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The daily requirement of Vitamin C is-: (A) 40mg., (B) Ming, (C) 200 mg, (D) 500 mg | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 40 mgo The daily requirement for vitamin C --> 40 mg. | |
Diseases caused by coxsackievirus are all except:: (A) Herpangina, (B) Hand foot and mouth disease, (C) Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis, (D) Herpes | Answer is D. In oral cavity CV causes:
Herpangina
Hand foot and mouth disease
Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis. | |
True about Wilsons disease is?: (A) Increased serum ceruloplasmin, (B) Decreased liver copper, (C) Increased urinary copper excretion, (D) Decreased urine copper excretion | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased urinary copper excretion | |
The chyle from intestine is rich with chylomicrons. Which of the following form the protein core of chylomicrons?: (A) Triglyceride only, (B) Triglyceride + cholesterol, (C) Triglyceride + cholesterol + phospholipid, (D) Only cholesterol | Answer is C. The triacylglycerol, cholesterol ester and phospholipid molecules along with apoproteins B48, and apo-A are incorporated into chylomicrons. Four major groups of lipoproteins: Chylomicrons, derived from intestinal absorption of triacylglycerol and other lipids. Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL, or pre--l... | |
Which of the following is known as monkey fever -: (A) Plague, (B) KFD, (C) Yellow fever, (D) Trench fever | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., KFDo White disease- AIDSo Poverty disease - Cholerao Hundred day cough: Pertussis (Whooping cough)o 5 day fever: Trench fevero 8th day disease: Tetanuso Black sickness: Kala azaro Black death: Plagueo Cerebrospinal fever: Meningococcal meningitiso Kochs phenomenon: Tuberculosiso Hansen s ... | |
The shortest root on a maxillary first molar is:: (A) Mesio-buccal, (B) Disto-buccal, (C) Lingual, (D) All are of equal length | Answer is B. None | |
Antiparkinsonian drug activating D2 receptors directly: (A) Pramipixole, (B) Entacapone, (C) Benserazide, (D) Selegiline | Answer is A. Direct D2 activators are bromcriptine , pergolide,pramipexole,ropinirole. ENtcapone and tolcapone are COMT inhibitors and selegiline is a MAO inbibitor used in PD.In PD there is decrease of dopamine in the substansia nigra. Ref:KDT 6/e p419 | |
Treatment of atropine toxicity -: (A) 2-pralidoxime, (B) Naloxone, (C) Flumazenil, (D) Physostigmine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Physostigmine o Atropine blocks cholinergic receptors. So, for atropine overdose, we require a drug that increases cholinergic action. o Physostigmine increases the concentration of Ach. Physostigmine counteracts central (because it crosses BBB) as well as peripheral symptoms of atropine ... | |
76 year old man presents with lytic lesion in the vebrae. X-Ray skull showed multiple punched out lesions. The diagnosis is: (A) Metastasis, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Osteomalacia, (D) Hyperparathyroidism | Answer is B. B i.e. Multiple Myeloma Old age, male sex & veebral involvement (lytic lesion) indicate towards diagnosis of Metastasis & Multiple myeloma. But Absence of primary and characterestic multiple punched out lesions on X-Ray skull is diagnostic of Multiple myelomaQ. Osteomalacia: - Looser's zoned or Pseudofract... | |
All the following increase insulin release except: (A) Rosiglitazone, (B) Nateglinide, (C) Glipizide, (D) Exenatide | Answer is A. Glitazones -insulin sensitizers.they will not produce insulin from beta cells.a cells of pancreas There are insulin sensitizers and insulin secretogogues. insulin secretogogues increase the insulin secretion from the beta cells of pancreas.where as insulin sensitizres help in secsitizing the tissue to alre... | |
Observe the following curves. What will happen to Sensitivity and Specificity if curve changes from Blue to Red?: (A) Both Sensitivity & Specificity increase, (B) Both Sensitivity & Specificity decrease, (C) Sensitivity increase & Specificity decrease, (D) Sensitivity decrease & Specificity increase | Answer is A. (a) Both Sensitivity & Specificity increase* If Blue color curve changes to Red color curve (see Photograph in Question), then- FN will reduce, Sensitivity will increase (see Photograph given in Answer)- FP will reduce, Specificity will increase (see Photograph given in Answer). | |
Vegetable fat differs from animal oil in being –: (A) More saturated, (B) More stable, (C) More atherosclerotic, (D) Contains less fat soluble vitamin | Answer is D. Vegetable fats are more unsaturated than animal fats, PUFA is found mostly in vegetable fats.
However, there are exceptions, as for example coconut and palm oils although vegetable oils, have an extremely high percentage of saturated fatty acids. On the other hand , fish oil contain good percentage of PUF... | |
Sympathetic stimulation increases blood flow except:: (A) Skin, (B) Coronary circulation, (C) Cerebral, (D) Renal | Answer is A. Ans. a. Skin Sympathetic stimulation decreases blood flow in skin. Sympathetic Stimulation Stimulation of sympathetic fibers causes vasoconstriction but it is not impoant, as the vasocontricor system is not well developed in cerebral vascular bed. Sympathetic stimulation increases myocardial blood flow thr... | |
Amount of blood loss in class II circulatory failure/Haemorrhagic shock?: (A) <15%, (B) 15-30%, (C) 30-40%, (D) >40% | Answer is B. -Hemorrhagic shock has been divided into 4 classes according to ATLS course. Class 1 Class2 Class 3 Class 4 Blood volume lost as % of total < 15 % 15-30% 30-40% >40% Four Classes of Hemorrhagic Shock (According to the ATLS course) Parameter I II III IV Blood loss (%) 0-15% 15-30 30-40 >40 CNS Slightly anxi... | |
An adult hypeensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache and vomiting. On examination, there is marked neck rigidity and no focal neurological deficit was found. The symptoms are most likely due to:: (A) Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage, (B) Ischemic stroke, (C) Meningitis, (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage | Answer is D. Ans. d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Most likely diagnosis in an adult hypeensive male with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting with marked neck rigidity without focal neurological deficit would be subarachnoid hemorrhage. | |
Down's syndrome is due to:: (A) 5/12 translocation, (B) 18 trisomy, (C) 21trisomy, (D) 14/21 trisomy | Answer is C. Ans: c (21 trisomy)Ref: Nelson Pediatrics, 19th ed., Pg. 384Trisomy 21, Down's syndrome seen in 1/600-800 births. Please note the clinical features which are often asked Hypotonia Dysplasia of the pelvis Flat face, cardiac malformations Speckled irises Simian crease (Brushfield spots) Varying degrees of me... | |
Man is the only reservoir for: (A) Salmonella, (B) Campylobacter jejuni, (C) E. histolytica, (D) Y. enterocolitica | Answer is C. Entamoeba histolytica is predominantly found in primates (including humans) and occasionally in dogs, cats, cattle and pigs.
The parasite has a worldwide distribution and is prevalent in tropical and subtropical countries.
Salmonella - The most common are animal reservoirs are chickens, turkeys, pigs, and... | |
All of the following effects can occur if vagus is stimulated, except: March 2009: (A) Reduction in blood pressure, (B) Increase in secretions of the intestine, (C) Intestinal musculature constriction, (D) Bronchial musculature relaxation | Answer is D. Ans. D: Bronchial musculature relaxation | |
Denosumab is used in:-: (A) Osteomalacia, (B) Osteoahritis, (C) Osteoporosis, (D) Osteosarcoma | Answer is C. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody against RANK - ligand which inhibits binding to RANK receptor and inhibits the activation of osteoclasts and inhibits bone resorption so it is used in treatment of Osteoporosis. | |
When information memorized afterward is interfered by the information learned earlier, it is called :: (A) Retroactive inhibition, (B) Proactive inhibition, (C) Simple inhibition, (D) Inhibition | Answer is B. Earlier learning interferes with retrieval of new information → proactive interference.
Newly acquired information interferes with the retrieval of previously learnt information → retroactive inhibition. | |
Viral Conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by: (A) Herpes simplex, (B) Enterovirus, (C) Adenovirus, (D) Coxackie A Virus | Answer is C. Viral Conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by Adenovirus. | |
True for Hodgkin's stage IA is -: (A) Chemotherapy is best, (B) Radiotherapy is best, (C) Total radiation therapy is best treatment, (D) Fever and wt loss is always present | Answer is B. None | |
About retinitis pigmentosa all are true, EXCEPT:: (A) Night blindness, (B) Waxy disc, (C) Early loss of central vision, (D) Attenuation of retinal vessels is seen | Answer is C. In retinitis pigmentosa rods are involved first followed by cones. As the disease progresses there is loss of night vision and peripheral field of vision. Only in the later stages of the disese there is loss of central vision. Retinitis Pigmentosa is a group of hereditary retinal degenerative disorder char... | |
Common peroneal nerve is related to which of the following structures: (A) Shaft of tibia, (B) Neck of fibula, (C) Lower tibio-fibular joint, (D) Shaft of fibula | Answer is B. B i.e., Neck of fibula Common peroneal nerve winds around neck of fibula to enter peroneus longus muscle. Because of its subcutaneous position it can be easily palpated here & is very prone to injury. So fracture neck of fibula may cause foot drop. | |
Chromosomal mutation can be identified by all except:: (A) Single strand polymorphism, (B) Agarose gel electrophoresis, (C) Denaturating Gradient gel electrophoresis, (D) Dideoxynucleotide trail sequencing | Answer is B. Chromosomal mutation can't be identified by Agarose gel electrophoresis Agarose Gel electrophoresis Used to separate the DNA by charge or by size. The smaller the fragment, the more rapid the migration. Overall rate of migration and optimal range of size for separation are determined by the chemical nature... | |
Upper limb deformity in Erb's palsy -: (A) Adduction and lateral rotation of arm, (B) Adduction and medial rotation of arm, (C) Abduction and lateral rotation of arm, (D) Abduction and medial rotation of arm | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Adduction and medial rotation of arm Clinical features of Erb's palsy A) Muscles paralyzed: Mainly biceps brachii, deltoid, brachialis and brachioradialis. Partly supraspinatus, infraspinatus and supinator. B) Deformity (position of the limb) i) Arm : Hangs by the side; it is adducted and... | |
In angle closure glaucoma, obstruction to outflow of aqueous humour mainly due to the involvement of: September 2007: (A) Canal of schlemm, (B) Trabecular meshwork, (C) Iris, (D) Scleral venous plexus | Answer is C. Ans. C: Iris | |
Which one of the following bacteria ois oxidase positive?: (A) Vibrio, (B) Pseudomonas, (C) Clostridium, (D) E.coli | Answer is A. Oxidase test: The test is used to identifying bacteria containing cytochrome oxidase. I t is useful in differentiating the oxidase negative Enterobacteriaceae from the oxidase positive Pseudomonas organisms and the oxidase positive group of vibrios and related bacterias (Aeromonas, Plesiomonas). Neisseria ... | |
Dose of rifampicin in RNTCP is -: (A) 600 mg, (B) 450 mg, (C) 300 mg, (D) 100 mg | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 450 mg TREATMENT REGIMEN SPUTUM EXAMINATIONS FOR PULMON ARY TBCategory of treatmentType of patientRegimentPre treatment sputumTest at monthIf result isTHEN -Start continuation phase, test sputum 6 monthsNew casesNew sputum smear-positive2(HRZE)3+-2 Category 1New sputum semar-negative+ +Co... | |
Fasciculations are caused by: (A) Scoline, (B) Ketamine, (C) Halothane, (D) Atracurium | Answer is A. Ans. a (Scoline). (Ref. KD Tripathi, Pharamacology, 6th ed., 150)SUXAMETHONIUM CHLORIDE OR SUCCINYL CHOLINE (SCOLINE)Introduction- It is a short acting muscle relaxant.- It is a phase II blocker.- Depolarising muscle i.e. depolarising block at motor end-plate.- It is dichlor ester of succinic acid.- The ac... | |
Which of the following conditions cause congestive hea failure in neonates ?: (A) Bicuspid aoic valve, (B) Tetralogy of Fallot, (C) ASD, (D) Total anomalous pulmonary venous return | Answer is D. In TAPVR can produce CHF in neonate. Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:397 | |
Which of the following statements is true about diaphragm?: (A) Left side pushed down by hea, (B) Left side lower than right side, (C) Right side lower than left side, (D) Hernia common on right side | Answer is C. The Diaphragm This thin fibromuscular paition between thoracic and abdominal cavities is an impoant muscle of respiration.When it contracts,it increases the veical extend of thoracic cavity by paially flatenning its dome and displacingthe abdominal contents downwards.The firous,central pa of the diapgragm(... | |
What is the S.I. unit of effective dose?: (A) Becquerel, (B) Sievert, (C) Gray, (D) Roentgen | Answer is B. The effective dose (E) is used to estimate the risk in humans. It is hard to compare the risk from a dental exposure with, for example, the risk from a radiographic chest examination because different tissues with different radiosensitivities are exposed.
The unit of effective dose is the Sv. | |
Type II Respiratory failure is characterised by (Davidson): (A) Low PaO2 /Low PaCO2, (B) Normal PaCO2 / Low PaO2, (C) Low PaO2 /High PaCO2, (D) High PaO2 / Low PaCO2 | Answer is C. (Low PaO2/High PaCO2) (1684 -H17th)Respiratory failure - PaO2 <8.0 kPa (60mmHg) and PaCO2 > 6.5 kPa (50 mmHg)Type 1 - PaO2 low, PaCO2 normal or lowType II - PaCO2 raised, PaO2 low - Ventilatory failure* Most important - cause in chronic type II respiratory failure is - chronic bronchitis | |
In post-hepatic jaundice, the concentation of conjugatedbilirubin in the blood is higher than that ofunconjugated bilirubin because :: (A) There is an increased rate of destruction of red blood cells., (B) The unconjugated bilirubin is trapped by the bile stone produced in the bile duct., (C) The conjugation process of... | Answer is C. . The conjugation process of bilirubin in liver remains operative without any interference. | |
Zone of HOHL refers to:: (A) Cell-free zone., (B) Cell rich zone., (C) Pulp proper., (D) None. | Answer is B. 1. Cell-free zone (Zone of weil)
Width approx. 40 µm
Not always present
Absent in young pulp (Active secretion of primary dentine) and older pulp (tertiary dentine)
CONTENTS
Capillaries
Unmyelinated nerve fibers
Cytoplasmic process of fibroblasts
2. Cell Rich Zone (Zone of HOHL)
Most numerous cells ar... | |
Hernia into pouch of Douglas is __________ hernia :: (A) Beclard's, (B) Bochdaleks, (C) Blandin's, (D) Berger's | Answer is D. Beclard's hernia → is the femoral hernia through the opening of the saphenous vein (named after Pierre Augustin Beclard). | |
True about primary aldosteronism: (A) Pedal oedema, (B) Increased rennin, (C) Increased Na+, (D) All | Answer is C. Answer is C (Increased Na+) Primary Aldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) is associated with Hypeension, Hypernatremia ( tNa+) and Hypokalemia (iK+) | |
A patient is found to have a duodenal ulcer by upper endoscopy. The likelihood of this patient having H. pylori in the gastric antrum is?: (A) 5%, (B) 20%, (C) 60%, (D) 95% | Answer is C. . | |
A community has a population of 10,000 and a bih rate of 36 per 1000. 6 maternal deaths were repoed in the current year. The Maternal Moality Rate (MMR) is:: (A) 14.5, (B) 16.6, (C) 20, (D) 5 | Answer is B. Total no.of female deaths due to complication of pregnancy, childbih or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in an area during a given year. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- x 1000 Total no. of live bihs in the same area and ye... | |
Acute infectious purpura fulminans is caused by: (A) Neisseria meningitidis and varicella, (B) Gonococi, (C) E. coli, (D) Proteus | Answer is A. Purpura fulminans is an acute, often fatal, thrombotic disorder which manifests as blood spots, bruising and discolouration of the skin resulting from coagulation in small blood vessels within the skin and rapidly leads to skin necrosis and disseminated intravascular coagulation caused by Neisseria meningi... | |
Not a component of Brain stem: (A) Mid brain, (B) Pons, (C) Medulla, (D) Spinal cord | Answer is D. Brainstem
1. Medulla:responsible for regulating and/ or coordination of:
- Blood pressure.
- Breathing.
- Swallowing.
- Coughing.
- Vomiting.
2. Pons : participates in respiratory regulation and the relay of information from cerebral hemispheres to the cerebellum.
3. Midbrain : participates in coordination... | |
Urinary tract infection exists when the bacterial count in 1 ml. of midstream specimen of urine is ?: (A) 100, (B) 1000, (C) 104, (D) 105 or over | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 105 or over | |
Both APTT and PT are prolonged in which conditions?: (A) Factor II deficiency, (B) Factor XIII deficiency, (C) Heparin administration, (D) Thrombocytopenia | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Factor II deficiencyREF: Mastery of Surgery by Josef E. Fischer, K. I. Bland, 5th edition Part I page 90, Saint-Frances guide: clinical clerkship in outpatient medicine. Page 434 8; 235, Harrison 17th ed table 59-4See APPENDIX-50 below for "BLE EDIN G/C O AG U L ATI ON DISORDERS" and APPROACH T... | |
The greatest volume of gastric secretion occurs during:: (A) Cephalic phase, (B) Gastric phase, (C) Intestinal phase, (D) Deglutition | Answer is B. B: The gastric phase is the period of greatest gastric secretion. This phase is responsible for the greatest volume of gastric secretions, and it is activated by the presence of food in the stomach.
A: The cephalic phase of stomach secretion is anticipatory and prepares the stomach to receive food. In the ... | |
A 38-year-old gentleman repos of decreased hearing in the right ear for the last two years. On testing with a 512 Hz tuning fork, the Rinne&;s test without masking is negative in the right ear and positive on the left ear. With Weber&;s test, the tone is perceived as louder in the right ear. The most likely diagnosis i... | Answer is A. The characteristics of conductive hearing loss are: 1. Negative Rinne test, i.e. BC > AC. 2. Weber lateralized to poorer ear. 3. Normal absolute bone conduction. 4. Low frequencies affected more. 5. Audiometry shows bone conduction better than air conduction with air-bone gap. Greater the air-bone gap, mor... | |
Structure superficial to mylohyoid in anterior digastric triangle are:: (A) Deep pa of submandibular gland, (B) Hypoglossal nerve, (C) Pa of parotid gland, (D) Mylohyoid aery & nerve | Answer is D. Deep pa of submandibular gland & hypoglossal neve are deep to mylohyoid muscle.Structures passing superficial to mylohyoid in anterior pa of digastric triangle are submandibular gland (superficial pa), facial vein, facial aery, mylohyoid nerve & vessels, hypoglossal nerve & submandibular nodes. | |
Treatment of Acute pancreatitis includes all except: (A) Calcium, (B) Feeding through ryles tube, (C) Cholestyramine, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. Oral administration of food and TPN is not recommended.
Patient is fed via NGT to jeyunum. | |
A 78-year-old woman has an acute anterior wall MI with hypotension and pulmonary congestion. Her blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, JVP at 8 cm, and the heart sounds are normal. The lungs have bibasilar crackles, and her extremities are cool and diaphoretic. What would central hemodynamic monitoring reveal?F... | Answer is B. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by high right atrial pressure (although it can be normal at times), high PA wedge pressure, high systemic vascular resistance, and low cardiac output. | |
Which of the following physiological change take place by Bainbridge reflex?: (A) Increase in HR, (B) Decrease in HR, (C) Increase in BP, (D) Distension of large somatic veins | Answer is A. Atrial A and B receptors are located at the venoatrial junctions and have distinct functions. Type A receptors react primarily to hea rate but adapt to long-term changes in atrial volume. Type B receptors increase their discharge during atrial distension. C fibers arise from receptors scattered through the... | |
Goiter that appears along with toxic symptoms is:: (A) Primary thyrotoxicosis., (B) Secondary thyrotoxicosis., (C) Toxic nodule., (D) None. | Answer is A. None | |
The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of:: (A) Porphyrin ring with a molecule of Fe in the center, (B) A polypeptide chain containing Fe, (C) A pyrole ring with four molecules of Fe in the center, (D) Four porphyrin rings, each containing a molecule of Fe in the center | Answer is D. Structurally, porphyrin consists of four pyrrole rings (five-membered closed structures containing one nitrogen and four carbon atoms) linked to each other by methine groups (−CH=).
The iron atom is kept in the centre of the porphyrin ring by interaction with the four nitrogen atoms. | |
Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except:: (A) Thrombocytopenia, (B) Small-vessel vasculitis, (C) Disseminated gonococcal infection, (D) Acute meningococcemia | Answer is A. Answer is A (Thrombocytopenia) Thrombocytopenia is associated with non palpable purpura'. Causes of Non palpable pupura: Primary cutaneous disorders Systemic diseases Clotting disturbance Vascular fragility Thrombosis 1 Emboli Possible immune complex Trauma Thrombocytopenia Amyloidosis Disseminated Cholest... | |
The maneuver shown below helps specifically in: (A) Identification of fetal lie, (B) Determination of Fetal orientation, (C) Confirmation of fetal presentation, (D) Determining the degree of descent | Answer is D. The image shows 4th leopold maneuverThe first maneuver assesses the uterine fundus. It permits identification of fetal lie and determination of which fetal pole--that is, cephalic or podalic--occupies the fundus. The second maneuver is accomplished as the palms are placed on either side of the maternal abd... | |
Carpal tunnel contains all except -: (A) Median nerve, (B) FDS tendon, (C) FPL tendon, (D) FCU tendon | Answer is D. Ans-D | |
Age of closure of spheno-occipital synchondrosis:: (A) 6 years, (B) 12 years, (C) 18 years, (D) 25 years | Answer is C. Postnatally, the posterior cranial base becomes longer primarily due to growth at the spheno-occipital synchondrosis. Histologic studies have shown that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis fuses at approximately 16 to 17 years in females and 18 to 19 years in males.
Ref: Graber LW, Vanarsdall RL, Vig KW, Hu... | |
Disulphiram acts by competitive inhibition of which enzyme?: (A) Alcohol dehydrogenase, (B) Aldehyde dehydrogenase, (C) Alcohol carboxylase, (D) Aldyhyde carboxylase | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseRef KDT 6th ed. / 386EthanolAlcohol Dehydrogenase-------------------Acetaldehyde Aldehyde Dehydrogenase---------------------Acetate* Disulfiram is an anti-craving agent for alcoholics. It has been used as an aversion technique in alcoholics.* Disulfiram acts by inhibiting ald... | |
Fast breathing in a 6-month old infant is taken as: (A) >60 breaths/ min, (B) >50 breaths/ min, (C) >40 breaths/ min, (D) >30 breaths/ min | Answer is B. Criteria for fast breathing AGE Respiratory Rate <2 months >60/minute 2-12 months >50/minute 12 months-5 years >40/minute | |
Shivering" is observed in the early pa of postoperative period due to: (A) Chloroform, (B) Halothane, (C) Trichloroethylene, (D) Ether | Answer is B. Postoperative shivering (halothane shakes) and hypothermia is maximum with halothane among inhalational anesthetics. It can be used to sta or maintain anaesthesia. One of its benefits is that it does not increase the production of saliva, which can be paicularly useful in those who are difficult to intubat... | |
Malignant glaucoma is seen in –a) Anterior chamber normalb) Misdirected aqueous flowc) Pilocarpine is the drug of choiced) Management is medical onlye) Atropine is also given: (A) ab, (B) be, (C) bc, (D) ce | Answer is B. In malignant glaucoma there is misdirection of aqueous posteriorly into the vitreous. It is characterized by markedly raised IOP and shallow or absent anterior chamber.
Treatment includes :- i) Medical :- Atropine (DOC), phenylephrine, osmotic agents, (β-blockers, α-agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors;... | |
Staph, epidermis has become important due to: (A) Biofilm formation, (B) Virulence, (C) Wide spectrum antibiotics, (D) Novobiocin resistance | Answer is A. * S. epidermis is a pathogenic organism which affects interventions like catheter, canula.* It is an organism which can form biofilm.* It is novobiocin sensitive. | |
CRF is associated with?: (A) Respiratory acidosis, (B) Respiratory alkalosis, (C) Metabolic acidosis, (D) Metabolic alkalosis | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Metabolic acidosisREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 274, Essentials of Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States by Carol Mattson Forth page 200Chronic kidney disease is the most common cause of chronic metabolic acidosis. The kidneys normally conserve HCO3-- and secrete H+ ions into the u... | |
All are dopaminergic agonists used for parkinsonism EXCEPT: (A) Bromocriptine, (B) Ropinerole, (C) Pramipexole, (D) Selegiline | Answer is D. Selegiline REF: KDT 6th Ed p. 415 DRUGS USED FOR PARKINSONISM Drugs affecting dopaminergic system Dopamine precursor Levodopa Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors Carbidopa , benzaseride Dopaminergic agonists Bromocriptine , ropinerole , pramipexole MAO-B inhibitor Selegiline COMT inhibitor Entacapone , tol... | |
Incestuous relationship between mother and son is called as?: (A) Oedipus complex, (B) Electra complex, (C) Family incest, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oedipus complex * In psychoanalysis, the Oedipus complex is a child's desire, that the mind keeps in the unconscious via dynamic repression, to have sexual relations with the parent of the opposite sex (i.e. males attracted to their mothers, and females attracted to their fathers)* The Oe... | |
Suspensory ligament of Lockwood encloses which pair of muscles: (A) Inferior rectus and inferior oblique, (B) Superior rectus and superior oblique, (C) Medial rectus and lateral rectus, (D) Inferior rectus and lateral rectus | Answer is A. Suspensory ligament of Lockwood: A specialized lower pa of the fascial sheath of the eyeball is the suspensory ligament, which suppos the eyeball. This sling-like structure is made up of fascial sheath of the eyeball. It has contribution from these muscles : Inferior oblique & Inferior rectus. In an event ... | |
The major constituents in agar are: (A) Fats, (B) Aminoacids, (C) Polysaccharides, (D) Polypeptides | Answer is C. Agar, a polysaccharide extract of a marine alga, is uniquely suitable for microbial cultivation because it is resistant to microbial action and becauseit dissolves at 100degC but does not gel until cooled below 45degC; cells can be suspended in the medium at 45degC and the medium quickly cooled to a gel wi... | |
For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary denture teeth, the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors should follow the _____.: (A) Lower lips during smiling, (B) Upper lips during smiling, (C) Lower lips when relaxed, (D) Upper lips when relaxed | Answer is A. Maxillary teeth should contact the wet dry lip line when fricative sounds f, v, and ph are made. These sounds help to determine the position of the incisal edges of the maxillary anterior teeth. | |
All are true about polio vaccines except: (A) OPV is live attenuated vaccine, (B) IPV Provides Intestinal immunity, (C) IPV is killed formalised vaccine, (D) OPV is effective than IPV during Epidemics | Answer is B. None | |
Osteosclerotic metastasis is common in cancer of:: (A) Prostate, (B) Lungs, (C) Malignant melanoma, (D) Renal cell carcinoma | Answer is A. Ans. A. Prostate cancerProstate cancer leads to osteosclerotic metastasis because of release of PTH like proteinsa. Prostate carcinoma cells secrete factors that directly and indirectly alter the osteoblastic function and express factors critical for normal bone development and remodeling, including bone m... | |
True statements about alpha -1 - anti-trypsin deficiency-a) Autosomal dominant diseaseb) Emphysemac) Fibrosis of Portal tractd) Diastase resistant positive hepatocytese) Orcein positive granules: (A) abc, (B) acd, (C) bcd, (D) bd | Answer is C. Fibrosis of portal tract develop when there is cirrhosis. | |
The age at which a child can make a tower of 9 cubes and draw a circle is: (A) 24 months, (B) 30 months, (C) 36 months, (D) 42 months | Answer is C. Key fine motor developmental milestones4mo - Bidextrous reach (reaching out for objects with both hands)6mo - Unidextrous reach (reaching out for objects with one hand); transfers objects9mo - Immature pincer grasp; probes with a forefinger12mo - Pincer grasp mature15mo- Imitates scribbling; tower of 2 blo... | |
In chronic inflammation confined to poal tract with intact limiting membrane and normal lobular parenchyma, the histoapathological diagnosis would be -: (A) Active hepatitis, (B) Chronic active hepatitis, (C) Chronic persistent hepatitis, (D) Acoholic heaptitis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chronic persistent hepatitiso Intact limiting membrae with inflammation confined to poal area is seen in chronic persistent hepatitis. | |
The minimum period required for post exposure chemo prophylaxis for HIV is-: (A) 4 weeks, (B) 6 weeks, (C) 8 weeks, (D) 12 weeks | Answer is A. None | |
Most common site of hypospadias:: (A) Proximal to Glans, (B) Scrotum, (C) Perineum, (D) Mid penis | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Proximal to GlansRef Page 1478, Bailey and Love 27th editionHypospadias:* Incidence- 1 in 200* MC congenital anomaly of urethra* External meatus opens on under side (Ventral surface)* Dorsal Hood and ventral chordee seen.* MC site of opening- proximal to the normal opening in Glans Penis (MC)* Oth... | |
Per Rectal palpation of uterus is done in :: (A) Primigravida, (B) Virgins, (C) Grand multi paras, (D) Placenta pre | Answer is B. Virgins | |
All of the followings are true about Sprengel's deformity, except:: (A) Associated with congental scoliosis, (B) Associated with diastematomyelia, (C) High incidence with Klippel-Feil syndrome, (D) Associated with dextrocardia | Answer is D. ANS. DSprengel's deformity: It is congenital elevation of the scapula.Is a complex deformity of the shoulder and the most common congenital shoulder anomaly.Associations of Sprengel's deformity:* Klippel-Feil syndrome* Spina bifida* Diastematomyelia* Torticollis* Kyphoscoliosis# Klippel-Feil syndromeThe mo... | |
The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is-: (A) Carcinoma parathyroid, (B) Solitary adenoma of parathyroid, (C) Chronic renal failure, (D) Hyperplasia of the parathyroid | Answer is B. solitary adenoma ie a single abnormal gland is the cause in 80% of patients ( Harrison 17 pg 2380) | |
Aminoglycoside affects ?: (A) Outer hair cells in basal area, (B) Inner hair cells in basal area, (C) Outer hair cells in apical area, (D) Inner hair cells in apical area | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Outer hair cells in basal area Cochlear damage with the use of aminoglycosides stas from the base and spreads to the apex; hearing loss affects the high frequency sound first, then progressively encompasses the lower frequencies. Outer hair cells are easily damaged by ototoxic drugs (amin... | |
Which of the following statements about Histamine is true: September 2012: (A) Is found in Mast cells, (B) Increases gastric acid secretion, (C) Related to arousal and blood pressure, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans: D i.e. All of the above Histamine Histamine is formed by: Decarboxylation of histidine Function of histamine: Mediates triple response | |
Accessory renal aery:-: (A) Remnant of degenerated mesonephric aery, (B) May encircle around the kidney, (C) May lead to hydronephrosis, (D) All of above | Answer is D. The accessory renal aery is the precocious origin of a segmental aery which sometimes arises from the aoa and supplies upper or lower pole of the kidney. The accessory renal aery is the remnant of the degenerated mesonephric aery. The aery for the lower pole usually passes behind the pelvis of ureter and m... | |
Blood pressure in right ventricle: (A) 25 mmHg, (B) 80 mmHg, (C) 95 mmHg, (D) 120 mmHg | Answer is A. Peak pressures in theright ventricles is about 25 mm HgRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:508 | |
Tzank smear helps in the diagnosis of :: (A) Herpes viral infection, (B) Bullous pemphigoids, (C) Carcinoma of cervix, (D) None | Answer is A. A. i.e. Herpes | |
Which of the following is the most common cataract in the newborn -: (A) Zonular Cataract, (B) Morgagnian Cataract, (C) Ant. polar Cataract, (D) Post, polar Cataract | Answer is A. Answer: A The commonest cataract in childhood is Blue Dot cataract which presents without visual obstruction. And the commonest congenital cataract which presents with a visual defect is zonular cataract. | |
Row of tombstone is seen in which skin disorder:: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris, (B) Pemphigus foliaceous, (C) Paraneoplastic pemphigus, (D) Bullous pemphigoid | Answer is A. Ans. A. Pemphigus vulgaris* Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by following signs:1. Bulla spread sign2. Perilesional, and distant Nikolsky sign3. Tzanck smear: Acantholytic cell* Histopathology shows suprabasal blister with row of tomb stone appearance of basal cells.* Direct immunofluorescence from peri... | |
A 25year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis: (A) Retinal detachment, (B) Eale's disease, (C) Glaucoma, (D) Cataract | Answer is B. Ans is Eale's disease Both Eale's disease and Retinal detachment are causes of painless sudden loss of vision, however Eale's disease is a much more common cause than RD in a young male. Ocular and systemic examinations in both the conditions may be normal.Eale's diseaseIt is a disease of young adult males... | |
Jumping gene is known as?: (A) Transposon, (B) Retroposon, (C) Insertion sequence, (D) Integron | Answer is A. * Transposons, also called jumping genes, are pieces of DNA that move readily from one site to another.* They move either within or between the DNAs of bacteria, plasmids and bacteriophages in a manner, that plasmid genes can become part of the chromosomal complement of genes.* Interestingly, when transpos... | |
Which of the following X-ray should be advised for age determination between 1-13 years of age: (A) Shoulder, (B) Wrist, (C) Elbow, (D) Iliac bones | Answer is B. A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child&;s skeletal system. It&;s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. ... The bone age is measured in years . Reference: GHAI Essential ... | |
Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of: (A) 18 years, (B) 23 years, (C) 28 years, (D) 30 years | Answer is C. The last case of plague in India was repoed in 1966 and after that there was a 'silence period' of 28 years till the reappearance of the disease in September 1994, when there was an outbreak of bubonic plague in Beed district of Maharashtra and pneumonic plague in Surat (Gujarat). | |
Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of ?: (A) Lichen planus, (B) Psoriasis, (C) Phemphigus, (D) Leprosy | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Psoriasis | |
Radiation protector drug in clinical use among the following is: (A) Amifostine, (B) Cisplatin, (C) Mesna, (D) Tirapazamine | Answer is A. Amifostine is used therapeutically to reduce the incidence of neutropenia-related fever and infection induced by DNA-binding chemotherapeutic agents including alkylating agents and platinum-containing agents . It is also used to decrease the cumulative nephrotoxicity associated with platinum-containing age... | |
Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer's disease relates to: (A) Serotonin, (B) Dopamine, (C) Acetylcholine, (D) GABA | Answer is C. Neurotransmitters, which are decreased in Alzheimer's disease:- Acetylcholine (most important), norepinephrine, somatostatin, corticotropin. | |
Max risk of stroke after TIA:: (A) First 48 hours, (B) First week, (C) First month, (D) First year | Answer is A. Ans. a. First 48 hoursTransient ischemic attack (TIA) is sudden, transitory loss of neurologic function that comes on without headache and resolves spontaneously within 24 hours (but usually lasts less than 1 hour), leaving no neurologic sequelae.The specific symptoms depend on the area of the brain affect... | |
'Cloudy cornea' is a feature of?: (A) Hurler's disease, (B) Morquio's disease, (C) Maroteaux Lamy disease, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D. All of the above. (Ref Essential Paediatrics by OP Ghai 7th/pg. 637)'Cloudy cornea' is known to be a feature of Hurler's disease/IH, Scheie's disease/IS, Morquio's disease/IV and Maroteaux Lamy disease/VI.C/f of mucopolysaccharidoses:Eponyms/MPS numbersMentalretardationCoarse faciesHepatospleno-meg... | |
Painful are syndrome is seen in all except -: (A) Complete tear of supraspinatus, (B) # greater tuberosity, (C) Subacromial bursitis, (D) Supraspinatus tendinitis | Answer is A. Painful are syndrome is seen in incomplete tear of supraspinatus tendon (not in complete tear). | |
In Thyrotoxicosis, B-blockers do not control -: (A) Anxiety, (B) Termors, (C) Tachycardia, (D) Oxygen consumption | Answer is D. Beta blockers ameliorate the symptoms of hypehyroidism that are caused by increased beta-adrenergic tone. These include palpitations, tachycardia, tremulousness, anxiety, and heat intolerance. n many tissues, hypehyroidism is associated with an increased number of beta-adrenergic receptors . The ensuing in... | |
Arousal response is mediated by: (A) Dorsal column, (B) Reticular activating system, (C) Spinothalamic tract, (D) Vestibulo cerebellar tract | Answer is B. Arousal response in cerebral cortex is activated by stimulation of Reticular activating system. | |
Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphomas may be associated with: (A) IgG, (B) IgM, (C) IgA, (D) IgE | Answer is B. Ans. (b) IgM(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 598-602)Lymphoplasmacytic cell proliferation in marrow (Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) with secretion of IgM | |
Massive edema in body in a patients of burns is due to: (A) Cardiac dysfunction due to release of cardiac depressants, (B) Basement membrane injury causing altered pressure gradient, (C) Acute Renal failure, (D) Fluid overload | Answer is B. Massive edema in burns is due to altered pressure gradient because of injury to basement membrane. | |
True about Fibrolamellar carcinoma of Liver is all,except-: (A) Females do not have increased incidence than males, (B) Has good prognosis, (C) Not associated with liver cirrhosis, (D) Serum AFP levels are usually >1000 mg/ltr | Answer is D. Fibrolamellar carcinoma -
It is a distinctive variant of hepatocellular carcinoma
It is seen in young adults (20-40 yrs of age)
It has equal sex incidence
It has a better prognosis
It has no association with HBV or cirrhosis
It is grossly encapsulated mass.
AFP elevation is not seen in Fibrolamellar Ca | |
Cocospinal tract lesion leads to:: (A) Spaticity, (B) Extensor plantar response, (C) Exaggerated tendon reflexes, (D) All | Answer is D. A, B, C i.e. Spaticity, Extensor plantar response, Exaggerated tendon reflexes |
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