Test (Bacterial Inhibition Assay of Guthrie).
Rapid screening test in the blood sample.
First method used for this purpose.
Reference- Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page -304 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a child ,Self-feeding develops at the age of __________ | [
"12 months",
"15 months",
"18 months",
"24 months"
] | C | Emerging patterns of social behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Indicates some desires or needs by pointing Hugs parents 18months Feeds self Seeks help when in trouble May complain when wet or soiled Kisses parent with pucker 24months Handles spoon well Often tells about immediate experiences Helps to undress Listens to stories when shown pictures 30months Helps put things away Pretends in play 36months Plays simple games (in "parallel" with other children) Helps in dressing (unbuttons clothing and puts on shoes) Washes hands 48months Plays with several children, with the beginning of social interaction and role-playing Goes to the toilet alone 60months Dresses and undresses Asks questions about the meaning of words Engages in domestic role-playing Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Local anaesthesia causing metheaEUR' moglobinemia | [
"Procaine",
"Prilocaine",
"Etiodicaine",
"Ropivacaine"
] | B | Prilocaine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chromosome-type in the complete mole is- | [
"XX",
"XXV'",
"XY",
"XO"
] | A | Ans-A i.e., XX Important features of complete and partial molesFeaturesComplete molePartial moleo Embryo/fetuso Absento Presento Hydrophic degeneration of villio Prominent & diffuseo Variable and focalo Trophobalstic hyperplesiao Diffuseo Focalo Uterine sizeo More than date (30-60%)o Less than dateo Theca lutein cysto Common (25-50%)o Uncommono Karyotypeo 46 XX (85%), paternal in origino Triploidy (90%), diploid (10%)o BetaHCGo High (>50,000)o Slight deviation (< 50,000)o Classic clinical symptomso Commono Rareo Risk of persistent GTDo 20%o <5% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oxidative phosphorylation is inhibited by all EXCEPT: | [
"CO",
"Antimycin A",
"Malonate",
"Thermogenin"
] | D | Uncouplers of ETC: Dinitrophenol, Thermogenin Oxidative phosphorylation means ETC. Inhibitors of ETC are given in table below: Inhibitors of ETC Complex Inhibitors Complex I Rotenone, Phenobarbitone, Amobarbital Piericidin A Complex II Malonate (3C) Carboxin (fungicide) TTFA (Trienoyl Tri Fluoro Acetone) Complex III Phenformin Antimycin A BAL {British Anti Lewisite or Dimercaprol Complex IV Co, CN, H2S, Sodium Azide Extra Information Uncouplers of ETC: Dinitrophenol, Thermogenin ADP to ATP conversion is inhibited by: Oligomycin ADP to ATP transfer is inhibited by: Atractyloside Thermogenin is uncoupler i.e. it inhibits Phosphorylation but not Oxidation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best indicator for coronary aery disease ? | [
"HDL",
"LDL",
"VLDL",
"Chlomicron"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. LDL | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common complication of IUCD is: | [
"Ectopic pregnancy",
"Bleeding",
"Backache",
"Cervical stenosis"
] | B | Ans. is b, i.e. BleedingRef: Park 20th/ed, p428Complication of IUCD* M/C complication-Bleeding* IInd M/C complication-Pain* Infection-Doxycycline 200mg/azithromycin 500mg should be given 1 hour before insertion to reduce infection.* Most typical infection associated with Cu T use is actinomyces.* Ectopic pregnancy-It is seen that ectopic pregnancy is 50% less likely in women using IUCD than in women using no contraception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following should be avoided initially in hemorrhagic shock: March 2011 | [
"Ringer lactate",
"Dextrose 5%",
"Normal saline",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. B: Dextrose 5% Hypotonic solutions (e.g. dextrose) are poor volume expanders and should not be used in the treatment of shock unless the deficit is free water loss (e.g. diabetes insipidus) or patients are sodium overloaded (e.g. cirrhosis) Glucose containing solutions should not be used in shock (they exacerbate ischaemic brain damage) | train | med_mcqa | null |
MOA of Teduglutide in sho bowel syndrome? | [
"GLP-2 inhibitor",
"HT1a inhibitor",
"GLP-1 analogs",
"C-peptide analogs"
] | A | Ans. A. GLP-2 inhibitorGlucagon-like peptide-2 (GLP-2) - Impoant intestinotrophic growth factor & mediator of intestinal adaptation.FDA approved teduglutide (Gattex--NPS) to treat sho bowel syndrome in adult patients requiring additional nutrition from I.V. parenteral nutrition.Effectively improves fluid absorption. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Desmopressin can be used for all of the following conditions EXCEPT : | [
"Neurogenic diabetes insipidus",
"Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus",
"Bed wetting in children",
"Bleeding due to hemophilia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is: | [
"Mycobacterium tuberculosis",
"Cryptococcus neoformans",
"Listera monocytogenes",
"Streptococcus pneumonia"
] | A | Insiduous / gradual onset of fever over a duration of two weeks, with features of raised intracranial tension in the form of vomiting and altered sensoriurn with characteristic basal exudates and hydrocephalus on cranial CT scan are almost characteristic of tuberculous meningitis. Ref: Text Book of Pediatrics By Nelson, 17th Edition, Page 965, 966 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following conditions oxygen delivery is least to muscles? | [
"Person inhaling 100 percent oxygen at the top of mout everest",
"Marathon runner at sea level",
"Person with carbon monoxide poisoning",
"None of the above (this option none of the above was also there)"
] | C | In person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning , perfusion to the muscle is least Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:353,354,355 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Statistical method of calculate death rate among two population with different age groups | [
"Crude death rate",
"Standardized death rate",
"Case fatality rate",
"Age specific death rate"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Standardized death rate Standardization (or adjustment) of rates is used to unable the valid comparison of groups that differ regarding an impoant health determinant (most commonly age). For example, if we want to compare the death rates of two different populations with different age composition, the crude death rate is not right yardstick because rates are only comparable if the populations upon which they are based are comparable. To remove this confounding effect of different age structure, adjustment or standardization is done. Two major approaches to standardization have been used :? Direct standardization Indirect standardization | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malignant neuroleptic syndrome is caused by:March 2009 | [
"Antidepressants",
"Anxiolytics",
"Antipsychotics",
"Antiepileptics"
] | C | Ans. C: AntipsychoticsNeuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) refers to the combination of hypehermia, rigidity, and autonomic dysregulation that can occur as a serious complication of the use of antipsychotic drugs.The list of atypical antipsychotic drugs that may cause NMS include olanzapine, risperidone, paliperidone, aripiprazole, ziprasidone, amisulpride, and quetiapine.Clozapine may also be associated with the development of NMS, but it appears to be less likely to manifest with extrapyramidal features, including rigidity and tremor.The most widely accepted mechanism by which antipsychotics cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome is that of dopamine D2 receptor antagonism.Central D2 receptor blockade in the hypothalamus, nigrostriatal pathways, and spinal cord leads to increased muscle rigidity and tremor extrapyramidal pathways. Hypothalamic D2 receptor blockade results in an elevated temperature set point and impairment of heat-dissipating mechanisms.Peripherally, antipsychotics lead to increased calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, resulting in increased contractility, which can contribute to hypehermia, rigidity, and muscle cell breakdown. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trismus is due to infection by | [
"Staphylococci",
"Streptococci",
"Diphtheria",
"Clostridium Tetani"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Base of the skull fracture presents with involvement of the petrous temporal bone, which of the following important sign: | [
"Subconjunctive haematoma",
"CSF rhinorrhoea",
"Raccon eyes",
"Battle sign"
] | D | (Battle sign) (595-Baily & Love 24th) (302-B &L 25th)Base of Skull Fractures* Anterior fossa fracture - May open into the frontal or ethmoid air sinuses or run across the cribriform plate.* Presents with sub conjunctival hematoma, anosmia, epistaxis, nasal tip anaesthesia, CSF-rhinorrhea and occasionally carotico-cavernous fistua.* Periorbital haematoma or "raccoon eye" indicate subgaleal haemorrhage.* Middle fossa fracture involving petrous temporal bone presents with CSF otorrhoea, haemotympanum, occicular disruption, Battle sign or VII and VIII cranial nerve palsiesBattle sign - bruising behind the ear appearing 36 hours after a head injury with a petrous temporal base of skull fracture | train | med_mcqa | null |
Purest water in nature is | [
"Rain water",
"River water",
"Deep well",
"Impounding reservoirs"
] | A | Rain : Is the prime source of all water and is the ‘purest form of water in nature.’
Chemically, it is very soft water : contains traces (0.0005%) of solids Gibraltar depends on rain water as a source of supply. | train | med_mcqa | null |
4-8 experts, discussing a given problem in front of audience - | [
"Symposium",
"Panel discussion",
"Workshop",
"Group Discussion"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Panel Discussion Panel discussiono It is a two way communication.o 4-8 persons who are qualified to talk about a topic and discuss a given problem in front of a large group or audience.o The panel comprises a chairman.o The chairman opens the meeting, welcomes the group and introduces the panel speakerso He indroduces topic briefly and invite the panel speakers to present their point of viewo After the main aspects of subject are explored by panel speakers, the audience is invited to take parto If members of the panel are unacquainted with this method, they may have a preliminary meeting, prepare the material on the subject and decide upon the method and plan of presentation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regular drinking of which of the following can help prevent Urinary Tract infection (UTI) | [
"Grape juice",
"Orange juice",
"Cranberry juice",
"Raspberry juice"
] | C | Cranberry juice Mechanism of prevention of UTI: Proanthocyanidis in cranberry juice prevent bacterial fimbriae from attaching to wall of Urinary Bladder and urinary tract Ref: How cranberry juice can prevent Urinary tract Infections, Science daily, July 21,2008) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20-year-old 70kg man is put on fast perioperatively. 100gm of glucose is given per day as 5% dextrose solution. This is to | [
"Meet daily calorie requirement",
"Meet daily fluid requirement",
"Sustain cerebral energy metabolism",
"Sustain anabolic status"
] | C | During starvation, the body is faced with an obligate need to generate glucose to sustain cerebral energy metabolism (100 g of glucose per day). This is achieved in the first 24 hours by mobilising glycogen stores and thereafter by hepatic gluconeogenesis from amino acids, glycerol and lactate. This eventually leads to accelerated loss of lean tissue (the main source of amino acids for hepatic gluconeogenesis) IV Glucose provided for surgical patients who are fasted has a significant protein- sparing effect.Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 10 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The minimum dosage of Candesartan to begin with | [
"2 mg",
"40 mg",
"20 mg",
"30 mg"
] | A | (A) 2 mg # Candesartan: It has the highest affinity for the AT 1 receptor & produces largely unsurmountable antagonism, probably due to slow dissociation from the receptors or receptor desensitization.> It is indicated i both Hypertension & CHF.> Hypertension: 2-32 mg; CHF: 4-32 mg | train | med_mcqa | null |
The time interval between the primary and secondary case is : | [
"Serial interval",
"Generation time",
"Median Incubation period",
"Secondary attack rate"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Serial interval Serial intervalThe gap in time between the onset of the primary case and the secondary case is called the serial interval.Generation time is the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host.Median incubation periodis the time required for 50 percent of the cases to occur following exposure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is used to prevent acute mountain sickness? | [
"Acetazolamide",
"Dexamethasone",
"Diltiazem",
"Digoxin"
] | A | Ans. A. AcetazolamideAcetazolamide is effective in preventing acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).Mechanism in above pathology:* Counteracts the respiratory alkalosis which occurs during ascent to altitude* Facilitates the excretion of bicarbonate in the urine* Decreases pH of CSF* Decreases CSF formation | train | med_mcqa | null |
A women consumes several tablets of amitryptiline leading to poisoning. All of the following can be done except | [
"Sodium bicarbonate infusion",
"Gastric lavage",
"Diazepam to control seizure",
"Atropine as antidote"
] | D | D i.e. Atropine as antidote | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phocomelia is caused by ingestion of ------ during pregnancy: | [
"Steroids",
"Tetracycline",
"Thalidomide",
"Barbiturates"
] | C | Ans: cRef: Harrison, 15th ed, p. 1038 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The light rays come to focus in front of the retina because of the increased length of the eyeball in | [
"Myopia",
"Hypermetropia",
"Astigmatism",
"Presbyopia"
] | A | (A) Myopia > In myopia, the axial length of the eyeball is increased while in hypermetropia, the axial length of the eyeball is decreased. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about Japanese encephalitis: | [
"Pigs are amplifier hosts",
"Culicine mosquitoes are vectors",
"Man to Man transmission",
"Case fatality rate is about 20-40%"
] | C | No Man to Man transmission. | train | med_mcqa | null |
World anti-tobacco day is celebrated on? | [
"31st May",
"5thJune",
"12th July",
"24th November"
] | A | ANSWE R: (A) 31st MayREF: APPENDIX-70 below "HEALTH RELATED DAYS" APPENDIX - 70Health Related Days:World leprosy day30 JanuaryWorld cancer day4th FebruaryWorld disabled day15th MarchWorld TB day24th MarchWorld Health day7th AprilWorld Malaria day25th AprilRed cross day8th MayWorld no tobacco day31st MayAnti Filaria day5th JuneWorld blood donation day14th JuneInternational day against drug abuse26th JuneWorld diabetes day27th JuneWorld Zoonosis day6th JulyWorld population day11th JulyWorld breast feeding week1-7 AugustSuicide prevention day10th SeptemberAlzheimer's day21th SeptemberWorld Rabies day28th SeptemberWorld Heart day29th SeptemberInternational day for elderly1st OctoberMental health day10 OctoberEther day/ Anesthesia day16th OctoberWorld diabetes day14th NovemberWorld RTA day16th NovemberWorld COPD day19th NovemberAIDS day1st DecemberHepatitis day4th December | train | med_mcqa | null |
Early loss of bladder control is seen in | [
"Conus medullaris",
"Cauda equina",
"Gullain bane syndrome",
"Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Conus medullaris Loss of bladder control is an early and marked feature of conus medullaris. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Christmas tree appearance seen in: | [
"Myotonic dystrophy",
"Trauma",
"Chalcosis",
"Diabetes"
] | A | About 90% of patients with myotonic dystrophy develop fine iridescent coical opacities in the third decade, sometimes resembling Christmas tree cataract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a part of National Screening Programmes? | [
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Carcinoma cervix",
"Refractive errors",
"Dental caries"
] | D | Diabetes mellitus: Under ‘National programme for Prevention and Control of Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke’, screening is done by Urine for glucose (2 hours after a meal), Fasting blood sugar or random blood sugar (confirmatory testing is done by Standard Oral Glucose Test – 2hour value after 75 grams glucose).
Carcinoma cervix: Under ‘National Cancer Control Programme’, Visual inspection with Acetic acid (more realistic) have been recommended.
Refractive errors: Under ‘National Programme for Control of Blindness (school vision screening programme) screening for refractive errors is recommended once every 6 months.
Dental caries: Under ‘National Oral Health care Programme’, components of pilot project (XI Five Year Plan) include oral health education, IEC and strengthening oral health set-up at district level/PHCs/CHCs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Why is clopidogrel preferred over ticlopidine? | [
"Lower incidence of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia",
"Lower incidence of dyslipidemia",
"Lower incidence of hyperglycemia",
"Lower incidence of postural hypotention"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lower incidence of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia Clopidogrel* This newer congener of ticlopidine has similar mechanism of action, ability to inhibit platelet function and therapeutic efficacy, but appears to be safer and better tolerated (CLASSICS study).* Clopidogrel is safer than ticlopidine as it is less associated with hematological dyscrasias than use of ticlopidine. A lower frequency of neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and other bone marrow toxicity compared to ticlopidine has been recorded.* The clopidogrel as aspirin in patients at risk of ischaemic events (CAPRIE) trial has found clopidogrel recipients to have a slightly lower annual risk of primary ischaemic events than aspirin recipients.* The most important adverse effect is bleeding.* Addition of aspirin to clopidogrel has been found to double the incidence of serious bleeding among high risk stroke patients (MATCH study).* A lower frequency of neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and other bone marrow toxicity compared to ticlopidine has been recorded.* Side effects are diarrhoea, epigastric pain and rashes.* Clopidogrel + aspirin is as effective in stented patients as ticlopidine + aspirin. Clopidogrel is 50% absorbed orally and like ticlopidine, it is a prodrug; action lasts for upto 7 days. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old female presents with swelling in the neck. O/E it is a 2x2 cm nodule on the right lobe of thyroid. No palpable cervical nodes. FNAC shows features of papillary carcinoma. Treatment of choice | [
"Total thyroidectomy",
"Right hemithyroidectomy",
"Hartley-Dunhill operation",
"Subtotal thyroidectomy"
] | A | Answer: a) Total thyroidectomy (SABISTON 19TH ED, P-908)PAPILLARY CARCINOMA (80%)Most common type of thyroid carcinomaMore common in womenMostly in the age group 25 - 50Mutations in RET or BRAF geneAssociated with previous exposure to ionizing radiationHistologyNuclei: optically clear or empty appearance - groundglass or Orphan Annie eye nucleiCrowded nuclei may demonstrate groovingPsammoma bodiesSeldom encapsulatedMultiple foci seenHistologic variants - follicular (mc), tall cell, diffuse sclerosing, insular, columnarSlowly progressive and less aggressive tumorThyroglobulin is used as tumor markerSpread to lymph nodes is common, blood borne metastasis is unusualLymph node status does not alter the prognosisSeen as cold masses on scintiscansClassic papillary carcinoma and follicular variant - Excellent prognosisAll other subtypes - aggressiveDiffuse sclerosing variantOccurs in younger individuals, including childrenExtensive, diffuse fibrosis throughout the thyroid glandOften associated with a prominent lymphocytic infiltrate, simulating Hashimoto thyroiditisLack BRAF mutations, but RET/PTC translocations are found in 50% casesMicrocarcinoma (Occult carcinoma)Papillary cancers less than 1 cmMost commonly come to attention as an incidental finding in patients undergoing surgeryMajority of such tumours never progress to become a clinically significant entityHave a uniformly excellent prognosisFactors associated with worse prognosisMale genderAge > 40 yarsSize > 3 cmTall cell variantAge at diagnosis - most important prognostic factor in well-differentiated thyroid cancer Treatment of differentiated thyroid cancerSolitary intrathyroidal papillary microcarcinoma: no clinically involved cervical lymph nodes, no history of head and neck radiation - unilateral thyroid lobectomy and isthmusectomyTumors > 1 cm with no palpable nodes: Total thyroidectomyTumors > 2 cm with nodal involvement and/or metastases: Total thyroidectomy + node dissection + radioiodine ablation + long term TSH suppressionThyroid cancer > 1 cm or papillary cancer < 1 cm: clinically positive nodal disease, multicentricity, or a history of head and neck radiation - total or near-total thyroidectomy, followed by radioablationTSH suppression: thyroxine 0.1- 0.2 mg daily for all patients after operation for differentiated thyroid carcinoma on the basis that most tumours are TSH dependent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Haemorrhagic cystitis is caused by | [
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Busulphan",
"Prednisolone",
"Melphalan"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystic is most commonly associated with cyclophosphamide (seen in 5-10 % of patients).In Harrison drugs causing hemorrhagic cystitis have been listed and this also includes Busulphan.Still, I prefer cyclophosphamide as the answer because none of the pharmacology books (This even includes Goodman & Gilman) mention hemorrhagic cystitis as an adverse effect of Busulfan.More question on this topic: -Hemorrhagic cystitis has been attributed to cyclophosphamide because of the presence of acrolein.Adequate hydration and intravenous injection of MESNA (Sodium 2-mercaptoethane sulfonate) minimize this problem. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Preferred fluoroquinolone against m. leprae is - | [
"Ofloxacin",
"Pefloxacin",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Moxifloxacin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ofloxacin Drugs acting on M. leprae* Established agents used to treat leprosy include dapsone (50-100 mg/d), clofazimine (50-100 mg/d, 100 mg three times weekly, or 300 mg monthly), and rifampin (600 mg daily or monthly. Of these drugs, only rifampin is bactericidal.* The sulfones (folate antagonists), the foremost of which is dapsone, were the first antimicrobial agents found to be effective for the treatment of leprosy and are still the mainstay of therapy.* Other antimicrobial agents active against M. leprae in animal models and at the usual daily doses used in clinical trials include ethionamide/prothionamide; the aminoglycosides streptomycin, kanamycin, and amikacin (but not gentamicin or tobramycin); minocycline; clarithromycin; and several fluoroquinolones, particularly preferred is ofloxacin.* Next to rifampin, minocycline, clarithromycin, and ofloxacin appear to be most bactericidal for M. leprae, but these drugs have not been used extensively in leprosy control programs. Most recently, rifapentine and moxifloxacin have been found to be especially potent against M. leprae in mice. In a clinical trial in lepromatous leprosy, moxifloxacin was profoundly bactericidal, matched in potency only by rifampin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Serological diagnosis is made in -a) Actinomycosis b) T.B.c) Syphilisd) Gonorrhoeae) Q fever | [
"abd",
"acd",
"cde",
"ade"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Denominator in general feility rate is ? | [
"All women between 15-45 year age",
"All married women between 15-45 year age",
"Total number of live bihs",
"Total number of all bihs"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., All women between 15-45 yr age | train | med_mcqa | null |
The gingival enlargements in leukemia mainly results from | [
"as an inflammatory reaction to plaque",
"Leukemic cellular infiltration of gingiva",
"Hormonal disturbances",
"Developmental in origin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The neuromuscular transmitter released at neuromuscular junction is: | [
"Dopamine",
"Epinephrine",
"Nor epinephrine",
"Acetylcholine"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of acute RVF aEUR' | [
"Massive pulmonary embolism",
"Tricuspid stenosis",
"Pulmonary stenosis",
"Tricuspid regurgitation"
] | A | Massive pulmonary embolism Acute right ventricular failure is usually caused by acute cor pulmonales. Most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is pulmonary embolism. M.C. cause of chronic cor pulmonale is pulmonary embolism Causes of acute right hea failure Pulmonary embolism (M.C.) Acute respiratory failure (especially in broncho pulmonary disease with hypoxic / hypercapnic pulmonary vasoconstrictions. ARDS Sepsis Acutely exacerbated chronic (left / biventricular) hea failure Acute inferior myocardial infarction involving the R.V. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Five cusps are present in: | [
"Maxillary first molar only",
"Mandibular first molar only",
"Maxillary and mandibular first molar",
"Maxillary and Mandibular second molar"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest pain can cause - | [
"Hypertension",
"Headache",
"Bradycardia",
"Sexual dysfunction"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Headache o Due to vasodilatation there may be tachycardia, palpitation, flushing, headache, dizziness and fainting may occur.Uses of nitratesAngina pectorisMICHF and acute LVF - nitroglycerine i.v. can be used - Act by decreasing preload (LV filling pressure).Biliary colic and esophageal spasm (achalasia cardia)Acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina and non-ST segment elevation MI).Cyanide poisoningAdverse effectso Due to vasodilatation tachycardia, palpitation, flushing, headache, dizziness and fainting may occur,o Rashes are common particularly with pentaerythritol tetranitrate.o Methemoglobinemia.o Sildenafil causes dangerous potentiation of nitrate action (cGMP is increased by nitrates and its breakdown by phosphodiesterase is inhibited by sildenafil - marked accumulation of cGMP) - severe hypotension, MI and death may occur - the only contraindications of nitrates use are hypotension or simultaneous use of sildenofil. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which anti-epileptic is not contraindicated during pregnancy? | [
"Ethosuxmide",
"Carbamazepine",
"Phenytoin",
"Valproate"
] | B | Carbamazepine REF: The treatment of epilepsy Simon D. Shorvon - Page 279 "Carbamazepine is the antiepileptic of choice during pregnancy" The latest data from Jentink et al (BMJ 2010;341:c6581) are drawn from the EUROCAT Antiepileptic Study Database and show that carbamazapine was associated with a raised incidence of spina bifida but the absolute risk was small -- 2 per 1000 against a background rate at 1 per 1000. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest sign in X-ray in TB spine- | [
"Paravertebral shadow",
"Narrowing of disc space",
"Gibbus",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans- B Narrowing of disc space First clinical sign of TB Spine = Paraspinal muscle spasm First clinical sign of Pott paraplegia = Ankle Clonus > Extensor Plantar > Spasticity First X-ray Sign of Pott spine = Reduction of disc space End result of Pott spine = bony ankylosis Loss of Spinal curvature is a non specific X-ray finding which can happen even after prolonged sitting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 8-month-old girl suddenly developed a high fever (103degF). Her pediatrician examined her and found no signs of upper respiratory tract infection, meningitis, or encephalitis. Two days later, the girl's fever reached 105degF and she suffered a febrile seizure. By the time the child was brought to the pediatrician's office, her temperature had dropped. The doctor noted a generalized papular rash. What was the doctor's most likely diagnosis for this child? | [
"Erythema infectiosum caused by parvovirus B19",
"Hand-foot-and-mouth disease caused by Coxsackievirus A",
"Measles caused by Morbillivirus",
"Roseola infantum caused by human herpes virus 6"
] | D | Roseola infantum caused by human herpes virus 6 (d) leads to seizures in 15% of symptomatic infants. In healthy infants, the infection is asymptomatic or follows the course described in the vignette. In immunocompromised children, the abrupt onset includes CNS and other organ system involvement. Following infection, the virus remains latent in lymphocytes and monocytes. Infection in adults or reactivation in adulthood may produce a mononucleosis-like syndrome with lymphadenopathy and hepatitis. In immunocompromised patients such as bone marrow, kidney, and liver transplant patients, much more serious infections/reactivations occur that may lead to organ rejection and death. Erythema infectiosum (a), hand-food-and-mouth disease (b), measles (c), and rubella (d) (caused by the viruses indicated in the choices) each present differently: "slapped cheek" reticular rash 7 to 10 days following a nonspecific prodrome; vesicles appearing on the hands, and disseminated maculopapular rashes beginning on the neck, respectively. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct - | [
"Aphasia",
"Hemiparesis",
"Facial weakenss",
"Dysarthria"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 year old woman suffers severe chest trauma. She is unconscious and her blood pressure is substantially decreased. She has sustained a tear in one of the pulmonary veins at the point at which the vein enters the hea. Into which of the following spaces is the patient hemorrhaging? | [
"Between the epicardium and the parietal pericardium",
"Between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium",
"Between the fibrous pericardium and the parietal pleura",
"Between the myocardium and the epicardium"
] | A | The pericardial space is located between the epicardium (also known as the visceral pericardium) and the parietal pericardium. A tear of a blood vessel immediately outside of the hea will cause bleeding into the pericardial space. This accumulation of blood in the pericardial space causes increased pressure on the hea, which restricts filling of the hea during diastole (cardiac tamponade). This reduced filling results in reduced cardiac output and reduced blood pressure. The region between the fibrous pericardium and the parietal pleura is outside of the pericardial space. It is pa of the mediastinum and it is in this region in which structures such as the vagus nerve and the phrenic nerve are found. The epicardium is fused to the myocardium and is the outer layer of the hea wall. There is no space between the epicardium and the myocardium. The parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium are fused into a single layer that forms the outer wall of the pericardial space. There is no space between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epiplocele contains: | [
"Omentum",
"Ileum",
"Caecum",
"Appendix"
] | A | Epiplocele: it is a hernia formed by protrusion of omeuntum. Enterocele: a hernia, the contents of which are both intestine and omentum. Amyand's hernia: The presence of vermiform appendix, whether inflamed or not, inside a hernia sac. Ref: A manual of surgery By Sir Astley Cooper, Joseph Henry Green, 3rd Edition, Page 104. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Length of umbilical cord is? | [
"40-50 cms",
"60- 120 cms",
"30-100 cms",
"25-40 cms"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) 30-100 cmsREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 40The normal length of umblical cord is around 50cms with usual variation between 30-100 cms | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the dose of zinc in diarrhea in a one year old child? | [
"10 mg/day for 2 weeks",
"10mg/day for 4 weeks",
"10mg/day for 6 weeks",
"20 mg/day for 2 weeks"
] | D | The dose for treatment of zinc deficiency is 10mg/day for 14 days for infant 2-6 months of age and 20mg/day for 14 days for older than 6 months.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 1872 - 1873) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Predisposing factor for carcinoma vulva is all Except | [
"Smoking",
"HPV",
"Fibroepithelial polyp",
"Leukoplakia"
] | C | The etiologic role of ceain viruses in carcinogenesis, paicularly high-risk HPV types 16 and 18, in these sites is well documented. Mention has already been made about the preceding stage of vulval epithelial disorders, paicularly squamous hyperplasia, in the development of these lesions. Ref: HARSH MOHAN TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th Ed. Pg no:723 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The given histological specimen is | [
"Urethra",
"Vermiform appendix",
"Vas deferens",
"Stenson's duct"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in - | [
"Trousseau's syndrome",
"Burger's disease",
"Raynaud's disease",
"Kawasaki syndrome"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trousseau's syndrome * Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis is known as Trousseau's syndrome.Trousseau's Syndrome* It is characterized by recurrent episodes of thrombophlebitis in superficial veins which changes locations over time (thrombophlebitis migrans or migratory thrombophlebitis).* The clot is tender and can be felt as a nodule under the skin. It can involve uncommon sites, such as the chest wall and arms.* This syndrome is a sign of internal malignancy & is particularly associated with pancreatic, gastric and lung cancer.* Heparin therapy is recommended to prevent future clots.Also know* Trousseau sign of latent tetany is caused by hypocalcemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specific marker for GIST is? | [
"CD 117",
"CD 34",
"CD 23",
"S-100"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 117 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Handedness develops at - | [
"12 months",
"18 months",
"24 months",
"36 months"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 36 months o Handedness is usually established by the 3rd year. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The major clinical use of nimodipine is in ? | [
"Hypeension",
"Angina pectoris",
"Subarachnoid haemorrhage",
"Raynaud's phenomenon"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subarachnoid haemorrhage Nimodipine selectively relaxes cerebral vasculature, approved for prevention and treatment of neurological deficit due to cerebral vasospasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage or ruptured congenital intracranial aneurism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f) | [
"Chalk and talk/Lecture",
"Demonstrations",
"Role play",
"Flash cards"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 yr old male with history of chronic smoking and alcohol intake presents with a lesion (shown in pic) in the oral cavity. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Ranula",
"Erythroplakia",
"Carcinoma tongue",
"Cancrum oris"
] | C | Exophytic SCC right lateral margin of tongue. Most common site of Oral cavity malignancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heller and Paul double oxalate is also known as: | [
"Sodium citrate",
"Sodium oxalate",
"Ethylene diamine tetra acetate (EDTA)",
"Ammonium potassium oxalate"
] | D | Heller and Paul double oxalate is a combination of ammonium and potassium oxalate. It is an anticoagulant that is used commonly for hematological analyses. It does not cause shrinkage or enlargement of red blood cells. Ammonium oxalate cannot be used when test for urea are carried out. Ref: Diagnosis of Hemophilia and Bleeding Disorders, 2nd Edition, Page 11 | train | med_mcqa | null |
To prevent exercise induced bronchial asthma drug used is - | [
"Sodium chromoglycate",
"Ipratropium bromide",
"Terbutaline",
"Epinephrine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not used for treatment and/or prophylaxis of seasonal influenza - | [
"Amantidine",
"Rimantidine",
"Oseltamivir",
"Acyclovir"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i e., Acycloviro Two classes of antiviral drugs are available for the treatment and prevention of influenzai) Neuraminidase inhibitors: Zanamivir, Oseltamivir, peramivirii) Adamantanes: Amantidine, rimantidine | train | med_mcqa | null |
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