question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
A patient has 2 months POP cast for tibial fracture of the left leg. Now he needs mobilisation with a single crutch. You will use this crutch on which side - | [
"Left side",
"Right side",
"Any side",
"Both side"
] | B | Use of crutch in the opposite side, while the affected (left) left leg is bearing weight, will relieve pressure from the healing fracture site.
When the unaffected (Rt. Leg) is raised to step, the crutch on rt. side and the left leg(injured leg) will support the trunk.
For hip pathology, the crutch is given on the same side. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triage is defined as - | [
"Treating the most serious cases",
"Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource",
"Cautery burns",
"Treating mentally ill patients"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource Triage* When the quantity and severity of injuries overwhelm the operative capacity of health facilities, a different approach to medical treatment must be adopted.* The usual principle of first come, first treated", is not followed in mass emergencies.* Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured and the likelyhood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.* Higher priority is granted to victims whose immediate or long-term prognosis can be dramatically affected by simple intensive care.* Moribund patients who require a great deal of attention, with questionable benefit have the lowest priority.* The most common triage classification system used international is four colour code system.1. Red - High priority treatment or transfer2. Yellow - Medium priority3. Green - Ambulatory patients4. Black - Dead or moribund patients | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nucleus of basal ganglia : | [
"Dentate",
"Thalamus",
"Caudate",
"Red nucleus"
] | C | C i.e. Caudate nucleus | train | med_mcqa | null |
The bases which are present in human DNA? | [
"Adenine-guanine-thiamine- uracil",
"Adenine-guanine- cytosine-uracil",
"Adenine- guanine-cytosine-thymine",
"None of the above"
] | C | Double-stranded (ds) Has adenine- guanine-cytosine-thymine Has Deoxyribose DNA does not contain Uracil 2 strands are held together by hydrogen bonds. There are covalent bonds (3' 5' phosphodiester bonds) in sugar-phosphate backbone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vector for dengue fever is: September 2006 | [
"Culex",
"Aedes",
"Male Anopheles",
"Female Anopheles"
] | B | Ans. B: Aedes Dengue fever and dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) are acute febrile diseases which occur in the tropics, can be life-threatening, and are caused by four closely related virus serotypes of the genus Flavivirus, family Flaviviridae. It is also known as breakbone fever. The reservoir for infection is both man and mosquito. The transmission cycle is man-mosquito-man. Aedes aegypti is the main vector. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the contraindication for trial of normal labour after caesarean section? | [
"History of previous classical CS",
"History of previous CS due to CPD",
"No history of prior vaginal delivery",
"History of previous CS due to malpresentation"
] | A | Prior classical or T-shaped uterine incisions are considered contraindications to labor. The highest risks of uterine rupture are present with prior veical incisions extending into the fundus such as the classical incision. Women with a transverse scar confined to the lower uterine segment have the lowest risk of symptomatic scar separation during a subsequent pregnancy. Some Factors for Consideration in Selection of Candidates for Vaginal Bih after Cesarean Delivery (VBAC): One previous prior low-transverse cesarean delivery Clinically adequate pelvis No other uterine scars or previous rupture Physician immediately available throughout active labor capable of monitoring labor and performing an emergency cesarean delivery Availability of anesthesia and personnel for emergency cesarean delivery Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 26. Prior Cesarean Delivery. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about laryngeal papillomatosis | [
"Due to HPV infection",
"Microdebrider used for excision",
"If leads to Respiratory distress. Tracheotomy is done as immediate procedure",
"High Recurrence rate"
] | C | Tracheotomy is avoided due to spread of papillomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug does NOT cause Gynaecomastia? | [
"INH",
"Cimetidine",
"Digitalis",
"Pyrazinamide"
] | D | Pyrazinamide is not known to cause gynecomastia. Adverse effects associated with its use are hepatic damage, hyperuricemia, nausea, vomiting, ahralgia, dysuria, malaise and fever. Some drugs cause gynecomastia by 1) synergetic action with estrogen due to intrinsic estrogen like propeies of the drug 2) the production of increased endogenous estrogen and 3) by providing excess supply of estrogen precursor that can be aromatized to estrogen. Drugs causing Gynecomastia includes: Estrogen Spironolactone Cimetidine Digitalis Phenothiazines TCA Methyldopa Reserpine Isoniazid Ref: Male Reproductive Dysfunction: Pathophysiology and Treatment edited by Fouad R. Kandeel page 523. NMS Medicine edited by Susan Wolfstha page 473. Gumbo T. (2011). Chapter 56. Chemotherapy of Tuberculosis,Mycobacterium Avium Complex Disease, and Leprosy. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about decoicate rigidity? | [
"Removal of cerebral coex and basal ganglia",
"Flexion of lower limbs & extension of upperlimbs",
"Rigidity is less pronounced than decerebrate rigidity",
"None of the above"
] | C | Decoicate Rigidity Made by removing whole cerebral coex but leaving basal ganglia intact. Characterised by flexion of upper extremities at elbow & extension of lower extremities. Flexion due to rubrospinal tract excitation of flexors in upper extremities & hyperextension of lower extremity. Decoicate animal doesnot have intense hypeonia as decerebrate animal.Due to intact basal ganglia in decoicate animal. Ref: Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology 13th edition Pgno: 682 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm – | [
"Crystalline lens",
"Sclera",
"Corneal epithelium",
"Epithelium of lacrimal glands"
] | B | Sclera is derived from mesoderm.
Crystalline lens, corneal epithelium and lacrimal gland are derived from surface ectoderm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In chronic Hepatitis B infection, which one of the following markers is indicative of active viral replication and the corresponding risk of disease transmission ? | [
"HBe antigen",
"HBs antigen",
"Anti - HBe",
"Anti - HBs"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., HBe antigen | train | med_mcqa | null |
Purtscher's Retinopathy due to Acute Pancreatitis is treated by | [
"Laser therapy to the retina",
"Vitamin A supplementation",
"Ciprofloxacin & Metranidazole",
"All the above"
] | C | (C) Ciprofloxacin & Metranidazole# PURTSCHER RETINOPATHY is a hemorrhagic and vasoocclusive vasculopathy characterised by sudden blindness associated with severe head trauma.> Purtscher-like retinopathy is seen in conditions, including acute pancreatitis; fat embolization; amniotic fluid embolization; preeclampsia; hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome; and vasculitic diseases, such as lupus.> There is no treatment for purtscher's retinopathy, definitive treatment is treating the underlying cause.> In this case purtschre's retinopathy caused by acute pancreatitis, treatment is same as in pancreatitis which include Nill by mouth, fluid resusitation, analgesics and antibiotics (Ciprofloxacin & Metranidazole). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary intentional healing which is true - | [
"Neovascularization is maximum by day 5",
"Neovascularization is maximum by day 3",
"Neutrophils appear at wound margins on day 3",
"The epidermis recovers its maximum thickness by day 7"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Neovascularization is maximum by day 5 Skin wound healingo Skin wounds are classically described to heal by primary or secondary intention.Healing by primary intentionIt occurs in wounds with opposed edges, e.g., surgical incision.The healing process follows a series of sequential steps : -o Immediate after incisionIncisional space filled with blood containing fibrin and blood cells.Dehydration of the surface clot forms a scab that covers the wound,o Within 24 hoursNeutrophils appear at the margins of the wound.o In; 24-48 hoursy Epithelial cells move from the wound edges along the cut margin of the dermis, depositing basement membrane components as they move.y They' fuse in the midline beneath the surface scab, producing a continuous but thin epithelium layer that closes the wound,o By day 3Neutrophils are largely replaced by macrophages.Granulation tissue progressively invades the incision space.Collegen fibers now present in the margin but do not bridge the incision,o By day 5Incisional space is largely filled with granulation tissue.Neovascularization is maximum.Collagen fibrils become more abundant and begin to bridge the incision.The epidermis recovers its normal thickness,o During the second weekLeukocytes and edema have disappeared.There is continued accumulation of collagen and proliferation of fibroblast,o By the end of the first monthThe scar is made up of a cellular connective tissue devoid of inflammatory infiltrate covered now by the intact epidermis.Healing by secondary intentionIt occurs in wounds with separated edges in which there is a more extensive loss of cells and tissue.Regeneration of parenchymal cells cannot completely restore the original architecture, and hence abundant granulation tissue grows.Healing by secondary intention differ from primary intention in several respects : -The inflammatory /7 reaction is more intense.Much larger amounts of granulation tissue are formed.Wound contraction occurs - Feature that most clearly differentiate secondary from primary healing.o Permanent wound contraction requires the action of myofibroblasts - Fibroblasts that have the ultrastructural characteristic of smooth muscle cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice in discrete thyroid swelling is | [
"Isotope scans",
"Ultrasonography",
"Autoantibody titres",
"FNAC"
] | D | Fine-needle aspiration cytology is the investigation of choice in discrete thyroid swellings. FNAC has excellent patient compliance, is simple and quick to perform in the outpatient depament and is readily repeated Comment : This question is based on above lines from bailey and love. In workup of solitary nodule of thyroid , thyroid profile is done after history and physical eamination. In normal or elevated TSH patients , USG neck is done. following which FNAC is done Previously thyroid scan used to be very impoant investigation in solitary nodule workup. Now its limited to toxic nodules. May be question is framed to highlight this point. Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg : 890 Bailey and Love 26th edition Pg : 750 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trendlenberg's operation is indicated in the treatment of: | [
"Deep vein thrombosis",
"Buerger's disease",
"Varicose veins",
"Obturator hernia"
] | C | Trendlenberg's operation was introduced in by Friedrich Trendelenburg in the late 1800s. In this method, the saphenous vein was ligated through a midthigh incision. This procedure was modified by Pehes who advocated a groin incision and a sapheno femoral ligature. Treatment modalities of varicose veins: Initially compression stockings are used. Injection sclerotherapy is used in varicose veins less than 3mm diameter and in telangiectatic vessels. Commonly used sclerosing agents are hypeonic saline, sodium tetradecyl sulfate, and polidocanol. Patients with symptomatic great or small saphenous vein reflux may be treated with endovenous ablation techniques or surgical removal. Saphenous vein ligation and stripping is the preferred therapy for patients with GSVs of very large diameter (>2 cm). Ref: Manual of Vascular Surgery By A. K. Khanna, Page 286 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are features of chronic lead poisoning except - | [
"Encephalopathy",
"Burtonian line",
"Cutaneous blisters",
"Constipation"
] | C | Blisters are not a feature of lead poisoning.
Encephalopathy, Burtonian line and constipation are seen in lead poisoning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 month old infants present with acute intestinal obstruction. Contrast enema X-ray shows the intussusceptions. Which of the following is the most likely cause? | [
"Payers patch hyperophy",
"Mekel's diveiculum",
"Mucosal polyp",
"Duplication cyst"
] | A | Most common cause of intussusception in an infant is hyperophy of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum from an antecedent viral infection that acts as a lead point. Peristaltic action of the intestine then causes the bowel distal to the lead point to invaginate into itself. Idiopathic intussusception occurs in children between approximately 6 and 24 months of age. Beyond this age group, cause of intussusception includes polyps, malignant tumors such as lymphoma, enteric duplication cysts, and Meckel's diveiculum. Ref: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapters 28, 39 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Parkinsonism, what is not present - | [
"Tremors at rest",
"Past pointing",
"Akinesia",
"Rigidity"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzymes activating prodrugs of ACE inhibitors to active form is: | [
"Amidases",
"Esterases",
"Angiotensin conveing enzyme",
"Conjugases"
] | B | Captopril, lisinopril and enalaprilat are active molecules. All the drugs like Benazepril, enalapril, fosinopril, moexipril, perindopril, quinapril, ramipril and trandolapril are prodrugs. They need to be conveed to active form by the enzyme hepatic Esterases. Ester moeity is removed by esterases and replaced with a hydrogen atom to form the active molecule Clinical implications: In hypeensive urgencies --> Enalapril can't be given because it is a prodrug, but its active moeity enalaprilat is used. Also caution while using in hepatic failure patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 13 year old young girl presents to the casualty with acute pain in the lower abdomen. She has history of cyclical pain for last 6 months and she has not attained her menarche yet. On local genital examination, a tense bulge in the region of hymen is seen. The most probable diagnosis is : | [
"Mayer Rockitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome",
"Testicular feminization syndrome",
"Imperforate hymen",
"Asherman's syndrome"
] | C | Imperforate Hymen The hymen is formed by invagination of the posterior wall of the urogenital sinus Typically patients presents at the expected time of menarche with complaints of cyclic perineal, pelvic or abdominal pressure or pain which results from the gradual accumulation of obstructed menstrual flow (cryptomenorrhea), and normal symmetrical secondary sexual development for age They may also present with acute urinary retention due to compression of the urethra and bladder by a grossly distended lower vagina The genital examination reveals a thin bulging, blue perineal membrane at the inferior limit of a palpable, fluctuant mass (hematocolpos) Definitive surgery should be accomplished as soon as possible because delay can lead to infeility due to inflammatory changes and development of severe endometriosis The classical procedure is to make a simple cruciate incision in the hymen to the base of the hymeneal ring and to excise its central poion to allow drainage of sequestered menstrual fluid and subsequent normal menstruation Alternatively, to avoid any risk of damage to the hymeneal ring (a sign of virginity), a sterile puncture can be made in the center of the distended membrane and enlarged to approximately 0.5 cm in diameter to allow inseion of a 16F Foley catheter After thorough drainage of the vagina irrigation with sterile saline, the catheter is left in place for approximately 2 weeks to allow fuher drainage from the vagina and upper genital tract Ref: Clinical Endocrinologic Gynecology and Infeility; Eigth edition; Chapter 11 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Ewing's postulates" refers to : | [
"Accidents as a cause of death.",
"Complication resulting from trauma.",
"The role of disease in modifying the effects of trauma.",
"Congenital anomalies caused by drugs."
] | B | Trauma can occasionally cause a new growth or cancer. For accepting trauma as a cause of new growth/cancer Ewing's postulate should be satisfied. According to this postulate: There must be evidence of previous site normal prior to normal The application of adequate trauma must be proved. There must be proof of reasonable time interval between injury and appearance of tumor. The disease must develop in the exact locality of the injury. The nature of the tumor must be proved by microscopy. Ref: Principles of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Rajesh Bardale page 251. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient, Tina was anesthetized with halothane and nitrous oxide and tubocurarine was used for skeletal muscle relaxation. She became hypeensive along with marked muscle rigidity and hypehermia. Lab repos showed that she has developed hyperkalemia and acidosis. This complication was caused by: | [
"Block of autonomic ganglia by tubocurarine",
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Activation of brain dopamine receptors by halothane",
"Excessive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum"
] | D | (Ref: KDT 6/e p347, 372) The symptoms of the patient (muscle rigidity, hypeension, hypehermia, hyperkalemia and acidosis) suggests the diagnosis of malignant hypehermia. Halothane can precipitate malignant hypehermia is susceptible individuals. SCh increases this incidence. Malignant hypehermia is due to excessive release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Drug of choice for malignant hypehermia is dantrolene that inhibits the release of Ca2+ (by blocking ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomonic feature of: | [
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Hypehyroidism"
] | C | Hypothyroidism | train | med_mcqa | null |
The toxic princple of this plant is:- | [
"Tetrahydro canabinol",
"Thevetin",
"Oduvin",
"Podophyllin"
] | D | Mayapple (May Apple) Other Common Names: American Mandrake. Toxic Principle : Podophyllin (purified form: podophyllotoxin): Clinical Features 1. Exposure of eyes to podophyllum powder causes intenseirritation with conjunctivitis, keratitis, corneal ulceration, and iritis. 2. Ingestion results in nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting,and diarrhoea, followed by fever, tachypnoea, peripheral neuropathy, tachycardia, hypotension, ataxia, dizziness,lethargy, confusion, and altered sensorium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used in circumcision? | [
"1 % lignocaine without adrenaline",
"2% lignocaine with adrenaline",
"1 % lignocaine with adrenaline",
"2% lignocaine without adrenaline"
] | A | Ans: a (1 % Lignocaine without adrenaline) Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th p. 491 % lignocaine without adrenaline is used in circumcisionLignocaine 1 % is effective for most sensory block. Adrenaline should not be used in end arterial locations where there is no collateral circulation, such as fingers and toes, around retinal arteries and tip of penis.Advantage of adrenaline in LA:Addition of adrenaline (1: 2,00.000 to 1: 1,25,000 cone) to local anaesthetic solution hastens the onset and prolongs the duration of action, permits a higher dose of drug to be used as it is more slowly absorbed into the circulation.C.I. of adrenaline:* Hypertensive patients* Patients taking either MAO inhibitors or TCA drugs (Its cardiovascular effects are potentiated)Note:Never use mono polar diathermy when performing circumcision. Causes coagulation at the base of penis in small boys. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biceps femoris does which of the following function? | [
"Adduction of knee",
"Flexion of knee",
"Extension of knee",
"Abduction of knee"
] | B | Ans. B Flexion of kneeRef: Netters Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 288 1* Biceps femoris is present in posterior compartment of(r) thigh and forms hamstrings. It is responsible for flexion of knee.* The other hamstrings are semitendinosus and semimembranosus. All these muscles originate from the ischial tuberosity and are innervated by tibial part of sciatic nerve (L5, S1 and S2). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fixed performance device is – | [
"Ventury mask",
"Nasal cannula",
"Simple mask",
"Non rebreathing mask"
] | A | Ventimask (venturi mask) is a fixed performance (high flow) oxygen delivery device.
Nasal cannula, non-rebreathing mask (Hudson mask) and simple mask are variable performance (low flow) devices. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is NOT a complication of chicken pox/ varicella: September 2012 | [
"Pancreatitis",
"Pneumonia",
"Encephalitis",
"Reye's syndrome"
] | A | Ans: A i.e. Pancreatitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The given below instrument is used for: | [
"For cutting ribs in spinal surgery",
"For smoothening of the edges in amputation surgery",
"Used as nibbler and remove fibrous tissue from non-union site",
"To hold the hard tissues"
] | C | Ans. (c) Used as nibbler and remove fibrous tissue from non-union siteRef: Textbook of Orthopedics 4th Ed by John Ebnezar; Page No- 861* It is a Double-action bone nibbler (Rounger). The double- action nibblers are mechanically superior.* Bone nibbler is available in various sizes and with different angle of the nose.# Curved nibbler - use for spinal surgery# Straight nibbler -general use# Double action nibbler - straight or curved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of inheritance in MEL AS- | [
"AD",
"AR",
"Mitochondrial",
"X-linked"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mitochondrial o MELAS (mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis an stroke) is a mitochondrial disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of neonatal lupus erythematosus? | [
"Cutaneous lesions",
"Hea block",
"Anti Ro positivity",
"Thrombocytopenia"
] | C | Neonatal lupus erythematosus (NLE) is a disorder caused by the transplacental passage of maternal antibodies. The most frequent clinical manifestations are cutaneous lesions andcongenital hea block (CHB). Approximately 50% of NLE infants manifest skin lesions at bih or occur in the first few weeks of life as an erythematous eruption on the face and periorbital skin (raccoon sign/owl-eye/eye mask). Thrombocytopenia may occur in up to 20% ofcases and does not usually require treatment. The main antibody is Ro/SS-A. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, Edition-8, Page-51.49. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Beta-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity? | [
"Propranolol",
"Sotalol",
"Timolol",
"Pindolol"
] | D | Ans. D. Pindolol. (Ref. KDT 6th/pg. 140; Table 10.2)- "Pindolol is nonselective b-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity."Beta blockersANonselective (b1 and b2) 1. Without intrinsic sympathomimetic activity :- Propranolol, - Sotalol, - Timolol. 2. With intrinsic sympathomimetic activity :- Pindolol 3 With additional a blocking property :- Labetalol, - CarvedilolB.Cardioselective (b1)- Metoprolol,- Atenolol, - Acebutolol, - Bisoprolol,- Esmolol, - Betaxolol, - CeliprololCSelective (b2)Butoxamine, ICI118551-Nadolol, Oxprenolol, alprenolol are nonselective b blockers;-Nabivolol is b1 selective blocker and-Bucindolol, medroxalol are b + a1 blockers not marketed in India. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Interleukin secreted by Th17 cells | [
"IFN Gamma",
"IL22",
"IL6",
"1L16"
] | B | Ans. (b) IL22(Ref: Immunity 2008 Apr. 28(4): 454-467IL-22 is one of the IL-10 family cytokines, which also include IL-10, IL-19, IL-20, IL-24, and IL-26, as well as more distally related IL-28 and IL-29.It has a role in autoimmune diseases, tissue-repair and wound-healing apart from being proinflammatory | train | med_mcqa | null |
Digoxin toxicity may result from the concurrent administration of digoxin with all of the following drugs EXCEPT | [
"Quinidine",
"Hydrochlorothiazide",
"Triamterene",
"Furosemide"
] | C | Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that may protect against diuretic-induced digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may be caused by drugs that increase serum digoxin levels or increase the binding of digoxin to its receptor, the sodium-potassium adenosine tn phosphatase (ATPase). Quinidine decreases digoxin volume of distribution and clearance. Verapamil also decreases the clearance of digoxin. Both drugs may
thereby increase serum digoxin levels and precipitate digoxin toxicity. Diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, furosemide) may cause hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia, both of which may predispose to cardiac arrhythmias. Furthermore, hypokalemia increases di-goxin binding to sodium-potassium ATPase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following factors is most likely associated with a more positive prognosis for autistic disorder? | [
"Family educational status",
"Physical development & performance IQ",
"Language development & verbal IQ",
"Presence of a seizure disorder"
] | C | One of the best predictors of the ability to improve the development of autistic children is the extent to which they have, or have begun to develop, language skills. This ability is often measured in verbal IQ testing.Autism spectrum disorders are relatively common, occurring in approximately 1 in 150 children. Males are overrepresented 3-4:1, with repos as high as 9.5:1 (especially when higher functioning individuals are included). No known etiology can be found in 80%-90% of cases. A genetic syndrome such as fragile X syndrome or chromosome 15q duplication is found in 10%-20% of cases. There is a strong familial component. Parents of one child with autism of unknown etiology have a 2%-9% chance of having a second child with autism.Ref: Goldson E., Reynolds A. (2012). Chapter 3. Child Development & Behavior. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathognomonic of trachoma is – | [
"Bulbar papillae",
"Palpebral papillae",
"Bulbar follicles",
"Palpebral follicles"
] | C | Follicles are seen most commonly on upper tarsal conjunctiva and fornix. Sometimes, follicles are seen on bulbar conjunctiva where they are considered to be pathognomonic of trachoma.
"Follicles may be seen on bulbar conjunctiva (pathognomic of trachoma)". — Khurana | train | med_mcqa | null |
In patients who present with a penetrating chest injury, injury to the hea is most likely when the following physical sign is present | [
"Hypotension",
"Distended neck veins",
"Decreased hea sound",
"Decreased venous pressure"
] | D | Hypotension increased venous pressure (distended neck veins), and decreased hea sounds make up the classic Beck's triad associated with cardiac tamponade. If these three findings are present in a person who has a penetrating chest wound, the intracardiac injury is almost ceain and operative intervention is mandatory. | train | med_mcqa | null |
This type of lesion in HIV patient is caused most likely by which of the following? | [
"Bacteria",
"Fungus",
"Virus",
"Parasite"
] | B | Ans. B. Fungusa. This HIV/AIDS patient presented with a secondary oral pseudomembranous candidiasis infection.b. The immune system which suffers with HIV undergoes a dramatic reduction in its effectiveness, resulting in the greater possibility of secondary infections. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One of the following about corynebacterium diphtheriae is wrong - | [
"Gram negative",
"Ernest babes granules seen",
"Chinese letter pattern",
"Prevented by immunisation"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum permissible level of chloride in drinking water is: March 2012 | [
"200 mg litre",
"300 mg litre",
"600 mg litre",
"800 mg litre"
] | C | Ans: C i.e. 600 mg litre Maximum permissible levels in water The standard prescribed for chloride is 200 mg/ litre The maximum permissible level of chloride is 600 mg/ litre | train | med_mcqa | null |
The surgeon who introduced catgut in surgery was ? | [
"Astley Cooper",
"Lord Lister",
"John Hunter",
"Syme"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., John Hunter | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endemic ascites is associated with the following ? | [
"Pyrrolizidine",
"Aflatoxin",
"Sanguinarine",
"Beta oxalylamino alanine (BOAA)"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pyrrolizidine Endemic ascites o Endemic ascites is caused by a hepatotoxin - pyrralizidine alkaloid found in weed seeds of Crotolariu (Jhunjhunia). o These weed seeds of Jhunjhunia contaminate the millet seeds Panicum ',Ware (locally k/a Gondhli) o Endemic ascites presented in Sarguja district of Madhya Pradesh during 1973 & 1976 as outbreak of rapidly developing ascites and jaundice with high moality. Preventive measures Educating the people Deweeding of Jhunjhunia plants which grow along with the staple food-millet. o Sieving to separate out the Jhunjhunia seeds from millet seeds. | train | med_mcqa | null |
First referral unit (FRU) is | [
"Sub-centre",
"PHC",
"CHC",
"Medical college and hospital"
] | C | Level of health care Primary Secondary Teiary Status in INDIA First level of contact between population and health care system First referral level of health care Second referral level of health care Health services are delivered through Sub - centre, Primary Health Centre Community Health Centre , District Hospital Medical Colleges and Hospitals | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for evaluating pleural diseases: September 2011 | [
"USG",
"Chest X-ray",
"CT scan",
"MRI"
] | C | Ans. C: CT scan CT displays pleural abnormalities more readily than either plain radiography or ultrasound, and may distinguish benign from malignant pleural disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Visual analogue scale (VAS) most widely used to measure | [
"Sleep",
"Sedation",
"Pain intensity",
"Depth of Anaesthesia"
] | C | C i.e. Pain intensity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Preferred fuel for body in fasting state: | [
"Carbohydrates",
"Fats",
"Proteins",
"Amino acids"
] | B | The preferred fuel for the body in:- Fed state is mainly Carbohydrates i.e. Glucose. Fasting state is mainly Fats. Fats stored in adipose tissues are broken down to fatty acids to give energy during fasting and starvation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is anti inflammatory | [
"Lipoxins",
"Thromboxane",
"Prostaglandins",
"Interleukins"
] | A | IL-10 and TGF-β have anti inflammatory action | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bacteria may acquire characteristic s by all of the following except - | [
"Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species -",
"Incorporating pa of host DNA",
"Through bacteriophages",
"Through conjugation"
] | B | Interstrain transfer of DNA among prokaryotes is ubiquitous and contributes significantly to the genetic diversity in bacteria. The three major forms of prokaryotic genetic exchange are distinguished by the form of the donor DNA. In Transformation, there is direct uptake of donor DN by the recipient cells, which may be natural or forced In Transduction, the donor DNA is carried in bacteriophage and is transferred to the recipient by the mechanism used for phage infection In Conjugation, the donor cell contribute energy and building blocks to the synthesis of new DNA strand, which is physically transferred into the recipient cell, usually by a tube called sex pilus Ref: Ananthanarayan & panickers textbook of microbiology 8th edition page no:72 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tornwaldt cyst is | [
"Laryngeal cyst",
"Nasopharyngeal cyst",
"Ear cyst",
"None"
] | B | Thornwaldt's disease or Pharyngeal bursitis is an infection of pharyngeal bursa located in the midline of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx. Ref: Textbook of ENT, Dhingra; 6th edition; Pg no: 245 ref img | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs causes osteoporosis on long term use: | [
"Etidronate",
"Prednisolone",
"Phenytoin",
"Calcitriol"
] | B | Ans. (B) Prednisolone(Ref: KDT 8/e p318)* Etidronate and phenytoin cause osteomalacia whereas calcitriol is used in treatment of osteoporosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Asepsis means: | [
"Absence of pathogenic microbes",
"Disinfection of the surface",
"Prevention of infection",
"Destroying all forms of microorganisms"
] | A | The term asepsis refers to any practice that prevents the entry of infectious agents into sterile tissues and thus prevents infection.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page: 25 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23 year old female with type I diabetes presented with 6 weeks of amenorrhea. Her urine pregnancy test turned to be positive. Her sugar levels are not in control. The child may have all of the following abnormalities, EXCEPT: | [
"Chromosomal abnormalities",
"Caudal regression",
"Renal agenesis",
"Duplex ureter"
] | A | Diabetes is not associated with increased risk for fetal chromosomal abnormalities. Congenital malformations in infants of women with ove diabetes: Caudal regression Situs inversus Spina bifida, hydrocephaly, or other central nervous system defects Anencephaly Cardiac anomalies Anal/rectal atresia Renal anomalies Agenesis Cystic kidney Duplex ureter Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 52. Diabetes. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the shoest stage in sex cycle? | [
"Excitement",
"Resolution",
"Orgasm",
"Desire phase"
] | C | Orgasm phase has the shoest duration and lasts for 3-15 seconds There are 4 stages seen in this cycle- 1. Desire- Characterized by a desire to have a sexual act. 2.Excitement(Arousal)- In this physiological changes are seen like erection in males, vaginal lubrication in females. 3.Orgasm- It is the smallest phase , in males peaking of pleasure along with ejaculation and in females there is involuntary contraction of vagina 4. Resolution- Body goes back to its normal state, lasts for 10 - 15 minutes or may continue for half a day in the absence of orgasm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypophosphatemia is seen in all except: | [
"Acute renal failure",
"Resolving phases of diabetic ketocidosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis / COPD",
"Chronic alcoholism"
] | A | Answer is A (Acute renal failure): Renal insufficiency is associated with hyperphosphatemia due to impaired renal phosphate excretion. Acute renal failure: 'Mild Hyperphosphatemia is an almost invariable complication of Acute Renal Failure. Severe hyperphosphatemia may develop in highly catabolic patients or following rhabdomyolysis, hemolysin or tumor lysis.' -- Harrison 16th / 1650 Diabetic ketoacidosis or Metabolic acidosis from any other causes may be associated with hyperphosphatemia from transcellular phosphatic shifts. However resolving phases of diabetic ketoacidosis are associated with hypophosphatemia and not hyperphosphatemia. This is a result of insulin therapy for diabetic ketoacidosis. Causes of hyperphosphatemia Causes of hypophosphatemia Metabolic acidosis Insulin therapy of diabetic ketoacidosis or prolonged (Lactic acidosis / Diabetic Ketoacidosis) hyperglycemia. Laboratory values in DKA / Harrison 6th / 323 - 324 Phosphate values are : decreased (large changes occurs during treatment of DKA Also note that total body stores of phosphorus (Also potassium, sodium, chloride, magnesium) are reduced in DKA, but are not accurately reflected by their levels (serum values may be increased) because of dehydration and hyperglycemia. -- Harrison Respiratory alkalosis is associated with hypophosphatemia by causing intracellular shift of phosphorus into cells. Hypophosphatemia * Hyperphosphatemia Metalbolic alkalosis * Metabolic acidosis Respiratory alkalosis * Respiratory acidosis Chronic alcoholism / Alcoholism is known to cause hypophosphatemia. -- Harrison 16th / 881 Severe hypophosphatemia is common and multifactorial in alcoholic patients. Chronic alcohol use results in a decrease in the renal threshold of phosphate excretion.' -- CMDT Patients with COPD and Asthma commonly have hypophosphatemia. This is attributed to xanthine derivatives causing shifts of phosphate intracellularly and the phosphaturic effects of beta -- adrenergic agonists, loop diuretics, xanthine derivatives and coicosteroids. -- CMDT 2006 / 88 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In renal transplant graft is placed in - | [
"Upper retroperitoneal space",
"Iliac fossa",
"Normal anatomical site of kidney",
"Anywhere"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iliac fossa | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about 0-oxidation except: | [
"Activation of FA is a must",
"Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I is present in outer mitochondrial membrane",
"Carnitine palmitoyl trasferase II is present in mitochondrial matrix",
"FA activation requires 2ATP."
] | C | C i.e. Carnitine palmitoyl trasf erase II is present in mitochondrial matrix Long chain activated fatty acid penetrate the inner mitochondria( membrane only in combination with carnitineQ. Carnitine, a carrier molecule, acts like a ferry boat and transpo long chain acyl- CoA across mitochondiral membrane otherwise inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to acyl -CoA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Condyloma accminatum is caused by HPV types of | [
"18,31",
"17,12",
"6,11",
"16,18"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6,11 . High risk HPV: HPV-16, 18, 31, 33 & 45 ---> associated with cervical cancer. . Low risk HPV: HPV- 6 & 11 --> associated with precursor lesions CM and condyloma accuminatum . HPV-5 & 8 associated with squamous cell cancer in patients with epidermodysplasia verruciformis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cardiac msucle functions as both electrical and mechanical syncytium. The structual basis of this ability is | [
"T tubule system",
"Intercalated disks",
"Striated nature of the contractile system",
"Extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of early cases of vocal nodules is ? | [
"Excision",
"Laser Ablation",
"Voice therapy",
"Tissue sampling followed by definitive therapy"
] | C | Ans. is'c'i.e., Voice therapyEarly cases of vocal nodules can be treated conservatively by educating the patient in proper use of voice.Many nodules especially in children, disappear with this treatment'Surgery is required for large nodules or long standing nodules in adults.Microscopic (microlaryngoscopic) erosion is the treatment of choice, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bih rate is | [
"Live bih X 1000\\/ mid yr. Population",
"Bih X 1000\\/ mid yr population",
"Live bih X 10000\\/ mid yr. Population",
"Live bih X 10000\\/Population of reproductive age group (15-45)"
] | A | Bih rate = number of live bihs during the year X 1000/ estimated mid year population. Unsatisfactory measure of feility because the total population is not exposed to child bearing. Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 488 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following disease may be acquired by ingestion except - | [
"Taeniasis",
"Guinea worm",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Leishmaniasis"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non polar lipid act as | [
"Electrical insulators",
"Ions",
"Non electrical insulators",
"Electrolytes"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best radiological investigation in a case of suspected splenic rupture? | [
"CT",
"USG",
"MRI",
"Peritoneal rupture"
] | A | CT can clearly show the extend of splenic injury. It can also distinguish the ble poion of the spleen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a vesiculobullous disorder? | [
"SSSS",
"Darier's disease",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Pityriasis rosea"
] | D | Pityriasis rosea is a papulosquamous disorder caused by HHV6 and HHV7 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children | [
"Acqueductal stenosis",
"Aquaductal gliosis",
"Subarachnoid hemorrhage",
"Tubercular meningitis"
] | A | Aqueducts stenosis is most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in children. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination- | [
"128 Hz",
"256 Hz",
"512 Hz",
"1024 Hz"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 512 Hz o Commonly used tuning fork has a frequency of 512 Hz-o Forks of other frequencies, e.g. 256 and 1024 Hz should also be available. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allosteric inhibitors of TCA cycle are all except? | [
"ADP",
"ATP",
"NADH",
"Succinly CoA"
] | A | Regulation of TCA cycle As the primary function of TCA cycle is to provide energy, respiratory control the respiratory chain (ETC) and oxidative phosphorylation regulates citric acid cycle activity. Excess of ATP, NADH and succinyl-CoA which signals high energy status of the cell, inhibit TCA cycle. ADP and NAD+ stimulate the cycle as these signal low energy status. Regulation occurs at three allosteric enzyms by allosteric modulation :- i) Citrate synthase :- It is inhibited by ATP, long-chain acyl-CoA, and succinyl CoA. ii) Isocitrate dehydrogenase :- It is activated by ADP and is inhibited by ATP and NADH. iii) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex :- It is inhibits by succinyl-CoA and NADH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are drug of choice for all of the following conditions EXCEPT: | [
"Acute panic attack",
"Social phobia",
"Post traumatic stress disorder",
"Generalized anxiety disorder"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spalding's sign occurs after - | [
"Bih of live fetus",
"Death of fetus in uterus",
"Rigor mois of infant",
"Cadaaveric spasm"
] | B | Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.378 A dead born child is one which has died in utero, and shows any one of the sign like,maceration, putrefication,mummification or rigor mous after it is completely born. Maceration- This is process of aseptic autolysis. The cell break down due to enzymatic activity, and the body becomes soft and flaccid. The cerebral hemispheres shrink in size. As a result, bones of cranial vault loosen and begin to override each other. This overriding of the cranial bones seen on X-ray is called Spalding&;s sign. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tongue muscle which is NOT developed from occipital myotome: | [
"Styloglossus",
"Hyoglossus",
"Genioglossus",
"Palatoglossus"
] | D | Tongue muscles develop from occipital myotomes except palatoglossus, which develop in pharyngeal arches.
All tongue muscles are supplied by hypoglossal nerve except palatoglossus (supplied by the vagus accessory complex). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest ocular sign of hypothyroidism is | [
"Cataract",
"Glaucoma",
"Band-shaped keratopathy",
"Uveitis"
] | A | Cataract - hypothyroidism
Darlymple sign - Graves disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Werner syndrome is | [
"MEN-I",
"MEN-II",
"Premature ageing",
"Defective sirutins"
] | C | Patients with Werner syndrome show premature ageing due to the defect in DNA helicase enzyme, a protein involved in DNA replication and repair and other functions requiring DNA unwinding.Wermer syndrome is MEN-1 (note the spelling)Robbins 9th edition 66 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raju, a 30–year–old male presents to the OPD with sudden onset pain, swelling and redness of the left first metatarsophalangeal joint. A needle aspirate of the joint shows needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. The physician prescribed a drug for the patient, but he came back next day with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea after taking the medication. Which of the following is the most likely drug that was prescribed to this patient ? | [
"Allopurinol",
"Colchicine",
"Steroids",
"Indomethacin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Breast milk at room temperature stored for | [
"4 hrs",
"8 hrs",
"12 hrs",
"24 hrs"
] | B | Breast milkCan be stored at room temperature for 8-10 hoursIn a refrigerator for 24 hoursIn a freezer for 3 months(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 286 - 290) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Definitive host for Guinea worm is - | [
"Man",
"Cyclops",
"Snail",
"Cyclops and man"
] | A | Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm): organism-Guinea worm/medina worm/serpent worm habitat- subcutaneous nodules DH-humans IH- cyclops(lobsters, crabs shrimps) MOI-ingestion of drinking water from stagnant pools containing minute fresh water crustaceans (Cyclops)infested with L3 Larvae | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of following concentration of IV fluid is hypeonic in nature? | [
"5% dextrose",
"0.45% normal saline",
"0.9% normal saline",
"3% normal saline"
] | D | 3% saline is a hypeonic fluid. It contains 856 Na+ and 856Cl-. Other examples of hypeonic fluids are 5% NaCl, 5% Dextrose in 0.45% NaCl, 5% Dextrose in 0.9% NaCl, 10% Dextrose in 0.9% NaCl and 5% Dextrose in RL. Isotonic fluids are: Dextrose 2.5% in 0.45% saline Dextrose 5% in 0.2% saline Dextrose 5% in water Ringer's Lactate 0.9% Normal saline Dextran 70% in NS Hypotonic fluid: Sodium chloride 0.45% Ref: Medical-Surgical Nursing: An Integrated Approach By Lois White, 2nd edn, page 198 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Continuous administration of GnRH | [
"Stimulates hypothalamic - pituitary axis",
"Suppresses hypothalamic - pituitary axis",
"May suppress or stimulate hypothalomic -pituitary axis",
"Has no effect on hypothalamic - pituitary axis"
] | B | Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) a decapeptide hormone from the hypothalamus that stimulates the anterior pituitary to release both follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.Endocrine hormone synthesis and secretion is controlled and regulated by a closed loop system. Negative feedback loops maintain optimal levels of each hormone in the body. If there are abnormally high levels of a hormone in the blood, feedback to the gland responsible for its production inhibits secretion. If there are abnormally low levels, the gland is stimulated to step up production and secretion. In this way, a homeostatic balance is maintained.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a known adverse effect of lithium? | [
"Agranulocytosis",
"Altered judgement",
"Aplastic anemia",
"Hypothyroidism"
] | D | Patients on lithium chronically may develop iatrogenic hypothyroidism. (Approx. 5% of patients taking the drug > 18 months.) Lithium exes this effect by interfering with the synthesis and release of thyroid hormone. Thus any patient experiencing prolonged depressive symptoms while taking lithium needs to have his/her thyroid assessed Agranulocytosis is commonly repoed for patients taking the atypical antipsychotic drug clozapine or carbamazepine, which is sometimes employed as a second-line treatment for bipolar disorder. Altered judgement is incorrect. Neurological side effects of lithium include tremor, chorea athetosis, ataxia, motor hyperactivity, dysahria, and aphasia. Lithium is not known to cause aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia is a serious potential adverse effect of the mood stabilizer carbamazepine. Carbamazepine would present an alternative to lithium in this patient, but a periodic blood count must be performed to assess for aplastic anemia Ref: Meyer J.M. (2011). Chapter 16. Pharmacotherapy of Psychosis and Mania. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of death in carcinoma is : | [
"Haemorrhage",
"Uraemia",
"Infection",
"Metastasis"
] | B | Uraemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
percentage of moality in anorexia nervosa is | [
"75",
"8",
"45",
"25"
] | B | Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antagonist of benzodiazepine is : | [
"Naltrexone",
"Flumazenil",
"Naloxone",
"N–Acetyl–cysteine"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Psychological disorder most commonly associated with myxedema | [
"Mania",
"Depression",
"Phobia",
"Paronia"
] | B | B i.e. Depression | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following hormone is synthesized from the amino acid Tyrosine? | [
"Calcitriol",
"Calcitonin",
"Thyroxin",
"Coisol"
] | C | The thyroid hormones triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) in the colloid of the thyroid also are derived from tyrosine. In dopaminergic cells in the brain, tyrosine is conveed to levodopa by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase (TH). Tyrosine is also the precursor to the pigment melanin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alkaline diuresis is treatment of choice in poisoning with ? | [
"Benzodiazepine",
"Barbiturates",
"Dhatura",
"Morphine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Barbiturate poisoning Elimination of poison from circulation can be by following methods :? A) Forced diuresis with or without alteration of urinary pH Diuresis and ion trapping alteration of urinary pH may prevent the renal reabsorption of poisons that under go excretion by glomerular filteration and active tubular secretion. Forced diuresis may be of following types :? 1) Alkaline diuresis : Poisons which are trapped and excreted in alkaline urine are barbiturates (phenobarbitone), chlorpropamide, diffunisol, sulfonamides and salicylates. 2) Acid diuresis : It is done for amphetamines, cocaine, strychnine, phencyclidine, quinidine, quinine, chloroquine, TCA and tocainide. 3) Saline diuresis : It is useful for alcohol, thallium, bromide, lithium, fluoride, chromium, potassium and isoniazide. B) Extracorporal removal therapies These are peritoneal dialysis, hemodialysis, hemoperfusion (resin or charcol), hemofiltration, plasmapheresis and exchange transfusion. Commonly used procedures are :? 1) Haemodialysis : It is useful in poisoning with alcohol (ethanol and methanol), aspirin (salicylates), acetone, atenolol, acetaminophen, barbiturates (phenobarbitone), bromide, boric acid, chloral hydrate, ethylene glycol, fluoride, lithium, trivalent arsenic, procainamide, theophylline, thiocyanate, sodium chlorate and sotalol. Hemodialysis is not useful in copper sulphate, benzodiazepines, organophosphates, kerosine and digitalis poisonings. In all poisonings, where hemodialysis is indicated peritoneal dialysis is also used with one more indication of mercury poisoning. 2) Hemoperfusion (chorcol or resin) : It is used in acetaminophen, barbiturates carbamazepine, chloral hydrate, caffeine, CC14, chloramphenical, phenytoin, procainamide, salicylates, theophylline, valproate, dapsone and methotrexate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mad cow disease is due to – | [
"Slow virus",
"Mycoplasma",
"Bacteria",
"Fungus"
] | A | Mad cow disease or bovine spongiform encephalopathy i.e. Caused by “prions”
“PRIONS” are unconventional transmissible agents, proteinaceous in nature.”
Diseases caused by prions are
Kuru
Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease.
Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker Syndrome
Fatal Familial Insomnia.
Scrapie Of Sheep
Transmissible Encephalopathy of Mink.
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sudeck's atrophy is associated with: | [
"Osteoporosis",
"Osteophyte formation",
"Osteopenia",
"Osteochondritis"
] | C | C i.e. Osteopenia | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding glucose tolerance test are all except: September 2007 | [
"Can be done in fasting as well as post prandial state",
"1 gram of glucose/kg body weight is administered",
"Glucose levels are checked after 2 hours",
"Diagnosis of diabets mellitus can be established"
] | A | Ans. A: Can be done in fasting as well as post prandial stateOral GTT is done in fasting state.Blood glucose values return back to below normal in non diabetics in about 2 hours whereas blood glucose in diabetics rises too much and levels fall back to control only after 4-6 hours. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gustafson's method used for age estimation of tooth includes all except - | [
"Primary dentition",
"Root resorption",
"Root transparency",
"Attrition"
] | A | Gustafsons method uses attrition, periodontosis, secondary dentin, cementum apposition, root resorption and transparency of root to determine age of adult from dentition. Ref: Dr.Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 36. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about mycoplasma - | [
"Obligate intracellular organism",
"Penicillin is effective treatment",
"Require cholesterol for growth",
"Have thick cell wall"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child has respiratory infection with membrane over Peritonsillar area. Swab was taken from the local area. The appropriate media for culture is - | [
"L.J. media",
"Blood tellurite media",
"Cary media",
"Loeffler serum slope"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blood tellurite media | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia with increased urobilinogen is seen in - | [
"Hemolytic anemia",
"Liver cirrhosis",
"Bile duct obstruction",
"Sclerosing cholangitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Flutamide is used in CA ? | [
"Cervix",
"Prostate",
"Kidneys",
"Liver"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Prostate Flutamide It is a nonsteroidal drug. Has antiandrogenic but no other hormonal activity. Its active metabolite 2-hydroxyflutamide competitively blocks androgen action on accessory sex organs as well as on pituitary - inceases LH secretion by blocking feed back inhibition - testosterone secretion increases which paially overcome the direct antiandrogenic action. It is used in metastatic prostatic carcinoma. It is better used in conjuction with GnRH agonist to suppress LH and testosterone secretion. Repos of liver damage have restricted its use. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in – | [
"Physiological jaundice",
"Breast milk jaundice",
"Gilbert syndrome",
"All of these"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left sided poal hypeension is best treated by: | [
"Splenectomy",
"Poocaval shunt",
"Lienorenal shunt",
"Splenorenal shunt"
] | A | Acute pancreatitis - Splenic vein thrombosis & pseudo-aneurysm formation in splenic aery - Splenomegaly - Gastric varices Mainly along greater curvature of the stomach & fundus Left sided poal hypeension is also called as SINISTRAL hypeension TOC is splenectomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kohler's disease involves: | [
"Femoral head",
"Navicular bone",
"Tibial tubercle",
"Lunate bone"
] | B | (Navicular bone) (269-M)Common osteochondritisNameSite affected* Perthes' disease- Femoral disease* Fanner's disease- Capitulum* Keinbock's disease- Lunate bone* Osgood shlatter's disease- Tibial tubercle* Sever's disease- Calcaneal tuberosity* Kohler's disease- Novicular bone* Fricberg's disease- Metatarsal head* Scheurmann's disease- Ring epiphysis of vertebrae* Calve's disease- Central bony nucleus of vertebral body | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not represent a significant anaesthetic problem in the morbidly obese patient ? | [
"Difficulties in endotracheal intubation",
"Suboptimal arterial oxygen tension",
"Increased metabolism of volatile agents",
"Decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass"
] | D | Cardiac output is increased (not decreased) in morbid obesity. There is difficult intubation, hypoxemia and rapid metabolism of volatile anesthetics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eteplirsen has been recently FDA approved for the treatment of | [
"Duchenne muscular dystrophy",
"Spinal muscular atrophy",
"SSPE",
"AML"
] | A | Duchenne muscular dystrophy: MC hereditary neuromuscular disease in children. X-linked recessive deletion of dystrophin gene ( Xp 21)- one of the largest gene C/F: More common in males. Family history present Pseudohyperophy of calf muscles Cardiac involvement Recurrent respiratory infection Proximal muscle weakness in limbs Intellectual disability 'GOWER SIGN'is positive- Gowers' sign indicates weakness of the proximal muscles, esp of the lower limb. Mx- Phase 3 trials have shown benefits from ETEPLIRSEN - FDA APPROVED | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Irritable bowel syndrome",
"Ulcerative Colitis",
"Crohn's disease",
"Amebiasis"
] | A | IBS is a disorder for which no pathognomonic abnormalities are identified. Females are more commonly affected. People of all age groups are affected, but most have the onset of symptoms before 45 years. Patients usually presents with recurrent lower abdominal pain, abdominal bloating and altered bowel habits. Stool is accompanied by large amount of mucus, Bleeding is not a feature. Symptoms occur at times of stress or emotion. Ref: Harrison's principles of internal medicine 18th edition, Chapter 296; Current medical diagnosis and treatment 2012, Chapter 35; Current medical diagnosis and treatment 2012, Chapter 15. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In undisplaced fracture of neck of femur the ideal treatment includes | [
"Skeletal traction",
"Internal fixation",
"Femoral head prosthesis",
"Each of the above as similar prospects and results"
] | B | (B) Internal fixation > Notwithstanding the advances in joint replacement, for most patients the principles of treatment are as of old: accurate reduction, secure internal fixation and early activity. The reduction is assessed by x-ray.> The femoral head should be positioned correctly so that the stress trabeculae are aligned close to their normal position in both anteroposterior and lateral views Once the fracture is reduced, it is held with cannulated screws or a sliding screw and sideolate which attaches to the femoral shaft Usually two cannulated screws will suffice; they should lie parallel and extend to within 5 it m of the subchondral bone plate; in the lateral view they must be central in the head and neck and in the anteroposterior view the distal screw ideally should lie against the inferior cortex of the neck | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40 year old male patient is hospitalised with huge splenomegaly, marked sternal tenderness, and a total leucocyte count of 85,000 per cubic millimetre with large percentage of myelocytes and meta myelocytes, which one of the following drugs is best indicated for his disease ? | [
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Chlorambucil",
"Melphation",
"Hydroxyurea"
] | D | Chronic phase of CML begins as a proliferative disorder & consists of excessive proliferation of myeloid cells of intermediate grade(myelocytes & metamyelocytes) & mature segmented neutrophils.Drugs used in chronic phase of CML include imatinib,dasatinib, nilotinib, or classical cytotoxic drugs such as hydroxycarbamide(hydroxyurea) or interferon. Reference:Davidson's principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1039. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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