question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Quellung reaction is seen with: | [
"Pneumococcus",
"Gonococcus",
"Streptococcus",
"Staphylococcus"
] | A | Quellung reaction Capsular swelling due to serological reaction Pneumococcal Capsular antigen + Antibody causes Capsular swelling Note:- MC fadyean's reaction Done for bacillus anthracis capsule (polypeptide) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Valve usually not involved in rheumatic fever ? | [
"Mitral",
"Aoic",
"Pumonary",
"Tricuspid"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pumonary "The pulmonary valve is least frequently involved" In Rheumatic fever o Commonest valve to involve Mitral valve o 2nd commonest valve to involve Aoic valve o Least frequently involved value ---> Pulmonary valve o Most common valvular deformity produced --> Mitral regurgitation | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old male patient presented with mild abdominal pain, mild constipation with a feeling of incomplete evacuation and mucus in stools for the past 4 years. On examination, tenderness is present in left iliac fossa. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Diveicular disease of the colon",
"Irritable bowel syndrome",
"Carcinoma colon"
] | B | Ans. b. Diveicular disease of the colon | train | med_mcqa | null |
A tentatively female newborn has ambiguous genitalia. What appears to be a vagina is associated with a significantly enlarged clitoris resembling a penis. Other findings include hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypotension. Deficiency of which of the following is suggested by these findings? | [
"11-Hydroxylase",
"17-Hydroxylase",
"21-Hydroxylase",
"Amylin"
] | C | Deficiency of enzyme 21-hydroxylase (mc) 11 hydroxylase 17 hydroxylase | Coisol | Mineralocoicoids (Salt losing hypotension) | Sex hormones(Virilization) Similar to 21 hydroxylase except | Deoxycoicosterone (Hypeension) | Coisol | Mineralocoicoid | Sex hormone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delayed labour occurs in : | [
"Early use of epidural anesthesia with analgesia",
"Early use of analgesia",
"Unripened cervix",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Early use of epidural anesthesia with analgesia; Early use of analgesia; Unripened cervix; and Use of sedative early in course of labour Delayed / prolonged labour: "Labour is said to be prolonged when the combined duration of the first and second stage is more than the arbitrary time limit of 18 hours or when the cervical dilatation rate is less than 1 cm/hr and descent of the presenting pa is c 1 cm/hr for a period of 4 hours (WHO-1994)." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to | [
"Proximal convoluted tubule",
"Ascending loop of Henle",
"Descending loop of Henle",
"Glomerulus"
] | D | The thick end of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle reaches the glomerulus of the nephron from which the tubule arose and nestles between its afferent and efferent aerioles. Specialized cells at the end form the macula densa, which is close to the efferent and paicularly the afferent aeriole. The macula, the neighboring lacis cells, and the renin-secreting juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent aeriole form the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 641 | train | med_mcqa | null |
How many pulpal horns are there in the mandibular second primary molar? | [
"3",
"6",
"4",
"5"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erythropoietin is secreted from | [
"Juxtraglomerular cells",
"Macula densa",
"Intersititial cells",
"Glomerulus"
] | C | In adults, about 85% of the erythropoietin comes from the kidneys and 15% from the liver. Both these organs contain the mRNA for erythropoietin. Erythropoietin can also be extracted from the spleen and salivary glands, but these tissues do not contain the mRNA and consequently do not appear to manufacture the hormone. When renal mass is reduced in adults by renal disease or nephrectomy, the liver cannot compensate and anemia develops. Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial cells in the peritubular capillary bed of the kidneys and by perivenous hepatocytes in the liver. It is also produced in the brain, where it exes a protective effect against excitotoxic damage triggered by hypoxia; and in the uterus and oviducts, where it is induced by estrogen and appears to mediate estrogen-dependent angiogenesis. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology,23rd edition, page: 677 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mucin is secreted by? | [
"Skin",
"Lung",
"Stomach",
"Gall bladder"
] | D | Gall bladderSecretion of Mucin:Secretes mucin adding to bile.During intestinal release of bile, mucin acts as lubricant. Aids in intestinal movement of chyme. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The greatest chance for long-term survival of an allograft would be expected with a | [
"Kidney transplant",
"Hea transplant",
"Cornea transplant",
"Liver transplant"
] | C | Of the grafts listed, cornea transplants have the longest survival time. Cells of the cornea do express HLA-A and HLA-B antigens, but their density is low compared with most other tissues. In addition, the cornea is considered to be an "immunologically privileged" site (i.e., blood vessels and lymphatics are lacking).There appears co be little or no interaction between corneal proteins and cells of the immune system.HLA matching of donor and recipient is generally not done before cornea transplants. Topical and subconjunctival steroids are the conventional forms of immunosuppressive therapy used.Other sites and tissues considered to be "immunologically privileged" include the brain, testes, and uterus.As with most other types of allografts, rejection (if it is going to occur) of a transplanted cornea occurs most frequently during the first 3 to 6 months after transplantation.A high success rate is also seen with bone allografts. Bone is often frozen or freeze-dried before transplantation. These procedures reduce its immunogenicity.There are a few long-term survivors of kidney, hea, liver, and pancreas transplants, but the overall success rates are considerably lower than for cornea transplant patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hera lal a 35 year old man was found to be positive for HBsAg and HBeAg , accidentally during a screening for blood donation. On Lab examination SGOT and SGPT are normal. What should be the most appropriate next step? | [
"Observation",
"Liver biopsy",
"Interferon therapy",
"HBV-DNA estimation"
] | D | Patient in the question is positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, so he is more likely to be highly infectious and must be associated with the presence of Hepatitis B virions and a detectable HBV DNA. Ref: Harrisons Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 304, Page 2540 ; Review of Medical Microbiology and Immunology By Warren Levinson, 11th Edition, Chapter 41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A data collected for specific purpose and used for the same purpose is | [
"Original data",
"Primary data",
"Secondary data",
"Specific data"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Doxylamine used in management of nausea and vomiting is marketed with which vitamin ? | [
"Thiamine",
"Riboflavin",
"Niacin",
"Pyridoxine"
] | D | Ans. is'd'i.e., PyridoxineDoxylamineSedative H1 antihistamine with prominent anticholinergic activity. Marketed in combination with pyridoxine, it is specifically promoted in India for 'morning sickness' (vomiting of early pregnancy), although such use is not made in the UK and many other countries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non-functional enzymes are all, EXCEPT: | [
"Alkaline phosphatase",
"Acid phosphatase",
"Lipoprotein lipase",
"Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase"
] | C | Lipoprotein lipase is a functional enzyme. It is located on the walls of blood capillaries, anchored to the endothelium by negatively charged proteoglycan chains of heparan sulfate. It has been found in hea, adipose tissue, spleen, lung, renal medulla, aoa, diaphragm, and lactating mammary gland, although it is not active in adult liver. It hydrolyzes lipids in lipoproteins, such as those found in chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), into free fatty acids and glycerol molecule. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Effects of estrogen are all of the following, except: | [
"Reduces HDL",
"Reduces LDL",
"Increases Triglycerides",
"Increases HDL"
] | A | Estrogens increase HDL cholesterol. Ref: KDT 5th Edition, Pages 274-9; KDT 6th Edition, Page 229; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Chapter 30; Novak's Textbook of Gynecology, 14th Edition, Pages 272-73 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In peritonsillar abscess, pain is referred to ear due to: | [
"Trigeminal nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Mandibular nerve",
"Auriculotemporal nerve"
] | B | Ans: (b) Glossopharyngeal nerveRef: Gray's Anatomy, The Anatomical Basis of Clinical Practice, Susan Standring, 41st edition, 2016, Page 576 & 577Tonsils and tonsillar fossa are supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve*.The tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal (Jacobson's) nerve* supplies the mucous membrane lining the tympanic cavity.Infection, malignancy and postoperative inflammation of the tonsil and tonsillar fossa may therefore be accompanied by pain referred to the ear.Structures related to the tonsillar fossa/tonsillar bedMuscles - Superior constrictor, sometimes by the anterior fibres of palatopharyngeus and styloglossus.Arteries - Tonsillar artery branch of the facial artery, ascending palatine artery and occasionally facial artery.Veins - Paratonsillar vein and venae comitantes accompanying tonsillar artery.Nerve - Glossopharyngeal nerve.The internal carotid artery lies approximately 25 mm behind and lateral to the tonsil, o In some individuals, the styloid process may be elongated and deviate towards the tonsillar bed. o The glossopharyngeal nerve lies immediately lateral to the muscular wall of the tonsillar fossa and is commonly temporarily affected by oedema following tonsillectomy.Points to Remember:Because of the nature of the ear's sensory innervations, a wide variety of disorders can produce referred otalgia.The ear receives an extensive sensory innervation via four cranial nerves (Trigeminal, Facial, Glossopharyngeal and Vagus) and two spinal segments (C2 and C3).The other causes of referred otalgia (most common causes) are: o Temporomandibular joint syndromePharyngitisDental diseaseCervical spine arthritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sequence of clinical trials is | [
"NDA -FDA-NDA",
"FDA--NDA-FDA",
"FDA-Marketing-NDA",
"FDA-NDA-Post marketing surveillance"
] | D | (FDA-NDA-Post marketing survillance) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve entrapped in pyriformis syndrome is | [
"Superior gluteal nerve",
"Inferior gluteal nerve",
"Pudendal nerve",
"Sciatic nerve"
] | D | Entrapment of Sciatic nerve by inflamed pyriformis muscle is called as pyriformis syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Kidney which of the following is true? | [
"Osmolarity of tubular fluid in PCT gradually increases",
"Osmolarity of fluid in DCT is more than in Bowmann's capsule",
"Fluid coming out of descending limb of loop of Henle is hypotonic",
"Osmolarity of medullary interstitium is more than plasma"
] | D | Ans. is'd'i.e., Osmolarity of medullary interstitium is more than plasma(Ref: Guyton 12/e p. 334)The renal medulla shows an increasing osmotic pressure with increasing depth.Staing, with an osmolarity of 300 mOsm/L in the coex, the osmolarity reaches a level of 1200-1400 mosm/L at the pelvic tip of the medulla, i.e., The inner pa of medulla has highest osmotic gradient.That means that the renal medullary interstitium has accumulated solute in greater excess of water. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not complication of Enteral feeding? | [
"Diarrhoea",
"Constipation",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Aspiration Pneumonia"
] | C | Hypoglycemia does not occur due to enteral feeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within – | [
"1 month",
"3 months",
"6 months",
"1 year"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tear drop heart is seen in | [
"Pulmonary Vein obstruction",
"Mitral incompetence",
"Chronic emphysema",
"Constrictive pericarditis"
] | C | Tear drop heart - Chronic emphysema.
Pentagon shaped heart - Mitral incompetence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multiplying factor for estimating stature from humerus is (male) : | [
"12-Oct",
"6-May",
"9-Jul",
"10-Sep"
] | B | B i.e. 5 - 6 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pearl's stain used to demonstrate the following in tissues ? | [
"Hemosiderin",
"Fat",
"Reticulin",
"Fibrin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hemosiderin Prussian blue reaction (Perl's iron stain), a stain most commonly used for hemosidern demonstration in tissue sections, impas blue colour to hemosiderin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common mode of treatment of a 1 year old child with asthma is: | [
"Inhaled sho acting beta 2 agonist",
"Oral sho acting theophylline",
"Oral ketotifen",
"Leukotriene agonist"
] | A | Asthma in children between 1-3 years of age is treated with inhaled beta-2 adrenergics and/or theophylline administered by nebuliser or face mask. Ref: Diagnosis and Management of Asthma, Mani S. Kavuru, 2007 - Page 41; Pediatric Allergy, Asthma And Immunology, Springer, 2008 - Page 828; Ghai Essential Pediatrics - 6th Edition, Page 357 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basophilic stippling is due to | [
"Ala synthetase deficiency",
"Ferrochelatase deficiency",
"5' nucleotidase deficiency",
"Ala dehdrogenase deficiency"
] | C | (C) (5'- nucleotides deficiency) (880-H 18(tm))Lead intoxication is accompanied by an acquired deficiency of erythrocyte pryimidine-specific, 5'-nucleotidase.Genetically determined deficiency of this enzyme is associated with chronic hemolysis, marked basophilic stippling of erythrocytes on stained blood films, and unique intraerythrocytic accumulations of pyrimidine-containing nucleotides.Basophilic stippling aka Punctatebasophilia refers to an observation found when observing a blood smear in which erythrocytes display small dots at the periphery. These dots are the visualization of ribosomes and can often be found in the peripheral blood smear, even in some normal individuals.Pyrimidine 5'- nucleotides (P 5 N) deficiency- P5N is a key enzyme in the catabolism of nucleotides arising from the degradation of nucleic acids that takes place in the final stages of erythroid cell maturation. How exactly its deficiency causes Hemolytic anemia is not well understood; but a highly distinctive features of this condition is a morphologicabnormality of the red cells known as basophilic stipplingHemolytic anemia caused by lead poisoning is characterized by basophilic stippling. It is infact a phenocopy of that seen in P5N deficiency, suggesting it is mediated at least in part by lead inhibiting then enzymeCauses of Basophilic Stippling in blood smear1. Thalassemias2. Hemoglobin s S - disease3. Hemoglobin s C disease4. Hemoglobin s E disease5. Iron deficiency6. Unstable hemoglobin s / Myelodysplasia7. Lead poisoning* Basophilic leucocytoses is seen in CML * | train | med_mcqa | null |
Copper deposition in cornea leads to - | [
"Keratoconus",
"Keratoglobus",
"KF ring",
"Siderosis"
] | C | Kayser- Fleischer ring. It is a golden brown ring which occurs due to deposition of copper under peripheral pas of the descemet's membrane of the cornea. Ref: Parson's 22 nd edition , page no.396 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the investigation of choice for the ureteric stone? | [
"CT scan",
"USG",
"MIBG scan",
"DMSA scan"
] | A | All of the routine methods have become less useful with the advent of more sensitive and specific nonenhanced computed tomography (CT) scanning. When CT is available, it is now considered the examination of choice for the detection and localization of urinary stones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Resting pressure in the anal canal is because of | [
"External sphincter",
"Internal sphincter",
"Anorectal ring",
"Conjoint longitudinal coat"
] | B | Anal manometry has been used in the study of patients who have fecal incontinence as an attempt to quantify anal sphincter function. Typical basic parameters are resting pressure and squeeze pressure. Resting pressure denotes resting tonicity and thus is used as an index parameter for internal anal sphincter which is in charge of that tonicity, while squeeze pressure denotes the strength of voluntary contraction and is used for contractility of external anal sphincter. But resting pressure is usually regarded more reliable as an index of continence function judging from physical propeies during metric procedure because squeeze pressure depends more on patient's subjective effo with resultant more variation. Resting pressure has, however, a restriction that it represents cross sectional status of the anal canal without taking into consideration its three dimensional structure. Resting pressure gradient (RPG) of the anal canal is devised as one of the advanced parameters to make up for such a restriction. The RPG is given by the ratio of pressure difference between maximum resting pressure and basal resting pressure to interval distance between their levels. Therefore, it can be said that it has 2 components as factors of determination, which are pressure and length factor, respectively. Ref - pubmed.com <a href=" | train | med_mcqa | null |
A forceps delivered premature baby develops fever, abnormal behavior, bulging fontanelle 5 days after bih. What is the likely causative organism? | [
"Neisseria meningitidis",
"Listeria monocytogenes",
"Staph aureus",
"Pneumococcus"
] | B | Given scenario suggests diagnosis of Meningitis Neonatal Listeriosis 2 clinical presentations are recognized: EARLY ONSET (<5 DAYS ) LATE ONSET (>=5 DAYS) Positive result of maternal Listeria culture Obstetric complications Premature delivery Low bihweight Neonatal sepsis Negative result of maternal Listeria Culture Uncomplicated pregnancy Term delivery Normal bihweight Neonatal meningitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The subdermal plexus forms the vascular basis for - | [
"Randomised flaps",
"Axial flaps",
"Mucocutaneous flaps",
"Fasciocutaneous flaps"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kusumlata presents with acute painfull red eye and mild dilated veically oval pupil. Most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Acute retrobulber neuritis",
"Acute angle closure glaucoma",
"Acute anterior uveitis",
"Severe kerato-conjunctivitis"
] | B | B i.e. Acute angle closure glaucoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following type of bond is not present in the teiary structure of protein? | [
"Hydrogen bonds",
"Disulphide bonds",
"Salt linkage",
"Vander Waal's bonds"
] | D | Teiary structure of a protein results from hydrogen bonding, di sulfide linkage, ionic bonds between polar amino acids, and interaction between hydrophobic R groups. Teiary structure of a protein develops after the secondary structure is established. It refers to how the amino acid chain bends or fold in three dimension to form a compact or tightly folded protein. Hemoglobin is a protein that clearly demonstrates teiary structure. The primary structure is determined genetically as the paicular sequence of amino acids in a given protein. Secondary structure is the local conformation of a protein molecule. It is due to formation of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges and ionic bonds between adjacent or nearby amino acid in an amino acid chain. Ref: CRC Desk Reference for Nutrition, Second Edition By Carolyn D. Berdanier page 356. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest Primary site of Kurkenberg tumour is: | [
"Breast",
"Colon",
"Stomach",
"Small intestine"
] | C | Stomach | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is known for Non union in children, if left untreated? | [
"lntercondylar fracture of humerus",
"Fracture shaft of humerus",
"Fracture shaft of femur",
"Fracture distal 1/3rd of tibia"
] | B | B i.e. Fracture of shaft humerus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an uncoupler? | [
"Insulin",
"Epinephrine",
"GH",
"Thyroxine"
] | D | The rate of the ATP-32P exchange reaction was reduced by thyroxine and this inhibition was doubled by adding the thyroxine to the incubation medium after the paicles rather than before.The increased inhibition of the exchange reaction was associated with a reduction in P/O ratios and a loss of the stimulatory effect of thyroxine on substrate oxidation.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 265, 266 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most sensitive and specific antibody for Celiac sprue? | [
"Anti endomysial",
"Anti TTG",
"Anti gliadin",
"Anti reticulin"
] | A | Antibodies used in diagnosing Celiac sprue: Anti endomysial (anti EMA) - highest sensitivity and specificity, best performance for detection of celiac sprue. The antigen recognized by them is tissue transglutaminase. Anti gliadin (AGN) - variability and lower accuracy, unsuitable for diagnosis and screening. Anti reticulin (ARA) - not used routinely Anti transglutaminase (anti-Ttga) - highly sensitive and specific, but anti endomysial is more superior. Some impoant points about celiac disease: Intolerance to food containing gliadin like rye, oats, barley and wheat IgA antibodies. 95% express HLA -DQ2 allele Small intestine biopsy is characteristic but not diagnostic and shows absent or reduced height of villi, flat appearance, crypt hyperplasia, villous atrophy, but not mucosal atrophy, increased lymphocytes and plasma cells in lamina propria. Associated diseases: Dermatitis herpetiformis IgA deficiency Lymphomas Autoimmune diseases like Addison's, Diabetes mellitus. Graves, Myasthenia, Sjogren's etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Degree of normal intestinal loop rotation is: | [
"180deg counterclockwise",
"180deg clockwise",
"270deg counterclockwise",
"270deg clockwise"
] | C | Abnormal rotation of the intestinal loop may result in twisting of the intestine (volvulus) and a compromise of the blood supply. Normally, the primary intestinal loop rotates 270deg counterclockwise. Ref: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 14. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alcohol intake during pregnancy causes, all, except? | [
"Brachycephaly",
"Microcephaly",
"Hyperkinetic movements",
"Congenital anomalies"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brachycephaly Fetal alcohol syndrome o Chronic maternal alcohol abuse during pregnancy is associated with teratogenic effects, and alcohol appears to be a leading cause of mental retardation and congenital malformation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is not pre-malignant ? | [
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Peutz-jeghers syndrome",
"Villous adenoma",
"Familial adenomatoses polyopsis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Peutz-jeghers syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement regarding insulin: | [
"Produced by alpha cells of pancreas",
"Two polypeptide chains are bound by disulfide linkages",
"Shifts potassium outside the cell",
"S.c insulin tl/2 is 60 mins"
] | B | Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry,28th editionExplanation:InsulinSecreted from pancreatic islet b cellsReleased regulated by blood (glycemic thresholdSynthesized as a single chain : pro-insulinInsulin is formed from proinsulin (removal of the connecting or "C" peptide)Insulin is thus made up of 2 chainsA (21 amino acids) and B (30 amino acids)Connected to each other by 2 inter disulfide bridges and 1 intra disulfide bridgeAll necessary for its hormone activity.ActionsStimulates glucose oxidation & storage and inhibits glucose productionStimulates glycogen synthaseInhibits phosph orylaseInhibits gluconeogenesisStimulates glucose transport into adipocytes, which is then converted intoTGInhibits hormone-sensitive lipase (HPL) (|cAMP) and lipoprotein lipaseActivates GLUT1Stimulates fatty acid and triglyceride synthesisInhibits I i poly sis and proteolysisShifts potassium ions from ECF to ICF | train | med_mcqa | null |
In otherwise healthy 40 yr old man Management of a Rcc less than 4cm in size ? | [
"chemotherapy",
"Radical nephrectomy",
"Paial nephrectomy",
"Surgery followed by chemotherapy"
] | C | REF : bailey and love 27th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A retroauricular incision in children less than 2 years may cause damage to which cranial nerve? | [
"VIII",
"VII",
"VI",
"V"
] | C | "Choanal atresia should be suspected in any infant who develops cyanosis that occurs with feeding or rest but is relieved by crying"Choanal atresiaPathology - Persistence of bucconasal membraneU/L atresia is more common than B/L atresiaMC in females and on the right sideDiagnostic criteriaPresence of mucoid discharge in the noseThe absence of air bubbles in nasal dischargeFailure to pass catheter from nose to pharynxPassage of methylene blue dye into pharynx from the noseIOC for choanal atresia - CT scan (Diagnosed if posterior choanal orifice <0.34 cm or posterior vomer >0.55 cm)Treatment - Correction of atresia by transnasal or transpalatal approach at 1 1/2 years or Mc Govern's technique for B/L choanal atresiaRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 183 | train | med_mcqa | null |
phenelezine is a type of | [
"MAOI",
"SSRI",
"NDRI",
"SNRI"
] | A | MAOI * IMPOANCE First class of antidepressant drugs that were introduced * MECHANISM There are three monoamines namely dopamine, adrenaline and serotonin. These mon amines are degraded by monoamine oxidase. MAOI inhibit this enzyme and acts increasing monoamines * DRUGS Phenelezine Tranylcipromine * USE ATYPICAL DEPRESSION, depression with reverse vegetative symptoms * SIDE EFFECTS Hypeensive crisis Cheese reaction When a patient on MAOI takes tyramine rich food like tyramine there will be increased release of monoamines. These excess monoamines cannot be degraded by MAO as it is blocked by MAOI. Thus, this may result in hypeensive crisis. Paresthesia's due to pyridoxine deficiency LIKE IPRONIAZID WEIGHT gain SEXUAL dysfunction ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 925 | train | med_mcqa | null |
44 year old man with dyspnoea, cough and mild pyrexia.What pa of the lung is involved? | [
"Right upper lobe",
"Right middle lobe",
"Left middle lobe",
"Left lower lobe"
] | B | The PA CXR shows increased airspace opacification in the right lower zone. The normal silhouette of the right hea border is obscured. On the lateral view the opacity is wedge-shaped and is located anteriorly. Diagnosis is Lobar pneumonia. Right middle lobe - the consolidation obscures the right hea border and on the lateral view it outlines the horizontal and oblique fissures . Note also that the horizontal fissure has been pulled inferiorly, indicating that there is a degree of collapse as well as consolidation. The patient should have a follow-up CXR after completing their antibiotic therapy to ensure complete resolution of the abnormality - occasionally there will be an underlying neoplasm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following form the ligamentous extensions of the hypogastric sheath, EXCEPT: | [
"Uterosacral ligament",
"Mackenrodt's ligament",
"Lateral true ligaments of bladder",
"Broad ligament"
] | D | Broad ligament is a false ligament of the uterus. It is a large double fold of peritoneum extending from the body of the uterus to the lateral pelvic wall. The Hypogastric sheath is formed by the fibrous, condensed poions of the endopelvic fascia which lies between, and is continuous with, both the visceral and parietal layers of the pelvic fascia. The broad ligament is not pa of this fascia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is emitted by Phosphorus 32? | [
"X-rays",
"Neutrons",
"Alpha Paicles",
"Beta paicles"
] | D | Radioactive chromic phosphate (P-32) emits only beta paicles and has a half life of approximately 2 weeks. It is currently the most frequently used agent as an adjuvant therapy for epithelial ovarian carcinoma when administered intraperitoneally. Ref: Multimodality Therapy in Gynecologic Oncology By B.-U. Sevin, Page 157; Hazardous Materials Awareness and Operations By Rob Schnepp, Pages 31-2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The immunosuppressant action of cyclosporine appears to be due to : | [
"Activation of NK cells",
"Blockade of tissue responses to inflammatory mediators",
"Inhibition of gene transcription of interleukins",
"Interference with antigen recognition"
] | C | Cyclosporine and tacrolimus acts by inhibiting calcineurin, which is involved in the activation of NFAT. Final result of this process is increased transcription of IL-2 gene.
Sirolimus does not inhibit the transcription of IL-2 but interferes with its action. It inhibits the enzyme tyrosine kinase, known as mTOR (which is activated by IL-2). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of acute pancreatitis | [
"Hyperbilirubinemia",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hyperglycemia",
"Increased serum LDH"
] | B | Diagnosis of acute pancreatitis Corner Stone of the diagnosis of AP: Clinical findings +elevation of pancreatic enzyme level in the plasma Pancreatic enzymes A threefold or higher elevation of amylase & lipase levels confirms the diagnosis Amylase's serum half - life is shoer as compared with lipase Lipase is also a more specific marker of AP because serum amylase levels can be elevated in a number of conditions, such as peptic ulcer disease, mesentric ischaemia, salpingitis and microamylasemia Patients with AP are typically hyperglycemic; they can also have leukocytosis and abnormal elevation of liver enzyme levels Elevation of ALT levels in the serum in the context of AP has a positive predictive value of 95% in the diagnosis of acute biliary pancreatitis X-Ray abdomen Localized ileus of duodenum and proximal jejunum (sentinel loop) or that of transverse colon up to its mid point (colon cut off sign) IOC for acute pancreatitis : CECT Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1524-1528 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biochemical abnormality associated with osteogenesis imperfecta is increase in: | [
"Alkaline phosphatase",
"Acid phosphatase",
"Bicarbonate ion",
"Phosphorylase enzyme"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Arterioles is | [
"Resistance",
"Exchange",
"Reservoir",
"Pressure"
] | A | Arterioles regulate the distribution of blood flow by altering their diameter to increase or decrease the peripheral resistance as required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non ketotic hyperglycemia is: September 2005 | [
"No change",
"Mild elevation",
"Moderate elevation",
"Severely elevated"
] | D | Ans. D: Severely elevated Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is being diagnosed with increasing frequency in obese children with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2 DM). The syndrome is characterized by severe hyperglycemia, a marked increase in serum osmolality and dehydration without accumulation of beta-hydroxybutyric or acetoacetic ketoacids. Significant ketogenesis is restrained by the ability of the pancreas to secrete small amount of insulin. Prolonged phase of osmotic diuresis leads to severe depletion of body water, which exceeds that of sodium, resulting in hypeonic dehydration. These children, usually obese adolescents with T2 DM, present with signs of severe dehydration and depressed mental status but continue to have increased rather than decreased urine output and are at increased risk of developing rhabdomyolysis and malignant hypehermia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Morula cell stage has how many cells? | [
"8-Jan",
"16-Aug",
"24-32",
">64"
] | B | Ans. B. 8-16MORULA FORMATIONa. After the zygote formation, typical mitotic division of the nucleus occurs producing two blastomeres.b. The two cell stage is reached approximately 30 hours after fertilization. Each contains equal cytoplasmic volume and chromosome numbers.c. The blastomeres continue to divide by binary division through 4,8,16 cell stage until a cluster of cell is formed which is called' morula, resembling a mulberry. As the total volume of the cell mass is not increased and the zona pellucida remains intact, the morula after spending about 3 days in the uterine tube enters the uterine cavity through the narrow uterine ostium (1 mm) on the 4th day in the 16-64 cell stage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrange the following according to good outcome
a - zone of stasis
b - zone of coagulation
c - zone of hyperemia | [
"a = c > b",
"c > a > b",
"a > c > b",
"a > b > c"
] | B | Zone of hyperemia - vasodilation only - usually heals well.
Zone of stasis - outside burnt area - healing depend on mgt.
Zone of coagulation - area of burnt tissue - necrosed tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti Spasmodic effect is seen with - | [
"Neostigmine",
"Propantheline",
"Nikethamide",
"Ambenonium"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Propantheline Antispasmodic drugs i) Quaternary compounds - Propantheline, Oxyphenonium, Clidinium, Pipenzolate, Methylbromide, Isopropamide, Glycopyrrolate. ii) Teiary amines - Dicyclomine, Valethamate, Pirenzepine. iii) Vasoselective antispasmodic (drugs acting on urinary bladder) - Oxybutynin, Tolterodine, flavoxate. iv) Drotaverine Note? All above drugs are anticholinergic except drotaverine. Drotaverine is a non-anticholinergic smooth muscle antispasmodic which acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase - 4 (PDE-4) selective for smooth muscle. Elevation of intracellular cAMP/cGMP causes smooth muscle relaxation. It is used in intestinal, biliary and renal causes, uterine spasm, irratable bowel syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient developed fixed drug eruptions after taking ceain medications. Which of the following drug will give rise to these skin lesions in this patient? | [
"Phenolphthalein",
"Aspirin",
"Dapsone",
"All of the above"
] | D | A fixed drug eruption (FDE) is an adverse cutaneous reaction to an ingested drug, characterized by the formation of a solitary (but at times multiple) erythematous patch or plaque. Most commonly implicated agents in fixed drug eruptions: Tetracyclines (tetracycline, minocycline) Sulfonamides, other sulfa drugs Metronidazole, nystatin, salicylates, NSAIDs, phenylbutazone, phenacetin Barbiturates Oral contraceptives Quinine (including quinine in tonic water), quinidine Phenolphthalein Food coloring (yellow): in food or medications Ref: (2013). Section 23. Adverse Cutaneous Drug Reactions1. In Wolff K, Johnson R, Saavedra A.P. (Eds), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas and Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 7e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For development of alveolar PO2 of 60 mm Hg and high altitude illness to develop in an otherwise healthy person from sea level, rapid ascent to following height is required | [
"2,000 meters",
"3,000 meters",
"4,000 meters",
"5,000 meters"
] | B | People have different susceptible to altitude sickness,on an average it begins around 2000 to 3000 meters above sea level Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:375,376 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-years old lady presented with dysphagia, nocturnal asthma and weight loss for 6 years. The most probable diagnosis is not related-surgery | [
"Achalasia cardia",
"Lye stricture of esophagus",
"Gastroesophageal reflux disease",
"Carcinoma esophagus"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Choose the wrong statement about osteomyelitis | [
"Sickle cell anemia - Salmonella",
"HIV - Staph aureus",
"Post surgical - Pseudomonas aeruginosa",
"Diabetic Ulcer - Anaerobes"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha 1 blocker without any effect on blood pressure is? | [
"Tamsulosin",
"Prazosin",
"Oxazocin",
"Terazocin"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) TamsulosinREF: KDT 7th ed p. 135, Goodman Gillmans 11th ed p. 173Tamsulosin, a benzenesulfonamide, is an al receptor antagonist with some selectivity fora1A and a1D subtypes, favoring a1A blockade in prostate. Tamsulosin is efficacious in the treatment of BPH with little effect on blood pressure, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for myoclonic epilepsy in pregnancy is : | [
"Carbamazepine",
"Sodium valproate",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Phenytoin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Concentration of methemoglobin to cause cyanosis- | [
"5 gm/dl",
"2 gm/dl",
"1.5 gm/dl",
"12 gm/dl"
] | C | Ans. (c) 1.5gm/dl(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.647)The level of methemoglobin producing cyanosis is 1.5gm/dlIf deoxyhemoglobin (reduced Hb) is 5.0g/dL or greater, cyanosis appears | train | med_mcqa | null |
. Stage III B endometrial Ca -true is:a) Vaginal metastasisb) Lymph node metastasisc) Bowel involvementd) Lung metastasise) Serosa involved | [
"a",
"b",
"ab",
"ae"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Bacillus anthracis is? | [
"Zoonotic disease",
"Man to man transmission posible",
"Agent for bioterrorism",
"Antibiotic has no role"
] | A | Anthrax is a zoonosis. Animals are infected by ingestion of the spores present in the soil. Direct spread from animal to animal is rare. Human anthrax is contraindicated from animals, directly or indirectly The disease may be cutaneous, pulmonary or intestinal, all types leading to fatal septicemia or meningitis. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker&;s; 10th edition; Page no: 249 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first human protein produced by rDNA technology: | [
"Insulin",
"Growth hormone",
"Albumin",
"Casein"
] | A | The first human protein produced by rDNA technology is Insulin. Production of recombinant Insulin: NOTE: Gene coding for insulin is localized on 11p15 site of chromosome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means - | [
"Day of dog bite",
"Day of first injection",
"Day of symptom onset",
"Day of dog death"
] | B | The vaccination schedule recommended consists of 6 doses on day 0,3,7,14,28 and a booster dose on day 90(Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st Edition page no.255) | train | med_mcqa | null |
If DNA is damaged in the cell cycle, which gene causes cell cycle arrest? | [
"Rb",
"MYC",
"p53",
"K-RAS"
] | C | Ans. (c) p53Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basic Disease 9th Ed; Page No-28P53* Gene in chromosome 17p 13.1* It is called as "genome guardian protein".* Encodes a53Ka protein* p53 is universally expressed in all cells.* p53 induces p21, which inhibits CDKs- hypo-phosphorylation (activation) ofRb- inhibition of G1 -S progression.* It regulates cell cycle progressions, DNA repair, cellular senescence and apoptosis.Note* The suppressor gene p53 apoptosis by depositing CD95 on the cell membrane surface.* Mutations in tumor suppressor genes can result in unrestrained cell division (eg, Li-Fraumeni syndrome).Extra Mile* Mutated p53 protein inactivation promotes tumor development.* Its gene product is broken down more slowly than normal protein, leading to intranuclear accumulation of p53 protein.How to rule out other options?* Rb gene:# Tumor suppressive pocket' protein that binds E2F transcription factors in its hyperphosphorylated state.# It prevents G1/S transition.* RAS oncogene# It is a signal transduction protein.# Most common oncogene mutation involved in human cancer (15-20% of human cancer).# Normal RAS proteins alternate between activated GTP- bound signal transmitting and inactive GDP-bound forms.# When the cells are stimulated by growth factors RAS becomes activated by exchanging GDP to GTP# Activated RAS binds to farnesyl transferase to activate MAP kinase for induction of mitogenesis.# The mutant RAS activates the mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase pathway leading to cell proliferation.* MYC# It is most common nuclear transcription factor affected in human tumors.# MYC up regulates expression of telomerase.# It reprogram somatic cell into pluripotent stem cells and contribute to cancer cell "sternness". | train | med_mcqa | null |
In obstruction of second pa of axillay aery, theanostomosis between the following aery will maintain the blood supply of upper limb: | [
"Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery",
"Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral",
"Posterior circumflex humeral & circumflex scapular aery",
"Suprascapular & anterior circumflex humeral aery"
] | A | Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery [Ref: BDC 4/e, Vol 1, p 56, 82; Snell's Clinical Anatomy 6/e, p 412-413, 657; Moore Clinical Anatomy 5/a, p 766-7671Axillary aery is the continuation of the subclan aery. It is crossed by pectoralis minor muscle which devides it into three pas.A rich anastomosis exists around the scapula between branches of subclan aery (first pa) & the axillary aery (third pa).This anastomosis provides a collateral circulation through which blood can flow to the limb when the distal pa of subclan aery or the proximal pa of axillary aery is blocked.Anastomosis around the scapula :Formed by branches of-Subclan aery - first pa- Suprascapular aery- Deep branch of transverse cervical aeryAxillary aery - third pa- Subscapular aery & its circumflex scapular branchThere are other smaller anastomoses over the acromion process, which also helps to maintain .flow to arm. (BDC Vol I, 4/e, p 82)Anastomoses over the acromion processFormed by -a)Acromial br. of thoraco-acromial aeryb)Acromial br. of suprascapular aeryc)Acromial br. of posterior circumflex humeral aeryThe subscapular aery also forms anastomoses with intercostal aeries | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 26 year old female patient complains of tooth sensitivity while eating ice-cream. Intra-oral examination reveals Class V lesion with 23. She also gives a history of bruxism. Microfilled composite is most useful in this patient due to: | [
"Increased viscosity",
"Low modulus of elasticity",
"Low filler content",
"None of the above"
] | B | The low modulus of elasticity of microfilled composites allow them to flex with tooth and protect the bonding interface. This is most useful in bruxism, clenching and stressful occlusion where flexure forces are high.
Reference- Sturdevant 4th ed P:257 | train | med_mcqa | null |
For the pathologic sign "Red blood cell aplasia" select the mediastinal tumor with which it is most likely to be associated (SELECT 1 TUMOR) | [
"Thymoma",
"Hodgkin's disease",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Parathyroid adenoma"
] | A | Neuroblastoma, a highly malignant tumor of children, occurs along the distribution of the sympathetic nervous system. It is derived from ganglion cell precursors and thus usually causes an increased excretion of catecholamines and their metabolites. Because of its propensity to metastasize to bone and its histological resemblance to Ewing's sarcoma, its association with elevated catecholamine levels is a major factor in differential diagnosis.Renal stones occur in about half the cases of hyperparathyroidism. Other disorders sometimes associated with hyperparathyroidism include peptic ulcers, pancreatitis, and bone disease; central nervous system symptoms may also arise in connection with hyperparathyroidism. Occasionally, parathyroid adenomas occur in conjunction with neoplasms of other endocrine organs, a condition known as multiple endocrine adenomatosis.Cystic teratomas, or dermoid cysts, include endodermal, ectodermal, and mesodermal elements. They are characteristically cystic and contain poorly pigmented hair, sebaceous material, and occasionally teeth. Dermoid cysts occur in the gonads and central nervous system, as well as in the mediastinum. With rare exceptions, these lesions are benign.Thymomas are associated with myasthenia gravis, agammaglobulinemia, and red blood cell aplasia. These tumors are typically cystic and occur in the anterior mediastinum. Most thymic lesions associated with myasthenia gravis are hyperplastic rather than neoplastic.Persons afflicted with Hodgkin's disease have impaired cell-mediated immunity and are particularly susceptible to mycotic infections and tuberculosis. The severity of the immune deficiency correlates with the extent of the disease. The nodular sclerosing variant of primary mediastinal Hodgkin's disease is the most common type. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most important factor associated with progression of HIV positive to AIDS is? | [
"Nutrition",
"Viral load",
"Age",
"CD4 count"
] | D | Ans is 'd' i.e. CD4 count * HIV can infect and kill many different types of cells in the body, but the primary targets are immune cells called CD4 T-cells. The CD4 T-cells are white blood cells that help coordinate the immune system's response to infection and disease. CD4 T-cells count is the most important factor determining HIV progression.* Patients progress to AIDS when their CD4 cell counts drop below 200 cells per microliter of blood. Healthy individuals have a CD4 cell count between 600 and 1,200 cells per microliter of blood. Individuals with a CD4 cell lower than 200 cells per microliter of blood have the greatest risk of developing opportunistic infections.* The United States Center for Disease Control and Prevention also created a classification system for HIV, based on CD4 count and clinical symptoms, and describes the infection in five groups. In those greater than six years of age it is:a. Stage 0: the time between a negative or indeterminate HIV test followed less than 180 days by a positive test.b. Stage 1: CD4 count > 500 cells/pi and no AIDS defining conditions.c. Stage 2: CD4 count 200 to 500 cells/pl and no AIDS defining conditions.d. Stage 3: CD4 count < 200 cells/pl or AIDS defining conditions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laryngeal cailage forming complete circle is | [
"Thyroid",
"Cricoid",
"Corniculate",
"Arytenoid"
] | B | Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. Cricoid cailage is shaped like a ring. It encircles the larynx below the thyroid cailage. It is thicker and stronger than the thyroid cailage. The ring has a narrow anterior pa called the arch, and a broad posterior pa called the lamina. The lamina projects upwards behind the thyroid cailage and aiculates superiorly with the arytenoid cailages. The inferior cornua of the thyroid cailage aiculate with the side of the cricoid cailage at the junction of the arch and lamina. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first sign of Volkman's ischemia is: | [
"Paresthesia",
"Pain on passive extension of fingers",
"Pain on active extension of fingers",
"Swelling of fingers"
] | B | B i.e. pain on passive extension of finger | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about hemorrhoids: | [
"First degree-no prolapsed",
"Excision for externo-internal piles",
"Third degree-no surgery",
"Conservative treatment in first degree"
] | C | Ans. (c) Third degree-no surgeryRef: Sabiston 19th Edition, Pages 1387-1391* Third degree hemorrhoids will have mass protruding out of anal orifice and needs to be reduced manually. The best treatment for 3rd and 4th degree is surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gold standard for all dental cements is referred to: | [
"ZOE cement",
"ZnPO4 cement",
"Ca(OH)2 cement",
"Silicate cement"
] | B | Around 1879, zinc phosphate cement was introduced and although the formulation has been refined during more than a century of use, it is a luting agent that has consistently been successful in clinical practice and even today is still considered the “gold” standard. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Standard test for syphilis | [
"VDRL",
"FTA-Abs",
"TPI",
"TPHA"
] | A | Ans. a (VDRL) (Ref. Ananthanarayan Microbiology 7th ed., Fig. 36.2, p. 381)Diagnosis of SYPHILIS# Detection of abs in CSF by FTA-Abs is most specific test for neurosyphilis.# Treponemal ab tests (FTA-Abs, MHATP) measures abs reactive with T. pallidum.Serological Tests for SxphilisThese tests form the mainstay of laboratory diagnosis.These are follows:1. Test for antibodies reacting with cardiolipin antigen reagin tests; standard tests for syphilis; STS2. Tests for antibodies reacting with group-specific treponemal arftigen3. Tests for specific antibodies to pathogenic treponema (T. pallidum).Reagen Antibody Tests (VDRL mainly)# These tests use the lipoid or cardiolipin antigens and are known as 'standard tests for syphilis' or STS.# The first of the reagin antibody test was the Wassermann complement fixation test (1906). It is no longer in use now.- The first flocculation test used widely was tube flocculation test of Kahn.- The Kahn test been replaced by the simpler and more rapid VDRL test, which gives more quantitative result.- VDRL test can be used for testing CSF also, but not plasma. CSF need not be heated prior to test.- A number of modifications of the VDRL have been developed, of which the Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test is the most popular.Sensitivity of Serodiagnostic Tests in Untreated SyphilisMean Percentage Positive (Range) at Indicated Stage of DiseaseTestPrimarySecondaryLatentTertiaryVDRL, RPR78 (74-87)10095 (88-100)71 (37-94)FTA-ABS84 (70-100)10010096TP-PA89100100NA | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastric lavage is contraindicated in poisoning by - | [
"Kerosene",
"Morphine",
"Barbiturates",
"Cyanide"
] | A | Ans is 'a' ie., Kerosene o Gastric lavage is contraindicated in poisoning by pure petroleum distillate eg kerosene, turpentine,o Gastric lavage is indicated for: 1) camphorated hydrocarbons b) halogenated hydrocarbons eg organochlorides, methyl chloride, fluorocarbons 3) aromatic hydrocarbons eg benzene, toluene, xylene, aniline,o Contraindication for gastric lavage:Absolute: alkalis, mineral acids, vegetable acids, organic acids except carbolic acidRelative: kerosene or volatile poisons, convulsant poisons except strychinine, hypothermia, bleeding disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Half–life of lithium is: | [
"8 hours",
"16 hours",
"24 hours",
"36 hours"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Splenectomy is indicated in: | [
"Sickle cell anaemia",
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"Haemoglobin c disease",
"Hodgkins lymphoma"
] | B | Ans: b | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classification of staphylococcus is based on - | [
"Catalase test",
"Coagulase test",
"Mannitol fermentation",
"Optochin sensitivity"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coagulase test * Medically important staphylococci that causing human disease are divided into two groups1. Coagulase positive: Staphylococcus aureus.2. Coagulase negative: Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus haemolyticus, Staphylococcus saprophyticus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not compatible with ageing? | [
"Decrease cross linkage",
"Decrease superoxide dismutase",
"Increase accumulation free radicals",
"Accumulated mutations in somatic cell"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Average reproductive lifespan of ovum is | [
"6-12 hrs",
"12-24 hrs",
"24-36 hrs",
"3 days"
] | B | The egg cell, or ovum, is the female reproductive cell (gamete) in oogamous organisms. The egg cell is typically not capable of active movement, and average reproductive lifespan is about 12-24 hrs .it is much larger (visible to the naked eye) than the motile sperm cells. When egg and sperm fuse, a diploid cell (the zygote) is formed, which rapidly grows into a new organism.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 406 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following laboratory tests would you expect to find the greatest disparity in reference intervals between men and (non-pregnant) women? | [
"Mean corpuscular volume",
"Serum alkaline phosphatase",
"Serum ferritin",
"Serum glucose"
] | C | Men have higher reference intervals than women in tests related to iron and hemoglobin (Hb) concentration in blood. The normal reference interval for Hb concentration in women is lower (12.0-16.0 gm/dL) than that for men (13.5-17.5 gm/dL) due to lower serum testosterone levels (testosterone is higher in men and stimulates erythropoiesis) and blood loss during menses. Fuhermore, women normally have about 400 mg of iron (as ferritin) in their bone marrow iron stores versus an average of 1000 mg of iron for men. In the absence of inflammation, the small circulating fraction of ferritin correlates well with ferritin stores in the bone marrow. Hence, men have different reference intervals for serum ferritin than do women (15-200 ng/mL in men versus 12-150 ng/mL in women). The mean corpuscular volume, serum alkaline phosphatase, serum glucose, and serum sodium are similar in both sexes. Ref: Beutler E. (2010). Chapter 42. Disorders of Iron Metabolism. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Female homosexualism is called | [
"Sodomy",
"Bestiality",
"Fellatio",
"Tribadism"
] | D | Female homosexualism is called lesbianism or tribadism. Sexual gratification is obtained by a woman by sexual contact with another woman. Acts like simple kissing, general body contact, deep kissing, manual manipulation of breast and genitalia, genital apposition, licking of genitals, and mutual sexual stimulation by using dildos are practiced. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 311 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In orthodontic treatment, in order to avoid injuries to the
tissues, the forces applied generally should not exceed: | [
"Capillary blood pressure",
"Diastolic arterial blood pressure",
"Masticatory forces",
"Systolic arterial blood pressure"
] | A | It has been stated by Oppenheim and Schwarz, a result of their experiments, that optimum orthodontic force would be equivalent to the capillary pulse pressure or 20–26 g/cm2 of root surface.
With this light force, tooth movement would be by direct osteoclastic activity in the area of greatest pressure; undermining resorption would not occur.
The optimum force should be one that moves the tooth most rapidly in the desired attitude and direction with the least tissue damage and the slightest amount of pain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is: | [
"Fibrous ankylosis",
"Bony-ankylosis",
"Pathological dislocation",
"Chronic osteomyelitis"
] | B | (b)- The usual outcome of healed tuberculosis in spine is the bony ankylosis and in peripheral joints like Hip and Knee Fibrous ankylosis is seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are Unresectable criteria for Cancer pancreas in CT scan? | [
"Metastatic deposits in vertebra",
"Invasion of duodenum",
"Irregular increase in fat density of omentum",
"All the above"
] | D | Ans. (d) All the aboveRef: NCCN Guidelines 2017CECT Scan Criteria of unrespectability in cancer Head of Pancreas:* Tumor contact with SMA >180 degrees* Tumor contact with Coeliac Artery >180 degrees* Tumor contact with 1st jejunal Branch of SMA* Unreconstructable SMV/PV due to tumor Involvement or Occlusion (Due to tumor or Thrombus)* Contact with most proximal draining branch of jejunum into SMV | train | med_mcqa | null |
Electric altemans is seen in: | [
"Cardiac tamponade",
"Restrictive cardiomyopathy",
"Constructive pericarditis",
"Right Ventricular MI (RVMI)"
] | A | Answer is A (Cardiac tamponade) Electrical alternans refers to a beat-to-beat alteration in one or more components of the ECG signal. Total electrical alternans (P-QRS-T) with sinus tachycardia is a relatively specific sign for pericardial effusion, often with cardiac tamponade. Feature Cardiac Tamponade Constrictive Pericarditis Restrictive Cardiomyopathy RVMI Electrical Alternans May be present Absent Absent Absent | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 years old female has flaccid bullae in the skin and oral erosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal acantholytic blister. The most likely diagnosis is : | [
"Pemphigoid.",
"Erythema multiforme.",
"Pemphigus vulgaris.",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis."
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. pemphigus vulgaris Bullae involving oral mucosa with intraepidermal lesions & acantholysis is characteristic of pemphigus.Here is a D/d of commonly asked vesico bullous disordersVesiculobullous disordersINFECTIOUSHerpes SimplexCluster of vesicles usually on face*Painful*Recurrent*Two types-Type I -Seen in childhood gingivostomatitis*, fever, vesicle's on lipsType II -In young adults after sexual contact usually involves genitaliaHerpes ZosterVesicular eruption occurs in dermatomal pattern*. Thoracic dermatome is the most commonly involved (50%)*Involvement of ophthalmic division of trigeminal N.*Painful and tender*2/3 of patients over 40 yrs of ageNON-INFECTIOUS PemphigusVesicles are seen on the upper part of body. Trunk > limbs.Lesions are non itchy and painless*Oral mucosa involvement* in 50% cases.Lesions are intraepidermal*Acantholysis present*Nikolsky sign present*Age Group 40-50 Pemphigoid 1. Vesicles seen on the lower part of body, limbs >trunk.*2; Lesions are non itchy and painless*Oral mucosa not involved*Lesions are subepidermal*Acantholysis absent*Nicolasky sign absent*Age Group 60-80 Dermatitis HerpetiformisVesicles seen on extensor surface*Vesicles are itchy and painless*Villous atrophy usual*Lesions are subepidermal*Young adults are involved Erythema multiformeCharacteristic vesicular lesions on hands and feet (target lesion)*non itchy and painless.face and upper limbs involvedmucosal involvement can be seen So the crux is* Painful lesions are seen in-. Herpes infection.* Painless lesions are seen in-Dermatitis herpetiformis Pemphigoid Pemphigus Erythema multiforme* Dermatomal involvement-. Herpes zoster* Itchy lesions-Dermatitis herpetiformis* Intraepidermal-. Herpes and pemphigus* Subepidermal-. Dermatitis herpetiformisPemphigoid Erythema multiforme | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bullous impetigo is caused by ? | [
"Streptococcus",
"Staphylococcus",
"Staphylococcus",
"Y. Pestis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Staphylococcus Impetigo Impetigo is a highly contagious, Gram-positive bacterial infection of superficial layer of epidermis. Impetigo occurs in Two forms : ? 1. Non - bullous impetigo (Impetigo contagiosa) It is the most common bacterial infection of children (occurs mainly in children in contrast to Bullous impetigo which occurs in infants). It is caused by both staphylococcus aureus and hemolytic group A streptococcus (Str. pyogens), though it is mostly caused by staph aureus. Most commonly occurs on face, i.e., around nose & mouth; and exposed pas, i.e., arms, legs. Presents erythematous macule/papule which changes into vesicle which soon ruptures with formation of crusting. Crust has characteristic features : - Honey-yellow colour in streptococcal impetigo. Waxy in staphylococcal impetigo. Lesion heal without scarring. Mucous membrane involvement is rare. Lymphadenopathy is common 2. Bullous impetigo It is caused by staphylococcus aureus most often phage type 71. It usually occurs in infants and manifests as vesicle that develop into bulla and later a pustule without any surrounding erythema. It mainly occurs on face. Mucous membrane may be involved (in contrast to impetigo contigiosa). Lymphadenopathy is rare. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a cause of hemoptysis | [
"Pneumonia",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Empyema",
"Mitral stenosis"
] | C | Empyema is collection of pus in pleural space which is characterised by severe pleuritic pain or persisting or recurrent pyrexia.Other features include rigor,sweating,malaise and weight loss.Usually there is no hemoptysis. Pneumococcal pneumonia often causes rusty coloured sputum.Bronchiectasis and intracavitary mycetoma can cause catastrophic bronchial hemorrhage.Mitral stenosis can also leads to hemoptysis. Ref:Davidson's med:22nd edition, page no:658. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The angle of anteflexion occurs at the level of: | [
"Internal os",
"External os",
"Upper vagina",
"Cervix"
] | A | Ref: Shaw's textbook of gynaecology, 15th ed. pg :8Explanation:The body of I he uterus is bent forwards on the cervix approximately at the level of internal os.This forward inclination of the uterus on the cervix constitutes ante flexion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about miliary tuberculosis: | [
"Occurs following primary reactivation",
"Occurs following secondary reactivation",
"Commonly affects liver, kidney and spleen",
"Both 1 and 2"
] | D | Systemic miliary tuberculosis ensues when the organisms disseminate hematogenously throughout the body. Systemic miliary tuberculosis is most prominent in the liver, bone marrow, spleen, adrenal glands, meninges, kidneys, fallopian tubes, and epididymis. Both progressive primary tuberculosis and secondary tuberculosis can result in systemic seeding, causing life-threatening forms of disease such as miliary tuberculosis and tuberculous meningitis.
Reference: Robbins page 530,532 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extensive Ileal resection can cause all the following EXCEPT: | [
"Pancreatic Hypersecretion",
"Calcium oxalate calculi",
"Lactic acidosis",
"Macrocytic Anemia"
] | A | Pancreatic Hypersecretion REF: Bailey & love 25th edition page 229, Sabiston Textbook of Surgery, 18th ed chapter 48 "Extensive Ileal resection causes Gastric Hypersecretion, not pancreatic hypersecretion" Complications of sho bowel syndrome include peptic ulceration related to gastric hypersecretion, cholelithiasis because of interruption of the enterohepatic cycle of bile salts, and hyperoxaluria as a result of the increased absorption of oxalate in the colon predisposing to renal stones. Some patients with sho bowel syndrome develop a syndrome of slurred speech, ataxia and altered affect. The cause of this syndrome is fermentation of malabsorbed carbohydrates in the colon to D-lactate and absorption of this metabolite. If the distal two thirds of the ileum, including the ileocecal valve, is resected, significant abnormalities of absorption of bile salts and vitamin B12 may occur, resulting in diarrhea and anemia. Treatment necessitates the use of a low carbohydrate diet. Regular parenteral vitamin B12 is required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70-year-old patient with epistaxis, on examination BP 200/100 mm Hg, no active nasal bleeding noted. Next step of management is: | [
"Observation with BP management",
"Internal maxillary artery ligation",
"Anterior and posterior nasal pack",
"Anterior nasal pack"
] | A | (a) Observation with BP management(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 682)Since no active bleed at present so here the main management should aim at lowering of BP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is not a Nerve gas - | [
"Sarin",
"Tabun",
"Soman",
"Pyrolan"
] | D | Sarin, Soman, and Tabun are organophosphate nerve agents while Pyrolan is a carbamate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Under the RNTCP, for diagnosis of MDR TB, currently drug sensitivity testing is done for: | [
"Rifampicin",
"Rifampicin, Isoniazide",
"Rifampicin, Isoniazide and Ethambutol",
"Rifampicin, Isoniazide and Pyrazinamide"
] | C | Presently conventional solid egg-based Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) media will be used for primary culture at the RNTCP accredited laboratory. DST will be performed for streptomycin (S), isoniazid (H), rifampicin (R) and ethambutol (E) only. Pyrazinamide (Z) sensitivity testing may be included at a later period of DOTS-Plus implementation. Ref: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about "Laplace Law"? | [
"T=Pr/W",
"P=2T/r",
"P=T/r",
"P=T/w"
] | D | This law states that tension in the wall of a cylinder (T) is equal to the product of the transmural pressure (P) and the radius (r) divided by the wall thickness (w): T = Pr/w In a thin-walled viscus, w is very small and it too can be ignored, but it becomes a significant factor in vessels such as aeries. Therefore, in a thin-walled viscus, P = T divided by the two principal radii of curvature of the viscus: P = T(1/r1 + 1/r2) In a sphere, r1 = r2, so P=2T/r In a cylinder such as a blood vessel, one radius is infinite, so P = T/r Ref: Ganong's Review of medical physiology 25th edition. Page:574 This law helps to understand the physiological nechanisms in altered situations and pathological conditions . Eg: in hollow organs like bladder,ventricle,or alveoli of lungs the wall tension increases when the organ gets fillled ie P rises or the cavity size (R) increases. In ventricular hyperophy, the wall is thick so,wall tension is less. In dialated hea as in hea failure, more energy is required to pump blood as the wall tension is more(increased R) . So dialated hea pumos blood less effitiently Capillaries are less prone to rupture because smaller the radius lesser the tension in tha wall needed to balance the distending pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excessive production of aldosterone results in: | [
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Severe hypotension",
"Potassium retention",
"Depressed plasma renin"
] | D | Ans. (d) Depressed plasma renin(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.362)Primary Hyperaldosteronism is characterized by suppression of renin levels because of ECF volume expansion | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is true of ivermectin? | [
"It is the most effective drug for strongyloidosis",
"It is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis",
"it can be used to treat swcabies",
"All of the above"
] | D | (Ref: KDT 6/e p686) Ivermectin is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis (river blindness) and strongyloidosis. It is also effective against other filarial worms It can also be used orally for the treatment of scabies and pediculosis DEC us contraindicated in onchocerciasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
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