question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the following function is done by RNAi in a gene? | [
"Knock in",
"Knockout",
"Knockdown",
"Knock up"
] | C | Ans. (c) Knock down(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 3-4)Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs)*Short RNA sequences introduced experimentally into cells*Their action is similar to endogenous miRNAs.*Synthetic siRNAs targeted against specific mRNA have become useful laboratory tools to study gene function (so-called "knockdown technology") | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shoest diameter is : | [
"Diagonal conjugate",
"Obstetric conjugate",
"True conjugate",
"All are equal"
] | B | Obstetric conjugate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anesthetic drugs produces powerful stimulation of the cerebral cortex | [
"Cocaine",
"Procaine",
"Lidocaine",
"Tetracaine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest cancer of oral cavity is | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Melanoma",
"Sarcoma",
"Squaous cell carcinoma"
] | D | Ans. (d) Squamous cell carcinomaRef: Devita 9th edition, page 729* Most common site oral Cancer: Carcinoma Tongue > Carcinoma Lip* Most common histological type: Squamous Cell Cancer* Most common site of oral Cancer in India: Cancer of Buccal Mucosa* Max Risk of L.N. Metastasis: Carcinoma Tongue* Min Risk of L.N Metastasis: Carcinoma lip > hard palate* Most common age: 50-60 years | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multipurpose worker covers a population - | [
"1000",
"3000",
"5000",
"10000"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5000 * One male health worker (multipurpose worker) covers a population of -# 5000 in plains# 3000 in hilly / tribal / backward areas | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basal ganglia is involved primarily in: | [
"Planning and programming of voluntary movements",
"Processing of cognitive functions",
"Sensory-motor integration",
"Language function"
] | A | Planning and programming of voluntary | train | med_mcqa | null |
Functions of estrogen are all EXCEPT | [
"Secretory function on endometrium",
"Synthetic function on endometrium",
"Causes secondary sexual characters in female",
"Breast enlargement during pubey"
] | A | Secretory function on endometrium REF: Ganong's 22ed chapter 23 Organ Estrogen Progesterone Vagina Epithelium becomes cornified A thick mucus is secreted, and the epithelium proliferates and becomes infiltrated with leukocytes Fallopian tubes Increase the motility of the uterine tubes Ovary Follicular or preovulatory Luteal Endometrium Proliferative Secretory, It also decreases the number of estrogen receptors in the endometrium and increases the rate of conversion of 17 -estradiol to less active estrogens. Body of uterus Increase the amount of uterine muscle and its content of contractile proteins Anti-estrogenic effect on the myometrial cells, decreasing their excitability, their sensitivity to oxytocin, and their spontaneous electrical activity while increasing their membrane potential. Cervix Mucus thinner and more alkaline Mucus thick, tenacious, and cellular Breast Proliferation of mammary ducts Growth of lobules and alveoli | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of basal ganglia- | [
"Temperature regulation",
"Planning & programming of movement",
"Gross motor activity",
"Equilibrium"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Planning & programming of movement Functions of basal gangliao The basal ganglia are involved in planning and programming of movement or more broadly, in the process by which on abstract thought is converted into a voluntary action. Like, lateral cerebellum, neurons in the basal ganglia discharge before the movements begin. They influence the motor cortex via the thalamus, and corticospinal tract is the final common pathway to motor neuron. Putamen circuit is involved in complex pattern motor activity and skilled movement.o Basal ganglia is part of extrapyramida! system and therefore is involved in regulation of tone and posture,o The basal ganglia, particularly the caudate nuclei, also play a role in some cognitive proces - So, caudate nucleus plays a major role in cognitive control of motor activity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Postoperative room after thyroid surgery patient developed sudden respiratory distress. Dressing was removed and it was found to be slightly blood stained and wound was bulging. What will first thing to be done? | [
"Tracheostomy",
"Cricothyroidotomy",
"Laryngoscopy and intubation",
"Remove the stitch and take the patient to operation theatre"
] | D | Postoperative hematomas or bleeding may also complicate thyroidectomies and rarely necessitate emergency reoperation to evacuate the hematoma. Bilateral vocal cord dysfunction with airway compromises requires immediate reintubation and tracheostomy. Seromas may need aspiration to relieve patient discomfo. Ref: Lal G., Clark O.H. (2010). Chapter 38. Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e.a. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by Sarcoptes scabiet, is an example of: | [
"Water borne disease",
"Water washed disease",
"Water based disease",
"Water related disease"
] | D | D i.e. Water related disease Scabies is water washed (category II) water related disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raised calcium and phosphorous seen in: | [
"CRF",
"Vitamin D intoxication",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Pseudohypoparathyroidism"
] | B | Answer is B (Vitamin D intoxication): Vitamin D intoxication is associated with both hypercalcentia and hyperphosphatemia Chronic Renal Failure is associated with hyperphosphatemia and hyporcalcemia Hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia Pseudohypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia Causes of Hyperphosphatemia I. Impaired renal phosphate excretion A. Renal insufficiency B. Hypoparathyroidism Developmental Autoimmune After neck surgery or radiation Activating mutations of the calcium-sensing receptor C. Parathyroid suppression 1. Parathyroid-independent hypercalcemia Vitamin D or Vitamin A intoxication Sarcoidosis, other granulomatous disease Immobilization, osteolytic metastases Milk-alkali syndrome 2. Severe hypermagnesia or hypomagnesemia D. Pseudohypoparathyroidism E. Acromegaly F. Tumoral calcinosis G. Heparin therapy II. Massive extracellular fluid phosphate loads A. Rapid administration of exogenous phosphate (intravenous, oral, rectal) B. Extensive cellular injury or necrosis Crush injuries Rhabdomyolysis Hypehermia Fulminant hepatitis Cytotoxin therapy Severe hemolytic anemia C. Transcellular phosphate shifts Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
For thyroglossal cyst M.C. site is : | [
"Suprahyoid",
"Subhyoid",
"Foramen caecum",
"Anterior border of stemomastoid"
] | B | Ans is 'b' ie Subhyoid Thyroglossal cystIt is cystic swelling developed in the remnant of the thyroglossal duct or tractSite - It may be present in any part of the thyroglossal tract (thyroglossal tract extends from foramen caecum to the isthmus of thyroid)Common sites are:subhyoid (most common)in the region of the thyroid cartilages,suprahyoidin the floor of mouthbeneath the foramen caecumIt is a midline swelling, except in the region of the thyroid cartilage, where the thyroglossal tract is pushed to one side, usually to the left.Though its a congenital swelling most common age of presentation is between 2 to 4 yrs.Mobility - Cyst can be moved sideways but not verticallyPeculiar characterstic which helps in distinguishing thyroglossal cyst from other neck swellingIt moves up with protrusion of tongue* as the thyroglossal tract is attached to the tongue.It also moves with deglutition so do all thyroid swellings, subhyoid bursitis, sublingual desmoid.Cyst is lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium and squamous epithelium with heterotopic thyroid tissue present in 20% of cases..ComplicationsRecurrent infection,formation of thyroglossal fistulacarcinomatous change (usually Papillary carcinoma. *)Treatment - Treatment involves the "Sistrunk operation" which consists of enbloc cystectomy and excision of the central hyoid bone to minimize recurrence.Note -Thyroglossal cyst is congenital but thyroglossal fistula is never congenital. It follows infection or inadequate removal of a thyroglossal cyst. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about complete hydatidiform mole is:a) Chromosome pattern is XXb) It is of maternal originc) Enlarged ovarian cyst occursd) It is common in developed countriese) Associated with preeclampsia | [
"ace",
"bde",
"cde",
"ade"
] | A | The incidence of H. mole is maximum in oriental and south east countries (maximum incidence is in Philippines: 1 in 80 pregnancies) i.e., it is more common in developing countries (option ‘d’ ruled out).
H. mole can be categorized as either complete or partial mole on the basis of Gross morphology, histopathology and karyotype.
Complete H. mole - shows no evidence of fetal tissue at all.
Complete hydatiform moles exhibit characteristic swelling and trophoblastic hyperplasia.
Most common karyotype is 46XX (10% may have a 46XY karyotype).
The molar chromosomes are entirely of paternal origin, although mitochondrial DNA is of maternal origin.
The complete moles arises from an ovum that has been fertilized by a haploid sperm, which then duplicates its own chromosomes called as Androgenesis. The ovum nucleus may be either absent or inactivated.
Theca lutein cysts in ovary and preeclampsia (Early onset) are seen in H mole | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diaphragm develops from all of the following structures, except? | [
"Septum transversum",
"Pleuroperitoneal membrane",
"Cervical myotomes",
"Dorsal mesocardium"
] | D | The diaphragm is, therefore, formed from the following components Pleuroperitoneal membranes forms posterior pa of central tendon. Dorsal mesentry of esophagus forms crus of diaphragm. Body wall forms peripheral pa of diaphragm. cervical myotomes forms muscles of diaphragm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Locking of the knee joint is caused by the contraction of: | [
"Popliteus",
"Biceps femoris",
"Semimembranosus",
"Quadriceps femoris"
] | D | Ans. D. Quadriceps femorisLocking of the knee happens during the last stages of extension when a person is standing up. Medial rotation of femur occurs during locking movement. This movement is aided by oblique pull of the ligaments of the knee joint and contraction of the quadriceps muscles. The ligaments are pulled taut when the knee joint is locked in place during standing. When the knee is flexed, it is unlocked by the popliteus muscle through the lateral rotation of femur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common early complication of end ileostomy is | [
"dermatitis",
"Necrosis",
"Prolapse",
"Hernia"
] | B | Early commplication - necrosis.
Late commplication - prolapse. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of following is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination | [
"Microaneurysms",
"Retinal hemorrhages",
"Aeriolar dilatation",
"Neovascularisation"
] | C | C i.e. Aeriolar dilatation In diabetic retinopathy aeriolar changes consist of narrowing Q (not dilation) silver-wiring and obliteration resembling branch retinal aery occlusion. And venous changes are bending, looping and sausage like segmentation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The treatment of early stage of East African sleeping sickness is – | [
"Pentamidine",
"Eflornithine",
"Suramin",
"Melarsopol"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which diagnostic procedure is not done in a dilated pupil? | [
"Gonioscopy",
"Laser inferometry",
"Fundus examination",
"Electroretinography"
] | A | Ans. a. Gonioscopy (Ref: Khurana 5/e p578; Basics and Clinical Science Course. American Academy of Ophthalmology, 2012-13; Sec 10, p46)Gonioscopy is not done in a dilated pupil.Gonioscopy is done in dark room with minimum slit lamp light. Pupil contraction will falsely open up the angle. Likewise pupillary dilatation will cause crowding of the iris at angle and angle appears as closed."By gonioscopy angle structures are assessed, especially relationship of root of iris and trabecular meshwork in normal physiological state. To avoid pupillary contraction, it is done in dark room with minimum slit lamp light." - Basics and Clinical Science Course. American Academy of Opthalmology, 2012-13; Sec 10, p46 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vitamin is used in the electron transpo chain? | [
"Thiamine",
"Riboflavin",
"Nicotinic acid",
"Vitamin B12"
] | B | The biologically active forms, in which riboflavin serves as the prosthetic group (as coenzyme) of a number of enzymes are the phosphorylated derivatives. Two main derivatives are: * FMN (Flavin mononucleotide): In this the phosphoric acid is attached to ribityl alcoholic group in position 5. Flavin-Ribityl-PO4 * FAD (Flavin adenine nucleotide): It may be linked to an adenine nucleotide through a pyrophosphate linkage to form FAD. Flavin-ribityl-P-P-ribose-Adenine Thus, FMN and FAD are two coenzymes of this vitamin. FMN constitutes in * Warburg's yellow enzyme * Cytochrome-C-reductaseRef: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 180 | train | med_mcqa | null |
5 year old child with watery diarrhea for 7 days, on examination, weight = 10 kg, hanging skin folds with normal skin pinch, Sodium in ORS should be - | [
"45 meq/Lit",
"60 meq/Lit",
"75 meq/Lit",
"90 meq/Lit"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 75 meq/Lit | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best test for ble myocardium after MI? | [
"Thallium scan",
"MUGA scan",
"MDCT",
"Stress Echocardiography"
] | A | A thallium scan is a class I indication for Risk assessment, prognosis, and assessment of therapy after STE acute myocardial infarction and can be used to determine the following : 1. Rest or exercise RV/LV function 2. Presence/extent of stress-induced ischemia 3. Detection of infarct size and residual ble myocardium 4. Diagnosis, prognosis, and assessment of therapy in patients with unstable angina/NSTEMI | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest symptom associated with thoracic outlet syndrome is:- | [
"Intermittent claudication",
"Pain in radial distribution",
"Pain in ulnar distribution",
"Gangrene"
] | C | Clinical Features In > 90% of cases, neurogenic manifestations are repoed. Ulnar nerve (C8-T1) involvement is most common Motor weakness and atrophy of the hypothenar and interosseous muscles Pain and paresthesia along the medial aspect of the arm, hand, 5th finger and medial aspect of 4th finger. | train | med_mcqa | null |
lntra ocular pressure rises in ? | [
"Intubation & laryngoscopy",
"LMA",
"Infusion of IV propofol",
"Bag and mask ventilation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., I ntubation & laryngoscopy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest site of Ivory osteoma ? | [
"Frontal-Ethmodial region",
"Mandible",
"Maxilla",
"Sphenoid"
] | A | Osteoma Osteoma is a slow growing tumor formed by mature bone tissue. Osteoma are commonly seen in fronto-ethmoid region. The most common sites of osteomas are the frontal sinus followed by ethmoid and maxillary sinuses. They are rare in the sphenoid sinus and extremely rare on temporal and occipital squama. Three histological patterns are recognised : - i) Ivory osteoma (i.e., iburnated osteoma) : - Most common and composed of dense, compact and lamellar bone with lack of Haversion system. ii) Mature (osteoma spongiosum) : - Resembles normal bone, including trabecular bone often with marrow. iii) Mixed type : Mixed elements of above two. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Present " total feility rates" | [
"2.2",
"3.6",
"1.3",
"4.5"
] | A | Total feility rate : As per 2017 census is 2.2 Ref : Census of India, GOI Park 25th edition Pgno : 540 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a suicidal enzyme | [
"Cyclooxygenase",
"Lipooxygenase",
"5-nucleotidase",
"Thrombaxane synthase"
] | A | Cyclooxygenase is a "Suicide Enzyme""Switching off " of prostaglandin activity is paly achieved by a remarkable propey of cyclooxygenase--that of self-catalyzed destruction; that is, it is a "suicide enzyme." Fuhermore, the inactivation of prostaglandins by 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase is rapid. Blocking the action of this enzyme with sulfasalazine or indomethacin can prolong the half-life of prostaglandins in the body.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 23; Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids & Eicosanoids | train | med_mcqa | null |
For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are | [
"1-123",
"Cs-137",
"Co-60",
"Tc-99"
] | C | C i.e. Co-60 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brown atrophy is due to accumulation of | [
"Melanin",
"Hemosiderin",
"Hematin",
"Lipofuscin"
] | D | Lipofuscin, or "wear-and-tear pigment," is an insoluble brownish-yellow granular intracellular material that accumulates in a variety of tissues (paicularly the hea, liver, and brain) as a function of age or atrophy. Lipofuscin is complexes of lipid and protein that derive from the free radical-catalyzed peroxidation of polyunsaturated lipids of subcellular membranes. It is not injurious to the cell but is a marker of past free radical injury. The brown pigment, when present in large amounts, impas an appearance to the tissue that is called brown atrophy.( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 24 ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17 year old girl with acne has been taking a drug for the last two years.She now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails.The likely medication causing above pigmentation is- | [
"Tetracycline",
"Minocyclin",
"Doxycycline",
"Azithromycin"
] | B | Mincycline induced pigmentation in acne- due to accumulation of iron in dermal macrophages occur with prolonged therapy 1-3 years high dose 200-300mg/day three different patterns - Localised at sites of previous inflammation -acne scars pretibial area generalised over the sun exposed sites and nails Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1213 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Necrotizing pappillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions except - | [
"Sickle cell disease",
"Tuberculous pyelonephritis",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Analgesic nephropathy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tuberculous Pyelonephritiso Necrotizing pappilitis is also known as papillary necrosis.o For causes see above explanation.o Diagnostic features are -Passage of necrotic tissue in urine. Ring shadow on pyelography. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Suckback porosity in the casting can be eliminated by: | [
"Increasing the mold metal temperature difference",
"Increasing the flow of molten metal",
"Flaring the point of the sprue attachment",
"None of the above"
] | C | Flaring of the sprue former may act in much the same way as a reservoir, facilitating the entry of the fluid alloy into the pattern area.
If possible, the sprue former should be attached to the portions of the pattern with the largest cross-sectional areas.
It is best for the molten alloy to flow from a thick section to surrounding thin areas (e.g., the margins) rather than the reverse.
This design minimizes the risk of turbulence. Also, the orientation of the sprue former should minimize the risk for metal flow onto flat areas of the investment or onto small areas such as line angles.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 214 | train | med_mcqa | null |
No color change is seen in subconjunctival hemorrhage due to: WB 09 | [
"Continuous CO2 supply",
"Little amount of blood is present",
"Continuous O2 supply",
"Color change occurs but not visible to naked eye"
] | C | Ans. Continuous O2 supply | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Double duct' sign is diagnostic of | [
"Periampullary carcinoma",
"Gallbladder carcinoma",
"Klatskin's carcinoma",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma"
] | A | In pancreatic carcinoma(periampullary carcinoma) , the main pancreatic duct may be narrowed or completely obstructed at the site of the tumour, or the distal bile duct may be narrowed. Concurrent narrowing of both ducts results in the so called double duct signReference : page 1134 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Butcher's thigh is? | [
"Vastus lateral rupture",
"Subcutaneous lipodermatosclerosis",
"Bursa in adductor canal",
"Accidental injury to major vessels in thigh or groin"
] | D | Accidental injury to major vessels in thigh or groin REF: Bailey & Love's Sho practice of surgery 18th edition Page 147, 69 (in older editions) Butcher's thigh is penetrating wound of femoral triangle due to knife slipping while boning meat. Penetrating wound involving main veins in the thigh or groin are potentially fetal, as exsanguination may follow the first aid dressing which has apparently controlled the bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which naevi commonly predispose to malignant melanoma ? | [
"Dermal",
"Junctional",
"Congenital",
"Lentigo"
] | C | Malignant transformation is rare and occurs in the following situations: Congenital melanocytic naevi:6% of lesions undergo malignant change , risk of malignant transformation is greater in giant lesions. Dysplastic naevus syndrome: in melanoma prone families. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 382 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about the vagus nerve are true except that it - | [
"Supplies heart & lung",
"Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.",
"Innervates right two third of transverse colon",
"Stimulates peristalsis & relaxes sphincters"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carries postganglionic parasympathic fibres Vagus nerve carries the parasympathetic fibres along with them.These fibres are preganglionic parasympathetic fibres (not postganglionic).These preganglionic parasympathetic fibres then synapse at the ganglia which are located close to the organs they innervate.From this ganglia post ganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate and supply the respective organs.Remember that this is a common feature of all the cranial nerves which carry parasympathetic fibres i.e., Cranial N - III, VII, IX, XThe route of parasympathetic fibres carried by these nerves is :Preganglionic parasympathetic fibres are carried along with the cranial nerve fibres.They synapse in a motor ganglia located very close to or with in the end organ system.From the ganglia, the postganglionic parasympathetic fibres arise.Branches of the vagus nerve (CN X)Auricular bunches - Cutaneous to the external ear.Pharyngeal branch - To pharyngeal plexus, which supplies all muscles of the pharynx and soft palate except stylopharyngeus (CN IX) and tensor palati (mandibular nerve)Superior laryngeal N - Divides into internal and external branchesC1- internal branch of superior laryngeal n; sensory to mucosa above vocal cords.C2- External branch of superior laryngeal n; motor to inferior constrictor muscle and cricothyroid muscle.Recurrent laryngeal nerveCardiac branches - supplies the heartEsophageal plexusAnterior vagal trunk to anterior stomach and liverPosterior vagal trunk to posterior stomach and then (via celiac plexus) to liver, kidney, small intestine and large intestine upto the splenic flexure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest side effect of antihistaminics is? | [
"Sedation",
"Tinnitus",
"Euphoria",
"Lassitude"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sedation o Sedation, diminished aleness, concentration, light headedness, motor in coordination, fatigue and tendency to fall asleep are the most common side effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Necrotic nodules in lung are seen in - | [
"TB",
"Sarcoidosis",
"RA",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o All dieseases given in options can cause pulmonary nodules with necrosis.o Pulmonary nodules with necrosis can be caused by1. Infective causes - TB, Histoplasma, syphilis, coceidiomycosis, Cat's scratch disease.2. Non-infective causes - Wegner's granulomatosis, RA, necrotizing sarcoidosis, hyalinizing granuloma, Idiopathic bronchocentric granulomatosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An investigator wants to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (Yes or No) and incidence of low bih weight (< 2500 or 2500 gms). He collects relevant data form 100 pregnant women as to the status of usage of iron supplements and the status of low bih weight in their newborns. The appropriate statistical test of hypothesis advised in this situation is ? | [
"Paired-t-test",
"Unpaired or independent t-test",
"Analysis of variance",
"Chi-Square test"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chi-square test Dont get confuse with previous question with this one. o Both are different . Read below. In previous question the attribute used was bih weights of newborn babies, which is a quantitative data (each newborn has a paicular bih weight from a continuous spectrum of weight) --> the answer in that question was student t-test (unpaired or independent). o In this question the attribute used is low bih weight. On the basis of low bih weight newborns can be divided into two groups : - i) Being a LBW ii) Not being a LBW So, It is a qualitative data and the test used should be Chi-square test. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enumerate the two structures passing through quadrangular space of back: | [
"Suprascapular artery and Axillary nerve.",
"Subscapular artery and Radial nerve.",
"Posterior circumflex humeral artery and Axillary nerve.",
"Profunda brachii artery and Radial nerve."
] | C | Aru. C. Posterior circumflex humeral artery and Axillary nerve.An-important opening called the quadrangular space is formed by the inferior margin of the teres minor, the shaft of the humerus, the superior margin of teres major and the lateral margin of the long head of the triceps.The axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery pass through this space. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can be used for root biomodification except: | [
"Chlorhexidine",
"Citric acid",
"Tetracycline",
"HCL"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The density of the parafollicular cells or C- cells in the thyroid gland is maximum at the: | [
"Isthmus",
"Posterior pa",
"Juncture of the upper ? and lower 2/3 of the gland",
"Upper ? of the gland"
] | C | The parafollicular cells or C- cells in the thyroid gland is present in all pas of the thyroid gland. Their density is greatest in the juncture of the upper one-third and lower two-thirds of the gland. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2912 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient undergoes total thyroidectomy for a mass lesion of the thyroid. During the surgery, the surgeon notes that the parathyroid glands appeared enlarged. The thyroid lesion shows neuroendocrine-type cells and amyloid deposition. This patient's thyroid and parathyroid lesions may be related to which of the following oncogenes? | [
"bcl-2",
"C-myc",
"erb-B2",
"ret"
] | D | The thyroid lesion is medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. The coexistence of parathyroid hyperplasia suggests Sipple's syndrome (MEN II). These patients also tend to develop pheochromocytoma. Both MEN II and MEN III are associated with the ret oncogene.Associate bcl-2 with follicular and undifferentiated lymphomas.Associate C-myc with Burkitt's lymphoma.Associate erb-B2 with breast, ovarian, and gastric carcinomas. Ref: Busaidy N.L., Habra M.A., Vassilopoulou-Sellin R. (2011). Chapter 38. Endocrine Malignancies. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raised AFP is typically seen in- | [
"Hepatitis",
"Seminoma",
"HCC",
"All of the above"
] | A | Screened for raised afp in chronic hepatitis for early diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma. Were normal adult value must be less than 40. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper segment to lower segment ratio in 3 yr age child is - | [
"12",
"1.3",
"1.4",
"1.6"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1.3 o The lower segment extends from the symphysis pubis to the heels. o The lower segment grows rapidly after bih as compared to upper segment giving rise to the gradual reduction in the upper segment/lower segment ratio with the progression of age. Age Upper segment : Lower segment ratio At bih 1.7 : 1.0 3 years 1.3 -1.0 At 7 years 1.0 : 1.0 Thereafter 1.0:1.1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The true statement about the epidemiology of H.pylori is : | [
"In developed world 80 % of population is affected before the age of 20",
"The prevalence is increasing in developed world",
"Most of the infected are children in developed countries",
"Poor socioeconomic status and less education predisposes to higher colonization rates"
] | D | PREVALENCE OF H.PYLORI: The prevalence of H. pylori varies throughout the world In developing world, 80% of the population are infected by the age of 20. In the United States this organism is rare in childhood. The overall prevalence of H. pylori in the United States is 30% The rate of infection with H. pylori in industrialized countries has decreased in recent decades. ALSO NOTE: Two factors that predispose to higher colonization rates inare Poor socioeconomic status Less education. Other risk factors for H. pylori infection are (1) Bih or residence in a developing country (2) Domestic crowding (3) Unsanitary living conditions (4) Unclean food or water (5) Exposure to gastric contents of an infected individual. Ref: Harrison-E-18,P-2442. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The matrix band for restoring a Class-I with lingual extension is | [
"Tofflemire",
"Ivory No.8",
"Barton",
"T band"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemangioma of the rectuma) Common tumourb) Fatal haemorrhage seenc) Ulcerative colitis like symptoms seend) Acute anal fissure | [
"bc",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | A | Hemangioma of the rectum is an uncommon cause of serious hemorrhage.
When localized in the lower part of the rectum or anal canal, a hemangioma can be excised.
When the lesion is diffuse, or lying in the upper part of the rectum, the symptoms simulate ulcerative colitis.
Diagnosis is often missed for a long period, or it is mistakenly thought to be a carcinoma.
Selective angiography and embolization may be helpful, but excision of the rectum is sometimes required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cause of RF in rhabdomyolysis is - | [
"Increased K",
"Increased P04",
"Increased uric acid",
"Myoglobin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Myoglobin o Muscle destruction leads to release of mvoglobinQ.o The circulating myoglobin becomes free and is filtered(r) by the kidney.o Myoglobin in the renal glomerular filtrate can precipitate and cause renal tubular obstruction, leading to renal damage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young female patient came for routine examination. On examination a mid systolic click was found. There is no history of rheumatic hea disease. The histopathological examination is most likely to show which of the following? | [
"Myxomatous degeneration and prolapse of the mitral valve",
"Fibrinous deposition on the tip of papillary muscle",
"Rupture of chordae tendinae",
"Aschoff nodule on the mitral valve"
] | A | The impoant clues given in the question; Female patient Presenting for Routine examination (means she was asymptomatic) Presence of mid systolic click on physical examination Absence of history of rheumatic hea disease All these are significant pointers towards a diagnosis of mitral valve prolapse or Barlow syndrome. The other name of the same condition is Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve. Most patients with mitral valve prolapse are asymptomatic, and the condition is discovered only on routine examination by the presence of a midsystolic click as an incidental finding on physical examination' | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding Japanese encephalitis disease except: | [
"Man act as reservoir",
"Vector is culex vishnuii",
"Pig vaccination control transmission",
"None is true"
] | A | Japanese encephalitis- Cause - Group B Arbovirus Vector- Culex Amplifier host - pig Actual host - ducks and fowls Accidental host - Man IP-5 - 15 days Vaccines-Live Strath - SA - 14 - 14 - 2 at 9 -16-24 months killed strain - Nakayama , Beijing Pg | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child 4 month old has 10 episodes of vomiting and 2-3 episodes of loose stools and crying since the last 24 hours, best line of management will be ? | [
"Intravenous fluids",
"ORS",
"Intravenous fluids then ORS",
"Hospitalise and treat"
] | B | In the given case baby is crying(irritable,restless state)it denotes some dehydration. so we opt for treatment plan B:patients with some dehydration need to be treated in a health centre .however, oral fluid therapy must be commenced promptly, Rehydration therapy :give 75 ml/kg of ORS in the first 4 hours. Maintainance flulid therapy:when signs of dehydration begins to disappear ,usually within 4 hours, ORS is administered in volume equal to diarrhoea loses. Approximately 10-20 ml /kg bw for each liquid stool Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS, O.P.GHAI, 7 th edition PG NO:264,265 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dicobalt EDTA used as an antidote for which poisoning? | [
"Cyanide",
"Lead",
"Mushroom",
"Mercury"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) CyanideREF: See APPENDIX-42 below for "ANTIDOTES" APPENDIX - 42AntidotesAntidotePoison/drug/toxinN-AcetylcysteineAcetaminophenCarbon tetrachlorideOther hepatotoxinsAmyl nitrite, sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulfate (Cyanide antidote kit)NitrilesBromatesChloratesCyanide (e.g., HCN, KCX and NaCN)Mustard agentsNitroprussideSmoke inhalation (combustion of synthetic materials)Antivenin, Crotalidae Polyvalent (Equine Origin)Pit viper envenomation (e.g. rattlesnakes, cottonmouths, timber rattlers and copperheads)Antivenin, Crotalidae Polyvalent Immune Fab - Ovine (CroFab)Pit viper envenomation (e.g.. rattlesnakes, cottonmouths, timber rattlers and copperheads)Atropine sulfateAlpba2 agonists (e.g., clonidine)Alzheimer drugs (e.g., donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine)Antimyesthenk agents (e.g., pyridostigmine)Bradyarrhythmia-producing agents (e.g., beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and digitalis glycosides)Cholinergic agonists (e.g., bethanechol) .Muscarine-containing mushrooms Nerve agents (sarin, soman, tabun and VX)Organophosphate and carbamate insecticidesDigoxin immune FabCardiac glycoside-containing plants (foxglove and oleander)Digitoxin, DigoxinEthanolEthylene glycolMethanolFlumazenilBenzodiazepinesZaleplonZolpidemFolic acid and Folinic acid (Leucovorin)Formaldehyde/Formie AcidMethanolMethotrexate, trimetrexatePyrimethamineTrimethoprimFomepizoleEthylene glycolMethanolGlucagonBeta blockersCalcium channel blockersHypoglycemiaHypoglycemic agentsHydroxocobalaminNitrilesBromatesChloratesCyanide (e.g., HCN, KCN and NaCN)Mustard agents NitroprussideSmoke inhalation (combustion of synthetic materials)Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO)Carbon monoxideCarbon tetrachlorideCyanideHydrogen sulfideMethemoglobinemiaMethylene blueMethemoglobin-inducing agents including;Aniline dyesDapsoneLocal anesthetics (e.g., benzocaine)MetoclopramideNaphthaleneNitrates and nitritesNitrobenzenePhenazopyridineNalmefene and NaloxoneACE inhibitorsAlpha2 agonists (e.g., clonidine)Imidazoline decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline and tetrahydrozoline) LoperamideOpioids (e.g., codeine, fentanyl, heroin, meperidine, morphine)Physostigmine salicylateAntihistaminesAtropine and other anticholinergic agentsDhatura poisoningIntrathecal baclofenPhytonadione (Vitamin Kl)Long-acting anticoagulant rodenticides (e.g., brodifacoum and bromadiolone) WarfarinPralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)Antimyesthenic agents (e.g., pyridostigmine)Nerve agents (sarin, soman, tabun and VX)Organophosphate insecticidesTacrineProtamine sulfateEnoxaparinHeparinPyridoxine hydrochloride (Vitamin B6)Acrylamide Ethylene glycol Hydrazine Isoniazid (INH)Sodium bicarbonateChlorine gasHyperkalemiaSerum Alkalinization:Agents producing a quinidine-like effect as noted by widened QRS complex on EKG (e.g., amantadine, carbamazepine, chloroquine,cocaine, diphenhydramine, flecainide,tricyclic antidepressants, quinidine)Urine Alkalinization:Weakly acidic agents (chlorpropamide, methotrexate, phenobarbital and salicylates)Deferoxamine and DeferasiroxAcute iron poisoningDimercaprol (BAL in oil)Hydrofluoric acid (HF)Hyperkalemia (not digoxin-induced)HypermagnesemiaCalcium disodium EDTA (Versenate)Acute arsenic poisoning,Acute mercury poisoning,Lead poisoning (in addition to EDTA)Dicobalt EDTACyanide poisoningSucdmer/ Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)Lead poisoning,Arsenic poisoning,Mercury poisoningDimercapto-propane sulfonate (DMPS)Severe acute arsenic poisoning,Severe acute mercury poisoningD-Penicillamine (Cuprimine)Mainly in: copper toxicityOccasionally adjunctive therapy in: Gold toxicity, Arsenic poisoning, Lead poisoning, Rheumatoid arthritisBotulinum antitoxin * Bivalent (types AB)<< Trivalent (types ABE)Food-borne botulismWound botulismBotulism as a biological weaponNote: Not currently recommended for infant botulismL-CarnitineValproic acidCyproheptadine HCLMedications causing serotonin symdromeDantrolene sodiumMedications causing neuroleptic malignant symdrome (NMS)Medications causing malignant hyperthermiaInsulin and dextroseBeta blockersCalcium channel blockers (diltiazem, nifedipine, verapamil)Octreotide acetateSulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents (e.g., glipizide, glyburide)Sodium thiosulfateBromatesChloratesMustard agentsNitroprussideThiamineEthanolEthylene glycolPrussian blue, ferric hexacyan ofer rateRadioactive cesium (Cs-137), radioactive thallium (Tl-201), and nonradioactive thallium | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 18-year-old woman develops weakness, weight gain, amenorrhea, abdominal striae, and behavioral abnormalities. Physical examination reveals lateral visual field loss. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"a functional pituitary tumor",
"adrenal hyperplasia",
"anorexia nervosa with bulimia",
"glioblastoma multiforme"
] | A | The patient has Cushing's syndrome secondary to an adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-secreting pituitary tumor. Relatively few of such patients have a large pituitary tumor that affects the visual pathways. Over 50% have a microadenoma, which is under 5 mm in diameter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Le Forte fracture having craniofacial dysjunction is | [
"Type-I",
"Type-II",
"Type-III",
"None"
] | C | (C) Type-III # They are classified into 3 types:> Le Fort I (transverse) fracture runs above and parallel to the palate. It crosses lower part of nasal septum, maxillary antra and the pterygoid plates.> Le Fort II (pyramidal) fracture passes through the root of nose, lacrimal bone, floor of orbit, upper part of maxillary sinus and pterygoid plates. This fracture has some features common with the zygomatic fractures.> Le Fort III (craniofacial dysjunction). There is complete separation of facial bones from the cranial bones. The fracture line passes through root of nose, ethmofrontal junction, superior orbital fissure, lateral wall of orbit, frontozygomatic and temporozygomatic sutures and the upper part of pterygoid plates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about central nystagmus - | [
"Changing direction",
"Not suppressed by optic fixation",
"Horizontal or vertical",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the aboveNystagmuso Nystagmus is a rhythmic oscillatory movement of the eye.o Nystagmus has the following characteristics:-i) Rapid,ii)Involuntary,iii) Repetitiveo Nystagmus may be 0 Side to side (horizontal nystagmus)Up and down (verticle nystagmus)Rotaryo Vestibular nystagmus has two components, i.e. a slow and a fast.o The direction of nystagmus is indicated by the direction of the fast component.o Vestibular nystagmus may be:- Peripheral:-due to a lesion of labyrinth or VIII nerve.Centraldue :-to lesion of vestibular nuclei, brainstem or cerebellum.Peripheral nystagmusDiminishes or suppresses with gaze fixation (optic fixation)Enhances in darkness or by use of Frenzel glassesUnidirectional fast componentThe direction is typically horizontal - rotary, not purely horizontal or rotary and not verticalThe direction is fixed towards the undermost earPresent in one head positionCentral nystagmusNot suppressed by optic fixationThe fast component can be unidirectional or bidirectional.Can be horizontal, vertical or rotary a Direction is changingPresent in multiple head positions | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bulbourethral glands open into which pa of the urethra | [
"Membranous",
"Spongy",
"Prostatic",
"Intramural"
] | B | Bulbourethral glands are located posterior and lateral to the membranous poion of the urethra at the base of the penis, between the two layers of the fascia of the urogenital diaphragm, in the deep perineal pouch. They are enclosed by transverse fibers of the sphincter urethrae membranaceae muscle. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg376 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which DNA polymerase is/are involved in repair of mammalian DNA: | [
"a",
"13",
"y",
"None"
] | B | 13 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Klebsiella oxytoca is: | [
"Gram variable",
"Indole positive",
"Methyl red negative",
"No drug resistance reported"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Indole positiveIt is Indole positive whereas all other klebsiella are indole negative but methyl red and voges Proskauer positive. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperacusis is defined as: | [
"Hearing of only loud sound",
"Normal sounds heard as loud and painful",
"Completely deaf",
"Ability to hear in noisy surroundings"
] | B | Sensation of discomfo or pain on exposure to normal sounds. Seen in injury to nerve to stapedius and in case of congenital syphilis (Hennebe sign) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Red cell cast are more common with | [
"Acute tubular necrosis",
"Nephrotic syndrome",
"Nephritic syndrome",
"Interstitial nephritis"
] | C | Ans. (c) Nephritic syndromeRef: Robbins 8th ed. / Ch. 14The presence of red blood cells within the cast is always pathological, and is strongly indicative of glomerular damage, which can occur in# Glomerulonephritis like P.S.G.N, acute glomerulonephritis, R.P.G.N# Vasculitis, including Wegeners granulomatosis, systemic lupus erythematosus or Goodpasture's syndrome.# Renal infarction# Subacute bacterial endocarditis.* They are a yellowish-brown in color and are generally cylindrical with sometimes ragged edges; their fragility makes inspection of a fresh sample necessary.* RBCs may appear normally shaped, swollen by dilute urine (in fact, only cell ghosts and free hemoglobin may remain), or crenated by concentrated urine.* Both swollen, partly hemolyzed RBCs and crenated RBCs are sometimes difficult to distinguish from WBCs in the urine. In addition, red cell ghosts may simulate yeast.* The presence of dysmorphic RBCs in urine suggests a glomerular disease such as a glomerulonephritis. Dysmorphic RBCs have odd shapes as a consequence of being distorted via passage through the abnormal glomerular structure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rasmussen's aneurysm arises from | [
"Bronchial aery",
"Pulmonary aery",
"Veebral aery",
"Posterior intercostals aery"
] | B | Answer is B (Pulmonary Aery): Rasmussen's aneurysm refers. to an aneurysm of the pulmonary aery within/adjacent to a tuberculous cavity Rasmussen's aneurysm This is an aneurysm arising from the pulmonary aery This is typically a `pseudoaneurysm' resulting from inflammatory necrosis of the vessel wall, by direct invasion of the pulmonary aerial wall by adjacent tuberculous infection Typically the vessel injury occurs in the upper lobes of sites of pulmonary tuberculosis Rupture of these aneurysms results in hemoptysis and pulmonary hemorrhage | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the premolars is usually the smallest: | [
"Maxillary first",
"Maxillary second",
"Mandibular first",
"Mandibular second"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surgical treatment of parotid tumor involving the deep lobe is - | [
"Total parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation",
"Total parotidectomy with facial nerve sacrifise",
"Sub total parotidectomy",
"Subtotal parotidectomy with facial nerve sacrifise"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Total parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation Surgical treatment of Salivary malignancieso The primary treatment of salivary malignancies is surgical excision.o In this setting, basic surgical principles include the en bloc removal of the involved gland with preservation of all nerves unless directly invaded by tumor.o For parotid tumors that arise in the lateral lobe, superficial parotidectomy with preservation of CN VII is indicated,o If the tumor extends into the deep lobe of the parotid, a total parotidectomy with nerve preservation is performed,o Although malignant tumors may abut the facial nerve, if a plane of dissection can be developed without leaving gross tumor, it is preferable to preserve the nerve. If the nerve is encased by tumor (or is noted to be nonfunctional preoperatively) and preservation would result leaving gross residual disease, nerve sacrifice should be considered,o The removal of submandibular malignancies includes en bloc resection of the gland and submental and submandibular lymph nodes.o Radical resection is indicated with tumors that invade the mandible, tongue, or floor of mouth,o Therapeutic removal of the regional lymphatics is indicated for clinical adenopathy or when the risk of occult regional metastasis exceeds 20%.o High-grade mucoepidermoid carcinomas, for example, have a high risk of regional disease and require elective treatment of the regional lymphatics.o When gross nerve invasion is found (lingual or hypoglossal), sacrifice of the nerve is indicated with retrograde frozen section biopsies to determine the extent of involvement,o If the nerve is invaded at the level of the skull base foramina, a surgical clip may be left in place to mark the area for inclusion in postoperative radiation fields.o The presence of skip metastases in the nerve with adenoid cystic carcinoma makes recurrence common with this pathology.o Postoperative radiation treatment plays an important role in the treatment of salivary malignancies,o The presence of extraglandular disease, perineural invasion, direct invasion of regional structures, regional metastasis, and high-grade histology are all indications for radiation treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensitivity is | [
"True positive\\/ true positive + false negative",
"True negative\\/ false positive + true negative",
"True negative\\/ true negative + false positive",
"True negative\\/ false negative + true positive"
] | A | Repeated question | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the position of vegetation on hea valve caused due to non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis? | [
"Pocket of valves",
"Upper surface of cusps",
"Lower surface of cusps",
"Along the line of closure"
] | D | Answer- D. Along the line of closureIn NBTE, vegetations occur along the line of closure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hapsburg jaw: | [
"Class III",
"Class II division 1",
"Class I",
"Class II division 2"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Side effects of phenytoin are : | [
"Gum hypertrophy",
"Alopecia",
"Subungal exostosis",
"Onycholysis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shoulder with bevel margin is indicated for | [
"Facial margin of posterior metal ceramic crowns with supra gingival margins",
"Facial margin of posterior metal ceramic crowns with deep sub gingival margins",
"Cast metal restorations on the posterior teeth",
"Facial margin of a maxillary partial veneer crown"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osteosarcoma commonly affects: September 2005 | [
"Metaphysis",
"Diaphysis",
"Epiphysis",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. A: Metaphysis Metaphysis-common site for osteosarcoma Diachysis- common site for ewing's tumor Epiphysis- common site for osteoclastoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA) is increased in urine in?- | [
"Cushings syndrome",
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Carcinoid",
"Addison s disease"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) PheochromocytomaREF: Harrison's Internal Medicine chapter 337, style="color: rgba(20, 20, 20, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> acid.Vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA) is an end-stage metabolite of the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. It is produced via intermediary metabolites.Urinary VMA is elevated in patients with tumors that secrete catecholamines. These urinalysis tests are used to diagnose an adrenal gland tumor called pheochromocytoma, a tumor of catecholamine-secreting chromaffin cells. These tests may also be used to diagnose neuroblastomas, and to monitor treatment of these conditions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tubule of serous acinar cell gland is lined by? | [
"Stratified columnar",
"Simple Cuboidal",
"Simple Columnar",
"Stratified squamous"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stage IV a with thyroid cartilage invasion in larynegeal carcinoma is treated with | [
"Radiotherapy",
"Hemilaryngectomy",
"Total laryngectomy",
"Total laryngectomy with radiotherapy"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Teduglutide is a recently introduced drug for Sho Bowel Syndrome- What is it | [
"GLP antagonist",
"Somatostatin analogue",
"H1 blocker",
"GLP- 2 analogue"
] | D | Teduglutide: GLP-2 Analogue:- * Randomized controlled trials have shown that teduglutide, a GLP-2 analogue that is resistant to degradation by the proteolytic enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase 4 and therefore has a longer half-life than GLP-2, is well tolerated and has led to the restoration of intestinal functional and structural integrity through significant intestinotrophic and pro absorptive effects. Ref:- Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition; Pg num:- 425 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maylard incision involves a trasverse cut through which of the following muscles? | [
"Rectus abdominis",
"Serratus anterior",
"Pectoralis major",
"Psoas major"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectus abdominis Maylard incision:* Mayland Incision is a surgical incision in which a transverse cut is made on rectus abdominis muscle to allow wider access to the pelvic cavity. It is also called Mackenrodt incision.* For gynaecological surgery, the skin incision is made 5-8 cm above the pubic symphysis. The site of skin incision is above and parallel to traditional Pfannenstiel incision.* The rectus fascia and muscle are cut transversely and the incision is extended as far laterally as needed.* The anterior rectus sheath is not separated from the muscle to facilitate easy closure at the end of the surgical procedure.* The inferior epigastric vessels which span across more than half of the rectus muscle's width are identified and ligated.* In patients with peripheral arterial disease, ligation of inferior epigastric vessels may lead to distal ischemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Apple jelly nodules on diascopy are seen in" | [
"Lichen schafuloceum",
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Psoriasis vulgorir",
"Scrofuloderma"
] | B | It is the most form of cutaneous TB characterized by chronic,progressive,itch,annulor skin lesions with cetrol scarring,dioscopy(pressing with glass slide) reveals "Apple jelly nodules" | train | med_mcqa | null |
In conduction system of hea the maximum velocity of conduction is seen in? | [
"SA node",
"AV node",
"Bundle of HIS",
"Purkinje fibers"
] | D | Purkinje fibers are characterized by action potentials with a low resting membrane potential (-- 90 mV), a rapid maximum upstroke velocity (500 to 700 V/s), and, therefore, a rapid conduction velocity. Purkinje's fibres have many gap junctions which allows the rapid flow of current and hence the conduction velocity is maximum in Purkinje's fibres. This rapid conduction allows simultaneous contraction of both the ventricles. Ref: Moss and Adams' Hea Disease in Infants, Children, and Adolescents ... By Ahur J. Moss, Hugh D. Allen, M.D., 2007, Page 24, Table 1.2; Guyton's physiology, 22nd edition, Page 105. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Portal vein formed by the union of- | [
"Splenic and inferior mesenteric veins",
"Splenic and superior mesenteric veins",
"Right and left hepatic veins",
"Hepatic and splenic veins"
] | B | The portal vein is formed by the union of the superior mesentric and splenic veins behind the neck of the pancreas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lyme disease is transmitted by- | [
"Rat flea",
"Tick",
"Mite",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Tick | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient wakes up at 3 AM with acute pain. O/E 7 hours later the eye appears quiet, with mild corneal stippling and irregularity. What is the most probable diagnosis? | [
"Contact lens over wear syndrome",
"Corneal ulcer",
"Recurrent corneal erosion",
"Angle closure glaucoma"
] | C | Recurrent corneal erosions (recurrent keratalgia). These may sometimes follow simple abrasions, especially those caused by finger nail trauma. Patient usually gets recurrent attacks of acute pain and lacrimation on opening the eye in the morning. This occurs due to abnormally loose attachment of epithelium to the underlying Bowman's membrane. Treatment. Loosely attached epithelium should be removed by debridement and 'pad and bandage' applied for 48 hours, so that firm healing is established. Angle closure glaucoma doesn't cause pain at night since during sleep the pupils are constricted. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common manifestation of cardiac lupus is- | [
"Pericarditis",
"Myocarditis",
"Libman-Sacks endocarditis",
"Aoic regurgitation"
] | A | the most common manifestation of cardiac lupus is pericardial inflammation or pericarditis Pericarditis. Pericarditis is the most common hea problem associated with active lupus and occurs in about 25% of people with SLE. The condition occurs when the pericardium--the thin membrane surrounding your hea--becomes swollen and irritated, causing it to leak fluid around the hea. Ref Davidson 23rd edtion pg 470 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior femoral muscles are supplied by - | [
"Femoral nerve",
"Obturator nerve",
"Sciatic nerve",
"Sural nerve"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sciatic nerve o Posterior thigh muscles (posterior femoral muscles) are supplied by sciatic nerve.Posterior thigh musclesMuscleOriginInsertionNerve supplyActionSpecial remarksBiceps femorisLong head: Conjoint origin with semitendin- osus from inferomedial impression on upper half of ischial tuberosity.Short head: Lateral lip of linea aspera.Head of fibula.Long head: Tibial part of sciatic nerve.Short head: Common peroneal part of sciatic nerve.Extends the thigh. Flexes and laterally rotates the leg.Sacrotuberous ligament is the degenerated part of tendon of long head of biceps femoris.Semiten- dinosusInferomedial impression on upper part of ischial tuberosity.Upper part of medial surface of tibia.Tibial part of sciatic nerve.Extends the thigh, flexes and medially rotates the leg.Fusiform (spindle shaped) muscle with main mass (fleshy) in the middleSemimem branosusSuperolateral impression on the upper part of ischial tuberosity.Groove on the posterior surface of medial tigbial condyle.Tibial part of sciatic nerve.Extends the thigh, and flexes and medially rotates the leg.Expansions from the tendon are oblique popliteal ligament of knee joint and fascia covering popliteus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is an ototoxic drug - | [
"Tetracycline",
"Vincristine",
"Ampicillin",
"Penicillin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In EPT most efficient site of testing for posterior is: | [
"Cusp tip of the mesiobuccal cusp",
"Cusp tip of the mesiolingual cusp.",
"Equal over all the cus tips.",
"None."
] | A | For incisors- incisal edge is the most efficient site.
For posteriors- mesiobuccal cus tip is the best site. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A cystic, transilluminant, painless scrotal swelling presented with testes separately palpable. The procedure to be done is | [
"Lords' procedure",
"Hunters' procedure",
"Gibbons' procedure",
"Ombredanne's procedure"
] | A | (A) Lords' procedure # Hydrocele is a collection of serous fluid that results from a defect or irritation in the tunica vaginalis of the scrotum. Hydroceles also may arise in the spermatic cord or the canal of Nuck.> Structurally, hydroceles are classified into 3 principal types.> In a communicating (congenital) hydrocele, a patent processus vaginalis permits flow of peritoneal fluid into the scrotum. Indirect inguinal hernias are associated with this type of hydrocele.> In a noncommunicating hydrocele, a patent processus vaginalis is present, but no communication with the peritoneal cavity occurs.> In a hydrocele of the cord, the closure of the tunica vaginalis is defective. The distal end of the processus vaginalis closes correctly, but the mid portion of the processus remains patent. The proximal end may be open or closed in this type of hydrocele.> Hydroceles are located superior and anterior to the testis, in contrast to spermatoceles, which lie superior and posterior to the testis.> Hydrocele is bilateral in 7-10% of cases.> Hydrocele often is associated with hernia, especially on the right side of the body.> The size and the palpable consistency of hydroceles can vary with position. Hydrocele usually becomes smaller and softer after lying down it usually becomes larger and tenser after prolonged standing.> Systemic signs of toxicity are absent. The patient is usually afebrile with normal vital signs.> Abdominal or testicular tenderness are absent; no abdominal distension is present.> Bowel sounds cannot be auscultated in the scrotum unless an associated hernia is present.> Unless an infection causes an acute hydrocele, no erythema or scrotal discoloration is observed.> Transillumination A light source shines brightly through a hydrocele. Transillumination is common, but it is not diagnostic for hydrocele. Transillumination may be observed with other etiologies of scrotal swelling (eg, hernia).> The hallmark of treatment is eversion of the tunica through a surgical procedure called 'Lord's procedure' or an alternative 'Jsboulay's procedure' | train | med_mcqa | null |
IQ related genes have recently been found on which chromosome? | [
"Chromosome 21",
"Chromosome X",
"Chromosome 10",
"Chromosome 18"
] | B | A genomic distribution analysis demonstrated that IQ-related genes were enriched in seven regions of chromosome 7 and the X chromosome.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are associated with Epstein Barr virus EXCEPT: March 2013 | [
"Burkitts lymphoma",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Infectious mononucleosis",
"Kaposi sarcoma"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Kaposi sarcoma Human Herpes Virus type 8 is associated with 3 conditions, i.e. Kaposi's disease, B-cell lymphoma and Castleman's disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following technique is employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing? | [
"Gating",
"Shunting",
"Modulation",
"Arc technique"
] | A | The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as gating. In gated radiotherapy, beam is turned on only during a ceain phase of respiratory cycle, generally at the end of expiration. Respiration is monitored using external markers placed on the patients chest, which are assumed to move similarly to the tumor. This is done in patients who can breathe regularly and reproducibly. Advantage of this technique is that, it decreases the internal target volume and reduce the volume of normal tissue that is irradiated. Disadvantage of this approach is prolonged treatment time and lack of direct imaging of tumor position during treatment. Ref: Lung Cancer By Kemp H. Kernstine, Page 209; Biomedical Physics in Radiotherapy for Cancer By Barry Allen, 2012 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During prolonged fasting, rate of gluconeogenesis is determined by: | [
"Essential fatty acid in liver",
"Alanine in liver",
"Decreased cGMP",
"ADP in liver"
] | B | Ans. B. Alanine in liver(Ref: Harpers 29/e page 160, Harper 31/e page 172)Major Substrates for GluconeogenesisQGlucogenic Amino Acid LactateGlycerolPropionate (Major contributor in Ruminants) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4 year child was brought with the following finding on the chest X ray. What is the probable location of the foreign body visible on the skiagram? | [
"Trachea",
"Esophagus",
"Vallecula",
"Right main bronchus"
] | B | b. EsophagusThe coin shadow being visible fully in AP view and the thickness being visible in lateral view, suggest its position in esophagus | train | med_mcqa | null |
KSY is | [
"Empowerment of females under maternity benefit scheme",
"Adolescent girls scheme under ICDS",
"Free and compulsory education for girl child",
"Child care home scheme female juvenile delinquents"
] | B | At present, there are two schemes for adolescent girls &;Kishore shakti yojana&; and &;Nutrition programme for adolescent girls&;Kishore shakti yojana is being implemented using the infrastructure of ICDS. The scheme targets adolescent girls in the age group of 11 to 18 years and address their needs of self-development, nutrition and health status, literacy and numerical and vocational skills.Nutrition programme for adolescent girls also being implemented using the infrastructure of ICDS. Undernourished adolescent girls in the age group 11 to 19 years (<30 in 11-15 ages and <35 in 15 to 19) are covered under the scheme.Park 23e pg: 592 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foley's Catheter of size 16 F in French gauge system represents the measure: | [
"16 mm diameter at the tip",
"16 mm inner diameter",
"16 mm outer diameter",
"16 mm circumference"
] | C | French scale or French gauge system is commonly used to measure the size (outside diameter) of a catheter. It is most often abbreted as Fr, but can often abbreted as FR or F. 1 Fr = 0.33 mm, and therefore the diameter of the catheter in millimeters can be determined by dividing the French size by 3. And since circumference is equal to the one third of diameter, catheter size of 16 F means 16 mm in diameter. Foley's catheter is sterilized by gamma radiation. Usually Foley's catheter is kept for 7 days. Size: Adults-- 16 F Children-- 8 F or 10 F | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clear cell variety of Renal cell carcinoma is related to gene located on chromosome - | [
"3",
"X",
"22",
"20"
] | A | Ans. (a) 3(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg953-955; 8th/pg 964-966)Clear cell variety of Renal cell carcinoma is related to gene located on chromosome 3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retention of urine in a pregnant woman with retroverted uterus is most commonly seen at: | [
"8-10 weeks",
"12-16 weeks",
"20-24 weeks",
"28-32 weeks"
] | B | Retroverted uterus is present in early weeks of pregnancy (in 15% cases).
Outcome of retroverted uterus in pregnancy:
Mostly spontaneous rectification occurs by 10–12 weeks. In rare cases fundus fails to clear the promontory of sacrum and becomes impacted in pelvis at 12-14 weeks and blocks the opening of internal urethral sphincter leading to acute retention of urine (at 12-14 weeks) Management is immediate catheterization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wax crayons contains | [
"Lead",
"Para nitro aniline",
"Beryllium",
"Nitrobenzene"
] | B | #NAME? | train | med_mcqa | null |
Henoch-Schonlein purpura is characterized by the deposition of the following immunoglobulin around the vessels: | [
"IgM",
"IgG",
"IgA",
"IgE"
] | C | c. IgA(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1216-1217, Ghai 8/e p 632-633)Biopsy finding in HSP is deposition of IgA, specifically lgA1 in the affected tissue, by immunofluorescence, accompanied to a lesser extent by deposition of C3, fibrin & IgM. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a consideration for obtaining a resistance form during cavity preparation? | [
"Stress patterns of teeth",
"Direction of enamel rods",
"Designing outline form with minimal extension",
"Dovetail preparation of restoration to occlusal loading"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A severely injured patient with multiple injuries is brought to casualty. Primary survey done and patient is stabilized. What is the preferred investigation? | [
"Whole body CT with IV contrast",
"CT head, abdomen and Xray of suspected limb fractures",
"CT head, FAST scan with Xray C-spine and Pelvis",
"CT head and neck, FAST scan chest and pelvis Xray"
] | A | Computed tomography(CT) from the head to pelvis with IV contrast, the so called 'whole body CT' (WBCT) is the gold standard investigation in patients with signs or symptoms of multiple injury or deranged physiology.There is no role for scanning selective bodysystems in the severely injured trauma patient. Wherever possible,WBCT should be performed as soon as possible during the patient's resuscitation. A provisional 'hot repo' can be issued within minutes to identify immediate life-threatening pathology to the trauma team. A more detailed definitive repo should be available within 30-60 minutes.Bailey and love 27e 324 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most frequent site of tubal ectopic pregnancy is | [
"Interstitial",
"Isthmic",
"Ampulla",
"Infundibulum"
] | C | Nearly 95 percent of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube. The ampulla (70 percent) is the most frequent site, followed by isthmic (12 percent), fimbrial (11 percent), and interstitial tubal pregnancies (2 percent).The remaining 5 percent of non-tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior cesarean scarReference: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 19; Ectopic pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
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