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Calorie requirement per day of a child weighing 15 kg would be -: (A) 1150 kcal, (B) 1250 kcal, (C) 1450 kcal, (D) 1550 kcal | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1250 kcal | |
A 24-year-old medical student was bitten at the base of her thumb by her dog. The wound became infected and the infection spread into the radial bursa. The tendon(s) of which muscle will most likely be affected?: (A) Flexor digitorum profundus, (B) Flexor digitorum superficialis, (C) Flexor pollicis longus, (D) Flexor ... | Answer is C. Tenosynovitis can be due to an infection of the synovial sheaths of the digits. Tenosynovitis in the thumb may spread through the synovial sheath of the flexor pollicis longus tendon, also known as the radial bursa. The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus muscles are enveloped in th... | |
A two way process of exchanging or shaping ideas,
feeling and information is called as: (A) Education, (B) Communication, (C) Interview, (D) Suggestion | Answer is B. None | |
Angular vein infection causes thrombosis in:: (A) Cavernous sinus, (B) Suprasaggital sinus, (C) Transverse sinus, (D) Inferior petrosal sinus | Answer is A. Ans. A Cavernous sinusRef: Gray's Anatomy, 40th ed. Ch; 29* The upper most segment of the facial vein, above its junction with the superior labial vein, is also called the angular vein.* Any infection of the mouth or face can spread via the angular veins to the cavernous sinuses resulting in thrombosis. | |
Which laxative acts by opening of Chloride channels ?: (A) Docusate, (B) Anthraquinone, (C) Lubiprostone, (D) Bisacodyl | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lubiprostone o Lubiprostone is used for chronic constipation, it acts by - o Stimulating Cl- channel opening in the intestine. Increasing liquid secretion in gut. Decreasing transit time. | |
All the following features favour ventricular tachycardia as the cause of broad-complex tachycardia, except -: (A) Fusion beats, (B) Extreme left axis deviation, (C) Very broad QRS complexes (> 140 ms), (D) Non response to carotid sinus massage | Answer is C. None | |
Lallu a 22 yrs. old male suffers from decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending excessive money for last 8 days. The diagnosis is-: (A) Confusion, (B) Mania, (C) Hyperactivity, (D) Loss of memory | Answer is B. Decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending excessive money are symptoms of mania. | |
Branches of celiac trunk are all except-: (A) Splenic artery, (B) Left gastric artery, (C) Hepatic artery, (D) Inferior phrenic artery | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Inferior phrenic artery Inferior phrenic artery is a branch of abdominal aorta, not of Celiac trunk. Branches of Celiac trunk is a extremely important topic for PG exams. Branches of important arteries are very often asked in PG exams. I am giving a list of important arteries. Learn their... | |
The disease process that best accounts for this problem:: (A) Ethylene glycol poisoning, (B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, (C) Congestive hea failure, (D) Vomiting | Answer is D. Vomiting | |
Loeffler&;s syndrome occurs in all except: (A) Toxocara, (B) Stongyloides, (C) Ascaris, (D) Giardia | Answer is D. *Giardia lamblia -intestinal flagellate,causing intestinal infection. *Loeffler syndrome- inflammatory and hypersensitivity reaction in the lungs lead to cough ,fever, dyspnoea and eosinophilia *toxocara causes visceral larva migrans . ref:Baveja textbook of parasitology 3rd edition. | |
A 7-day-old premature infant born at 26 weeks of gestation now has a grossly bloody stool, abdominal distention, and increasing oxygen requirements. choose the best initial diagnostic step in the evaluation of the patient's apparent GI hemorrhage.: (A) Abdominal series, (B) Fiberoptic endoscopy, (C) Apt test, (D) Routi... | Answer is A. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a life-threatening condition seen mostly in premature infants. Although the precise etiology is unknown, contributing factors include GI tract ischemia, impaired host immunity, the presence of bacterial or viral pathogens, and the presence of breast milk or formula in the... | |
Lactic acid is produced in mouth by: (A) Saccharolytic bacteria in supragingival region, (B) Saccharolytic bacteria in subgingival region, (C) Non-saccharolytic bacteria in supragingival region, (D) Non-saccharolytic bacteria in subgingival region | Answer is A. None | |
Commonest site of liquifactive necrosis is: (A) Brain, (B) Kidney, (C) Liver, (D) Spleen | Answer is A. Ans. a (Brain). (Ref. Robbins, Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th/pg.7-13)NECROSIS# Enzymatic degradation of a cell resulting from exogenous injury.# Characterized by enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation, with release of intracellular components.# Morphologically occurs as coagulative (heart, liver, ... | |
Ixabepilone is used in:: (A) Melanoma, (B) Breast carcinoma, (C) Oat cell carcinoma, (D) Small cell carcinoma lung | Answer is B. Chemotherapy regimen in CA BreastMnemonic- CMF- C- cyclophosphamide- M- methotrexate- F -5- FUMnemonic-CAF- C- cyclophosphamide- A- Adriamycin (doxorubicin) (anthracycline derivative)- F - 5 - FU- The preferred form of chemotherapy for CA breast - CAF or Adriamycin or Anthracycline based Chemotherapy.- Usu... | |
Head of sperm is derived from:: (A) Golgi Body., (B) Nucleus, (C) Mitochondria., (D) Centromere | Answer is B. Ans. B. NucleusThe spermatozoon consists of head, neck, and tail. The tail is further divided into three parts: middle piece, principle piece, and end piece.a. The head mainly consists of a nucleus that contains the condensed chromatin material (mostly DNA).b. Anterior two-third of the nucleus is covered b... | |
Hepatitis A virus shedding in faeces is: (A) One week before the symptoms appear, (B) Two weeks after the symptoms appear, (C) One week before the symptoms and one week thereafter, (D) Two weeks before the symptoms and two week thereafter | Answer is D. None | |
Spinal anaesthesia in an adult is given at this level:: (A) T12-L1, (B) L1-L2, (C) L3-L4, (D) L5-S1 | Answer is C. Spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 in adults .Hence spinal anesthesia can be given at levels below L1 . L2-L3 or L4-L5 are considered best in adults | |
Decreased motility of fallopian tube is seen in -: (A) Churg- strauss syndrome, (B) Kartagener s syndrome, (C) Noonan syndrome, (D) Turner syndrome | Answer is B. Ans-B | |
The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is: (A) Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation, (B) Contralateral pupillary dilation, (C) Altered mental status, (D) Hemiparesis | Answer is C. • Early signs of elevated ICP includes drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness.
• Coma and unilateral papillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention. | |
What is the most likely diagnosis in this 50-year-old woman?: (A) Metastasis, (B) Onychomycosis, (C) Psoriasis, (D) Thromboangiitis obliterans | Answer is A. Answer A. MetastasisFollowing radiography that revealed a lytic lesion of the terminal phalynx, the firm 2-cm lesion with a scab in the center was biopsied and found to represent a metastasis from follicular thyroid carcinoma. | |
At what level of b-hCG is it that normal pregnancy can be earliest detected by TVS (transvaginal USG)?: (A) 500 IU/mL, (B) 1000 IU/mL, (C) 1500 IU/mL, (D) 2000 IU/mL | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. 1000IU/MLRef Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 642Critical titre of hCG:b-hCG level (mIU/ml)Structure visibleTVS/TAS* 1000-1200Gestational sacTVS* 6000Gestational SacTAS | |
In a patient of cholangitis, surgical intervention was performed. In post-operative period, on 10th day this investigation was performed. What is the name of this investigation?: (A) ERCP, (B) MRCP, (C) T-tube cholangiogram, (D) PTC | Answer is C. The investigation is T-tube cholangiogram. | |
Hepatitis B virus is NOT present in: (A) Milk, (B) Sweat, (C) Stool, (D) Lymph | Answer is D. (ref: Harrison's 18/e p2108) | |
Milroys disease is lymphedema which is-: (A) Familial, (B) Follows filariasis, (C) Follows erysipelas, (D) A sequele to white leg | Answer is A. None | |
Erythropoietin is inhibited by: (A) Estrogen, (B) Progesterone, (C) Thyroxine, (D) Testosterone | Answer is A. Glycoprotein hormone that controls erythropoiesis, or red blood cell production. Estrogen inhibits the erythropoietin whereas testosterone stimuates production . Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 24th edition; page no: 709 | |
Other than nitrogen and oxygen, which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the eah's atmosphere?: (A) Argon, (B) Carbon dioxide, (C) Hydrogen, (D) Methane | Answer is A. Atmosphere composition Nitrogen 78% O2 21% Argon 0.9% CO2 0.03% | |
Blood spill disinfection by:: (A) Isopropyl alcohol, (B) Hypochlorite, (C) Formalin, (D) Glutaraldehyde | Answer is B. ANS. B# Spaulding's classification for sterilization1. Critical, e.g. heart lung machine, scalpel (contact with blood)2. Semicritical, e.g. endoscopes3. Noncritical, e.g. stethoscope, BP cuff, plasters.Method of sterilization1. Critical: Autoclave/ethylene oxide2. Semicritical: 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 min... | |
Most permissible capillaries are seen in: (A) Kidney, (B) Liver, (C) Brain, (D) Skin | Answer is B. Capillaries are classified in toContinuous or non fenestrated capillaries - Endothelial cells are arranged without any gap in between them. Eg. Skin, BBB. Allows only very small molecules to pass through. Fenestrated capillaries - Gaps in between endothelial cells ranging from 70-100nm in diameter which ar... | |
A 41-year-old male patient presented with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhoea for 5 years. Despite regular treatment with adequate doses of sulfasalazine, he has had several exacerbations of his disease and required several weeks of steroids for the control for flares. What should be the next line of treatment for h... | Answer is B. None | |
Anaplasia is a hallmark feature of _________.: (A) Benign tumors, (B) Malignant tumors, (C) Both 1 & 2, (D) Normal cell | Answer is B. Anaplastic cells often display the following morphologic features:
Pleomorphism (i.e. variation in size and shape).
Nuclear abnormalities, consisting of extreme hyperchromatism (dark-staining), variation in nuclear size and shape, or unusually prominent single or multiple nucleoli. Enlargement of nuclei m... | |
Active moiety of CoA is: (A) Acetyl group, (B) Pantothenic acid, (C) Thiol of beta alanine, (D) Thiol of pantothenic acid | Answer is D. - Synthesis of coenzyme A from pantothenate occurs in a series of reactions. Pantothenate is first phosphorylated to which cysteine is added. Decarboxylation, followed by addition of AMP moiety and a phosphate (each from ATP) results in coenzyme A.
-Coenzyme A serves as a carrier of activated acetyl ... | |
All the following are radiological features of Chronic Cor pulmonale except-: (A) Kerley B lines, (B) Prominent lower lobe vessels, (C) Pleural effusion, (D) Cardiomegaly | Answer is B. Answer is B (Prominent lower lobe vessels) : Chronic Cor Palmonale is associated with prominence of upper lobe and not lower lobe veins. Features of Congestive Cardiac Failure(CCF / CHF) include : 1. Enlarged cardiac silhouette / Cardiac shadow on chest X-rayQ 2. Ground glass appearance of pulmonary edema ... | |
Nestritide is a -: (A) Brain Natriuretic peptide analogue, (B) Endothelin R antagonist, (C) Gp Ilb/IIIa antagonist, (D) INF-a antagonist | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brain natriuretic peptide analogue | |
Leukoplakia appears white due to :: (A) Cornified layer which imbibes water., (B) Thick epithelium, (C) Underlying connective tissue, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following tooth can show any of the eight types of Vertucci’s classification?: (A) Lower 1st premolar, (B) Upper 1st premolar, (C) Lower 2nd premolar, (D) Upper 2nd premolar | Answer is D. Maxillary 2nd premolar can show any of the eight types of Vertucci's classification. | |
A 25 yr old lady develops brown macular lesions over the bridge of nose and cheeks following exposure to sunlight. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Chloasma, (B) Photodermatitis, (C) SLE, (D) Acne rosacea | Answer is A. This lady is showing features of chloasma which is a brownish macular hyperpigmentation of the face mostly over the cheek, forehead, nose, upper lip and chin. In a small percentage of cases it is also seen on the malar or mandibular areas of the face and occasionally the dorsum of the forearms. It is exace... | |
Which of the following is a BNP analogue?: (A) Eplerenone, (B) Nesiritide, (C) Levosimendan, (D) Coenzyme Q | Answer is B. Ans. B. NesiritideBNP (Brain natriuretic peptide) is peptide which is secreted & formed in right atrium of the heart. This is responsible for vasodilation & hence used in CHF. Nesiritide is BNP analogue | |
Intravascular heamolysis occurs in: (A) Hereditory spherocytosis, (B) Antoimmune haemolytic anemia, (C) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, (D) Thalassemia | Answer is C. Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobunuria (PNH) is the only hemolytic anemia caused by an acquired intrinsic defect in the cell membrane. It is associated with intravascular hemolysis. Rest all conditions causes extravascular heamolysis. | |
Healing of a wound which simply restores the continuity of the diseased marginal gingiva is known as: (A) Regeneration, (B) new attachment, (C) Repair, (D) reattachment | Answer is C. None | |
Intra uterine growth retardation can be caused by all except -: (A) Nicotine, (B) Alcohol, (C) Propranolol, (D) Phenothiazine | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e., Phenotiazines | |
An alcoholic is brought to the casualty, 3 days after he quit alcohol, with the complaints of irrelevant talking. On examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. The most probable diagnosis is:: (A) Schizophren... | Answer is B. This patient in the question who is a chronic alcoholic is showing features of delirium tremens, which typically appears after 3-4 days of abstinence from alcohol (24 hours to 7 days). Ref: CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment: Emergency Medicine, 7th Edition, Chapter 37 ; CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment: Psych... | |
Repeat upper GI endoscopy in a patient with a gastric ulcer is performed after how many weeks of PPI therapy to assess the healing of the ulcer and confirm absence of malignancy:: (A) 2 weeks, (B) 4 weeks, (C) 6 weeks, (D) 12 weeks | Answer is C. Repeat upper endoscopy is done in patients with a gastric ulcer after 6 to 10 weeks of acid suppressive therapy to confirm healing of the ulcer and absence of malignancy. 2% to 4% of repeat upper endoscopies have been repoed to disclose gastric cancer. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-305 | |
Hassal's corpuscles are seen in: (A) Thymus, (B) Thyroid, (C) Parathyroid, (D) Spleen | Answer is A. Corpuscles of hassall present in the medulla of thymus Formed from eosinophilic epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically INDERBIR SINGH'S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY SEVENT EDITION PAGE NO139 | |
True regarding amaurosis fugax are all except:: (A) Transient, recurrent episodes of visual loss, (B) Binocular lesion, (C) Embolus from carotid aery is commonest cause, (D) Ocular examination may be normal | Answer is B. Amaurosis fugax Sudden, temporary and painless monocular visual loss occurring due to a transient failure of retinal circulation. Uniocular lesion Lasts for 2-5 minutes and resolves in the reverse pattern of progression, leaving no residual deficit. Fundus : May be normal or shows retinal ischemia-Retinal ... | |
Not a indication for admission in pneumonia ?: (A) Fever of 390 c, (B) Cyanosis, (C) Chest retracion, (D) Not feeding well | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fever of 39degC Indications for urgent referral for hospital in AI Not able to drink Convulsions Severe malnutrition Stridor in calm child Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake o All these are signs of very severe disease which is an indication for urgent hospital referrel. o Signs of ve... | |
A dental floss is applied to the distal bow of a clamp, its function is:: (A) To facilitate the removal of the clamp, (B) To prevent aspiration of clamp, (C) To anchor the dam as cervically as possible, (D) To stabilize the clamp | Answer is B. None | |
Best way to prevent infection after cataract surgery is: (A) Antibiotics, (B) Eye brow shaving, (C) Through irrigation, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Topical antibiotics such as tobramycin or gentamicin or ciprofloxacin QID for 3 days just before surgery is advisable as prophylaxis against endophthalmitis.Ref: Khurana; 4th edition; Pg- 184 | |
Which of the following antismoking drugs can lead to suicidal ideation?: (A) Baclofen, (B) Rimonobant, (C) Varenicline, (D) Naltrexone | Answer is C. Vareniciline is a partial agonist at α4 β2 substype of nicotine receptor used to treat tobbacco addiction.
Side effects include suicidal ideation, nausea, headache & insomnia. | |
Positive dipstick for RBC with red color urine and red supernatant and clear sediment with positive dipstick -: (A) Porphyria, (B) Hematuria, (C) Hemolysis, (D) Rhabdomyolysis | Answer is D. Answer- D. RhabdomyolysisIf a urine dipstick of the red supernatant is positive for heme, the patient has either hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria.If a urine dipstick of the red supernatant is negative for heme, the patient may have one of a variety of unusual conditions | |
Complications of obesity is/are: 1. Venous ulcer 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Pickwickian syndrome 4. Hernias 5. Pulmonary hypeension: (A) 1,2,3 & 4, (B) 2,3,4 & 5, (C) 1,2,3 & 5, (D) All are true | Answer is D. Clinical presentation of obesity The morbidly obese patients often presents with chronic weight-related problems such as migraine headaches; back and lower extremity joint pain from degenerative joint disease; venous ulcers; dyspnea on exeion; biliary colic; stress urinary incontinence; dysmenorrhea; infei... | |
All are true about popliteus except -: (A) Flexes the knee, (B) Unlocks the knee ., (C) Inserted on medial meniscus, (D) Intracapsular | Answer is C. Popliteus has an intracapsular origin that arises from lateral surface of lateral condyle of femur and from outer margin of lateral meniscus of knee. It inserts onto the posterior surface of shaft of tibia above the soleal line. Nerve supply: Tibial nerve.
Action: Unlocking of knee joint by lateral rotatio... | |
Which among the following is it best inotrope drug for use in right hea failure: (A) Dobutamine, (B) Digoxin, (C) Dopamine, (D) Milrinone | Answer is D. (Ref Goamnan and Gilman, 11/e p575, inotropic drugs are not used for treatment of right sided where the major treatment is diuretics and vasodilators. Milriinone being a phosphodiesterase inhibitor act as an inodilator. Thus, this is the only inotropic drug that should be used in right sided failure due to... | |
Which of the following is a disadvantage of topically applied sodium fluoride solution?: (A) Need to prepare a fresh solution for each patient, (B) Taste is not well accepted by patients, (C) Patient must make four visits to the dentist within a relatively short period of time, (D) The solution should be allowed to dry... | Answer is C. Advantages of neutral sodium fluoride solution-
1. It is relatively stable when kept in a plastic container and there is no need to prepare a fresh solution for each patient.
2. The taste is well accepted by patients.
3. The solution is non-irritating to the gingiva.
4. It does not cause discoloratio... | |
The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is:: (A) Ketoconazole, (B) Amphotericin B, (C) 5-Flucytosine, (D) Griseofulvin | Answer is A. IMIDAZOLES AND TRIAZOLES: These are presently the most extensively used antifungal drugs. Four irnidazoles are entirely topical, while ketoconazole is used both orally and topically. Two triazoles fluconazole and itraconazole have largely replaced ketoconazole for systemic mycosis because of greater effica... | |
In embalmingr solution is given through ?: (A) Veins, (B) Aeries, (C) Lymphatics, (D) none of above | Answer is B. Emblamings may be aerial emblaming and cavity emblaming. | |
Lipids are transferred from intestine to liver by: (A) Chylomicrons, (B) VLDL, (C) HDL, (D) LDL | Answer is A. . | |
A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema.Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria.Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminaemia with hyperlipidemia.Kidney biopsy was undeaken.On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal.Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal: (A... | Answer is A. Answer is A (Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells):The presence of generalized edema is a 7 year old boy with proteinuria suggests a diagnosis of Nephrotic syndrome. This child is likely to have. Minimal change disease as this is the most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in childre... | |
Which is not synthesized by the vascular epithelium?: (A) Prostacyclin, (B) Angiotensin 2, (C) Endothelin, (D) Heparin | Answer is B. Endothelial cells constitute a large and impoant tissue. They secrete many growth factors and vasoactive substances. The vasoactive substances include prostaglandins and thromboxanes, nitric oxide, and endothelins.Lungs activate angiotensin I to angiotensin II; this reaction is paicularly prominent in the ... | |
All true about conus syndrome except: (A) Begins at the level of lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segment, (B) Absent knee and ankle jerks, (C) Flexor plantar reflex, (D) Saddle anaesthesia | Answer is B. Since the spinal segments involved in knee and ankle jerks are at higher level than the level of lesion, they are preserved.and not lost. Root value of knee reflex is L-2,3 and 4 and for the ankle reflex is S-1 Conus medullary syndrome is lower motor neuron lesion and involves the lower 3 sacral and coccyg... | |
An infant with respiratory distress was intubated. The fastest and accurate method to confirm intubation: (A) Capnography, (B) Clinically by auscultation, (C) Chest radiography, (D) Airway pressure measurement | Answer is A. Ans. a. Capnography Capnography is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubationQ So, the fastest and accurate method to confirm intubation in the above mentioned infant is capnography Capnography Capnography is the continuous measurement of end tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO,) and its waveform. Normal: 3... | |
All are impoant mechanisms in the formation of lithogenic bile:: (A) Increased biliary secretion of cholesterol, (B) Increased activity of HMG CoA reductase, (C) Clofibrate, (D) Low calorie and cholesterol rich diet | Answer is D. Mechanisms in the formation of lithogenic (stone-forming) bile. The most impoant is increased biliary secretion of cholesterol. This may occur in association with obesity, the metabolic syndrome, high-caloric and cholesterol-rich diets, or drugs (e.g., clofibrate) and may result from increased activity of ... | |
Which of the following is not true of caloric test?: (A) Induction of nystagmus by thermal stimulation, (B) Normally, cold water induces nystatmus to opposite side and warm water to same side, (C) In canal paresis, the test is inconclusive, (D) None | Answer is C. Nystagmus can be induced both by cold as well as thermal stimulationCold stimulation causes nystagmus towards opposite side while thermal stimulation causes Nystagmus towards same side. (COWS)In canal paresis either there is a reduced or absent response (causes of U/L canal paresis are-U/L vestibular Schwa... | |
Enlarged liver with Hepatocellular dysfunction may be seen in all of the following, except:: (A) Wilson's disease, (B) Budd Chirai syndrome, (C) Alcoholic hepatitis, (D) Post necrotic syndrome | Answer is D. Answer is D (Post necrotic cirrhosis) Liver is typically shrunken in size and not enlarged in post necrotic cirrhosis. Alcoholic hepatitis, NASH, Wilson's disease and Budd chiari syndrome may all present with enlarged liver and hepatocellular dysfunction. | |
Right-sided vocal cord palsy seen in -: (A) Larynx carcinoma, (B) Aortic aneurysm, (C) Mediastinal lymphadenopathy, (D) Vocal nodule | Answer is A. First I would like to exclude other three options : -
Aortic aneurysm (option b) and mediastinal lymphadenopathy (option c) cause left sided vocal cord paralysis.
Vocal nodules does not cause vocal cord paralysis.
Now we are left with option 'a' only : -
"Laryngeal carcinoma especially glottic can ca... | |
The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to one of the following areas: (A) Thalamus, (B) Corpus striatum, (C) Tegmentum of pons, (D) Tectum of midbrain | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Corpus striatum(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.243)The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to corpus striatum | |
About lidocaine, all are true except :: (A) LA effect, (B) Cardiac arrhythmia, (C) Ester, (D) Acts on mucous membranes | Answer is C. C i.e. Ester | |
Acid fast organisms are -: (A) Spores, (B) Nocardia, (C) Legionella, (D) Rodococcus | Answer is A. Spores may be seen in unstained preparations as Refractile bodies. The forespore stains intensely but once the spores envelope is laid down the spores does not stain readly. Spores appear as unstained areas in Gram-stained preparations but being more acid fast than the vegetative cells they can be stained ... | |
Maternal disomy of chromosome 15 is seen in: (A) Prader - Willi syndrome, (B) Klinefelter's syndrome, (C) Angelman syndrome, (D) Turner's syndrome | Answer is A. Uniparental disomy occurs when both chromosomes of a pair or areas from 2 chromosome in any individual have been inherited from a single parent. Maternal uniparental disomy is seen in Leader -Willi syndrome. Paternal uniparental disomy is seen in Angelman syndrome . Reference: Nelson TB of pediatrics pg 41... | |
The mesentery of small intestine, along its attachment to the posterior abdominal wall, crosses all of the following structures except:: (A) Left gonadal vessels, (B) Third pa of duodenum., (C) Aoa, (D) Right ureter. | Answer is A. A i.e. Left gonadal vesselsRoot of mesentery crosses (successively) te ascending (4th) and inferior horizontal (3rd) pas of duodenum, abdominal aoa, IVC, right ureter, right psoas major and right gonadal (testicular/ovarian) vesselQ. It does not cross left ureter, leftgonadal vessels and superior mesenteri... | |
Drug used to prolong action of LA in Hypeensive pts?: (A) Clonidine, (B) Felypressin, (C) Dexmeditomidate, (D) Noradrenalin | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b'.e., Felypressin | |
Congenital syndrome associated with lymphoproliferative malignancy- a) Bloom syndrome b) Fanconi's anemia c) Turner syndrome d) Chediak Higashi syndrome e) Ataxia telangiectasia: (A) ab, (B) bd, (C) ca, (D) de | Answer is D. None | |
A 28 year old female nearing her date of delivery has been admitted following regular contractions. The resident doctor did an examination documents that the head is at +1 station.Where is the exact position of head?: (A) High up in the FALSE pelvis, (B) Just above ischial spine, (C) Just below ischial spine, (D) At th... | Answer is C. Station is leading point of Head. Station 0 = Head at level of Ischial spines + means below Ischial spines - means above Ischial spines Numbers like 1 , 2 denote distance in cm below or above Ischial spine | |
Capillary refill time in a child with shock is?: (A) >1 second, (B) >2 seconds, (C) >3 seconds, (D) >4 seconds | Answer is C. Capillary refill is a simple test that assesses how quickly blood returns to the skin after pressure is applied.
It is carried out by applying pressure to the pink part of the nail bed of the thumb or big toe in a child and over the sternum or forehead in a young infant for 3 seconds.
The capillary refill ... | |
All the following are congenital cysts except: (A) External angular dermoid cyst, (B) Sebaceous cyst, (C) Branchial cyst, (D) Thyroglossal cyst | Answer is B. None | |
In a lady at 32 weeks pregnancy is given an injection of dexamethasone to prevent which of the following in the newborn ?: (A) Respiratory Distress Syndrome, (B) Neonatal convulsion, (C) Neonatal jaundice, (D) Cerebral palsy | Answer is A. The lung maturity occurs at 34 weeks of gestation and this is ceified by checking the L:S ratio which should be > 2:1 or appearance of Phosphatidyl glycerol in the amniotic fluid. Maternal administration of coicosteroid is advocated where the pregnancy is less than 34 weeks. This helps in fetal lung matura... | |
Most common site for contact ulcer in larynx is: (A) Arytenoids, (B) Corniculate, (C) Anterior 1/3 rd of vocal cord, (D) Cricoid | Answer is A. None | |
Initial site of RBC production in fetus-: (A) Gestational sac, (B) Yolk sac, (C) Placeta, (D) Fetal bones | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Yolk sac* Embryonic and fetal hematopoiesis occurs in three phases: megaloblastic, hepatic, and myeloid. At each phase of RBC development both the sites of production and the cell composition change.* Sites and stages of fetal erythropoiesis: Primitive erythropoiesis begins in the yolk sa... | |
Best anaesthetic agent for out patient anasthesia is: (A) Fentanyl, (B) Morphine, (C) Alfentanyl, (D) Penthidine | Answer is C. C i.e. Alfentanyl | |
A 24 yr-old female has flaccid bullae over the skin and oral erosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal blister with acantholytic cells. Diagnosis is:: (A) Pemphigoid, (B) Erythema multiforme, (C) Pemphigus vulgaris, (D) Dermatitis herpetiformis | Answer is C. The features of intaepidermal acantholytic blisters coupled with flacid bullae over skin and oral erosions points towards P. vulgaris. The other 3 diseases do now show intraepidermal blistering. They are devoid of mucosal involement. Erythema Multiforme: Target lesion seen on distal extremeties. If mucosa ... | |
After postmoem body is handed over to :: (A) The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case, (B) Police station near by, (C) Coroner, (D) Chief magistrate | Answer is A. A i.e. The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case | |
A 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be the histopathological finding in the ovary?: (A) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries), (B) Mucinous cystadenoma, (C) Psamomma bodies, (D) Hemorrhagic Corpus Leuteum | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries)(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 166-167; 8th/pg 165-166)In this question, the patient is presenting with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH, along with short stature(Given Height =58 inches, which is less than 5th percentile of expected at 16 years age). All t... | |
Pseudohemoptysis is caused by:: (A) Histoplasma capsulatum, (B) Serratia marcescens, (C) Proteus, (D) Klebsiella | Answer is B. Serratia grows in sputum after collection and makes sputum red (pigment production) This condition is pseudohemoptysis. | |
Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in: March 2005: (A) Fungal keratitis, (B) Congenital syphilis, (C) Phlyctenular keratitis, (D) Trachoma | Answer is B. Ans. B: Congenital syphilis It develop from host immune mechanisms to active infections or antigens within the stromal keratocytes. Diseases known to cause interstitial keratitis include: congenital syphilis, herpes simplex, herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr, tuberculosis and leprosy. Clinical manifestations: su... | |
Most common cause of gangrene of foot of 30 years old farmer who is a chronic smoker -: (A) Raynaud's disease, (B) Myocardial infarction, (C) Atherosclerosis, (D) Thromboangitis obliterans | Answer is D. All four can cause gangrene (Myocardial infarction can cause gangrene by thromboembolism)
Lets see, each option one by one.
Raynauds disease
Is ds of young women* (F:M ratio is 5:1)
commonly the upper limbs* are affected specially the fingers (the thumb is generally escaped)
The disease is characterized... | |
The most commonly seen primary orbital tumour in children is: (A) Optic nerve sheath meningioma, (B) Retinoblastoma, (C) Rhabdomyosarcoma, (D) Glioma of optic nerve | Answer is C. Rhabdomyosarcoma It is a highly malignant tumour of the orbit arising from the extraocular muscles. It is the most common primary orbital tumour among children, usually occurring below the age of 15 years (90%). Clinical features: It classically presents as rapidly progressive proptosis of sudden onset in ... | |
All is true regarding case fatality rate except ?: (A) Represents killing power of disease, (B) Closely related to viruleance, (C) Very useful for chronic diseases, (D) May vary in different epidemic for same disease | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Very useful for chronic disease CFR is typically used in acute infectious disease e.g. food poisoning, cholera, measles. o Its usefulness in chronic disease is limited, because the period from onset to death is long and variable. CFR is closely related to virulence of agent. o Limitation ... | |
Length of naso lacrimal duct is:: (A) 10 mm, (B) 11 mm, (C) 12 mm, (D) 9 mm | Answer is C. Ans. 12 mm | |
A collection of information in a table has been arranged as satisfied, very satisfied and dissatisfied. Which of the following will be the right term for such information?: (A) Interval data, (B) Ratio data, (C) Nominal data, (D) Ordinal data | Answer is D. Ordinal data is that data which has a meaningful arrangement of order but no valuable data or information can be obtained from the order arrangement. For example in the above question, though the data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied and dissatisfied no information is obtainable as to what is the d... | |
Subcapsular orchiectomy is done for: (A) Ca testis, (B) Ca prostate, (C) Ca penis, (D) Ca urethra | Answer is B. Orchidectomy Orchidectomy is performed in advanced disease. In 1941, prostate cancer was shown to be responsive to such treatment by Charles Huggins, the only urologist to win a Nobel Prize. Bilateral orchidectomy, whether total or subcapsular, will eliminate the major source of testosterone production. Re... | |
Neostigmine antagonizes non depolarising blockade by all of the following mechanism except: (A) Decreasing the breakdown of acetyl choline at the motor end plate, (B) Preventing the K+efflux, (C) Increasing the release of acetyl choline at the motor end plate, (D) Depolarization at the motor end plate | Answer is A. Refer Katzung 10/e p 436 Neostigmine is an anti cholinerasterase. It inhibits the breakdown of ACh at the mother end plate This results in increased activity of ACh that causes depolarization of motor end plate by opening Na+channels . It posseses some direct agonistic activating on NM receptors resulting ... | |
True about peripheral nerve injury in upper limb-a) Radial nerve injury cause anaesthesia over anatomical snuff boxb) Median nerve injury cause wrist dropc) Ulnar nerve injury cause claw handd) Index finger anesthesia is caused by median nerve injurye) Thumb anaesthesia is caused by ulnar nerve injury: (A) abc, (B) ad,... | Answer is C. Radial nerve injury causes wrist drop. Thumb anaesthesia is due to median nerve injury. | |
All of the following are synonymous codon pair EXCEPT: (A) CAU & CAC, (B) AUU & AUC, (C) AUG & AUA, (D) AAU & AAC | Answer is C. Synonymous codons Codons that specify the same amino acids. E.g- GGA, GGG, GGU, and GGC codes for glycine Methionine is coded by AUG only. So, there is no synonymous codon for methionine. | |
Widened anion gap is caused by all EXCEPT :: (A) Lactic acidosis, (B) Diarrhea, (C) Diabetic keto-acidosis, (D) Methanol poisoning | Answer is B. Ans.(b) Diarrhea* Anion gap :The anion gap is the difference between primary measured cations (sodium Na+ and potassium K+) and the primary measured anions (chloride Cl and bicarbonate HCO3) in serum.* So we take value of sodium and from it subtract the value of chloride and bicarbonate.* Value of Normal a... | |
All of the following provisions are included in the Primary health care according to the Alma Ata declaration except:: (A) Adequate supply of safe drinking water, (B) Nutrition, (C) Provision of free medicines, (D) Basic sanitation | Answer is C. ALMA - ATA CONFERENCE: Called for WHO Goal of "Health for All" by 2000 India is a signatory Provisions included under Primary Health Care according to Alma Ata conference: E- Essential drugs ; 33-38 essential drugs are included in PHC. Most essential drug is Paracetamol L - Locally endemic disease preventi... | |
Gradient in pulmonary artery wedge pressure and left venticular end diastolic pressure is seen in: (A) Aortic regurgitation, (B) Constrictive pericarditis, (C) Left atrial myxoma, (D) Pulmonary thromboembolism | Answer is C. None | |
A 65yr old male with his of Diabetes and HTN presents Ito OPD with complaints of diplopia and squint on examination secondary detion is seen to be more than primary detion Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis: (A) Paralytic squint, (B) Incomitant squint, (C) Restrictive squint, (D) Pseudo squint | Answer is A. ref : ak khurana 7th ed | |
NOT included in third stage of labour: (A) Controlled cord traction, (B) lM-oxytocin, (C) IV methergin, (D) Uterine massage | Answer is C. (C) (IV - Methergin) (142 - Dutta 7th)Methergin 0.2 mg IM (Intramuscular) to the mother within one minute of delivery of the babyOyxtocin may be given with crowning of the head, with delivery of the anterior shoulder of the baby or after the delivery of the placenta.Components of Active Management of Third... | |
All are common causes of childhood blindness except: (A) Malnutrition, (B) Glaucoma, (C) Ophthalmia neonatorum, (D) Congenital dacryocystitis | Answer is D. Congenital dacryocystitis [Ref: Khurana 4/e,p 369, 447; Parson's 20/e, p 530-531 Repeat from May07 Causes of impaired vision in childhood Anatomical classification Whole globe: microphthalmos, anophthalmos, phthisis bulbi, atrophic bulbi Cornea: scar, anterior staphyloma, dystrophy Lens: cataract, dislocat... | |
Effective for common gram-negative anaerobes ?: (A) Aztreonam, (B) Doxycycline, (C) Vancomycin, (D) Tobramycin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aztreonam | |
The recipient twin in monochorionic twin gestation effected by twin-twin transfusion syndrome is characterised by all except: (A) Thrombosis, (B) Hypovolemia, (C) Kernicterus, (D) Heart failure | Answer is B. In TTTS, recipient twin has circulatory overload, hyper volemia and heart failure. |
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