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The specific name of the anomaly shown in the following radiograph is:: (A) Dens in dente, (B) Dilated odontome, (C) Dens invaginatus, (D) Ghost tooth | Answer is B. Dens in Dente
(Dens invaginatus, dilated composite odontome)
The ‘dens in dente’ is a developmental variation which is thought to arise as a result of an invagination in the surface of tooth crown before calcification has occurred. Several causes of this condition have been proposed. These include incr... | |
An upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion involving cranial nerve VII would most likely produce: (A) Contralateral weakness of the lower half of the face with sparing of the upper half of the face, (B) Decreased gag (pharyngeal) reflex with decreased taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, (C) Hemianesthes... | Answer is A. The physical finding of facial asymmetry is suggestive of an abnormality involving the facial nerve (CN VII). The facial nucleus, which is located within the pons, is divided in half, the upper neurons innervate the upper muscles of the face, while the lower neurons innervate the lower poion of the face. I... | |
Dry skin seen due to excess dosage of datura is due to: (A) Vasodilatation, (B) Absence of sweating, (C) Central action, (D) Change in BMR | Answer is B. One of the anticholinergic effects is dry skin due to absence of sweating due to blockade of m3 receptors on sweat glands Datura is nothing but atropine-anticholinergic drug Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 114-116 | |
Perception of uterine contraction is known as:: (A) Chadwik sign, (B) Goodell sign, (C) Palmer sign, (D) Hegar sign | Answer is C. Ans: c (Palmer sign) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 66Perception of rhythmic uterine contraction on bimanual examination in pregnancy is Palmer sign. It is done as early as 4-8 weeks. This is one of the signs used to diagnose pregnancy. There are various signs and symptoms to detect early pregnancy. These are list... | |
The most common site of puerperal infection is:: (A) Placental site, (B) Cervical laceration, (C) Episiotomy wound, (D) Vaginal laceration | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Placental siteRef. Dutta's Obstetrics, 7th ed. 1433PUERPERAL SEPSIS* An infection of the genital tract which occurs as a complication of delivery is termed puerperal sepsis.* Sources of infection may be endogenous where organisms are present in the genital tract before delivery.Mode of infection* ... | |
Maximum urease +ve is produced by -: (A) H. pylori, (B) P. mirabilis, (C) K. rhinomatis, (D) Ureaplasma | Answer is A. None | |
Gas causing global warming but is not a greenhouse gas?: (A) CO2, (B) SO2, (C) CFC, (D) Ozone | Answer is B. Greenhouse gases are CO2 Methane CFC 12 HCFC 22 Nitrous oxide Tetrafluoromethane SO2 is not a Greenhouse gas but it causes global warming Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 794 | |
Lahsal classification is used for:: (A) Cleft lip and palate, (B) Tumor staging, (C) Neurological assessment of trauma patient, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Any classification for such a diverse and varied condition as cleft lip and palate needs to be simple, concise, flexible and exact but graphic. It must be suitable for computerisation but descriptive and morphological. An example of such a classification is the LAHSHAL system. | |
Features of vernal keratoconjunctivitis are – a) Papillary hypertrophyb) Follicular hypertrophyc) Herbert's pitsd) Tantra\'s Spote) Ciliary congestion: (A) b, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ad | Answer is D. Papillary hypertrophy into polygonal papilla is arranged in cobblestone or pavement stone fashion. | |
Dawn phenomenon refers to: March 2013: (A) Early morning hyperglycemia, (B) Early morning hypoglycemia, (C) Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia, (D) High insulin levels | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Early morning hyperglycemia Impoant terms Dawn phenomenon: Glucose level rise in early morning Somogyi effect: Rebound hyperglycemia may appear after 1-24 hours after moderate to severe hypoglycemia | |
Women with PCOS and Hirsutism, management is :: (A) Ethinyl estradiol, (B) Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate, (C) Levonorgestrel, (D) Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel | Answer is B. Drugs used for Hirusitism: 1.Ovarian Suppression agents a.Oral Contraceptives b.Cyproterone acetate. c.GnRH agonist and antagonist. 2.Adrenal suppresion agents a.Glucocoicoids. 3.Androgen receptor blocking agents a.Spironolactone b.Flutamide. c.Cyproterone acetate. 5. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor a.Finaster... | |
Gaucher's disease is inherited as?: (A) Autosomal recessive, (B) Autosomal dominant, (C) X-linked recessive, (D) X-linked dominant | Answer is A. Gaucher disease results from mutation in the gene that encodes glucocerebrosidase. There are three autosomal recessive variants of Gaucher disease resulting from distinct allelic mutations. Common to all is variably deficient activity of a glucocerebrosidase that normally cleaves the glucose residue from c... | |
Gamma Rays Are used in which Diagnostic Modality ?: (A) Fluoroscopy, (B) CT Scan, (C) MRI, (D) Bone scan | Answer is D. Gamma Rays are used in Radioisotope studies/scintigraphy studies Bone scan is a radioisotope study done using Tc99m -MDP to detect skeletal metastasis Fluoroscopy and CT scan uses Xrays Radiowaves are used in MRI | |
Fomepizole acts as antidote for -: (A) Methanol poisoning, (B) Cannabis poisoning, (C) Lead poisoning, (D) Cadmium Poisoning | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methanol poisoning Methyl alcohol (methanol)o Methanol is highly toxic alcohol. It is metabolized to formaldehyde (by alcohol dehydrogenas) and formic acid (by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase).o It is the accumulation of formic acid which causes toxic effects in methanol poisoning. Accumulatio... | |
Lymphoid tissues reach their maximum size:: (A) In early childhood, (B) During adolescence, (C) At pubey, (D) At 20 years of age | Answer is C. The thymus matures at pubey, thus attaining the maximum size Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition | |
Incubation period of gonorrhoea is -: (A) Less than 24 hrs, (B) 1 to 2 days, (C) 2 to 15 days, (D) 12 to 25 days | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 2 to 15 days Incubation period of gonorrhea is 2 - 8 days. | |
Which of the following are causes for cholecystitis wxcept?: (A) Estrogen, (B) OCP, (C) Diabetes mellitus, (D) Obesity | Answer is C. acalculous cholecystitis is not an uncommon entity, but can be commonly missed.* It is common in patients who have undergone major surgeries, trauma, burns, or any other stress or in cases of cholecystoses. * Common in ICU patients. ACUTE CHOLECYSTITIS * Commonly it occurs in a patient with pre-existing ch... | |
If the maxillary right second molar is treated successfully the distal furcation involvement can best be kept plaque free by using:: (A) Dental Floss, (B) Perio aid, (C) Stimudent, (D) Rubber tip stimulator | Answer is B. None | |
NADPH actions in RBC are a/e: (A) Produce ATP, (B) Stabilizes the membrane, (C) Reductive biosynthesis, (D) GP6D deficiency causes decreased synthesis of NADPH | Answer is A. ATP is not produced by NADPH. ATP is produced by reducing equivalents like NADH, FADH2. W When NADH and other reducing equivalents transfer their electrons through Electron transpo chain in the Mitochondrial inner membrane and generate proton motive force which brings about the ATP synthesis by the ATP syn... | |
Which is called nerve of Wrisberg: (A) Motor root of facial nerve, (B) Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve, (C) Sensory root of facial nerve, (D) Greater auricular nerve | Answer is C. Facial nerve runs from pons to parotid. It is a mixed nerve having motor and a sensory root. The latter is also called the nerve of Wrisberg and carries secretomotor fibres to lacrimal gland and salivary glands, and brings fibres of taste and general sensation. Nerve of Wrisberg (Nervus intermedius receive... | |
A patient repoed with a history of fall on an outstretched hand, complains of pain in the anatomical snuffbox and clinically no deformities visible. The diagnosis is:: (A) Colles' fracture, (B) Lunate dislocation, (C) Baon's fracture, (D) Scaphoid fracture | Answer is D. D i.e. Scaphoid | |
High spinal anaesthesia is characterized by:: (A) Hypertension, tachycardia, (B) Hypertension, bradycardia, (C) Hypotension, tachycardia, (D) Hypotension, bradycardia | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Hypotension, bradycardiaRef : KDT 6th ed. / 360Systemic Effects (Physiological Alterations) of Central Neu- ralxial BlocksCARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEMThe most prominent effect is hypotension which is because of the following factors:* Venodilatation which is because of sympathetic block which maintains t... | |
Iron absorption is inhibited by all except:: (A) Vitamin C, (B) Phytates, (C) Caffeine, (D) Milk | Answer is A. Ans. A. Vitamin C(Ref: Harper 31/e page 533-540)Iron absorption is enhanced by:Vitamin C, Fructose, Alcohol iron absorption is inhibited byPhytates, Oxalates, Caffeine, Calcium | |
Most common nerve involved in supracondylar fracture of humerus is:: (A) Radial nerve, (B) Ulnar nerve, (C) Median nerve, (D) Anterior interosseus Nerve | Answer is D. D i.e. Supracondylar fracture | |
Fistula formation due to the below etiology occurs within: (A) 24 hours, (B) 48 hours, (C) 5 days, (D) 2 weeks | Answer is C. Vesicovaginal fistula: In obstructed labor, the bladder becomes an abdominal organ and due to compression of urethra between presenting part and pubic symphysis, patient fails to empty bladder. The bladder wall gets traumatized which may lead to bloodstained urine, a common finding in obstructed labor. The... | |
Botulism is a disease of ?: (A) Neural transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum, (B) Muscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum, (C) Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum, (D) Non neuromuscular transmiss... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium clostridium botulinum Botulinum Toxin Cl. botulinum produces a powerful exotoxin that is responsible for its pathogenicity. The toxin differs from other exotoxins in that it is not released during the life of organism. It is ... | |
Retinoscopy is done for:: (A) Examination of Retina, (B) Assessing surface of cornea, (C) Refractive errors, (D) Examination of vitreous | Answer is C. Retinoscopy is an objective method of finding out the error of refraction by the method of neutralization.The end point of neutralization is either no movement or just reversal of the movement of the pupillaryshadow. Depending upon the movement of the red reflexvis-a-vis movement of the plane mirror, Follo... | |
The commonest location for the carcinoid tumor is which of the following?: (A) Small intestine, (B) Bronchus, (C) Appendix, (D) Stomach | Answer is A. Carcinoid tumor:- Neuroendocrine tumor, most common site being GIT and Lungs being 2nd most common In GIT, most common site is small intestine Composed of cells that contains dense-core neurosecretory granules in their cytoplasm. | |
Persistent and inappropriate repetition of response beyond the point of relevance is called: (A) Thought insertion, (B) Thought block, (C) Perseveration, (D) Neologism | Answer is C. The patient repeats same response beyond the point of relevance.
Example :
What is your name? – Darshan
What you ate in the morning? – Darshan
Where do you live? – Darshan | |
The common etiology of periodontitis is: (A) Occlusal trauma, (B) Systemic factors, (C) Local irritating factors, (D) Hormonal defects | Answer is C. None | |
If the prevalene is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies -: (A) Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable, (B) Disease is nonfatal, (C) Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong, (D) Nothing can be said, as they are independent | Answer is A. Prevalence is less than incidence
1) Disease is very fatal
Most of the cases die, so at the time of calculating prevalence the number is usually less than the incidence.
2) Disease is very well curable either by rapid recovery or by treatment
Most of the cases recover, so at the time of calculating prev... | |
Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?: (A) Genetic disorder, (B) Alcohol, (C) Smoking, (D) Chemical exposure | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alcohol Leukemia risk factors1) Generala) Gender: Men are more likely to develop CML, CLL and AML than women.b) Age: The risk of most leukemias, with the exception of ALL, typically increases with age.2) Geneticsa) Family history: First degree relatives of CLL patients, or having an ident... | |
Stroma of cornea is developed from: (A) Neural ectoderm, (B) Surface ectoderm, (C) Mesoderm, (D) Neural crest | Answer is C. Stroma of cornea develops from neural crest cells derived (secondary) mesenchyme. The adult cornea has developmentally three layers: Outer epithelium layer (surface ectoderm) Middle stromal layer of collagen-rich extracellular matrix between stromal keratocytes (neural crest) Inner layer of endothelial cel... | |
Distribution of functional renal tissue is seen by –: (A) DMSA, (B) DTPA, (C) MAG3 – Tc99, (D) 1123 iodocholesterol | Answer is A. Static renal scintigraphy (Tc-99 DMSA) can be used to locate functional renal mass. | |
Coical representation of body in the cerebrum is: (A) Horizontal, (B) Veical, (C) Tandem, (D) Oblique | Answer is B. The various pas of the body are represented in the precentral gyrus, with the feet at the top of the gyrus and the face at the bottom. The facial area is represented bilaterally, but the rest of the representation is generally unilateral, with the coical motor area controlling the musculature on the opposi... | |
Most common site of histiocytosis is -: (A) Bone, (B) Skin, (C) Lung, (D) Liver | Answer is A. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis are malignant proliferation of dendritic cells or macrophages. These proliferating cells are actually Langerhan's cells of marrow origin.Reference :Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 385. | |
Tick born relapsing fever is/are caused by -: (A) Borrelia recurrentis, (B) Borrelia duttonii, (C) Borrlia burgdorferi, (D) All | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Borrelia duttonii | |
Spatial relationship of every atom in a molecule is known as:: (A) Conformation, (B) Configuration, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. The terms configuration and conformation are often confused:
Configuration refers to the geometric relationship between a given set of atoms, for example, those that distinguish l- from d-amino acids. Interconversion of configurational alternatives requires breaking (and reforming) covalent bonds.
Conform... | |
Q fever is caused by -: (A) Pseudomonas, (B) Francisella, (C) Coxiella burnetii, (D) Rickettsia typhi | Answer is C. None | |
Mac Callum plaques in rheumatic hea disease are: (A) Left atrium, (B) Left ventricle, (C) Right atrium, (D) Right ventricle | Answer is A. Mac Callum's plaques is a condition featuring the thickening of left atrium's wall and its endocardial wall above the mitral valve due to fibrosis. It is one complication of chronic rheumatic hea disease. Other complications of chronic rheumatic hea disease are valvular effect (stenosis, insufficiency or c... | |
Same amino acid is coded by multiple codons d/t following :: (A) Degeneracy, (B) Frame-shift mutation, (C) Transcription, (D) Mutation | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Degeneracy There are 20 amino acids, to be coded by 61 codons, so every amino acid except methionine and tryptophan are represented by more than one codon. This is k/a degeneracy or redundancy.The genetic code is made up of codons. Codons consist of a sequence of three nucleotides i.e. it ... | |
Features of histocytosis are all except -: (A) Antigen processing cells, (B) CD1a marker present, (C) CD127 marker, (D) Osteolytic lesions | Answer is C. Answee is option 3,CD127 marker The tumor cells of malignant histiocytosis generally expressed the monocyte markers CD11b, CD11c, CD14, and CD45, especially after induction with phorbol ester. In contrast, the tumor cells of true histiocytic lymphoma exhibited a marker expression very similar to that of Re... | |
SAFE strategy use in: (A) Inclusion conjunctivitis, (B) Ophthalmia neonatorum, (C) Trachoma, (D) Haemorrhagic conjunctivitis | Answer is C. SAFE strategy - for prophylaxis against trachoma and prevention of blindness S - Surgery for trichiasis - Teiary prevention A - Antibiotic - AZITHROMYCIN (D/O/C) - secondary prevention F - Facial hygiene - primary prevention E - Environmental changes - primordial prevention | |
In carcinoma cheek what is the best drug for single drug chemotherapy: (A) Cyclophosphamide, (B) Vincristine, (C) Danorubicin, (D) Cisplatin | Answer is D. Single-agent chemotherapy is used as palliative therapy in head and neck cancers with the recurrent or metastatic form of cancer. The drugs which are used are - Cisplatin Methotrexate 5 Fu Paclitaxel Docetaxel Sometimes combinations of these drugs are used . a) Treatment of localized head and neck cancers ... | |
Zinc phosphide is -: (A) Rodenticide, (B) Insecticide, (C) Larvicide, (D) All | Answer is A. Rodenticides They are 2 groups: 1) Single dose /acute(Zinc phosphide and Barium carbonate), 2) multiple doses/cumulative(warfarin, diphacinone, coumafuril, pindone). Zinc phosphide is an efficient single dose rodenticide. Rats are killed by about 3 hours. Due to the good safety record, low cost, and reason... | |
In Pediatric advanced life support, intraosseous access for drug/fluid administration is recommended for pediatric age of –: (A) < 1 year age, (B) < 5 years age, (C) < 6 years age, (D) Any age | Answer is C. None | |
The content of base pair A in the DNA is 15%, what could be the amount of G in DNA according to Chargaff's base pair rule?: (A) 15%, (B) 85%, (C) 35%, (D) 70% | Answer is C. Chargaff's rules state that DNA from any cell of all organisms should have a 1:1 ratio (base Pair Rule) of pyrimidine and purine bases and, more specifically, that the amount of guanine is equal to cytosine and the amount of adenine is equal to thymine. This pattern is found in both strands of the DNA. %A ... | |
Most common type of breast carcinoma is: September 2010: (A) Lobular, (B) Sarcoma, (C) Ductal, (D) Granuloma | Answer is C. Ans. C: Ductal Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS): DCIS, the most common type of non-invasive breast cancer, is confined to the ducts of the breast. DCIS is often first detected on mammogram as microcalcifications (tiny calcium deposits). With early detection, the five-year survival rate for DCIS is nearly 10... | |
The braggs peak is found in:: (A) Proton beam, (B) Microwave, (C) UV Rays, (D) Infrared | Answer is A. Ref: Internet source: Medscape RadiologyExplanation:Bragg peak is a concept utilized in giving focused radiotherapy using ionizing radiation to a tumor without affecting the normal healthy surrounding tissuesOptions B.C and D are examples of non-ionizing radiation.Bragg's peakThe Bragg peak is a peak on th... | |
One of the following is an agglutination test in the diagnosis of typhoid:: (A) Wide test, (B) Eleks test, (C) Mantoux test, (D) Wasserman test | Answer is A. None | |
A 43-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of peritonitis in the right lower quadrant. The clinical impression and supportive data suggest acute appendicitis. At exploration, however, a tumor is found; frozen section suggests carcinoid features. For each tumor described, choose the most appropriate surgical pro... | Answer is D. Carcinoid tumors are most commonly found in the appendix and small bowel, where they may be multiple. They have a tendency to metastasize, which varies with the size of the tumor. Tumors <1 cm uncommonly metastasize. Tumors >2.0 cm are more often found to be metastatic. Metastasis to the liver and beyond m... | |
Gillette's space is:: (A) Retropharyngeal space, (B) Peritonsillar space, (C) Parapharyngeal space, (D) None | Answer is A. The retropharyngeal space is divided by a midline fibrous raphe into two spaces known as space of Gillette. Peritonsillar space is the space between the capsule of tonsil and the circular muscles of the pharynx. This contains a loose areolar tissue. Infection of this space is known as quinsy. | |
Demography deals with all except-: (A) Mortality, (B) Fertility, (C) Morbidity, (D) Marriage | Answer is C. Demography is the scientific study of human population. It focuses its attention on three readily observable human phenomena :-
Change in the population size (growth or decline).
The composition of population.
The distribution of population.
It deals with five "demographic processes", namely fertility,... | |
Disulfiram-like reaction is caused by: Kerala 11: (A) Acamprostate, (B) Metronidazole, (C) Tetracycline, (D) Digitalis | Answer is B. Ans. Metronidazole | |
CVS change in pregnancy -: (A) Slight right axis deviation in ECG, (B) Slight left axis deviation in ECG, (C) Diastolic murmur, (D) Pulse rate is decreased | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Slight left axis deviation in ECG Cardiovascular systemo Anatomical changes heart is pushed upwards & outward. Apex beat is shifted in 4th intercostals space. A systolic murmur can be heard in apical or pulmonary area. Mammary' murmur is a continuous hissing murmur audible over tricuspid ... | |
Most cases of paraneoplastic syndrome are associated with which type of lung carcinoma?: (A) Small Cell Ca, (B) Bronchogenic Ca, (C) Bronchoalveolar Ca, (D) Adeno Ca | Answer is A. Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition, Pg: 677Explanation:"Paraneoplastic syndromes are common in patients with lung cancer, especially those with SCLC. and may be the presenting finding or the first sign of recurrence " (Ref: Harrison)"'Any one of the histologic types of tumors may occasio... | |
A 7-year-old boy has severe microcytic anemia due to beta-thalassemia major (homozygous). He requires frequent blood transfusions (once every 6 weeks) to prevent the skeletal and developmental complications of thalassemia. Which of the following medications is also indicated in the treatment of patients requiring frequ... | Answer is C. Iron chelation with desferrioxamine will reduce the toxicity from iron overload if given regularly in high doses. The most lethal toxicity of iron overload is iron infiltration of the myocardium, with resultant dysfunction and death. Penicillamine has no role in the treatment of thalassemia patients requir... | |
Botulinum toxin is used for the treatment of: DNB 08: (A) Blepharospasm, (B) Risus sardonicus, (C) Strabismus, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. All | |
The most common mechanical failure for metal-ceramic restorations is: (A) Debonding of the porcelain from the metal., (B) Shrinkage of the porcelain at mouth temperature., (C) Debonding of the PFM from the tooth., (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
HHH syndrome is due to defect in ?: (A) Tryptophan metabolism, (B) Histidine transpoer, (C) Branched chain AA metabolism, (D) Ornithine transpoer | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ornithine transpoer Hyperornithinaemia, hyperammonaemia, homocitrullinuria (HHH) syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder of ornithine transpo caused by mutations in gene SLC 25A15 encoding the ornithine transoer protein (ORNT1).There is defective activity of the ornithine transpoer ac... | |
Main action of superior rectus -: (A) Extorsion, (B) Intorsion, (C) Elevation, (D) Depression | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Elevation There are six extraocular muscles in each eye.MusclePrimary ActionSecondary ActionSuperior rectusElevationAdduction and intorsionInferior rectusDepressionAdduction and extorsionMedial rectusAdduction Lateral rectusAbduction Superior obliqueIntorsionAbduction and depressionInferi... | |
The major regulator of platelet production is the hormone thrombopoietin (THPO), which is produced by: (A) Kidneys, (B) Liver, (C) Liver and kidneys, (D) Spleen and lymph nodes | Answer is C. Thrombopoietin (THPO) also known as megakaryocyte growth and development factor (MGDF) is a protein that in humans is encoded by the THPO gene.Thrombopoietin is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the liver and kidney which regulates the production of platelets. It stimulates the production and differentiat... | |
Ovicidal drug for scabies is –: (A) BHC, (B) DDT, (C) HHC, (D) Permethrin | Answer is D. None | |
Not characteristic feature of granuloma ?: (A) Chronic inflammatory infiltrate, (B) Epitheloid cell, (C) Giant cell, (D) PMN's with fibrinoid necrosis with cellular infiltrates | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., PMN's with fibrinoid necrosis with cellular infiltrates Polymorphonuclear leucocytes or neutrophils have a major role in acute inflammatory response. They are typically seen in acute inflammation. While granuloma formation is seen during chronic inflammatory response. The cells predominat... | |
Highest cholesterol content is seen in -: (A) LDL, (B) VLDL, (C) Chylomicrons, (D) IDL | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., LDL o Maximum triglyceride contento Maximum exogenous triglyceride o Maximum endogenous triglycerideo Maximum cholesterol content----ChylomicronsChylomicronsVLDLLDL | |
A 70 year old male chronic smoker is diagnosed of having cancer of the urinary bladder. It is confined to the trigone and extention is upto the submucosa. The management would be -: (A) Complete Transurethral resction, (B) Complete Transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapy, (C) Palliative Radiotherapy, (D)... | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Complete Transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapy Management of bladder cancero Cystoscopy and transurethral resection or biopsy# initially, any pt. with hematuria is examined by cystoscopy and any tumor seen is removed by transurethral resection (if possible) or biopsied.o ... | |
True about leimyosarcoma breast: (A) Axillary lymph mode dissection is mandatory, (B) Well encapsulated, (C) Follow up not required, (D) Mastectomy is mainstay treatment | Answer is B. .LEIOMYOSARCOMA * It arises from smooth muscle. Cut section shows whorled appearance. * It is undetermined grade. * It is common in retroperitoneum and viscera, but can occur in limbs and skin. * Recurrence is common. It has got poor prognosis. * It can occur in the piloerector muscle of skin; inferior ven... | |
Which of the following is not a component of APACHE score: (A) Serum potassium, (B) Serum calcium, (C) Serum sodium, (D) Creatinine | Answer is B. Acute Physiology And Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) II scoring system It incorporates 12 physiological and laboratory parameters as well as age and comorbid conditions to estimate severity of any disease process The 12 physiologic variables are BT| HR at CWG SHOP - 2 Mean aerial blood pressure Temperat... | |
False about Immunoglobulins is: (A) Y shaped heterodimer composed of four polypeptide chains, (B) All four H and L chains are bound to each by disulfide bonds, (C) Antibody contains two types of light chain and one type of heavy chain, (D) There are 5 classes of H chains and two classes of light chains | Answer is C. Any antibody contains one type of light chain and one type of heavy chain. | |
What is the pathology of edema in nephrotic syndrome: (A) Reduced plasma protein, (B) Sodium and water retention, (C) Increased venous pressure, (D) Hyperlipidemia | Answer is B. Ans. b. Sodium and water retention Sodium and water retention is the pathology of edema in nephrotic syndrome. The nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, edema, and hypoalbuminemia. Renal sodium retention and changes in variables of the Starling equation are fundamental to the pathophysiology ... | |
The median of values 2, 5, 7, 10, 10, 13, 25 -: (A) 10, (B) 13, (C) 25, (D) 5 | Answer is A. None | |
What percentage of Lente Insulin is amorphous?: (A) 70%, (B) 30%, (C) 50%, (D) 90% | Answer is B. Insulin Lente is 70% crystalline (ultra lente) and 30% amorphous (semi lente). It is an insulin - zinc suspension | |
A 30-year-old women presents a history of amenorrhoea and impaired vision of six month's duration. Physical examination shows everything except for pale optic discs and diminished visual acuity. The most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Pituitary adenoma, (B) Craniopharyngioma, (C) Hypothalamic glioma, (D) Benign intracrania... | Answer is A. None | |
Lobar pneumonia is caused predominantly by:: (A) Klebsiella pneumoniae, (B) Staphylococcus pyogenes, (C) Haemophilus influenzae, (D) Streptococcus pneumoniae | Answer is D. Most cases of lobar pneumonia are caused by S. pneumoniae (reclassification of the pneumococcus). Streptococcal or pneumococcal pneumonia involves one or more lobes and is often seen in alcoholics or debilitated persons. | |
Caudate lobe of liver is ?: (A) I, (B) III, (C) IV, (D) VI | Answer is B. Ans. is 'a' i.e., I | |
Nucleosomes are: (A) DNA+RNA, (B) DNA+Histones, (C) RNA+Histones, (D) DNA+RNA+Histones | Answer is B. Nucleosomes : The double stranded DNA wraps twice around a histone octamer formed by H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. This super - twisted helix forms a spherical paicle of 10nm diameter ; called Nucleosome. The function of the Nucleosomes is to condense DNA ; this arrangement also stabilises the DNA. REF : DM.VASUDEV... | |
Bilirubin is the degradation product of -: (A) Albumin, (B) Globulin, (C) Heme, (D) Transferrin | Answer is C. Bilirubin metabolism
Bilirubin is the end product of heme degradation.
The heme is derived from -
Senescent erythrocytes by the mononuclear phagocytic system in the spleen, liver and bone marrow (major source).
Turnover of hemoproteins (e.g. cytochrome p.450).
Heme is oxidized to biliverdin by heme o... | |
Which is not Glucogenic ?: (A) Arginine, (B) Histidine, (C) Glycine, (D) Lysine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lysine | |
Linear enamel caries is called as:: (A) Odontoclasia., (B) Occult caries, (C) Fluoride bomb, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. In odontoclasia Gross destruction of labial surface of anterior maxillary teeth occurs. | |
A 3-day-old newborn was born with ectopia cordis. Despite the efforts of doctors at the pediatric intensive care unit the infant died from cardiac failure and hypoxemia. Which of the following embryologic events is most likely responsible for the development of such conditions?: (A) Faulty development of the sternum an... | Answer is A. Ectopia cordis is a condition in which the heart is located abnormally outside the thoracic cavity, commonly resulting from a failure of fusion of the lateral folds in forming the thoracic wall. This is incompatible with life because of the occurrence of infection, cardiac failure, or hypoxemia. Faulty dev... | |
All of the following predominantly involve the white matter EXCEPT?: (A) Alexander disease, (B) Canavan disease, (C) Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, (D) Adrenoleukodystrophy | Answer is C. Gray matter diseases White matter diseases Clinical features Seizures, impaired vision, dementia Motor problems Examples Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis Biotinidase deficiency Pyridoxine deficiency Mitochondrial disorders Alexander disease Canavan disease Adrenoleukodystrophy Metachromatic leukodystrophy Kr... | |
What is not true regarding venous ulcer?: (A) It is managed by stripping superficial saphenous venous system, (B) It may be associated with Klippel Trenaunay syndrome, (C) It is found in elderly males, (D) Biopsy is required for long standing ulcer | Answer is C. Ans: c. (It is found in elderly males)Ref: Cuschieri, 4th ed. pg. 903, 904Characteristic features of venous ulcer: It is seen at the gaiter area- on the medial side. Edges will be sloping Base of the venous ulcer is fixed to the deeper tissues Surrounding tissues show signs of chronic venous hypertension -... | |
All are the features of rheumatoid ahitis except?: (A) Osteosclerosis of joint, (B) Soft tissue swelling, (C) Narrowing of joint space, (D) Periaicular osteoporosis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Osteosclerosis of joint Radiological features of RA Following features are seen on X-ray :- Reduced joint space Erosion of aicular margins Subchondral cysts Juxta-aicular rarefaction Soft tissue shadow at the level of the joint because of joint effusion or synol hyperophy Deformities of t... | |
The number of deaths prevented as a result of paicular health programme is best evaluated by:: (A) Cost accounting, (B) Cost benefit analysis, (C) Cost effective analysis, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Cost effective analysis evaluates the benefits of a paicular health programme in terms of results achieved, like number of lives saved or number of days free from disease. Ref: Park 22nd edition pg: 814. | |
Diagnostic criterion for infective endocarditis includes all EXCEPT:: (A) Rheumatoid factor, (B) ESR, (C) Positive blood culture, (D) Positive ECG | Answer is B. ESR REF: Harrison's 17th ed Chapter 118 The duke's criteria for Infective endocarditis Major Criteria 1. Positive blood culture Typical microorganism for infective endocarditis from two separate blood cultures Viridans streptococci, Streptococcus bovis, HACEK group, Staphylococcus aureus, or Community-acqu... | |
True about celiac disease -a) Villous atrophyb) Crypt hyperplasiac) Infiltration of lymphocytesd) Cryptitise) Superficial layer thinning: (A) ab, (B) abc, (C) acd, (D) bcd | Answer is B. Characteristic histopathological features in celiac disease are:
Intraepithelial lymphocytosis (Increased numbers of intraepithelial CD8 T lymphocytes).
Crypt hyperplasia
Villous atrophy
Cmyptitis refers to inflammation of an intestinal crypt. It is not a feature of celiac disease. It is seen in Inflam... | |
Longest acting L.A: (A) Bupivacaine, (B) Tetracaine, (C) Xylocaine, (D) Procaine | Answer is B. B i.e. Tetracaine | |
When is the World No Tobacco Day celebrated?: (A) 1st May, (B) 31st May, (C) 1st August, (D) 31st August | Answer is B. World no tobacco day is celebrated on 31st May. Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 368 | |
Antemortem and postmortem wounds could be differentiated by all, except -: (A) Everted margins, (B) Blood clots in surrounding, (C) Swollen edges, (D) Sharp edges | Answer is D. Antemortem wound shows gaping, everted and swollen edges with vital reactions of inflammation, infection and healing.
It bleeds freely and shows extensive, deep and firmly adherent clotting (staining) of surrounding tissue which can't be washed away. | |
The normal range of total serum bilirubin is:: (A) 0.2-1.2 mg/100 ml, (B) 1.5-1.8 mg/100 ml, (C) 2.0-4.0 mg/100 ml, (D) Above 7.0 mg/100 ml | Answer is A. Ans. A.0.2-1.2mg/100mlIncrease in serum bilirubin (2.4mg/dl) leads to jaundice. Bilirubin in serum exists in two forms: Free/unconjugated/indirect bilirubin which is water insoluble. Conjugate/direct bilirubin which is water soluble. Can be estimated by Van den Berg's diazo reaction. | |
The structure that integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination is:: (A) Superior colliculus, (B) Frontal eye field, (C) Pretectal nucleus, (D) Area 17 | Answer is A. Superior colliculus integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination to control rapid directional movements of the two eyes. VISUAL PATHWAY Other impoant areas of the brain involved in visual pathway: Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus, to control circadian rhythms; Pretectal nuclei in the midbrain, ... | |
Autopsy of a specimen shows pale infarction. Pale infarct is seen in all of the following organs, EXCEPT:: (A) Hea, (B) Spleen, (C) Lung, (D) Kidney | Answer is C. Classification of Infarcts: Pale (white, anemic) infarcts: They occur as a result of aerial obstruction in solid organs such as the hea, kidney, spleen, and brain that lack significant collateral circulation. The continuing venous drainage of blood from the ischemic tissue accounts for the pallor of such i... | |
Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes?: (A) Ochronosis, (B) Tyrosinemia, (C) Albinism, (D) Tyrosinosis | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) OchronosisREF: Clinical Paediatric Dermatology by Thappa - Page 156, Differential diagnosis in internal medicine: from symptom to diagnosis - Page 347, http:.//en.wikipedia,org/wiki/Ochronosis,http: // en. wikipedia .org/wiki/AlkaptonuriaRepeat from December 2009, June 2009Ochronosis is the syn... | |
All of the following are anti-Pseudomonal drugs except:-: (A) Piperacillin, (B) Cefoperazone, (C) Ceftazidime, (D) Cefadroxil | Answer is D. DRUGS EFFECTIVE AGAINST PSEUDOMONAS Beta lactam antibiotics Carboxypenicillins i. Carbenicillin ii. Ticarcillin Ureidopenicillin i. Piperacillin ii. Azlocillin iii. Mezlocillin Carbapenems i. Imipenem ii. Doripenem iii. Meropenem Monobactams i. Aztreonam Cephalosporins i. Ceftazidime ii. Cefoperazone iii. ... | |
Oronasal intubation is not indicated in?: (A) Lefort 1 #, (B) Lefort 2 and 3 #, (C) Parietal bone #, (D) Mandibular # | Answer is B. Nasal intubation is contraindicated in severe fractures of midface, nasal fracture and basilar skull fracture | |
Which of the following is a characteristic radiological finding in neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis –: (A) Gas in the portal system, (B) Gas in the intestinal wall, (C) Pneumoperitonium, (D) Air fluid levels | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following drugs can be administered in acute hypeension during labour,except: (A) IV Labetalol, (B) IV Nitroprusside, (C) IV Hydralazine, (D) IV Esmolol | Answer is B. Sodium nitroprusside is contraindicated in eclampsia. Contraindications. Sodium nitroprusside should not be used for compensatory hypeension (e.g. due to an anteriovenous stent or coarctation of the aoa). It should not be used in patients with inadequate cerebral circulation or in patients who are near dea... | |
Most common type of TAPVC -: (A) Supracardiac, (B) Cardiac, (C) Infracardiac, (D) Mixed | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' Supracardiac * Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is characterized by abnormal drainage of pulmonary veins into the right heart either by direct connection into the right atrium or into its tributaries.* According to the site or level of connection of the pulmonary veins to the... | |
All of the following benzodiazepines can be used in the elderly and those with liver disease EXCEPT:: (A) Lorazepam, (B) Oxazepam, (C) Triazolam, (D) Diazepam | Answer is D. Benzodiazepines which are short acting and not metabolized by the liver include:
S: Short-acting BZD
T: Triazolam, Temazepam
O: Oxazepam
L: Lorazepam
E: Estazolam | |
Barr body is seen in :: (A) Turners syndrome, (B) Klinefelters syndromeTesticular feminisation, (C) Tesiicular leminisation syndrome, (D) 46 XY | Answer is B. Klinefelters syndrome |
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