question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
For screening of Medullary ca which of the following is estimated: | [
"Serum HCG",
"Serum AFP",
"Serum Calcium",
"Serum calcitonin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' ie Serum calcitoninMCT can be of two types - sporadic and familial (occuring in MEN syn. 2A & 2B and Familial cases without MEN syn.)The familial MTC are more aggressive, multicentric (bilateral) and present at a younger age, therefore high risk cases should be screened for MTC by - detecting RET mutation. The genetic screening tests are supplemented by estimating serum calcitonin levels in the basal state and after stimulation by either calcium or pentagastrin.Prophylactic total thyroidectomy is indicated in RET mutation carriers once the mutation is confirmed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following immunosuppressives cause profound myelosuppression except: | [
"Sirolimus",
"Cyclosporine",
"Azathioprine",
"Mercaptopurine"
] | B | Ciclosporin&;s main effect is to lower the activity of T-cells; it does so by calcineurin-phosphatase pathway.Unlike cytotoxic immunosuppressants, it is free of toxic effects on bone marrow and RE system as it doesn&;t act on cell cycle.(ref: KD Tripathi 6/e p839) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fatty acids can not be utilised by : | [
"Muscles",
"Heart",
"Liver",
"RBC"
] | D | RBC can utilise only glucose even during fasting / starvation | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with complaints of diplopia. O/E pupils were dilated. Both direct and consensual light reflexes were lost. The diagnosis is : | [
"2nd nerve palsy",
"3rd nerve palsy",
"5th nerve palsy",
"7th nerve palsy"
] | B | 3rd nerve palsy PUPILLARY LIGHT REFLEX :- If light enters an eye, the pupil of the same eye contracts (direct light reflex),activity shared equally by the pupil of other eye (consensual light reflex) - Afferent limb of light reflex is Optic nerve (CN2) and efferent limb is Oculomotor nerve (CN3) - Both direct and consensual light reflexes are lost in third nerve palsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is CD 15 & CD30 positive: | [
"Lymphocyte predominance Hodgkin's lymphoma",
"Mantle cell lymphoma",
"Burkit's lymphoma",
"Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's lymphoma"
] | D | Answer- D. Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's lymphomaCD15-Granulocytes; also expressed by Reed-Sternberg cells and variants in classical Hodgkin lymphomaCD30-Activated B cells, T cells, and monocytes; also expressed by Reed-Sternberg cells and variants in classical Hodgkin lymphoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
D1C is common in which AML- | [
"Monocytic (M5)",
"Promyelocytic (M3)",
"Erythrocytic (M6)",
"Megakaryocytic (M7)"
] | B | Ans. (b) Promyelocytic (M3)(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 612; 8th/pg 622)Acute Promyelocytic Leukemic (APML, M3) cells can induce Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) | train | med_mcqa | null |
About CPAP all are true except: | [
"Given prophylactically in all preterm with respiratory distress",
"Staed with Fi02 50 to 60 percent",
"Given in infants less than 28 weeks and less than 1 kg weight",
"Improves oxygenation and improves lung compliance"
] | B | B. i.e. Staed with Fi0250-60% (Nasal CPAP or intubation at bih for very preterm infants. The new England journal of medicine Feb 08 vol 358: 700 - 708 nuber 07) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is associated with ventilation (intubation) & 02 treatment. Infants who were born at 25 -28 weeks gestation and were breathing spontaneously were treated with nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) sholy (at 5 minutes) after bih. 50% were subsequently intubated. Infants in CPAP group had a better outcome at 28th day than did those in intubated group (i.e. required significantly lower rate of 02 treatment and underwent fewer days of ventilation) even though the rate of pneumothorae was higher in CPAP group. A CPAP of 8 - 12 cm of water was used to maintain functional residual capacity and for improving lung compliance and oxygenation. The study suggests that staing respiratory suppo with CPAP does not adversely affect, infants even if upto 50% of them subsequently undergo ventilation (intubation), some because of pneumothorax. Ammar et al also showed that 76% of infants < 1.251 kg and 50% of those weighing < 0.751 kg did not need to undergo ventilation (intubation). Previous research suggest that CPAP (nasal) application in preterm infants is associated with benefits in terms of reduced respiratory failure and reduced duration and invasiveness of respiratory suppo; without worsening of other standard measures of neonatal outcome (bronchopulmonary dysplasia & death). Among spontaneously breathing very premature infants, surfactant therapy administered within 10 hour of life along with nasal CPAP decreases the oxygen requirement, need for mechanical ventilation and may prevent chronic lung disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rabies vaccine schedule is: | [
"0,3,7,14,28",
"8,0,4,0,1,1",
"8,0,0,4,1,1",
"8,0,4,0,0,1"
] | B | 8, 0, 4, 0, 1, 1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following conditions presents with a palpable crepitus? | [
"Anaerobic infections",
"Streptococcal infections",
"Surgical emphysema",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
You are examining a direct inguinal hernia in a 45 year old man. On examination the swelling is doughy in consistency and dull on percussion. The swelling is reducible but reduction is difficult towards the end. What is your diagnosis? | [
"Cystocele",
"Enterocele",
"Epiplocele",
"Hydrocele"
] | C | You are already told that it is a case of direct inguinal hernia. So hydrocele is out. In case cystocele the swelling gets enlarged on attempt to micturate and the swelling reduces in size following micturition. Another feature is that pressure on the swelling produces the desire to micturate. Enterocele is elastic in consistency with resonant note. Its reduction is difficult initially and easy downwards the end. Epiplocele is doughy and granular in consistency and has a dull note on percussion. It can be reduced easily in the beginning but is difficult towards the end. Ref: Das, 5th Edition, Page 442. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A term baby girl has two episodes of bile-stained emesis at 24 hours after bih. There is a history of excessive amniotic fluid volume. The most appropriate diagnostic test is? NOT RELATED - MEDICINE | [
"Blood culture",
"Barium swallow and Gastrointestinal X rays",
"CT scan of head",
"Neurosonogram"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glucose uptake in brain is by: | [
"GLUT 1 and 3",
"GLUT 2 and 3",
"GLUT 3 and 4",
"GLUT 1 and 4"
] | A | Ans: A. GLUT 1 and 3For this question table given below:ReceptorLocationGLUT 1Brain, kidney, colon, placenta, erythrocytesGLUT 2Liver, pancreatic p cell, small intestine, kidneyGLUT 3Brain,kidney, placentaGLUT 4Heart and skeletal muscle, adipose tissueGLUTSSmall intestineSGLT1Small intestine and kidneySome other associated points on GLUT:Glucose enters cells by facilitated diffusion or, in the intestine and kidneys, by secondary active transport with Na+.Seven different GLUTs, named GLUT 1-7, have been characterized (as shown in table).They differ from sodium-glucose linked transporters (SGLT-1 and SGLT-2), which are responsible for the secondary active transport of glucose in the intestine and renal tubules. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) include all of the following except: | [
"Nevirapine",
"Delavirdine",
"Etravirine",
"Lamivudine"
] | D | Ans. (D) Lamivudine(Ref: Katzung 12th/870, KDT 8th/e p861)Lamivudine is nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), not the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meconium ileus is associated with: | [
"Fibrocystic disease of pancreas",
"Liver aplasia",
"Cirrhosis of liver",
"Malnutrition"
] | A | Meconium ileus in the newborn represents the earliest clinical manifestation of CF and affects roughly 15% of patients with this inherited disease Cystic FIbrosis Diagnosis The diagnosis of CF is usually confirmed in the postoperative period The pilocarpine iontophoresis sweat test revealing a chloride concentration >60mEq/L is the most reliable and definitive method to confirm the diagnosis of CF. This test may not be reliable in infants and is usually performed later. A more immediate test includes detection of the mutated CFTR gene. This test, coupled withh a careful family history and clinical presentation, permits confirmation of the diagnosis in most infants Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 1875 | train | med_mcqa | null |
ECT is indicated in - | [
"Neurotic depression",
"Auditory hallucination",
"Schizophrenia",
"Delusional depression"
] | D | ECT is given in severe depression with psychotic symptoms (e.g. delusion). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reducing agent used in lipogenesis is derived from | [
"Pentose phosphate pathway",
"Glycolysis",
"TCA cycle",
"Gluconeogenesis"
] | A | NADPH is involved as donor of reducing equivalents in both the reduction of the 3-ketoacyl and of the 2, 3-unsaturated acyl derivatives. The oxidative reactions of the pentose phosphate are the chief source of the hydrogen required for the reductive synthesis of fatty acids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the paial pressure for oxygen in the inspired air? | [
"116 mm Hg",
"158 mm Hg",
"100 mm Hg",
"0.3 mm Hg"
] | B | Paial pressure of O2 in inspired air (Pi O2) - 158 mm Hg Gaseous concentration & its paial pressure in alveoli: 1. Oxygen: Concentration & paial pressure controlled by, Rate of absorption of O2 into blood Rate of entry of new O2 into lungs by ventilatory process. Values: Paial pressure of O2 in inspired air (Pi O2) 158 mm Hg Paial pressure of O2 in alveolar air (PA O2) 100 mm Hg Calculated by "Alveolar gas equation". Paial pressure of O2 in expired air (PE O2) 116 mm Hg 2. Carbon-di-oxide: Paial pressure of CO2 in inspired air (Pi CO2) 0.3 mm Hg Paial pressure of CO2 in alveolar blood (PA CO2) 40 mm Hg Paial pressure of CO2 in expired air (PE CO2) 32 mm Hg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mutation in Hartnup's disease is | [
"SLC6A18",
"SLC6A17",
"SLC6A19",
"SLC6A20"
] | C | SLC6A19 gene encodes neutral amino acid transporter. Its mutation is seen in Hartnup's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The gross appearance of the kidney shown below is most compatible with which of the following conditions? | [
"Cystic renal dysplasia",
"Acute pyelonephritis",
"Chronic pyelonephritis",
"Acute glomerulonephritis"
] | C | The kidney shown is typical of chronic pyelonephritis with dilation of the renal pelvis, clubbing of the calyces, and irregular reduction in parenchymal mass. Chronic pyelonephritis is an asymmetric, irregularly scarring process that may be unilateral or bilateral. Microscopically, there is atrophy and dilation of tubules with colloid in some tubules. Chronic inflammation and fibrosis occur in the coex and medulla. Chronic glomerulonephritis causes bilateral symmetrically shrunken and scarred kidneys. Histologic changes depend on the stage of the disease. Cystic dysplasia is characterized by undifferentiated mesenchyme and immature cailage and collecting ductules. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurons located in which area release serotonin as their neurotransmitter? | [
"Periaqueductal gray area",
"Interneurons of the spinal cord",
"Periventricular area",
"Nucleus raphe magnus"
] | D | Neurons of the nucleus raphe magnus release serotonin at their nerve endings. These terminate in the spinal cord on interneurons that in turn release enkephalin and block the incoming signals from the pain fibers. The analgesia system consists of three major components: Periaqueductal gray and periventricular areas of the mesencephalon and upper pons. Raphe magnus nucleus, a midline nucleus located in the lower pons and upper medulla. Dorsal pain inhibitory complex (interneurons) located in the spinal cord. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for ADHD: | [
"Amphetamine",
"Methylphenidate",
"Pemoline",
"Modafinil"
] | B | (Ref: KD Tripathi, 6th ed. pg. 470-471 & 126)* Methylphenidate acts by releasing NA and DA in brain and is most widely used for attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder because it causes lesser tachycardia and growth retardation as compared to amphetamine.* It is considered as DOC of ADHD* Modafinil# Psychostimulant agent; used most commonly among night-shift (call centre) workers who need alertness and want to keep awake.# Increases attention span and improve accuracy compromised by fatigue and sleepiness.* Considered as first line drug in narcolepsy.* Pemoline# It has CNS stimulant actions similar to those of methylphenidate.# It can also be used in ADHD, narcolepsy and excessive day-time sleepiness# S/E: Hepatotoxicity, thus it has limited use* Amphetamines# It can also be used in ADHD, but not a drug of choice due to highly abusive tendency.# The central effects include alertness, increased concentration an attention spam, euphoria, talkativeness increased work capacity# Stimulate respiratory centre and Hunger centre is suppressed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A transplant patient who had serologic evidence of previous Epstein-Barr virus infection was taking high levels of immunosuppressive medications. He presents with generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal pain, and tonsillitis. The dosage of immunosuppressive drugs given to the patient is decreased, and the lymphadenopathy regresses. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for this patient? | [
"Burkitt lymphoma",
"Hodgkin lymphoma",
"Infectious mononucleosis",
"Lymphoproliferative disorder"
] | D | All of the choices are associated with EBV. The patient most likely has lymphoproliferative disorder (posttransplant) (d), a polyclonal response to reactivation or acquisition of EBV in persons on immunosuppressive therapy to prevent transplant rejection. The disorder responded to reduction of the immunosuppressive agent, a response not expected if the patient had Burkitt lymphoma (a) or Hodgkin lymphoma (b), more aggressive monoclonal B-cell lymphomas that often require anti-lymphoma treatment. Infectious mononucleosis (c) occurs in immunocompetent individuals. NPC (e) does not fit the vignette. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aaron's sign is seen in: | [
"Chronic appendicitis",
"Hiatus hernia",
"Mediastinum emphysema",
"Acute appendicitis"
] | D | Abdominal Examination Signs Sign Description Diagnosis Aaron Sign Pain or pressure in epigastrium or anterior chest with persistent firm pressure applied to McBurney's point. Acute appendicitis Bassler Sign Sharp pain created by compressing appendix between abdominal wall and iliacus Chronic appendicitis Blumberg's Sign Transient abdominal wall rebound tenderness Peritoneal inflammation Carnett's Sign Loss of abdominal tenderness when abdominal wall muscles are contracted Intra-abdominal source of abdominal pain Claybrook Sign Accentuation of breath and cardiac sounds through abdominal wall Ruptured abdominal viscus Mannkopf's Sign Increased pulse when painful abdomen palpated Absent if malingering Ten Horn Sign Pain caused by gentle traction of right testicle Acute appendicitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of:- | [
"Potency",
"Safety",
"Efficacy",
"All of these"
] | B | Therapeutic index (T.I) = LD 50 / ED 50 = Median lethal dose / Median effective dose Median lethal dose: dose at which 50% of animals die after receiving drug. Median effective dose: dose at which 50% of patient see effect after receiving the drug LD50 should be high, i.e. The drug should produce toxicity at high doses. (not at low dose) ED50 should be low, i.e. The drug should produce effects at even low dose (i.e. Potent) :- Ti l/e - Drug potency is a choosing factor in dose of drug & efficacy is for choice of drug. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Widening of periodontal ligament is seen in: | [
"Hypercementosis",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Hypofunction of teeth",
"Paget's disease"
] | B | Widening of periodontal ligament is seen in
Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Scleroderma
Trauma from occlusion
Obliteration of periodontal ligament space is seen in
Hypercementosis
Ankylosis
Hypofunction of teeth
Paget's disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of a cavitating lesion in the chest radiograph are all except - | [
"Hamartoma",
"Pulmonary infarction",
"Squamous carcinoma of the bronchus",
"Caplan's syndrome"
] | A | Haematoma (not hamartoma) causes lung cavitation.
Pulmonary infarct, squamous cell carcinoma of lung, RA & Caplan's syndrome can also cause lung cavitation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement is false regarding familial adenomatous polyposis - | [
"Males are usually carriers",
"Autosomal dominant inheritance",
"If not treated progress to malignancy in 100% of cases",
"Males and females are affected equally."
] | A | Familial polyposis coli is an autosomal dominant* Condition affecting males and females equally.
Carcinomatous change supervenes in these polyps in 100% of cases by the age of 30-35 yrs.
As it is autosomal dominant condition, no carrier state exists. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Henoch Schonlein purpura is - | [
"Medium vessels vasculitis",
"Renal symptoms sta late in the disaese",
"IgA deposition in mesangium",
"Low Platelet count"
] | C | Answer- C. IgA deposition in mesangiumHenoch - Schonlein purpura is vasculitis of small vessels (capillaries, venule or aerioles) and characterized by deposition of IgA in the wall of involved vessels.H.S. purpgra is characterized by tetrad of purpura ahritis glomerulonephritis, and abdominal pain.Diagnosis is confirmed by presence of palpable purpura with normal platelet count along with one or more of the following:abdominal pain, ahralgia/ahritis and mesangial deposition of IgA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deleterious effect of ultrasound on small organism is: | [
"Ionisation",
"Vacoulation",
"Cavitation",
"Disintegration"
] | C | Ans. Cavitation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is most comonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts ? | [
"HPV 16",
"HPV 18",
"HPV 31",
"HPV 6"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neonate triangular cord sign on USG is seen in – | [
"Galactosemia",
"Biliary atresia",
"Hepatitis",
"None"
] | B | Triangular cord sign is seen in biliary ateria due to fibrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient is having normal CK & CKMB after 2 days of chest pain which of the following is true | [
"Excludes diagnosis of MI",
"Reperfusion after MI",
"Extracardiac source of pain",
"Cardiac surgery"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following Pelvic Radiograph is seen in? | [
"Achondroplasia",
"Osteoahritis",
"Nail Patella Syndrome",
"Rheumatoid Ahritis"
] | C | The Given Radiograph shows Iliac Horns which are a feature of Nail Patella Syndrome Nail-patella syndrome - is characterized classically by the tetrad of Nail hypoplasia Aplastic or hypoplastic patellae Elbow dysplasia and Presence of iliac horns Iliac horns are considered pathognomonic, and the presence of hypoplastic or aplastic patellae in conjunction with nail abnormalities is a cardinal feature of diagnosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When the rectum is inflated with air through a rectal tube, pain and tenderness occur in the right iliac fossa in case of appenidicitis. This is known as? | [
"Aaron's sign",
"Battle's sign",
"Bastedo's sign",
"Mc Burney's sign"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bastedo's sign | train | med_mcqa | null |
Climbing fibres of cerebellar coex are ? | [
"Olivocerebellar fibres",
"Spinocerebellar fibres",
"Pontocerebellar fibres",
"Vestibulocerebellar fibres"
] | A | Input (afferent) cerebellum comes from two fibres.1) Climbing fibres (olivocerebellar fibres) bring information from inferior olivary nuclei only.2) Mossy fibres bring infrormation from all other pas of the body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Bamboo spine" is seen in | [
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hypertrophy",
"Osteitis fibrosa cystica",
"All"
] | A | Ans. a (Ankylosing spondylitis). (Ref. Sutton Textbook of Radiology, 6th ed., 1220)RADIOGRAPHIC FINDINGS OF ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS# Radiographically demonstrable sacroiliitis is usually present in AS.# The earliest changes by standard radiography are blurring of the cortical margins of the subchondral bone, followed by erosions and sclerosis.# Progression of the erosions leads to "pseudowidening" of the joint space; as fibrous and then bony ankyloses supervene, the joints may become obliterated.# The changes and progression of the lesions are usually symmetric.# In the lumbar spine, progression of the disease leads to straightening, caused by loss of lordosis, and reactive sclerosis, caused by osteitis of the anterior corners of the vertebral bodies with subsequent erosion, leading to "squaring" of the vertebral bodies. (The Anderson & Romano's lesions)# Progressive ossification leads to eventual formation of marginal syndesmophytes, visible on plain films as bony bridges connecting successive vertebral bodies anteriorly and laterally - 'the bamboo-spine' appearance.# In mild cases, years may elapse before unequivocal sacroiliac abnormalities are evident on plain radiographs. Dynamic MRI is the procedure of choice for establishing a diagnosis of sacroiliitis.MRI is highly sensitive and specific for identifying early intra-articular inflammation, cartilage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroiliitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk factors of pulmonary embolism | [
"30 yrs female on OCP's",
"Pregnancy",
"Leg paralysis",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e. 30 yrs female on OCP's, 'b' i.e. Pregnancy, 'c' i.e. Leg paralysis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with the typical cutaneous lesions which are slightly elevated red or purple macules that are often covered by gray or yellow adherent scales. Forceful removal of the scale reveals numerous ‘carpet tack’ extensions, reveals the lesion as: | [
"SLE",
"DLE.",
"Lichen planus.",
"Scleroderma."
] | B | The typical cutaneous lesions are slightly elevated red or purple macules that are often covered by gray or yellow adherent scales. Forceful removal of the scale reveals numerous ‘carpet tack’ extensions which had dipped into enlarged pilosebaceous canals. The lesions increase in size by peripheral growth, this feature partially characterizing the disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about Praziquantal except: | [
"It is the drug of choice for intestinal taenia solium infection",
"It is the drug of choice for schistosomiasis",
"It increases the permeability for calcium ions and lead to flaccid paralysis of helminths",
"Side effects include myalgia and arthralgia"
] | C | Praziquantal increases entry of calcium ions and causes "spastic paralysis" | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with acute arsenic poisoning, which of these would show accumulation of As | [
"Liver",
"Bone marrow",
"Skin",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Liver; B i.e. Bone marrow; C i.e. Skin The disadvantages of using As for homicide are As accumulates in liver > kidney > spleen, hair, nailQ, bonesQ, gastrointestinal tract & lungs and also excreted through urine, faeces, milk, bile sweat & other secretions. It retards putrefactionQ & can be detected in completely decomposed bodies or charred bones & ashes, as heat does not destroys itQ Poisoning Colour of Hair & Skin (As) Arseniuretted - Yellow colour of skin, hair & Hydrogen mucous membraneQ - Milk rose (Brownish pigmentation)Q Cu - Jaundiced skin - Green - Blue skin, hair & perspirationQ - Green - Purple line of gums'- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endocrine causes for hypertension are all the following except: | [
"Cushing's syndrome",
"Hypopituitarism",
"Hyperaldosteronism",
"Gigantism"
] | B | Ans: B (Hypopitutarism) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. 17th edition. 200H. Chapter 241. Pg.1554. Table 241-3Explanation:Secondary Causes of HypertensionRenal* Parenchymal diseases* Renal cysts (including polycystic kidney disease)* Renal tumors (including renin- secreting tumors)* Obstructive urooathyRenovascularArteriosclerotic, Fibromuscular dysplasiaAdrenal* Primary aldosteronism* Cushing's syndrome* 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency* 11-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency* 11-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (licorice), pheochromocytomaAorticcoarctation Obstructive sleep apnea Freed ampsia/ eclampsia Neurogenic* Psychogenic* D encephalic syndrome* Familial dysaufonomia* Polyneuritis (acute porphyria, lead poisoning)* Acute increased intracranial pressure* Acute spinal cord sectionMiscellaneousendocrine* Hypothyroidism* Hyperthyroidism* Hypercalcemia* AcromegalyMedications* High-dose estrogens* Adrenal steroids* Decongestants* Appetite suppressants* Cyclosporine* Tricyclic antidepressants* Monamine oxidase inhibitors* Erythropoietin* Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents* Cocaine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conduct disorder in a child manifests with all except | [
"Disregard for right of others",
"Doesn't care for authority",
"Backward in studies",
"Decreased head circumference"
] | D | Conduct disorder is characterised by a persistent and significant pattern of conduct, in which the basic rights of others are violated or rules of society are not followed. The diagnosis is only made when the conduct is far in excess of the routine mischief of children and adolescents. The characteristic clinical features include:1. Frequent lying.2. Stealing or robbery.3. Running away from home and school.4. Physical violence such as rape, fire-setting, assault or breaking-in, use of weapons.5. Cruelty towards other people and animals. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no.167 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Confirmatory tests for C. diphtheriae - | [
"Serological tests",
"Isolation in selective media",
"Tests for toxin",
"All of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infections of the ring finger spread to the | [
"Radial bursa",
"Ulnar bursa",
"Mid palmar space",
"Thenar space"
] | C | Infections of the ring and middle spread into the mid palmar space. Index finger to thenar space Little finger spread to ulnar bursa and mid palmar space. Ref: Internet sources. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/product: | [
"Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate",
"Thiosulphate formation",
"Introduction of sulphur in methionine",
"Disulphide bond formation between two adjacent peptide"
] | C | Ans. C. Introduction of sulphur in methionine.Methionine is an essential amino acid, so it cannot be synthesized from Cysteine.But Sulphur of cysteine is donated by sulphur of methionine.This is called transulfuration reaction.PLP is the coenzyme of transulfuration.The reaction is catalysed by Cystathionine beta Synthase and Cystathionase enzyme. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Complete transaction of the spinal cord at the C7 level produces all of the following effects except: | [
"Hypotension",
"Limited respiratory effo",
"Anaesthesia below the level of the lesion",
"Areflexia below the level of the lesion"
] | D | D i.e. Areflexia below level of lesion The diaphragm is innervated by two phrenic nerves that originate as branches of the cervical plexus in neck. This motor nerve to diaphragm arise from the anterior rami of cervical nerves C3, C4, C5Q, with major contribution coming from C4. So transection of spinal cord at C7 level is not going to stop respiration but due to involvement of thoracic intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles, there will be some weakness of respiratory effoQ. (i.e. limited respiratory effo) Complete Spinal Cord Injury Complete spinal cord transection (injury) is characterized by total absence of sensation and voluantry motor function caudal to the level of spinal cord injury in the absence of spinal shockQ Complete areflexia is found in spinal shockQ. Spinal shock occurs when the spinal cord fails temporarily following injury. Even pas of spinal cord with out structural damage do not function. It rarely lasts for more than 48 hours & during this period it is difficult to tell that lesion is complete or incomplete. Return of bulbocavernous reflex and anal wink (i.e. primitive reflexes) indicate, spinal shock has endedQ In the absence of sacral sparing (i.e. there is no sacral sensations) and with return of bulbocavernosus reflex (i.e. spinal shock is over which typically occurs with in 24 - 48 hours) the spinal cord injury is termed complete and there is viually no likelihood of functional spinal cord recovery. In other words return of bulbocavernosus reflex indicate that the spinal shock is over Q. And after spinal shock , intact sacral function may be the only sign of an at least paially functioning spinal cordQ. (i.e. incomplete neurological injury). In an acute setting any evidence of neurological functions. (sensory or motor) distal to the level of injury is significant and defines the lesion as being incomplete. Deep tendon reflexes above the level of complete spinal cord injury (i.e. biceps & brachioradialis) will be sparedQ; at the level of injury (triceps) will be absentQ and below the level of injury (quadriceps & tendoachilles) will be exaggeratedQ. Superficial reflexes above the level of injury are spared and at the level of injury and below the level of injury are absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Central dot sign is seen in: | [
"Caroli's disease",
"Primary sclerosing cholangitis",
"Polycystic liver disease",
"Liver hamaoma"
] | A | A. i.e. Caroli's disease Central dot sign is considered pathognomonic of carolis diseaseQ. This sign consists of cystically dilated intra hepatic biliary radicles with a "dot" of increased density represented by poal radicle with the lumen of duct. Caroli's disease Communicating cavernous ectasia of the intrahepatic bile ducts. (IHBD). - AR congenital disorder - Segmental, saccular dilatation of the IHBD. - A/W: - Choledochal cyst and - AR polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) Signs Disease Central dot signQ Caroli's disease Pruned- Tree appearance / Beaded appearenceQ / Skip lesions Primary sclerosing cholangitis Light bulb appearance Liver Hemangioma (on T2W MRI) Water lily sign /HoneycombingQ Liver hydatid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Male patient presents to the hospital with abdominal pain and is incidentally detected with an abdominal aoic aneurysm. What is the appropriate management of this patient? | [
"Immediate surgery",
"USG monitoring till size of the aneurysm reaches 70 mm",
"Monitor till size reaches 40 mm",
"Monitor till size reaches 55 mm"
] | D | Investigations X-ray - Eggshell pattern of calcification Investigation of choice for screening of abdominal aoic aneurysm - USG Investigation of choice for diagnosis & planning repair of aoic aneurysm - CT Investigation of choice for diagnosis & planning repair of aoic aneurysm in patients of renal failure - MRI Indications of surgery in AAA Diameter >= 5.5 cm / >= 5cm in females Symptomatic aneurysm Rate of expansion >1cm/year Atypical aneurysm (pseudoaneurysm, dissecting aneurysm, saccular) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non-noxious stimulus is perceived as pain in - | [
"Allodynia",
"Hyperalgesia",
"Paraesthesia",
"Hyperpathia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Allodynia Terminology of sensory disturbances:o Allodynia-Perception of nonpainful stimulus as painful, even excruciating.o Paraesthesia-Pins and needle sensation, tingling (may include a wide variety of other abnormal sensations, except pain)o Dysesthesia-All types of abnormal sensations including painful oneso Hyperesthesia-Pain or increased sensitivity in response to toucho Hyperalgesia-Severe pain in response to a mildly noxious stimuluso Hyperpathia-Is a broad term encompassing all the phenomena described by hyperesthesia, allodynia, and hyperalgesia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the case of malpractice, punishment is given by - | [
"State medical council",
"MCI",
"IMA",
"High court"
] | D | Punishment for professional negligence (malpractice) is given only by criminal courts. Criminal courts are magistrate courts, session courts, high courts and supreme court
Civil and consumer courts are for compensation in professional negligence (not for punishment). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ochronosis is due to chronic exposure to | [
"Carbolic acid",
"Phosphorus",
"Mercury salts",
"Iodine fumes"
] | A | (Refer: Rajesh Bardale - Principles of Forensic medicine & Toxicology, 1st edition, pg no: 440)
Carbolic aci | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not seen in osteogenesis imperfecta: | [
"Wormian bones",
"Thick coex",
"Coxa vara",
"Saber shin"
] | B | Osteogenesis imperfecta is a type- 1 collagen defect which affects the tensile strength of the bone.it most commonly occurs in femur. It leads to weakening of bones. Thin coex is the hallmark for osteogenesis imperfecta. Deformities occurring in osteogenesis imperfecta includes saber shin (bowing), Coxa vara (decreased neck- shaft angle of femur) and Wormian bones (sho, dot-like). Wormian bones are also found in down syndrome, osteogenesis imperfecta, trisomy and skeletal dysplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal sex can be detected by USG at : | [
"14 weeks",
"16 weeks",
"18 weeks",
"20 weeks"
] | A | Male development is completed by 12 weeks and female development by 15 weeks By 28 weeks,the testis descends to the internal inguinal ring. By 36 weeks, one testis and by 38-40 weeks both testes descend into scrotum In female, the genital tubercle becones clitoris, the genital folds become the labia minora and the genital swellings became the labia majora Reference: Textbook of obsteics; sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Page no: 67 and 475 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spasm of masseter muscles occur in: | [
"Tetanus",
"Trigeminal neuraligia",
"Tuberculous meningitis",
"Rabies"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding Endotracheal intubation except | [
"Saturation not more than 90% after 2 min",
"CO2 in expired air",
"ET inseed under direct vision of glottis",
"Bilateral chest movement"
] | A | Endotracheal Tube Intubation:- - When the expiratory gas passes through the tube (hot & humidified) leaves vapour on the tube (tube has gone into trachea)- Tube has Radiopaque blue line on it which can be seen by X-ray- Earlier 90% saturation,if it continuously stas dropping suspects that tube is not in the Respiratory tract- Best way for confirmation - Capnography | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about measles – | [
"Koplik spot appears in prodromal stage",
"Fever stops after onset of rash",
"Vaccine given at 9 month",
"All the above"
] | D | Measles vaccine is given at the age of 9 months of age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sweating does not occur in: September 2010 September 2012 | [
"Heat exhaustion",
"Heat fatigue",
"Heat rash",
"Heat Stroke"
] | D | Ans. D: Heat Stroke Types of heat illnesses: Heat stroke - Defined by a body temperature of greater than >40.6 degC (105.1 degF) due to environmental heat exposure with lack of thermoregulation. Symptoms include dry skin, rapid, strong pulse and dizziness. Heat exhaustion - Can be a precursor of heatstroke; the symptoms include heavy sweating, rapid breathing and a fast, weak pulse. Heat syncope Heat edema Heat cramps - Muscle pains or spasms that happen during heavy exercise in hot weather. Heat rash - Skin irritation from excessive sweating. Heat tetany - Usually results from sho periods of stress in intense heat. Symptoms may include hyperventilation, respiratory problems, numbness or tingling, or muscle spasms | train | med_mcqa | null |
what condition in the mother associated with following fetal anomaly | [
"GDM",
"DM",
"intake of ACE INHIBITORS",
"Intake of sodium Valproate"
] | B | REF : DUTTA 9TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant with severe respiratory distress is found to have double aoic arch during investigation. Double aoic arch is due to persistence and continued patency of the segment of: | [
"Right dorsal aoa between the right seventh intersegmental aery and its junction with the left dorsal aoa",
"Right dorsal aoa between the right sixth intersegmental aery and its junction with the left dorsal aoa",
"Left dorsal aoa between the right seventh intersegmental aery and its junction with the left dors... | A | Aoic arch development involves the sequential development and then involution of six arch pairs, which arise from paired dorsal aoae that fuse distally. The fifth aoic arch is rudimentary. Double aoic arch is the result of persistence and continued patency of the segment of the right dorsal aoa between the origin of the right seventh intersegmental aery and its junction with the left dorsal aoa. Ref: Keller B.B., Markwald R.R., Hoying J.B. (2011). Chapter 9. Molecular Development of the Hea. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 21-year-old javelin thrower is diagnosed with a full-thickness ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) tear. On presentation, he complains of numbness and tingling in the ring and small fingers. Which muscle group would he be most likely to have motor weakness | [
"Brachioradialis",
"Extensor carpi ulnaris",
"Abductor digiti minimi",
"Palmaris longus"
] | C | The patient is experiencing ulnar nerve paresthesias. If the patient had associated motor symptoms, they would manifest as weakness within the abductor digiti minimi. The other answer choices are muscles not innervated by the ulnar nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The presence of the philadephia chromosome is associated with a worse prognosis in patients with which of the following diseases? | [
"Acute lymphoblastic leukemia",
"Acute myelogenous leukemia",
"Chronic lymphocytic leukemia",
"Chronic myelogenous leukemia"
] | A | The presence of the philadelphia chromosome a translocation from the long arm of chromosome 22 to chromosome 9 (t,9,22) is associated with a more ourable prognosis in patients with chronic myelogenous leukemia but is associated with an unourable outcome in Acute lymphoblastic leukemia. (ref Robbins 8th/603) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the suprahyoid muscle is supplied by both facial nerve and mandibular nerve - | [
"Stylohyoid",
"Mylohyoid",
"Digastric",
"Hyuglossus"
] | C | Ans, is 'c' i.e., Digastric o Anterior belly of digastric is supplied by nerve to myelohyoid (a branch of mandibular nerve) and posterior belly is supplied by facial nerve. Suprahyoid musclesMuscle1. Digastric (DG)has two belliesOrigin(a) Anterior belly (DGA) from digastric fossa of mandible(b) Posterior belly (DGP) from mastoid notch of temporal boneFibres(a) Anterior belly runs downwards and backwards(b) Posterior belly runs downwards and forwardsInsertionBoth heads meet at the intermediate tendon which perforates SH and is held by a fibrous pulley to the hyoid boneNerve supplyAnterior belly by nerve to mylohyoidFacial nerveActions(a) Depresses mandible when mouth is opened widely or against resistance; it is secondary to lateral pterygoid(b) Elevates hyoid bone2.Stylohyoid (SH).Posterior surface of styloid processTendon is perforated by DGP tendonJunction of body and greater cornua of hyoid boneFacial nerve(a) Pul Is hyoid bone upwards and backwards(b) with other hyoid muscles, it fixes the hyoid bone3.Mylohyoid (MH) Flat triangular muscle; two mylohoids form floor of mouth cavity.Mylohyoid line of mandibleFibers run medially and slightly downwards(a) Posterior fibers; body of hyoid bone(b) Middle and anterior fibers; median raphe, between mandible and hyoid boneNerve to mylohyoid(a) Elevates floor of mouth in first stage of deglutition(b) Helps in depression of mandible, and elevation of hyoid bone4. Gemohyoid (GH).Inferior mental spine (genial tubercle)Runs backwrds and downwardsAnterior surface of body of hyoid boneCl through hypoglossal nerve(a) Elevates hyoid bone(b) May depress mandible when hyoid is fixed5. Hyoglossus. It is a muscle of tongue.Whole length of greater cornua and lateral part of body of hyoid boneFibers run upwards and forwardsSide of tongue between styloglossus and inferior longitudinal muscle of tongueHypoglossal (XII) nerveDepresses tongue makes dorsum convex retracts the protruded tongue | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transfusion reactions are due to which type of hypersensitivity? | [
"Immediate",
"Immune complex-mediated",
"Antibody-mediated",
"Delayed-type"
] | C | Type II: HypersensitivityType II hypersensitivity involves the binding of IgG antibodies to cell surface antigens or extracellular matrix molecules.Antibody-directed at cell surface antigens can activate complement to damage the cells. The result may be complement mediated lysis, which occurs in hemolytic anemia, ABO transfusion reactions, and Rh hemolytic diseaseRef: Jawetz; 27th edition; Page no: 145 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rekha a 45 years old woman has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curretage. Next step in management will be : | [
"Col poscopy",
"Vaginal hysterectomy",
"Conisation",
"Weheim's hysterectomy"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e. Weheim's hysterectomy A 45 year old woman i.e. (perimenopausal female) with negative pap smear (i.e Ca cervix excluded) with positive Endocervical curettage points towards cancer Endometrium which has spread to cervix i.e. (if you remember the staging which I have given in answer 12) - Stage II. Approaches for Management of Stage - II Ca endometrium : Remember : All women with endomtrial cancer should undergo hysterectomy. BSO and surgical staging using a FIGO system. Only a few circumstances contraindicate primary surgery and these conditions are : Desire to preserve feility masive obesity high operative risk Clinically unresectable disease 1st approach (+Surgery) hod approach (Surgery+) Brachytherapy followed by : Weheim's (Modified Radical TAH + BSO hysterectomy) Hysterectomy + /- External radiotherapy 14% as per histological findings Also know : Indications of vaginal hysterectomy in a case of Carcinoma Endometrium. .. Novak 13/e, p 1165 Obese patient (making Abdominal hysterectomy difficult to perform). Poor medical status. Extensive utero vaginal prolapse. Disadvantages of Vaginal Route are : Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is difficult to perform. Abdominal exploration and lymph node sampling cannot be done. Extra Edge : It is very difficult to remember the different types of hysterectomies and what structures are removed in them therefore I am briefing down impoant ones for you. Do go through them, they will be quite helpful for all of you. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 48-year-old patient with signs and symptoms of congestive hea failure presented to the emergency depament. Following stabilization, he was admitted and staed on an inotropic drug 4 months into therapy, the patient staed complaining of yellow scotomas and xanthopsia. An ECG was also conducted. What is the mechanism of action of the drug that was staed? | [
"B1 agonist",
"PDE3 inhibitor",
"Inhibition of Na-K ATPase pump",
"B2 antagonist"
] | C | The above ECG shows alternating narrow and broad QRS complex with negative T waves following a broad QRS suggestive of Ventricular BIGEMINY. Ventricular BIGEMINY is a type of VPC characterised by alternate VPC and sinus rhythm. It is also the most common arrhythmia caused by digoxin. Digoxin is an inotropic drug which inhibits Na-K ATPase pump and has been found to cause Visual disturbances in the form of xanthopsia and yellow scotomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs are used for treating Mycobacterial Infections except: | [
"Rifaximin",
"Rifampicin",
"Rifabutin",
"Rifapentine"
] | A | Rifamycins: include Rifampin or Rifampicin, Rifapentine and Rifabutin. MOA: binds to the b subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (rpoB) resulting in suppressesion of the chain formation in RNA synthesis. Inhibitsthe growth of most gram-positive bacteria as well as many gram-negative microorganisms, such as Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas,indole-positive and indole-negative Proteus, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci, Neisseria meningitidis and Haemophilus influenzae, M. tuberculosis, Mycobacterium leprae and other mycobaterial organisms also . Rifampicin should be taken on an empty stomach, whereas Rifapentine should be taken with food ifpossible. Rifaximin: Is a semi-synthetic Rifamycin. Route: Oral It is a non-systemic antibiotic as it doesn't cross the GIT wall (i.e poorly absorbed) USE: Travellers diarrhea, IBS-D: because it stops the growth of the bacteria causing diarrhea . Also used for treatment of Hepatic Encephalopathy: because it stops the growth of the bacteria producing toxins that worsen the liver condition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anticraving agents for alcohol abuse are all the following except | [
"Acamprosate",
"Disulfiram",
"Topiramate",
"Naltrexone"
] | B | treatment for alcohol dependence is an impoant question that is asked in exams treatment for alcohol dependence is done in 2 steps first detoxification, next is deaddiction detoxification involves helping the patient having a smooth withdrawl deaddiction involves preventing the patient from having relapse the main pharmacological agent used in detoxification is benzodiazepines deaddiction involves 2 types of techniques one is use of deterrent like disulfiram where when it is used it results in allergy like reaction, it should be used in well motivated individuals other type of deaddiction is naltrexone and acomprosate. Disulfiram is an aversion agent not anticraving agent. Remaining all other drugs are anti-craving agents for alcohol abuse. Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 329-331 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neisseria gonorrhea causes | [
"Urethritis",
"Salpingitis",
"Cervicitis",
"Vaginitis"
] | A | In men, Neisseria gonorrhea cause acute urethritis with a mucopurulent discharge containing gonococci in large numbers. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker&;s; 9th edition; Page no: 232 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The plateau phase of Myocardial action potential is due to | [
"Efflux of Na+",
"Influx of Ca++",
"Influx of K+",
"Closure of voltage gated K+ channels"
] | B | Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels produces the plateau phaseRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No: 491 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for gall stone | [
"X-Ray",
"USG",
"Cholecystography",
"CAT Scan"
] | B | B i.e. USG | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20-years old nulliparous women is on oral contraceptives pills. She is currently diagnosed as having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which anti-tubercular drug decreases the effect of OCP: | [
"INH",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Ethambutol",
"Rifampicin"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in ? | [
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Diabetes insipidus",
"Chronic renal failure",
"Acute glomerulonephritis"
] | C | Ans is 'c' i.e., Chronic renal failure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Flower petal appearance in fundus flourescein angiography is in | [
"Cystoid macular edema",
"Retinitis pigmentosa",
"Central serous retinopathy",
"Age related macular degeneration"
] | A | Flower petal appearance - CME.
Smoke stack pattern or Ink blot sign - Central serous retinopathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calorie requirement per a day of a child weighing 15 kg would be | [
"1150 kcal",
"1250 kcal",
"1450 kcal",
"1550 kcal"
] | B | We draw the energy from our food: The nutrients are transpoed to the body cells in the digestive tract after splitting up and are broken down there. This releases the required energy. They are measured in kilojoule (kJ) or kilocalories (kcal). One kilocalorie corresponds to 4,184 kilojoules. The calorie though is an outdated unit of measurement and was replaced in scientific use by the joule. In common parlance, calories are still often used. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC for Tenia Ungum | [
"Ampthotericin B",
"Miconazole",
"Gresiofulvin",
"Nystatin"
] | C | C i.e. Griseofulvin | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is the finding seen in DIVC : | [
"Increased fibrinogen , increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin-antithrombin III complexes",
"Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III",
"Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes",
"Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced Platlets"
] | D | Answer is D (Increased FDP, prolonged PT, Reduced platelets) The laboratory manifestation of DIC include thrombocytopenia (Reduced platelets), prolonged PT, PTT and thrombin time (TT). Reduced fibrinogen levels from depletion of coagulation protein and elevated FDP from intense secondary fibromolysis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pregangrene is | [
"Ulceration",
"Hyperaesthesia",
"Putrefaction",
"Mummification"
] | B | Pregangrene is changes in tissue which indicates that blood supply is inadequate to keep tissues alive and presents with rest pain, colour changes, oedema, hyperaesthesia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chromium deficiency may lead to:- | [
"Insulin dysfunction",
"Cardiomyopathy",
"Endocarditis",
"External ophthalmoplegia"
] | A | NUTRITIONAL DEFICIENCIES:- Chromium deficiency causes Insulin dysfunction resulting in Glucose intolerance. Copper deficiency causes : Neutropenia Selenium deficiency : Endemic cardiomyopathy (Keshan's disease) Zinc deficiency : growth failure, delayed wound healing, pernicious anemia Molybdenum deficiency: mouth and esophageal cancer Vit E deficiency : Progressive external ophthalmoplegia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the treatment for primary grade 5 vericoureteric reflux involving both kidney in a 8 months old boy is | [
"Antibiotic Prophylaxis",
"Ureteric implantation",
"Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of Teflon",
"Bilateral ureterostomies"
] | A | In all children presenting at age < 1yr with VUR, are treated with continuous Antibiotic Prophylaxis.
Indication for surgery :
Ureteric reimplantation for bilateral grade IV and V VUR that Persist beyond infancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a 2 way communication- | [
"Lectures",
"Group discussion",
"Panel discussion",
"Symposium"
] | A | The flow of communication is one way from the communicator to the audience.The familiar example is the lecture method in class rooms.This is known as Didactic method (refer pgno:855 park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all of the following, except: | [
"Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament",
"Deltoid ligament",
"Lateral ligament",
"Shape of the superior talar aicular surface"
] | A | A i.e. Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old patient presented with signs of meningoencephalitis following swimming in a nearby local pond one week back. The CSF on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular microorganisms. The most likely organism is | [
"image_question",
"image_question",
"image_question",
"image_question"
] | A | The given clinical scenario is suggestive of Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by Naegleria fowleri. It is also known as Brain-eating amoeba. It occurs in 3 forms: cyst, amoeboid trophozoite and flagellate trophozoite forms. The infection usually follows swimming in the freshwater rivers or ponds. The amoebae invade the nasal mucosa and pass through the olfactory nerve branches in the cribriform plate into the meninges. Incubation period is 2 days to 2 weeks. Treatment: Intravenous Amphotericin B Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nodular scabies is found in | [
"Web space of finger",
"Axilla",
"Abdomen",
"Scrotum"
] | D | D i.e. Scrotum | train | med_mcqa | null |
During postmoem no tattoo is visible, but according to deceased family, there was a tattoo present. What evidence can indicate the same? | [
"Lymph node",
"Surrounding subcutaneous tissue",
"Adipose tissue",
"Adjacent skin"
] | B | Tattoo marksDesigns made in the skin by multiple small puncture wounds with needles or electric vibrator dipped in coloring matter. The most permanent pictures are made when the dye penetrates the dermis.If the dye is deposited into deeper layers of the dermis, it will be removed by phagocytes.Most of the marks are found on the arms, forearms, and chestIf the pigment has been deposited below the epidermis, it will very slowly become fainter and ceain pigments, such as vermilion, and ultramarine may disappear after 10 years.The rate of fading depends not only on the composition of the pigment but also on the depth to which it penetrates the skin and the site which is tattooedFaded tattoo mark becomes visible by the use of UV lamp (or) rubbing the pa and examining with magnifying lens (or) Infrared photography (or) Lymph nodes near a tattoo mark show deposits of pigment Dyes commonly used are:Indian ink.Carbon (black).Cinnabar or vermilion (mercuric sulphide) red.Chromic acid (green),Indigo,Cobalt.Prussian blue (ferric ferrocyanide).Ultramarine (blue).(Refer: Rajesh Bardale - Principle of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 1st edition, pg no: 70, 71) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Operculated eggs are seen in - | [
"Nematodes",
"Cestodes",
"Tremalodes",
"Protozoa"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trematodes o Operculated eggs has a little cap like structure (operculum) at the end. The operculum pops open when the next stage is ready to emerge.o The trematodes (flukes) lay operculated eggs. An exception is schistosome egg, which are not operculated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zoonotic disease is/are transmitted by - | [
"Ticks",
"Rat flea",
"Sand fly",
"Mosquito"
] | A | <p> Zoonotic diseases are transmitted by hard ticks(e.g.tick typhus, viral fever) or soft tick(Q-fever). Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:780. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old high school tennis player sustains a right midshaft clavicle fracture. Which of the following increases the risk of nonunion in the non operative treatment of clavicle fractures | [
"Sling treatment",
"Figure-of-eight bandage treatment",
"Displacement and comminution",
"Male sex"
] | C | Displacement and comminution have been shown to increase risk of non-union in nonoperative management. There are no significant differences between outcomes when using sling immobilization versus a figure-of-eight bandage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is not true regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome ? | [
"It is a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia",
"Thrombocytopenia and schistocytes are seen in the peripheral blood smear",
"Remal insufficiency is a complication",
"Direct coombs test is positive"
] | D | Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) In hemolytic uremic syndrome coomb&;s test is usually negative except if associated with s.pneumoniae. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue are carried by: | [
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Chorda tympani nerve",
"Trigeminal nerve",
"Greater auricular nerve"
] | B | Taste sensation from anterior 2/3rd of tongue is carried by chorda tympani (branch of facial nerve), towards the facial nerve and geniculate ganglion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Substance present in both serum and plasma:September 2007 | [
"Fibrinogen",
"Factor II",
"Factor VII",
"Factor V"
] | C | Ans. C: Factor VIISerum has essentially the same composition as that of plasma except that its fibrinogen and clotting factors II,V and VIII has been removed and it has a higher seroton in content. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blind spot of Mariotte is also known as: March 2007 | [
"Optic disc",
"Ora serrata",
"Macula",
"Fovea"
] | A | Ans. A: Optic disc Blind spot/physiological blind spot/punctum caecum is the place in the visual field that corresponds to the lack of light-detecting photoreceptor cells on the optic disc of the retina where the optic nerve passes through it. Since there are no cells to detect light on the optic disc, a pa of the field of vision is not perceived. The brain fills in with surrounding detail and with information from the other eye, so the blind spot is not normally perceived. The ora serrata is the serrated junction between the retina and the ciliary body. This junction marks the transition from the simple non-photosensitive area of the retina to the complex, multi-layered photosensitive region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper border of thyroid cartilage is at - | [
"C2",
"C4",
"C6",
"Tl"
] | B | Thyroid cartilage, itself lies in front of C4 - C5 level. Its upper border is at C4 vertebra level.
"The superior border of the thyroid cartilage is at the C4 level." — Atlas of anatomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Electrical synapse is closely associated with | [
"Neuromuscular junction",
"Tight junction",
"Gap junction",
"None of the above"
] | C | Cell junction forms tunnels that join the cytoplasm of two cells. They help in the transmission of electrical activity from one cell to another. (REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 18) | train | med_mcqa | null |
NRHM involves | [
"VHG",
"ASHA",
"ANM",
"HWM"
] | B | Ans) b (ASHA) Ref park 20th ed pg 379-381The main aim of the national rural health mission (NRHM) is to provide accessible, affordable, accountable, effective and reliable primary health care and bridging the gap of rural health care through creation of a cadre of Accredited social health activist (ASHA)VHG is village health guide.ANM is Auxiliary nurse midwife.HWM is health worker male. | train | med_mcqa | null |
21 year old female presents with history of mild bilater ptosis, proximal muscle weakness and easy fatiguability which among the following is best in diagnosis this condition | [
"Muscle biopsy",
"Edrophonium test",
"Repetitive nerve stimulation",
"Electro myography"
] | B | * For diagnosis inject edrophonium 2mg i.v Improvement- myasthenic crisis No improvement or worsening - cholinergic crisis. The Tensilon test uses the drug Tensilon (edrophonium) to help your doctor diagnose myasthenia gravis. Tensilon prevents the breakdown of the chemical acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that nerve cells release to stimulate your muscles. This prevents muscles from being stimulated and makes muscles easy to tire Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are indications for penile angiography except | [
"Painful priapism",
"Peyronie's disease",
"Erectile dysfunction",
"Aerio-venous malformation"
] | A | Priapism Priapism means a persistent erection lasting longer than 4 hours and it is a surgical emergency. There are two main types of priapism. ISCHAEMIC PRIAPISM Ischaemic or venogenic priapism is the commoner and is due to venous congestion, with consequent thrombosis and ischaemia. The penis remains erect and becomes painful. This is a pathological erection and the glans penis and corpus spongiosum are not involved. The condition is most commonly seen as a side effect of medication, most notably antipsychotic medication and intracavernosal injections, but it can also arise as complication of a hypercoagulable blood disorders such as sickle cell disease or leukaemia. A tiny propoion of cases are caused by malignant disease in the corpora cavernosa or the pelvis. The clinical features are of a painful erection not involving the glans penis. Blood taken from the penis shows hypoxia, hyercapnoea and acidosis, while Doppler scanning shows an absence of blood flow within the penis. An underlying cause should be excluded and the patient should be referred for specialist urological care. Treatment is an emergency, since delay beyond 6 hours results in progressive, irreversible damage to the corpus cavernosal tissue with subsequent fibrosis and ED. Aspiration of the sludged blood in the corpora cavernosa is the first-line therapy but if this fails, then intracavernosal injection of phenylephrine (an alpha adrenoceptor agonist) is the next line of therapy. If that proves ineffective, it may be necessary to decompress the penis by creating a shunt between the corpus cavernosum and either the glans penis or the corpus spongiosum. Treatment initiated after 24-36 hours rarely restores normal erectile function. NON-ISCHAEMIC PRIAPISM This rarer form of priapism arises as a consequence of traumatic damage to the central penile aery, usually as a consequence of blunt perineal trauma. A fistula develops between the aery and the sinusoidal space, which results in a persistent erection that is painless, in contrast to the ischaemic priapism. Blood gas analysis shows the characteristics of aerial blood and Doppler scanning and selective aeriography will demonstrate the fistula. Treatment is not an emergency, since there is no ischaemia, and is most appropriate achieved by selective aerial embolisation. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1491 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to CDC recommendations, HIV screening of pregnant women is | [
"Opt in testing",
"Opt out testing",
"Compulsory",
"Symptomatic"
] | B | Opt-out testing means performing an HIV test after notifying the patient that the test is normally performed, but that the patient may elect to decline or defer testing; consent is then assumed unless the patient declines to test. WHO and CDC recommend opt-out testing policies in healthcare settings. Reference: HIV testing guidelines,CDC Atlanta. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Herald patch' is seen in: | [
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Pityriasis rubra pilaris",
"Pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis acuta",
"Pityriasis alba"
] | A | Ans. A. Pityriasis rosea. (Ref. Harrison's 18lh/pg. 367)In Pityriasis rosea, initially, there is a single 2- to 6-cm annular salmon-colored patch (herald patch) with a peripheral rim of scale, followed in days to weeks by a generalized eruption involving the trunk and proximal extremities.Pityriasis rosea:# It is an acute, self-limiting skin condition. A primary plaque ('herald patch') is followed by a distinctive, generalized itchy rash 1-2 weeks later. The rash lasts for approximately 2-6 weeks. Lesions are typically oval, dull pink or tawny and appear in a 'Christmas tree' distribution, usually on the trunk and the upper arms and legs.# It is thought that human herpes viruses 6 and 7 may play a role in etiopathogenesis. Some drugs, eg bismuth, barbiturates, captopril, gold, metronidazole, D-penicillamine and isotretinoin occasionally cause a drug-induced pityriasis rosea.# Pityriasis rosea is a self-limiting disease, and treatment is supportive.# Exposure to sunlight is helpful.# Topical zinc oxide and calamine lotion are useful for pruritus.# Pruritus can also be treated with topical corticosteroids, oral antihistamines or antipruritic lotions.# Oral erythromycin may be effective in treating the rash and decreasing the itch.- Pityriasis alba is an uncommon feature of atopic dermatitis that presentsin children and adolescents. Light- coloured skin spots also occur in pityriasis alba (slightly scaly, on skin exposed to the light), Gibert's pityriasis rosea, pityriasis versicolor (Gr. "pityron" = bran; refers to the light skin scaliness). Pityriasis versicolor is a very common skin infection with a fungus: Pityrosporum ovale (yeast stage) or Malassezia furfur (mycelium stage). This lipophilic fungus forms the tyrosinase inhibitor azelaic acid from sebaceous fats, a substance which inhibits melanin synthesis. This explains the white appearance of the skin spots. Account must be taken of the fact that depigmented skin spots can also be caused by damage to the melanocytes (pigment cells) after an ordinary infection, wound or bum (post-inflammatory hypopigmentation), due to vitiligo (the texture of the skin with this condition is otherwise normal), as a residual lesion in endemic treponematosis and syphilis (the differential diagnosis is often difficult here). It is important to know that people with leprosy often have a false positive VDRL (screening for syphilis). TPHA permits differentiation.Pityriasis rubra pilaris (also known as "Devergie's disease,"or "Lichen ruber acuminatus," and "Lichen ruber pilaris"refers to a group of chronic disorders characterized by reddish orange, scaling plaques and keratotic follicular papules. Symptoms may include reddish-orange patches (Latin: rubra) on the skin, severe flaking (Latin: pityriasis), uncomfortable itching, thickening of the skin on the feet and hands, and thickened bumps around hair follicles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased BP, proteinuria, RBC casts are the features of which type of Glomerulonephritis ? | [
"RPGN",
"Membranous GN",
"Membranoproliferative GN",
"Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis"
] | A | Answer- A. RPGNHaematuria, proteinuria, hypeension, edema and oliguria are the clinical features associated with Nephritic syndrome.Presence of RBC casts in urine is classical feature of nephritic syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 18-year-old man suffers massive trauma in a motorcycle accident. A CT scan shows multiple intracerebral hemorrhages. The patient expires after 6 months in a coma. At autopsy, there are cystic cavities within the frontal and temporal lobes, corresponding to the areas of prior hemorrhage. These cavities were formed in large measure due to the phagocytic activity of which of the following cell types? | [
"Astrocytes",
"Endothelial cells",
"Microglial cells",
"Neutrophils"
] | C | Microglia are phagocytic macrophage-derived cells of the CNS, accounting for 5% of all glial cells. In response to necrosis, macroglia become phagocytic, accumulate lipids and other cellular debris, and are designated gitter cells. Some reactive microglia exhibit a prominent elongated nucleus, in which case they are referred to as rod cells. After microglial phagocytosis, astrocytosis (choice A) then leads to local scar formation, which persists as telltale evidence of a prior injury.Diagnosis: Cerebral contusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
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