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All are true regarding Primary CNS lymphoma except:: (A) Radiotherapy and chemotherapy is of no value, (B) Occurs in AIDS pt., (C) Commonly occurs in immuno-compromised persons, (D) EBV may be a cause / | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' i.e. ie Radiotherapy and chemotherapy is of no value Primary CNS lymphomaThese are B cell malignancies that present within the neuraxis without evidence of systemic lymphoma.They occur most frequently in immunocompromised individuals, specifically organ transplant recipients or patients with AID... | |
Which of the following is the most common site of secondaries in a case of choriocarcinoma?: (A) Vagina, (B) Urethra, (C) Lung, (D) Brain | Answer is C. In 75% of cases metastasis from choriocarcinoma occurs into the lungs and rest usually occurs in the vagina. Other organs which may also contain metastases are vulva, kidneys, liver, ovaries, brain and bowel. | |
Hot air oven cannot be used for sterilising:: (A) Liquid paraffin, (B) Instruments, (C) Culture media, (D) Needles | Answer is C. None | |
Normal value of ankle branchial index is: (A) 0.8, (B) 1, (C) 1.2, (D) 1.4 | Answer is B. Ankle Brachial Index ABI= Systolic BP at the ankle/systolic BP in the arms Compared to the arm, lower blood pressure in the leg is an indication of blocked aeries (peripheral vascular disease) ABI is calculated by dividing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle by the systolic blood pressures in the arm ... | |
In a patient of liver disease, which maneuvers, may lead to the development of hyperammonemia?: (A) Protein restriction, (B) The use of neomycin, (C) The use of loop diuretics, (D) A branched-chain amino acid-enriched protein mixture | Answer is C. The use of loop diuretics promotes kaliuresis and therefore may lead to hyperammonemia | |
Which of the following is the best-known metabolic function of the lung: (A) Inactivation of serotonin, (B) Conversion of angiotensin–I to angiotensin–II, (C) Inactivation of bradykinin, (D) Metabolism of basic drugs by cytochrome P–450 system | Answer is B. Extracellular ACE on the surface endothelial cells in pulmonary circulation activates Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II. | |
Type of laser used for capsulotomy is:: (A) CO2, (B) Ruby, (C) Nd:YAG, (D) Argon | Answer is C. Ans. Nd:YAG | |
One of the following is used for sex chromatin testing :: (A) Barr body, (B) Testosterone receptors, (C) Hormone levels, (D) Phenotypic features | Answer is A. Chromosomal sex can be determined by the study of the leucocytes or by simply taking a smear from the buccal mucosa The nuclei of the female chromosome contains a stainable body called the sex chromatin, hence female cells are termed as chromatin positive. In epithelial cell nuclei this small peripherally ... | |
Semiclosed circuit system: (A) Needs advanced monitoring, (B) Complex, (C) More environmental pollution, (D) More economical | Answer is C. Semiclose breathing circuit is less economical, causes more environmental pollution. It is simple portable and no need of advanced monitoring. | |
A 40-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency depament with a 2 days history of right knee pain with associated swelling and erythema. The patient is febrile with a holosystolic murmur at the right lower sternal border. Complete blood count reveals leukocytosis. Blood and synol fluid cultures are sent, ... | Answer is D. Gram-positive bacteria remain the most common cause of septic ahritis. Staphylococcus aureus accounts for the majority of culture-positive septic ahritis, especially within ceain patient subgroups such as hemodialysis patients and intravenous drug abusers. The predominance of S. aureus in septic ahritis ha... | |
All except one are features of Thromboangitis obliterans: (A) Initimal hyperplasia, (B) Panarteritis, (C) Vasospasmitis, (D) Arterial thickening | Answer is D. Arterial Lumen is blocked but not thickened in TAO. | |
A 7-year-old boy, Manoj underwent successful chemotherapy and cranial radiation for the treatment of acute lymphocytic leukemia. One month after the completion of therapy, the patient presented with excessive thirst and urination plus hypernatremia. Laboratory testing revealed pituitary diabetes insipidus. To corect th... | Answer is B. (Ref: KDT 6/e p57) Drugs used for the treatment of central (pituitary) diabetes insipidus are: - Desmopressin (selective V2 agonist) - Thiazides - Chlorpropamide - Carbamazepine Drugs used for the treatment of nephrogenic (renal) diabetes insipidus are: - Thiazides - Amiloride (for lithium induced) Thiazid... | |
Dogs are responsible for transmission of all the following except-: (A) Hydatid disease, (B) Toxoplasmosis, (C) Kala-azar, (D) Toxocara canis | Answer is B. None | |
The best marker to diagnose thyroid related order is -: (A) T3, (B) T4, (C) TSH, (D) Thyroglobulin | Answer is C. None | |
Which enzyme converts Testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone?: (A) Aromatase, (B) 5 a reductase, (C) 5 a hydroxylase, (D) 7 a hydroxylase | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 5 a reductase* 5 a reductase is the enzyme which converts testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone (DHT).* Testosterone is sufficient to support male secondary sexual characteristics* Dihydroxytestosterone (DHT) is however, essential for male type external genitalia to get established. DHT i... | |
Which of these following is an example of a leading question?: (A) How did you get cuts on T shi, (B) Cause of injury, (C) Whether it is caused by knife, (D) Size of incised wound | Answer is C. Leading question: Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive. It includes a material fact and admits of a conclusive answer by a simple 'Yes' or 'No' Leading questions not permitted in Leading questions permitted in -Examination in chief(Section 142 IEA) -Re... | |
A 33-yr old man presented with a slowly progressive swelling in the middle 113d of his right tibia. X-rays examination revealed multiple sharply demarcated radiolucent lesions separated by areas of dense and sclerotic bone. Microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen revealed island of epithelial cells in a fibrous st... | Answer is A. Adamantinoma of long bone Introduction: Unusual neoplasm, almost always located in tibial shaft. Clinical features: Localized swelling and pain for several years. Age: Between 15-55 yrs. Radiological features: * An eccentric well demarcated area of destruction usually involving the anterior poion of the ti... | |
A 52 year female pt. presents with symptoms of pheochromocytoma. She also has a thyroid carcinoma. Her thyroid Ca is of which type :: (A) Anaplastic, (B) Medullary, (C) Folliculare, (D) Papillary | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' ie. Medullary carcinoma (Ref Harrison 17/e p2359 (16/e, p 2231, 15/e, p 2185) & Q. Nov. 2000)Pt. is having MEN syndrome type II.MEN syndrome is associated with medullary Ca of thyroid. | |
The first permanent tooth to appear is:: (A) 1st molar, (B) Lateral incisor, (C) Upper canine, (D) 1st premolar | Answer is A. Ans: A (1st molar) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010.Explanation:Appearance of temporary teeth:Lower central incisor (6 mths)Upper central incisor (7 M)Upper lateral incisor (8 M)Lower lateral incisor (9 M)1 st molar ( 1 yr)Canine (1 1/2 yr)2nd ... | |
Radical retroperitoneal lymphnode dissection is indicated for all the following testicular tumours except -: (A) Choriocarcinoma, (B) Teratoma, (C) Teratocarcinoma, (D) Seminoma | Answer is D. None | |
A young patient presented with sudden painless loss of vision with systolic murmur over chest, ocular examination reveals - cherry red spot in macula with clear AC, with perception of light, diagnosis:: (A) Central retinal aery occlusion, (B) Central retinal vein occlusion, (C) Macular choroiditis with infective endoca... | Answer is A. A i.e. Central retinal aery occlusion All the above can lead to sudden painless loss of vision, but Cherry-Red Spot is seen only in CRAO Sudden Painful Painless * Acute * Macular edema congestive * CRAO Q (central retinal aery (angle occlusion) closure) * CRVO Q (central retinal vein occlusion) glaucoma Q ... | |
True about malignant hypehermia -: (A) It is genetic, hypometabolic muscle disease, (B) It is genetic, hypermetabolic muscle disease, (C) It is preoperative complication, (D) It is inherited in Autosomal recessive form | Answer is B. Malignant hypehermia (MH) is a rare genetic hyper metabolic muscle disease. The characteristic phenotypical signs & symptoms most commonly occur with exposure to inhaled anesthetic agents and Succinylcholine. Clinical Manifestations of Malignant Hypehermia: Early Signs: Elevated end-tidal carbon dioxide Ta... | |
Best IOL is –: (A) Anterior chamber, (B) Posterior chamber, (C) Iris supported, (D) Angle supported | Answer is B. The best position of IOL is within the capsular bag in posterior chamber. | |
Oxaloacetate + Acetyl CoA ---> Citrate + CoASH. This reaction is:: (A) Reversible, (B) Exothermic, (C) Can be reversed by catalase, (D) Competitive | Answer is B. In citric acid cycle, the initial reaction between acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate to form citrate is catalyzed by citrate synthase, which forms a carbon-carbon bond between the methyl carbon of acetyl-CoA and the carbonyl carbon of oxaloacetate. The thioester bond of the resultant citryl-CoA is hydrolyzed, re... | |
In children which of the following virus has been implicated in the pathogenesis of choroid plexus tumour?: (A) Simian virus 40, (B) HIV, (C) Herpes simplex, (D) Hepa s B | Answer is A. Simian virus 40 | |
Intracardiac defibrillator (ICD) is useful in which of the following ?: (A) Person with Brugada, (B) Person with Arrhythmogenic RV dysplasia, (C) Person after acute MI with CAD, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ref. AHA guidelines
ICD Indications (AHA Guidelines)
Class I indications (ie, the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered) are as follows:
Structural heart disease, sustained VT
Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
Left... | |
The minimal current amplitude of indefinite durationrequired for the depolarization threshold of the cell membranes is:: (A) Threshold, (B) Rheobase, (C) Chronaxie, (D) Refractory period | Answer is B. Rheobase is the minimal current amplitude of indefinite duration that results in the depolarization threshold of the cell membranes being reached (i.e. an action potential or the contraction of a muscle). Chronaxie (or chronaxy) is the minimum time over which an electric current, double the strength of the... | |
Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage in hepertensive hemorrhage is -: (A) Basal ganglia, (B) Brainstem, (C) Cerebellum, (D) Hippocampus | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following impart structural durability in a three quarter crown preparation on a mandibular molar?: (A) Occlusal shoulder, (B) Functional cusp bevel, (C) Proximal groove, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Direct coomb's test detects -: (A) Antigen in serum, (B) Antibodies in RBC surface, (C) Antigen in RBC surface, (D) Antibodies in serum | Answer is B. None | |
Hailey - hailey disease is:: (A) Benign familial chronic pemphigus, (B) Pemphigus acutus, (C) Pemphigus, (D) Lyell's syndrome | Answer is A. A. i.e. Benign Familial Chronic Pemphigus | |
What is the characteristic of a lacerated wound over bony surface due to blunt trauma without excessive skin crushing?: (A) Irregular margins, (B) Regular sharp margins, (C) Tearing, (D) Flaying | Answer is B. Blunt force on areas where the skin is close to bone, and the subcutaneous tissues are scanty, may produce a wound which by linear splitting of the tissues, may look like incised wound. Lacerations produced without excessive skin crushing may have relatively regular sharp margins. Ref: The Essentials of Fo... | |
A coin foreign body is stuck in esophagus at 25cm from incisors. This is approximately situated at which of the following levels?: (A) Left mainstem bronchus, (B) Diaphragm, (C) Cricopharyngeal constriction, (D) Gastroesophageal junction | Answer is A. On endoscopy, 3 narrowing's are seen from upper incisors. Mnemonic B - 15 AL - 25 D - 40 B - At beginning/cricopharynx 15 cm from upper incisors A- At Arch of aoa 25cm from upper incisors L- At Left Bronchus 25 cm from upper incisors D- At Diaphragm 40cm from upper incisiors | |
False rejection of a true null hypothesis is due to?: (A) Type II error, (B) Type I error, (C) Beta error, (D) Error of second kind | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type I error Statistical errors Statistical errors are used to describe possible errors made in statistical decision. Before reading about the types of error you must know null hypothesis because these tests are related to null hypothesis. Null hypothesis says - Any kind of difference or ... | |
Eleven years after undergoing right modified radical mastectomy, a 61-year-old woman develops raised red and purple nodules over the right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Lymphangitis, (B) Lymphedema, (C) Lymphangiosarcoma, (D) Hyperkeratosis | Answer is C. Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare complication of long-standing lymphedema, most frequently described in a patient who has previously undergone radical mastectomy (Stewart-Treves syndrome). It usually presents as blue, red, or purple nodules with satellite lesions. Early metastasis, mainly to the lung, may devel... | |
Which of the following "oncogenic viruses" is so far not shown to be (oncogenic) in man -: (A) Hepatitis B virus, (B) Epstein - Barr virus, (C) Herpes simplex Type 2, (D) Adenovirus | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Adenovirus . Adenovirus type 12 and 18 produce sarcoma when inoculated into baby hamsters. . However there is no evidence at all relating adenoviruses to natural malignancy in human or animals. . All other viruses given in option are oncogenic in man. | |
Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease: (A) Sensorineural deafness, (B) Veigo, (C) Pulsatile tinnitus, (D) Fluctuating deafness | Answer is C. Meniere's disease, also called endolymphatic hydrops, is a disorder of the inner ear where the endolymphatic system is distended with endolymph. It is characterized by (i) veigo,(ii) sensorineural hearing loss, -- Hearing improves after the attack and maybe normal during the periods of remission. This fluc... | |
After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transpoers reduced in: (A) Brain cells, (B) RBCs, (C) Adipocytes, (D) Hepatocytes | Answer is C. GluT4 is the major glucose transpoer in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.GluT4 is under the control of insulin.In Type 2 diabetes mellitus, membrane GluT4 is reduced, leading to insulin resistance in muscles and fat cells.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 107 | |
In the inflammatory process the prostaglandins E1and E2 causes: (A) Vasodilation, (B) Increased gastric output, (C) Decreased body temperature, (D) Vaso constriction | Answer is A. ref Robbins 9/e p85 | |
Which of the following agents is likely to cause cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not compliant with therapy?: (A) Rubella, (B) Toxoplasmosis, (C) CMV, (D) Herpes | Answer is B. b. Toxoplasmosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2814, Ghai 8/e p 574)Cerebral calcification with hydrocephalus in seen in congenital toxoplasmosis. | |
Which of the following is not a pyrimidine base?: (A) Cytosine, (B) Uracil, (C) Guanine, (D) Thymine | Answer is C. Guanine is a purine base Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p329 | |
All of the following are aerial supply of sternocileidomastoid muscle, except:: (A) Posterior auricular aery, (B) Occipital aery, (C) Thyrocervical trunk, (D) Superior thyroid aery | Answer is A. Posterior auricular aery | |
Which of the following is the source of energy for a cardiac muscle at normal conditions?: (A) Fatty acids, (B) Ketone bodies, (C) Glucose, (D) Any of the above | Answer is A. Hea consumes more energy than any other organ. It utilizes about 6 kg of ATP per day, 20-30 times of its own weight. Cardiac muscle derives its energy by oxidative metabolism of fatty acids (60-90%) and glucose 10-40%. Ketone bodies are also normally metabolized. In addition, energy transfer to hea's myofi... | |
Testosterone production is mainly contributed by: (A) Leydig cells, (B) Seolie cells, (C) Seminiferous tubules, (D) Epididymis | Answer is A. Testosterone- the principal male sex hormone (androgen) that is produced by Leydig&;s cells of the testes in response to luteinizing hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. It is also produced by the adrenal coex in both males and females. Its chief function is to stimulate the development of the male rep... | |
Best statistical data diagram to depict incidence change over a period of tissue is: (A) Pie char, (B) Histogram, (C) Scatter diagram, (D) Line diagram | Answer is D. None | |
A 40-year old male presents with history of vomiting of blood 2 hours ago. The volume of vomitus was estimated to be 500 ml. His BP was 90/58 mm Hg and pulse was 110/min. On abdominal examination, the spleen was palpable 5 cm below the costal margin. The most likely cause of the bleeding is:: (A) Portal hypertension, (... | Answer is A. Ans. a. Portal hypertension (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1164)Splenomegaly and massive bleeding leading to hypotension and tachycardia in the patient are in favor of portal hypertension.Common Causes of Upper Gastrointestinal HemorrhageNon-variceal Bleeding(80%)QPortal Hypertensive Bleeding(20%)QPeptic ulcer disea... | |
The advantage of unfilled methyl methacrylate is that:: (A) It can be finished smoothly, (B) It has a low degree of flow, (C) It's non-irritation to pulp, (D) It's wear resistant is high | Answer is A. None | |
Regarding HIV which of teh following is nopt true -: (A) It is a DNA retrovirus, (B) Contains Reverse Transcriptase, (C) May infect host CD4 cells other than T lymphocytes, (D) Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease | Answer is A. HIV genome is diploid composed of 2 identical single stranded positive sense RNA copies.In association with reverse transcriptase enxyme. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:571 | |
Most common extra pulmonary involvement of TB ?: (A) Bone, (B) Lymph nodes, (C) Pleura, (D) Ileocecal | Answer is B. Most common extra pulmonary involvement: lymph nodes > pleura> ileocecal - GI TB most common site- ileocecal | |
Which of the following anti-hypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy:: (A) Beta blockers, (B) ACE inhibitors, (C) Methyldopa, (D) Ca channel blockers | Answer is B. Ans. (b) ACE inhibitorsRef KDT 6th ed. 553; Williams 24th ed, /: 1025* ACEs are the drugs which inhibit the conversion of angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II. They can cause severe fetal malformations when given in the second and third trimesters.* These include: Hypocalvaria and renal dysfunction and are also... | |
Menke's Kinky hair syndrome is due to defect in: (A) Ca transporter, (B) Cu transporter, (C) Zn transporter, (D) Se transporter | Answer is B. Menke's kinky hair syndrome is due to mutation in ATP7A gene, leading defective copper transporter. | |
Most common cause of U/L mucopurulent rhinorrhea in a child is:: (A) Foreign body, (B) Adenoids which are blocking the airways, (C) Deted nasal septum, (D) Inadequately treated acute frontal sinusitis | Answer is A. A unilateral nasal discharge is nearly always due to foreign body and if duscharge has an unpleasant smell,it is pathognic. If a child presents with unilateral,foul smeling nasal discharge,foreign body must be excluded. Ref Dhingra 6/e,p 161. | |
In thyroid gland, iodine is transpoed into the lumen of the follicles by: (A) Endocytosis, (B) Pendrin protein, (C) Antipo, (D) Primary active transpo | Answer is B. Pendrin protein is a chloride-iodide transpoer protein encoded by the gene responsible for Pendred syndrome, impoant in function of thyroid gland, kidney, and inner ear.Endocytosis is defined as the uptake by a cell of material from the environment by invagination of the plasma membrane; it includes both p... | |
Intermediate host for schistosoma haematobium is: March 2013: (A) Cat, (B) Dog, (C) Rat, (D) Fresh water snail | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Fresh water snail Schistosoma haematobium It is an impoant digenetic trematode, and is found in the Middle East, India, Pougal and Africa. It is a major agent of schistosomiasis; more specifically, it is associated with urinary schistosomiasis. Adults are found in the Venous plexuses around the... | |
All of the following cephalosporins have good activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT :: (A) Cefadroxil, (B) Cefepime, (C) Cefoperazone, (D) Ceftazidime | Answer is A. First generation cephalosporins like cefadroxil are mainly effective against gram +ve organisms and possess little activity against Pseudomonas. | |
A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disorder. Genetic anylysis shows that the patient&;s gene for the muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation in its promoter region. What would be the most likely effect of this mutation?: (A) Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will b... | Answer is D. Because the mutation creates an additional splice acceptor site (the 3'-end) upstream of the normal acceptor site of intron 1, the 19 nucleotides that are usually found at the 3'-end of the excised intron 1 lariat can remain behind as pa of exon 2. Exon 2 can, therefore, have these extra 19 nucleotides at ... | |
Uterine prolapse is prevented by all the following EXCEPT:: (A) Broad ligament of uterus, (B) Levator ani muscle, (C) Uterosacral ligament, (D) Transcervical ligament | Answer is A. Ans-A (Broad ligament of uterus). (Ref. Shaw's Text book of Gynaecology 13th/pg. 16)The supports of uterus and bladder are seen to be triradiate condensation of endopelvic fascia:Ligaments of the uterusSuspensory ligament of ovaries# Contains the ovarian vessels.Transverse cervical (Cardinal/Macken rodt's ... | |
In children below 5 years of age, most common cause of gingivitis is: (A) local irritating factors, (B) herpes, (C) vitamin deficiency, (D) malocclusion | Answer is A. None | |
Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is -: (A) Serum iron levels, (B) Serum ferritin levels, (C) Serum transferrin receptor population, (D) Transferrin saturation | Answer is B. <p>Plasma ferritin is a measure of iron stores in tissues & is the best test to confirm iron deficiency & is a very specific test . </p><p>Plasma iron & total iron binding capacity are measures of iron availability ;hence they are affected by many factors besides iron stores.</p><p>Plasma iron has a marked... | |
A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis -: (A) Appendicitis, (B) Leukemic colitis, (C) Perforation peritonitis, (D) Neutropenic colitis | Answer is D. Neutropenic enterocolitis (NE) is also known as typhlitis, ileocecal syndrome, cecitis, or necrotizing enterocolitis. Despite the previous use of the term "necrotizing enterocolitis" to describe NE cases, necrotizing enterocolitis is a different inflammatory illness seen in newborns and is beyond the scope... | |
Which of the following cause Teratogenecity -: (A) Vit. C, (B) Vit. E, (C) Vit. A, (D) Vit. D | Answer is C. Vit A is teratogenic and can cause craniofacial CVS and CNS defects. | |
Double arch aoa arises from?: (A) Right 6th aoic arch, (B) Left 6th aoic arch, (C) Right 4th aoic arch, (D) Left 4th aoic arch | Answer is D. HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:254 The arch of aoa is derived from the ventral pa of the aoic sac ,its left horn,and the left fouh arch aery | |
A 48-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of sudden-onset dizziness. He notices an abrupt onset of a "spinning" sensation when sitting up or lying down in bed. The symptoms last for 30 seconds and then resolve completely. He has no hearing change or other neurologic symptoms, and his physical examination is com... | Answer is D. This person has benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), which is characterized by sudden-onset brief episodes of vertigo lasting less than a minute. The symptoms are usually brought on by head movement. The cause is commonly attributed to calcium debris in the semicircular canals, known as canalithias... | |
62 year old patient underwent radical mastectomy 10 years back. She has long standing lymphedema. Now the biopsy shows angiosarcoma. This is known as: (A) Stewart treves syndrome, (B) Monodors disease, (C) Zuskas disease, (D) Tietz syndrome | Answer is A. Long standing lymphedema leading to angiosarcoma is known as Stewart treves syndrome. | |
Children can reach for objects by:: (A) 4 months, (B) 6 months, (C) 8 months, (D) 10 months | Answer is A. Ans: A (4 months) Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition. Pg 27. Explanation: (See following table) Fine motor milestones MilestoneAverage age of attainment (in months)Developmental implicationsGrasps rattle3.5Object useReaches for objects4Visuomotor coordinationPalmar grasp gone4Voluntary releas... | |
Which is the most common site of metastatic disease-: (A) Lung, (B) bone, (C) Liver, (D) Brain | Answer is C. Invasion and metastasis are complex processes involving multiple discrete steps; they begin with local tissue invasion, followed byinfiltration of nearby blood and lymphatic vessels by cancer cells.Malignant cells are eventually transpoed through haematogenousand lymphatic spread to distant sites within th... | |
All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis of gastrointestinal tract except:: (A) Presents with a mass in RIF, (B) Barium meal shows' pulled up caecum', (C) Most common site is ileocecal junction, (D) ATT is the treatment of choice. | Answer is D. If there is no intestinal obstruction conservative antitubercular treatment is advised. If obstruction is present, surgery is advised under cover of antitubercular treatment. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 23rd Edition, Page 1046; Oxford Textbook of Surgery, 2nd Edition, Page 3243; Sho Tex... | |
River blindness is caused by:: (A) Onchocerca, (B) Loa Loa, (C) Ascaris, (D) B. malayi | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Onchocerca(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1421)* Onchocerciasis is also known as River blindness Q and fly involved is Simulium fly. | |
Eating disorder with normal weight is?: (A) Anorexia nervosa, (B) Bulimia nervosa, (C) Binge eating disorder, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. B. Bulimia nervosaAnorexia nervosa - Under weightBulimia nervosa - Normal WeightBinge eating disorder - Over weight. | |
All are true about type 1 schizophrenia except?: (A) Acute illness, (B) Good prognosis, (C) Negative symptoms, (D) Intellect maintained | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Negative symptoms Type I (Reactive or acute schizophrenia) Type II (Process schizophrenia) Characteristic symptoms Type of illness Response to neuroleptics Outcome Intellectual impairment Etiology Positive symptoms (Hallucination,Acute Delusion, Thought) Good Reversible Absent Dopamine ov... | |
Excitatory Neurotransmitter in CNS-: (A) Acetyl choline, (B) Glycine, (C) GABA, (D) Glutamate | Answer is D. Glutamate is the chief excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS. | |
Anita 15-year-old, complains of heavy periods since 2 months. O/E: wt 40 kg and BP 120/80 mmHg. All of the following investigations are indicated, except :: (A) TSH, (B) Platelet count, (C) Bleeding and clotting time, (D) Estradiol levels | Answer is D. Investigations in a case of pubey menorrhagia : 1.Blood profile--Hb%, bleeding and clotting time, coagulation factors; blood film. 2.X-ray chest for tuberculosis. 3.Thyroid function tests. 4.Pelvic ultrasound PCOD, early fibroid. 5.If medical treatment fails, D&C should be done to rule out endometrial tube... | |
Which of the following is/are sign of fracture ?: (A) Abnormal mobility, (B) Crepitus, (C) Failure to transmit movement proximally, (D) All of above | Answer is D. Sure signs of fracture :- 1 Abnormal mobility(best) 2 Failure to transmit movements proximally 3 Crepitus 4 Tenderness(Commonest sign) | |
Antidepressant drug that can be used in nocturnal enuresis is?: (A) Imipramine, (B) Fluvoxamine, (C) Phenelzine, (D) Bupropion | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Imipramine(Ref: CMDT 2010/966)Imipramine is efficacious however, Desmopressin is the first choice drug for nocturnal enuresis. | |
Deltoid ligament is attached to all, except: (A) Medial malleolus, (B) Medial cuneiform, (C) Spring ligament, (D) Sustentaculum tali | Answer is B. DELTOID LIGAMENT:-Very strong Triangular shape Present on medial side of ankle.Ligament is crossed by the tendons of Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus.Prone to injuries in inversion.Superficial and deep pa. Both pas have common attachments above to the apex and margins of medial malleolus. Sup... | |
40 year old male with sputum AFB +ve,complains of Hoarseness of voice and painful swallowing on examination vocal cord shows mamillated adenoids and hyperaemia the most likely diagnosis is: (A) Rinke's edema, (B) Epiglottitis, (C) TB larynx, (D) Cancer of larynx | Answer is C. None | |
Case fatality rate describes:: (A) Communicability of infection, (B) History of disease, (C) Virulence of organism, (D) Contribution of a disease among all deaths | Answer is C. Case fatality rate: Deaths/cases x 100 CFR represents "Killing power of a disease". It is closely related to "Virulence of organism". It is applicable only for acute diseases. Time interval is not specified. | |
Laser Endometrial ablation is done in abnormal uterine bleeding in all cases except: (A) Women not preferring surgery, (B) Small uterine fibroids, (C) Women preferring reproductive function, (D) Failed medical treatment | Answer is C. Females who desire future pregnancy should not be offered endometrial ablation for AUB. | |
A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of midsternal chest pain. Which of the following nursing action should take priority?: (A) A complete history with emphasis on preceding events., (B) An electrocardiogram, (C) Careful assessment of vital signs, (D) Chest exam with auscultation | Answer is C. The priority nursing action for a patient arriving at the ED in distress is always assessment of vital signs. This indicates the extent of physical compromise and provides a baseline by which to plan further assessment and treatment. A thorough medical history, including onset of symptoms, will be necessar... | |
Palpable purpura is seen in –: (A) PAN, (B) ITP, (C) TTP, (D) DIC | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following causes retinal pigmentation?: (A) Quinine, (B) Chloroquine, (C) Mefloquine, (D) Atovaquone | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine * Chloroquine is a 1st line anti malarial drug, which is an erythrocytic schizonticide.* However, its prolonged use of high doses (as in DLE, rheumatoid arthritis) may cause loss of vision due to retinal damage in the form of retinal pigmentation.* Chloroquine may also cause c... | |
Development of labia majora is from -: (A) Urogenital sinus, (B) Mullerian duct, (C) Genital ridge, (D) Genital swelling | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Genital swelling Embryogical structureFate in femaleFate in maleGenital ridgeOvaryTestisGenital swellingLabia majoraScrotumGenital foldLabia minoraVentral aspect of penis penile urethraGenital tubercleClitorisGians penis | |
All of the following are features of Premature Ventricular Complexes, Except: (A) Wide QRS complex, (B) Absent P wave, (C) Complete compensatory pause, (D) Prolonged PR interval | Answer is D. Answer is D (Prolonged PR interval) PR interval does not characterize Ventricular Premature complexes because AV conduction is not involved. Wide QRS complex, Absent P wave and a frequently Complete Compensatory Pause are all characteristic features of Premature ventricular complexes. The basic ECG charact... | |
Pediculus humanus can transmitt:: (A) Sleeping sickness, (B) Plague, (C) Chaga's disease, (D) Relapsing fever | Answer is C. Ans. c. Chaga's disease | |
Mechanism of action of cyanide poisoning:September 2010: (A) Inhibits protein breakdown, (B) Inhibits DNA synthesis, (C) Inhibits protein syntheisi, (D) Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450 | Answer is D. Ans. D: Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450Cyanide poisoning occurs when a living organism is exposed to a compound that produces cyanide ions (CN-) when dissolved in water. Common poisonous cyanide compounds include hydrogen cyanide gas and the crystalline solids potassium cyanide and sodium cyanide.The cyani... | |
SSRIs should be carefully used in the young for the management of depression due to increase in:: (A) Nihilism ideation, (B) Guilt ideation, (C) Suicidal ideation, (D) Envious ideation | Answer is C. The use of SSRIs can increase suicidal ideations. This side effect is more common in children and adolescents and hence these medications should be used cautiously in that age group. | |
The number of times an individual swallows per day while awake:: (A) 600, (B) 800, (C) 700, (D) 900 | Answer is A. None | |
At the CEJ, which of the following occurs: (A) Cementum meets enamel, (B) Cementum overlaps enamel, (C) Cementum does not meet enamel, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Which among the following drug is not used in the
treatment of Tetralogy of Fallot?: (A) β blocker, (B) α agonists, (C) Calcium channel blockers, (D) Morphine | Answer is C. Calcium channel blockers reduce systemic Vascular resistance which incsceases blood flow into Aorta and decreases blood to pulmonary vasculature. This adds to the pathology and worsens the condition. | |
Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia?: (A) Has biphasic life, (B) Elementary body is metabolically active, (C) Reticulate body undergoes binary fission, (D) Once it invades into cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Elementary body is metabolically active Reproductive Cycle of Chlamydiae Elementary body (EB) Stable spherical form, metabolically inactive - Extracellular phase Infectious form 200 - 300 nm diameter Rigid trilaminar cell wall Electron dense nucleoid (contains DNA) DNA = RNA Attach to surface of s... | |
Commonest cause of pyogenic liver abscess -: (A) Biliary Sepsis., (B) Biliary Colic, (C) Appendicitis, (D) Sigmoid Diverticulitis | Answer is A. None | |
Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:: (A) Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity, (B) Increases the transpo of glucose into the cells, (C) Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase, (D) Decreases intracellular cAMP level | Answer is C. Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase Role of insulin in lipogenesis: Insulin promotes lipogenesis by increasing activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity, the principal enzyme of lipogenesis Insulin promotes the entry of glucose in some tissues such as skeletal muscle and adipocytes and thus increases the ava... | |
The ratio of ICF volume to Extracellular fluid volume reaches adult values at the age of: (A) 1 year, (B) 2 years, (C) 3 years, (D) 4 years | Answer is A. Total body water is divided between 2 main compaments: intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF). In the fetus and newborn, the ECF volume is larger than the ICF volume. The normal postnatal diuresis causes an immediate decrease in the ECF volume. This is followed by continued expansion of th... | |
Emporiatrics deals with the health of the following group of people:: (A) Farmers, (B) Travellers, (C) Industrial workers, (D) Mine workers | Answer is B. Emporiatrics is the term coined to describe the science of the health of travellers. Health maintenance recommendations are based not only on the traveler's destination but also on assessment of risk, which is determined by such variables as health status, specific itinerary, purpose of travel, season, and... | |
Compared to the other leukemias, hairy cell leukemia is associated with which of the following infections -: (A) Parvovirus D19, (B) Mycoplasma, (C) HTLV2, (D) Salmonella | Answer is C. Hairy cell leukaemia is seen in patients susceptibility to infections with mycobacterium avium intracellulare. Nontuberculous mycobacteria, also known as environmental mycobacteria, atypical mycobacteria and mycobacteria other than tuberculosis, are mycobacteria which do not cause tuberculosis or leprosy. ... | |
Resting membrane potential of nerve is equal to equilibrium potential of: (A) Na+, (B) Cl-, (C) K+, (D) HCO3- | Answer is B. B i.e. Chloride ion | |
Which of the following statements about fluconazole is most accurate?: (A) It is highly effective in the treatment of aspergillosis, (B) It does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier, (C) Its oral bioavailability is less than that of ketoconazole, (D) It inhibits demethylation of lanosterol | Answer is D. * Fluconazole (Azoles) act by inhibiting the enzyme lanosterol-14-a-demethylase resulting in reduced ergosterol synthesis. * It has very good CNS penetration and oral bioavailability. * It is not very effective against aspergillosis (voriconazole is the drug of choice). | |
Excess of avidin causes deficiency of:: (A) Folate, (B) Choline, (C) Vitamin B12, (D) Biotin | Answer is D. Excess consumption of raw eggs, which contains a protein 'avidin' - a biotin binding protein leads to biotin deficiency When cooked, avidin is paially denatured and its binding to biotin is reduced. So cooked egg whites are safe to consume. | |
Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases included all of the following except -: (A) Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 percent of caloric intake, (B) A decrease in complex carbohydrateconsumption, (C) Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake, (D) Reduction... | Answer is B. increase in complex carbohydrate consumption that is vegetables ,fruits,legumes and whole grains | |
Treatment of choice for Aniseikonia: (A) Ohoptic exercise, (B) Spectacles, (C) Surgery, (D) Contact lens | Answer is D. Treatment 1. Optical aniseikonia may be corrected by aniseikonic glasses, contact lenses or intraocular lenses depending upon the situation. 2. For retinal aniseikonia treat the cause. 3. Coical aniseikonia is very difficult to treat. Image : Aniseikonia Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,Edition 4,Page-... |
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