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An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by:: (A) Acetylcholine, (B) Ergotamine, (C) Morphine, (D) Ibuprofen | Answer is B. SPECIFIC ANTIMIGRAINE DRUGS
Ergotamine: It is the most effective ergot alkaloid for migraine. Given early in attack, lower doses generally suffice, and relief is often dramatic. However, when pain has become severe-larger doses are needed and control may be achieved only after few hours. Oral/sublingual ro... | |
In trauma, which of the following is increased -: (A) Epinephrine, (B) ACTH, (C) Glucagon, (D) All | Answer is D. Answer is 'a' i.e. Epinephrine; 'b' i.e. ACTH ; 'c' i.e. Glucagon As already mentioned in one of the previous questions, the neuroendocrine response to injury is an impoant pa of the stress response. The release of various hormones, creates an altered metabolic state which helps the individual to survive t... | |
A liver biopsy reveals following findings. What is true about this condition: (A) Nodular regenerative hyperplasia of liver induced due to OCP, (B) Nutmeg liver with dark areas of perivenular dead hepatocytes and gray areas of periportal viable hepatocytes, (C) Nutmeg liver with pale areas of necrosis and dark congeste... | Answer is B. This is a classical picture of nutmeg liver seen in chronic passive venous congestion on the liver.
The dark congested areas consist of necrotic hepatocytes while the surrounding paler and brownish appearing regions are viable hepatocytes.
"The combination of hypoperfusion and retrograde congestion acts s... | |
A patients complains of occasional vomiting of food paicles eaten a few days ago. His wife repos that his breath smells foul. The most likely diagnosis is ?: (A) Pyloric obstruction, (B) Carcinoma stomach, (C) Carcinoma esophagus, (D) Achalasia cardia | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Achalasia cardia | |
An 80 year old male presents to OPD with c/o rapidly enlarging neck mass and Hoarseness of voice . He gives a history of untreated papillary carcinoma of thyroid . What would be the likely diagnosis?: (A) Medullary thyroid cancer, (B) Huhle cell carcinoma, (C) Papillary thyroid cancer, (D) Anaplastic thyroid cancer | Answer is D. Anaplastic carcinoma - Seen in 7th-8th decade -C/F Sudden increase in the size of swelling Severe pain over the swelling Most common route of spread- Direct invasion Evidence of compression of Trachea - Dyspnea Esophagus - Dysphagia Recurrent laryngeal nerve - Hoarseness of voice Most common site of metast... | |
Grooves, which are present in gum pads between the
canine and the 1st molars and relates the upper and
lower gum pads are called as: (A) Gingival groove, (B) dental groove, (C) Vestibular sulcus, (D) lateral sulcus | Answer is D. None | |
True statement about Korsakoff's psychosis is -: (A) Severe antegrade + Mild retrograde memory defect, (B) Mild antegrade + severe retrograde memory defect, (C) Only antegrade memory defect, (D) Only retrograde memory defect | Answer is A. Korsakoff syndrome has sever antegrade amnesia and less severe retrograde amnesia. | |
Which of the following acts by inhibition of 30 S ribosome -: (A) Tetracycline, (B) Chloramphenical, (C) Erythromycin, (D) Penicillin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tetracycline | |
Male comes with acute scrotal pain. To differentiate between testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis which is the best way: (A) Angel sign, (B) Prehn sign, (C) Color Doppler, (D) MRI | Answer is C. Angel sign and prehn sign are not reliable.color Doppler is investigation of choice | |
NaF preservative is added in suspected cases of poisoning by ?: (A) Cocaine, (B) Alcohol, (C) Cyanide, (D) All the above | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alcohol | |
All are true about Erlotinib except :: (A) Used in non small cell carcinoma of lung, (B) It is a small molecule tyrosine kinase inhibitor acting as EGFR antagonist, (C) Food decreases absorption, (D) It causes skin rashes and diarrhea | Answer is C. None | |
V asomotor eentre of medulla is associated with:: (A) Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain BP, (B) Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs, (C) Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors, (D) Essentially silent in sleep | Answer is A. Ans, a. Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain BPVasomotor centre (VMC) controlling sympathetic outflow acts along with cardiovagal centre (CVC) controlling parasympathetic out flow to maintain blood pressure."Vasomotor centre (VMC) controlling sympathetic outflow acts along with cardiovagal centre (... | |
Usual time for symptoms to appear in Rabid animal -: (A) 2 days, (B) 7 days, (C) 10 days, (D) 1 month | Answer is C. Post exposure prophylaxis may be discontinued if the suspected animal is proved by appropriate laboratory examination to be free of rabies or in the case of domestic dogs, cats or ferrets, the animal remains healthy throughout a 10 day observation period staing from the date of bite Reference ; Park&;s Tex... | |
The diagnostic characteristics of Plasmodium falciparum are best described by which one of the following statements?: (A) An impoant diagnostic feature is the irregular appearance of the edges of the infected RBC., (B) A period of 72 hours is required for the development of the mature schizont, which resembles a rosett... | Answer is C. P. Falciparum infection Distinguished by the appearance of ring forms of early trophozoites and gametocytes, both of which can be found in the peripheral blood. The size of the RBC is usually normal.Double chromatin dots in the rings are common. Schuffner stippling is routinely seen in RBC's that harbor P.... | |
Hypercalcemia is seen in which cancer: (A) RCC, (B) Carcinoma stomach, (C) Small cell carcinoma lung, (D) Hepatocellular carcinoma | Answer is A. Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.695 CLINICAL FEATURES. Renal cell carcinoma is generally a slow-growing tumour and the tumour may have been present for years before it is detected. The classical clinical evidence for diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma is the triad of gross haemat... | |
Which is the only nearly pure metal used for dental casting purposes?: (A) Gold, (B) Palladium, (C) Silver, (D) Pure titanium CP Ti | Answer is D. CP titanium, which is classified in four different grades, can technically be considered as an alloy because small percentages of other impurity elements are allowed as specified by a standard that has been established by the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) for each grade. Although it is ... | |
Drug used in triple drug therapy of H. Pylori:: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Erythromycin, (C) Ciprofloxacin, (D) Aminoglycosides | Answer is A. Ans. A. MetronidazoleH pylori have triple and 4 drug therapy for H. Pylori where 4 antibiotics can be given like amoxicillin, clarithromycin, Metronidazole and tetracycline. Other drugs are PPI like omeprazole and bismuth sub citrate. | |
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are drugs of choice for all of the following conditions except:: (A) Acute panic attack, (B) Social phobia, (C) Post traumatic stress disorder, (D) Generalized anxiety disorder | Answer is A. Ref: KDT 6/e p448,449 *SSRIs are drug of choice for depression,sustained treatment of panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, social and other phobia and bulimia. *In acute panic attacks and for acute treatment of generalized anxiety d... | |
Complete regression of which of the following veins causes this anomaly in the development of IVC (Figure).: (A) Right vitelline vein, (B) Left vitelline vein, (C) Right supra-cardinal vein, (D) Left supra-cardinal vein | Answer is C. Ans: (c) Right supra-cardinal veinRef: Essentials of Human Embryology, A.K.Datta, 5th edition, 2005, Page 205-208 4The anomaly shown in picture is Retrocaval ureter (right ureter) passes at first behind the IVC, and then appears in front of it after winding the medial margin of IVC.Retrocaval ureter occurs... | |
Compute the median for the following set of data, 1,2,3,4,5,6:: (A) 3, (B) 3.5, (C) 4, (D) 4.5 | Answer is B. If the number of samples is an even number, the median is midway between the two middle scores. (3+4)/2=3.5 Ref : Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 111 | |
A 50-years-old male Raju, presents with occasional dysphagia for solids, regurgitation of food and foul smelling breath. Probable diagnosis is:: (A) Achalasia cardia, (B) Zenker's diveiculum, (C) CA esophagus, (D) Diabetic gastroparesis | Answer is B. Clinical feature Usually seen in patients over 50 years MC symptom is dysphagia Undigested food is regurgitated into the mouth, especially when the patient is in the recumbent position Swelling of the neck, gurgling noise after eating, halitosis, and a sour metallic taste in the mouth are common symptoms C... | |
Which of the following is not seen in pseudogout: (A) Small joints affected, (B) Large joints affected, (C) Chondrocalcinosis, (D) Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate | Answer is A. Small joints affected Pseudogout commonly involves the larger joints.Knee joint is most commonly involved; other sites are wrist, elbow, shoulder, ankele. Involvement of small joints is uncommon. Pseudogout It is one of the forms of "Calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate" (CPPD) ahropathy Age group is > 60 yrs. ... | |
The neurosurgeon had removed a portion of the dense tissue (dura mater) covering the brain of the patient when she removed the tumor that had invaded the skull. To replace this important tissue covering of the brain, she took a band of the aponeurotic tissue of the lateral aspect of the thigh, covering the vastus later... | Answer is C. The tensor fasciae latae (which is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve) and the iliotibial tract are dense, wide aponeurosis that receives the insertion of the tensor fasciae latae and about 75% of the gluteus maximus. The gluteus maximus is the only one of the muscles listed that is supplied by the i... | |
The potentially hazardous irrigant causing an emergency during treatment is: (A) Saliva, (B) Chlorhexidine, (C) Sodium Hypochlorite, (D) Metrogyl | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following does not supply the palate-: (A) Tonsilar branch of facial artery, (B) Ascending palatine artery, (C) Descending palatine artery, (D) Ascending pharyngeal artery | Answer is A. Blood supply of soft palate
Arterial supply of soft palate is as follows:-
Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery, which in turn is a branch of the maxillary artery.
Ascending palatine branch of the facial artery.
Palatine branch of ascending pharyngeal artery.
Lesser palatine artery... | |
Millard's 'Rule of Ten' includes all except -: (A) 10 lbs, (B) 10 weeks, (C) 10 gm % Hemoglobin, (D) 10 months | Answer is D. Ans- D Rule often is the criteria used to judge the "readiness" of an infant for surgical repair of a cleft lip. The infant must weigh 10 Ib; be 10 weeks old; have a hemoglobin value of 10gm/dl and have a WBC count < 10,000. | |
Which is the preferred incision for abdominal exploration in blunt abdominal injury ?: (A) Transverse incision, (B) Paramedian incision, (C) Always midline incision, (D) Depending upon the organ | Answer is C. The preferred incision for emergency abdominal exploration in blunt injury abdomen is midline laparotomy. This type of incision is preferred as it provides adequate exposure, associated with minimal blood loss, minimal nerve and muscle injury. Ref: Current Surgical Diagnosis & Treatment, 12th Edition, By G... | |
Molten wax appearance is seen in: (A) Achondroplasia, (B) Pseudogout, (C) Melorheostosis, (D) Osteopetrosis | Answer is C. Motten wax or Flowing candle wax appearance feature of Melorheostosis. | |
Golden hour of fracture femur is?: (A) 1 hr after injury, (B) 1 hr prior to injury, (C) 1 hr after reaching the hospital, (D) 1 hr after surgical procedure | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 hr after injury Golden Hour It is the first hour from the time of trauma. It is the most critical for life and for the limb bility following fracture femur. Best prognosis is for the patients with fracture femur are for those who reach the OR in the golden hour. The emergency medical te... | |
Most common malignancy in AIDS is: March 2011: (A) Kaposi sarcoma, (B) Hodgkins lymphoma, (C) Leukemia, (D) Multiple myeloma | Answer is A. Ans. A: Kaposi sarcoma The neoplastic diseases clearly seen with an increased frequency in patients with HIV infection are Kaposi sarcoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma | |
RCH phase 2 does not include: (A) Immunization of pregnant women, (B) Treatment of STD/RTI, (C) Early registration of pregnancy upto 12-16 weeks, (D) Feed to malnourished children | Answer is D. None | |
Brachytherapy is used in :: (A) Stage lb Ca cervix, (B) Ovarian Ca, (C) Stage IV Ca vagina, (D) Stage 11 fallopian tube Ca | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Stage lb Ca cervix Radiotherapy is recommended in advanced stages of Ca cervix i.e. stage IIB onwards.deg Brachytherapy is commonly used. For larger tumours initially external radiation then brachytherapy is given In small tumours brachytherapy is given first followed by external radiation. ... | |
Child begins to sit with suppo, able to transfer objects from one hand to another hand and speak monosyllabic babbles at the age of -: (A) 3 months, (B) 6 months, (C) 9 months, (D) 12 months | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 6 months | |
Maximum increase in prolactin level is caused by:-: (A) Risperidone, (B) Clozapine, (C) Olanzapine, (D) Aripiprazole | Answer is A. Prolactin is inhibited by dopamine, so, any drug which blocks D2 recptor will lead to increase in prolactin. Anti-psychotics are D2 blocking drugs. They are of two types: * Typical anti-psychotic drug are amily D2 blocker. * Atypical anti-psychotics are mainly 5HT2 blocker but among them the maximum D2 blo... | |
Ramkali bai, a 35-year-old female presented with a one-year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea. She also had off and on headache, her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of the following is a most likely diagnosis in this c... | Answer is B. A 35 year old woman complaining of amenorrhoea — galactorrhoea syndrome along with visual field defects confirms the diagnosis of pituitary macrodenoma (prolactinoma)
Amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea results due to increased secretion of prolactin.
Headache and visual field defects are seen due to mass effect... | |
A young female patient with long history of sinusitis presented with frequent fever along with personality changes and headache of recent origin. The fundus examination revealed papilledema. The most likely diagnosis is -: (A) Frontal lobe abscess, (B) Meningitis, (C) Encephalitis, (D) Frontal bone osteomyelitis | Answer is A. None | |
Ceain sign of onset of labor: March 2013: (A) Labor pains, (B) Show, (C) Dilatation of internal os, (D) Formation of bag of waters | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Formation of bag of waters The first symptom to appear is intermittent painful uterine contractions followed by expulsion of blood stained mucus (show) per vaginum But formation of 'bag of membranes' is almost a ceain sign of onset of labor | |
Linear accelerator produces?: (A) X rays, (B) Beta rays, (C) Gamma rays, (D) Neutrons | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) X raysREF: Oxford oncology 2nd edition page 398, O P Tondon's Inorganic chemistryRepeat from December 2009Linear accelerator and Betatron are used to produce X Rays by accelerating electronsCyclotron is used to produce Gamma rays. | |
During normal inspiration diaphragm goes down by?: (A) 1-2 cm, (B) 3-5 cm, (C) 5-7 cm, (D) 7-9 cm | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1-2 cmIn normal inspiration, the diaphragm descends 1-2 cm into the abdominal cavity producing a pressure difference of 1-3 mm hg and the inhalation of about 500 ml of air. | |
Gene therapy is most commonly targeted against:: (A) SCID, (B) cancer, (C) cystic fibrosis, (D) Leukemia | Answer is A. a. SCID(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 584-586)FDA-approved gene therapy is used for ADA-SCID, Leber's congenital amaurosis, multiple myeloma & Adrenoleukodystrophy | |
A 50 years old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24-hour urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of the following drugs may be used to retard progression of the renal disease?: (A) Hydrochlorothiazide, (B) Enalapril, (C) Amiloride, (D) Aspirin | Answer is B. Antihypeensive drugs in Diabetes MellitusACE inhibitors (enalapril) or angiotensin receptor blockers are the first line of therapy in hypeensive individuals with type 2 DM.They have no known adverse action on glucose or lipid metabolism.Minimize the development of diabetic nephropathy (by reducing renal va... | |
Teeth bite marks are a type of: March 2011: (A) Contusion, (B) Pressure abrasion, (C) Graze, (D) Linear abrasion | Answer is B. Ans. B: Pressure Abrasion Teeth marks in biting and ligature marks in hanging and strangulation are example of imprint, pressure or contact abrasion Abrasion It as also known as - Graze or Scratch or Impression. An abrasion is a superficial injury to the skin which involves the loss of superficial epitheli... | |
Drug (s) used in the treatment of multiple myeloma is/are-: (A) Boezomib, (B) Methotrexate, (C) Hydroxyurea, (D) Ketoconazole | Answer is A. Drugs used as first line treatment of multiple myeloma include boezomib(proteasome inhibitor) & thalidomide( anti- angiogenic effects against tumour blood vessels & immunomodulatory effects).Reference :Davidson's principles &practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1047. | |
The following can be associated with fatty liver except -: (A) Amiodarone, (B) Zidovudine, (C) Sodium valproate, (D) Chlorpropamide | Answer is D. Amiodarone-induced liver damage may present as Reye's syndrome in kids and may present as asymptomatic elevation of liver enzymes in adults. Asymptomatic liver enzyme elevation occurs in 25% of the population treated with amiodarone and is usually reversible upon discontinuation of therapy zidovudine-induc... | |
Immunostimulant used for the treatment of malignant melanoma is :: (A) Levamisole, (B) BCG, (C) Aldesleukin, (D) Methotrexate | Answer is C. It is a recombinant IL-2 used for the treatment of renal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma. | |
An advanced diagnostic technique which has been suggested as an alternative to culture methods is:: (A) Phase contrast microscopy, (B) Direct immunofluorescence, (C) Latex agglutination, (D) Indirect immonofluorescent microscope assays | Answer is A. None | |
Nucleosome consist of: (A) Histone, (B) DNA, (C) RNA, (D) DNA & RNA both | Answer is A. A nucleosome is a basic unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes, consisting of a segment of DNA wound in sequence around eight histone protein cores. This structure is often compared to thread wrapped around a spool. Nucleosomes form the fundamental repeating units of eukaryotic chromatin, which is used to pac... | |
Niacin deficiency causes all except: (A) Dermatitis, (B) Dactylitis, (C) Diarrhea, (D) Dementia | Answer is B. The classic triad of pellagra is dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Ref: Page 182; Nelson textbook of pediatrics; 17th edition | |
Larynx extends from -: (A) C2 - C7, (B) Cl - C4, (C) C5 - C6, (D) C3 - C6 | Answer is D. The larynx is situated in front of hypopharynx opposite third to sixth cervical vertebrae. | |
Apple jelly nodules on the nasal septum are found in cases of ?: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Syphilis, (C) Lupus Vulgaris, (D) Rhinoscleroma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lupus vulgaris Lupus vulgaris It is an indolent and chronic form of tuberculous infection. Female to male ratio is 2:1. Most common site is the mucocutaneous junction of the nasal septum, the nasal, vestibule and the ala. Characteristic Feature is the presence of apple- jelly nodules (Bro... | |
The best investigation to diagnose a case of acoustic neuroma is –: (A) Gadolinium enhanced MRI, (B) CT scan, (C) Audiometric analysis, (D) PET scan | Answer is A. None | |
For clinically detectable ascites, the minimal amount of fluid should be: (A) 300 cc, (B) 600 cc, (C) 1 litre, (D) 2 litre | Answer is A. This is a direct pick from National Boards. | |
Which statements is not true regarding acute starvation?: (A) Increased Lipolysis, (B) Increased gluconeogenesis in liver, (C) Only ketone bodies utilized by brain for energy, (D) Increased glycogenolysis in liver | Answer is C. In starvation: Increased Lipolysis Increased gluconeogenesis in liver andIncreased glycogenolysis in liverIn fasting and starvation, glucose must be provided for the brain and red blood cells; in the early fasting state, this is supplied from glycogen reserves.In order to spare glucose, muscle and other ti... | |
Which of the following is a diagnosis?: (A) Klatskin tumor, (B) Carolicyts, (C) Bryler disease, (D) Primary sclerosing cholangitis | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Klatskin tumor.Imagesource- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | |
A young girl presents with primary amenorrhoea, grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche and no axillary hair. The most probable diagnosis is: (A) Testicular feminization, (B) Mullerian agenesis, (C) Turner syndrome, (D) Gonadal dysgenesis | Answer is A. Testicular feminization syndrome - complete androgen resistance, presents as phenotypic young woman without sexual hair but with normal breast development and primary amenorrhoea Complete testicular feminization is a common form of male pseudohermaphroditism. It is the 3rd most common cause of primary amen... | |
Antiepileptics used as analgesics are :: (A) Carbamazepine and valproate, (B) Phenytoin and valproate, (C) Carbamazepine and phenytoin, (D) Diazepam and Chlorpromazine | Answer is C. None | |
An 8 days old male infant is brought to the emergency department with vomiting, lethargy, dehydration and features of shock. Clinical examination reveals hyperpigmentation of the genital skin and normal external genitalia. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. blood tests revealed sodium of 124 mecill, potassium of 7 ... | Answer is A. Presence of vomiting, lethargy, dehydration, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia and shock in this eight-year-old male infant suggest a diagnosis of neonatal adrenal insufficiency/crisis.
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is the most prevalent cause of adrenal insufficiency in neonates (typically 7-14 da... | |
Incidence of undescended testis in term infants is:: (A) <5%, (B) <1%, (C) 8%, (D) 10% | Answer is A. The incidence of undescended testes is approximately 30% in preterm infants and 1 to 3% in term infants. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | |
Irregular and infrequent menstruation is known as:: (A) Amenorrhoea, (B) Oligomenorrhoea, (C) Polymenorrhoea, (D) Menorrhagia | Answer is B. Oligomenorrhoea - Infrequent and irregularly timed episodes of bleeding usually occuring at intervals of more than 35 days Polymenorrhoea - Frequent episodes of mentruation usually occurring at intervals of 21 days or less Menorrhagia - Increased menstrual flow/Increased duration at regular cycles Hypomeno... | |
To induce vomiting at home in a child who has ingested a poison, the recommended agent of choice would be –: (A) Oral rehydration solution, (B) Mustard in warm water, (C) Apomorphine, (D) Syrup of ipecac | Answer is D. None | |
All are true about Xeroderma Pigmentosum except: (A) It is autosomal dominant inheritance, (B) Due to defective DNA repair, (C) Associated with squamous cell carcinoma, (D) Thymine dimers | Answer is A. (A) It is autosomal dominant inheritance # XERODERNA PIGMENTOSUM (XP)> Is an autosomal recessive genetic disease.> The clinical syndrome includes marked sensitivity to sunlight (ultraviolet) with subsequent formation of multiple skin cancers and premature death.> The risk of developing skin cancer is incre... | |
Exposure of a female fetus to androgen in early embryogenesis may arrest differentiation of :: (A) Mullerian, (B) Ovary, (C) Urogential sinus, (D) Mesonephric ducts | Answer is C. Sholy after the tip of para mesonephric ducts reach the urogenital sinus two solid evaginations grow out from the pelvic pa of the sinus.From these evaginations the sinovaginal bulbs proliferates to form the vaginal plates. The androgen exposure may arrest the differentiation of urogenital sinus LANGMAN'S ... | |
In obstruction of second pa of axillay aery, theanostomosis between the following aery will maintain the blood supply of upper limb:: (A) Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery, (B) Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral, (C) Posterior circumflex humeral & circumflex scapular aery, (D) Suprascapula... | Answer is A. Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery [Ref: BDC 4/e, Vol 1, p 56, 82; Snell's Clinical Anatomy 6/e, p 412-413, 657; Moore Clinical Anatomy 5/a, p 766-7671Axillary aery is the continuation of the subclan aery. It is crossed by pectoralis minor muscle which devides it into three pas.A ri... | |
Drug of choice for surgically unresectable renal cell carcinoma is ?: (A) Sorafenib, (B) Sunitinib, (C) Imatinib, (D) Cetuximab | Answer is B. . | |
Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B- infection?: (A) HBsAg, (B) lgG anti - HBs, (C) lgM anti - HBc, (D) lgM anti - HBe | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. IgM anti-HBc You are sure to get questions on serological marker of Hepatitis in every PG exams (particularly AIIMS & AI). This topic has been thoroughly discussed.See Q. No 58 of Nov. 2001.Coming to the question; Hbs Ag is also present in recent hepatitis B infection but it is not a relia... | |
After a leisure trip, a patient comes with gritty pain in eye, and joint pain following an episode of urinary infection. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Reiter's syndrome, (B) Bachet's syndrome, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) SLE | Answer is A. Reiter 's syndrome now referred to as reactive ahritis (ReA), is a classic triad of ahritis, nongonococcal urethritis and conjunctivitis. Reactive ahritis is triggered following enteric or urogenital infections. Reactive ahritis is associated with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27. Bacteria associated with... | |
Millard repair is used for treatment of:: (A) Cleft lip, (B) Cleft palate, (C) Meningocele, (D) Saddle nose | Answer is A. The rotation advancement cleft lip repair, also referred to as a Millard repair, is probably the most commonly performed repair today. Almost no tissue is discarded; the medial lip element is rotated downward, even with a back cut, if necessary, and the lateral lip element is advanced into the defect under... | |
During water analysis in a hostel, amoebic cysts were seen. The best step to manage it is –: (A) Iodine, (B) Boiling, (C) U.V Rays, (D) Chlorination | Answer is A. "Amoebic infection is spread by ingestion of food or water contaminated with cysts. since an asymptomatic carrier may excrete upto 15 million cysts/day. Prevention of infection requires adequate sanitation and eradication of cyst carriage. In high risk areas infection can be minimized by avoidance of unpee... | |
Lillys antidote does not contain: (A) Sodium Nitrite, (B) Amyl Nitrite, (C) Sodium Thiosulfate, (D) Dicobalt EDTA | Answer is D. Lillys antidote Used for cyanide poisoning. Composition Sodium nitrite Amyl nitrite Sodium Thiosulfate | |
CD marker specific for myeloid series is:: (A) CD34, (B) CD45, (C) CD99, (D) CD117 | Answer is D. . CD117 | |
Fine reticular pigmentation with palmar pits are seen in -: (A) Dowling - Degos disease, (B) Rothmund thornpson syndrome, (C) Cockyane syndrome, (D) Bloom's syndrome | Answer is A. Fine reticular pigmentation with palmar pits is characteristic of downing Degos disease Dowling-Degos disease (DDD) is a type of reticulate pigmentary disorder in which hyperpigmented macules are found in the flexures. Iadvl text book of dermatology, page 737 | |
Imaging tool of choice for GD?: (A) DWI MRI with ADC maps, (B) HMPAO SPECT, (C) MR Spectroscopy, (D) PET | Answer is A. Ans ACreutzfeldt-Jacob disease is a spongiform encephalopathy caused by prions. On MRI T2 hyperintensity in basal ganglia, thalamus (Hockey stick sign), cortex and white matter with persistent diffusion restriction in considered most sensitive sign. On PET scan there can be hypometabolsim in affected area ... | |
A 16 years old girl presented with history of nasal obstruction for last 2 months. A CT Scan was done and following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma, (B) Antrochoanal polyp, (C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, (D) Adenoid Hyperophy | Answer is B. CT Scan picture shows Crescent sign or Dodd's Sign seen in Antrochoanal Polyp Adenoid hyperophy: Dodd's Sign is negative JNAF- Epistaxis in adolescent males NPC- Old age, presents generally with Neck node metastasis | |
A 2-year-old child comes with ear discharge, seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Leukemia, (B) Lymphoma, (C) Langerhan's cell histiocytosis, (D) Germ cell tumor | Answer is C. c. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2484-2489], Ghai 8/e p 620-623)Seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria, hepatosplenomegaly and ear discharge suggests diagnosis of LCH. | |
Which of this following pas of veebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity towards back?: (A) Cervical Veibral Canal, (B) Thoracic Veibral Canal, (C) Sacral Veibral Canal, (D) Coccyx Veibral Canal | Answer is A. In adults, the cervical curve and lumbar curve is concave backwards. The thoracic and sacral curve is convex backwards.Ref: Clinical Anatomy by Systems, Richard S. Snell, Edition 2007, Chapter 12, Page 860; Anatomy at a Glance, Omar Faiz, 3rd Edition, Chapter 77, Page 175. | |
Most common congenital dysplasia of Ear is: (A) Michel aplasia, (B) Mondini's dysplasia, (C) Alexander's dysplasia, (D) Scheibe's dysplasia | Answer is D. None | |
KSY is: (A) Empowerment of females under maternity benefit scheme, (B) Adolescent girls scheme under ICDS, (C) Free and compulsory education for girl child, (D) Child care home scheme female juvenile delinquents | Answer is B. At present, there are two schemes for adolescent girls &;Kishore shakti yojana&; and &;Nutrition programme for adolescent girls&;Kishore shakti yojana is being implemented using the infrastructure of ICDS. The scheme targets adolescent girls in the age group of 11 to 18 years and address their needs of sel... | |
Which is not an intracanal medicament :: (A) Calcium hydroxide., (B) Chlorhexidine digluconate., (C) MTAD., (D) None. | Answer is C. The two antimicrobial intracanal medicaments recommended in contemporary endodontic practice are as follows:
Calcium hydroxide
Chlorhexidine digluconate | |
If annual growth rate of a population is 1.5-2%, what number of years will be required to double the population: (A) 70-47 years, (B) 35-47 years, (C) 35-28 years, (D) 28-23 years | Answer is B. When crude death rate is substracted from crude bih rate , the net residual is current annual grow rate , exclusive of migration. When the annual growth rate of a population is 1.5% to 2.0%, it takes 35-47 years to double the size of population. Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicin... | |
HIV virus contains:: (A) Single stranded DNA, (B) Single stranded RNA, (C) Double stranded DNA, (D) Double stranded RNA | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Single stranded RNA(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 571 and 8th/e, p. 570)* The genome in HIV is diploid, composed of two identical single stranded positive sense RNA copies. | |
A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. Most probable cause would be.: (A) Pulmonary aery, (B) Bronchial aery, (C) Pulomary vein, (D) Superior vena cava | Answer is B. B i.e. Broncheal aery In great majority of patients hemoptysis originates from systemic rather than pulmonary aeries and the bronchial vessels are almost universally involved. (Grainger) Massive hemoptysis in a patient of T.B. is usually d/ t erosion of bronchial aery which bleeds at systemic pressure. | |
25 years old male presented with diarrhea for 6 months. On examination the causative agent was found to be acid fast with 12 micro meter diameter. The most likely agent is -: (A) Cryptosporidium, (B) Isospora, (C) Cyclospora, (D) Giardia | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyclospora All the parasites mentioned in the question cause chronic diarrhoea {mostly in immunocompromised patients).All of them reveal oocyst on stool examination. In Giardiasis, parasite is also seen along with oocyst stool examination.Oocyst of all the organisms except giardia are aci... | |
Skin surface elevation caused by hyperplasia and projections of the epidermis form an undulating surface under microscopic examination. What is this known as?: (A) Saw toothing, (B) Papillomatosis, (C) Villi, (D) Parakeratosis | Answer is B. Papillomatosis of skin Skin surface elevation caused by hyperplasia and enlargement of contiguous dermal papillae. Papillary projections of the epidermis form an undulating surface under microscopic examination. | |
Hyoid bone fracture does not occur in -: (A) Hanging, (B) Strangulation, (C) Throttling, (D) Choking | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Choking Features Hanging Strangulation Cause (mostly) Sigus of struggle Ligature mark Suicidal No * Above thyroid cartilageQ * Incomplete and directed obliquely upward * No skin damage under knot *Abrasion and bruise around ligature mark are * Dissection reveals a dry glistening white ban... | |
Cell shape and motility are provided by: (A) Microfilaments, (B) Microtubules, (C) Golgi apparatus, (D) Mitochondria | Answer is B. Microtubules are polymers of tubulin that form pa of the cytoskeleton and provide structure and shape to cells | |
Mean weight of 100 children was 12 kg. The standard detion was 3. Calculate the percent Coefficient of variation:: (A) 25%, (B) 35%, (C) 45%, (D) 55% | Answer is A. Coefficient of variation: - Is a measure used to compare relative variability - Is a unit-free measure to compare dispersion of one variable with another - Is SD expressed as percentage of mean CV = In the given question, Mean weight (u) = 12 kg, n = 100, Standard detion (s) = 3 Thus, coefficient of varian... | |
About inverse agonism, true is:: (A) Action on the target receptors is similar to that of agonist, (B) Binds to the same receptor binding-site as an agonist for that receptor but exerts the opposite pharmacological effect, (C) Effective against receptors having intrinsic activity without acting of a ligand upon them, (... | Answer is B. Ans. b (Binds to the same receptor binding-site as an agonist for that receptor but exerts the opposite pharmacological effect). (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 6th ed., p 41)# Receptor agonists, antagonists and inverse agonists bind to the same receptor types:DefinitionAgonistsincrease the inhibitory transmitter... | |
Linoleic acid is maximum in: (A) Groundnut oil, (B) Safflower oil, (C) Mustard oil, (D) Coconut oil | Answer is B. None | |
A 30 year old male was brought for evaluation. The history revealed that the patients 3 year old son died, 5 months back after being hit by a car. At the time of accident, patient was standing nearby and witnessed the accident. For last 5 months, he has been having symptoms of sadness of mood, crying spells, feelings o... | Answer is C. Depression: A major depressive disorder occurs without a history of a manic, mixed, or hypomanic episode. A major depressive episode must last at least 2 weeks DIAGNOSIS: Major Depressive Disorder The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for major depression Sadness of mood Diminished interest in pleasure Significant... | |
Most common type of skin carcinoma on face, in light skinned, is: March 2013: (A) Squamous cell carcinoma, (B) Basal cell carcinoma, (C) Bowen's disease, (D) Erythroplasia of Queyrat | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Basal cell carcinoma In darkly pigmented racial groups, squamous cell carcinoma is the MC skin malignancy Skin tumours Basal cell carcinoma does not show lymphatic spread Conditions predisposing to Squamous cell carcinoma: - Actinic keratosis, - DLE Basal cell carcinoma MC site of BCC: Face MC ... | |
Typhoid revaccination is recommended every ... years in endemic area-: (A) 1, (B) 3, (C) 5, (D) 10 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 o To maintain protection, revaccination is recommended every 3 years. | |
Length of esophagus in adults is:: (A) 25 cm, (B) 10 cm, (C) 15 cm, (D) 20 cm | Answer is A. The esophagus is a muscular, collapsible tube about 10 in. (25 cm) long that joins the pharynx to the stomach. The esophagus enters the abdomen through an opening in the right crus of the diaphragm.After a course of about 0.5 in. (1.25 cm), it enters the stomach on its right side. | |
All are true for normal saline except: (A) normal saline 0.9% is most suitable to treat acute severe hyponatremia, (B) fluid of choice for head injury patient, (C) fluid of choice for hypovolemic shock, (D) lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis | Answer is A. NaCl Is preferred in conditions in which increased plasma sodium is beneficial e.g traumatic brain injury Not suitable for treatment of acute severe hyponatremia as it has little effect on plasma sodium levels When infused > 30ml/kg/hr may lead to hyperchloremic acidosis | |
All are true about Abnormal uterine bleeding except :: (A) Blood loss of less than 50 ml, (B) Cycle duration is more than 35 days or less than 21 days, (C) Bleeding period lasting 7 days or more, (D) Irregular bleeding during a regular cycle | Answer is A. Normal Menstrual Loss The upper limit of blood loss in a normal menstruation is considered as 80ml. Any bleeding above the specified normal limit is termed as abnormal uterine bleeding. Normal Menustration: Cycle interval-28days(21-35 days) Menustral flow- 4 to 5 days Menustral blood loss-35ml (20- 80ml) C... | |
Which influenza strain was isolated in 1989 spreading to many other countries?: (A) H2N2, (B) H1N1, (C) H3N2, (D) H5N1 | Answer is B. In 1989, epidemic - the reappearance of swine HINI virus Influenza can occur sporadically, as epidemics or pandemics In 2009, H1N1 Epidemic occurred in Mexico-recent Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 468 | |
All statements are true about the eye of a newborn except –: (A) Optic nerve is myelinated only upto lamina cribrosa, (B) Orbit is more divergent than adult, (C) Apart from macular area the retina is fully differentiated, (D) New born is usually myopic by –2 to –3D | Answer is D. Newborn is usually hypermetropic by +2 to +3D (not myopic). | |
Which of the following is the national system that provides annual national as well as state reliable estimates of feility and Moality: (A) Civil registration system, (B) Census, (C) Ad-hoc survey, (D) Sample registration system | Answer is D. Sample registration system (SRS) : Was initiated in 1964-65 (on a pilot basis ; Full scale from 1969-70) to provide national as well as state level reliable estimates of feility and Moality SRS is a dual record system Field investigation : Continuous enumeration of bihs and deaths by an enumerator Independ... | |
Homocystein is not associated with: (A) Coronary aery disease, (B) Fracture, (C) Hearing loss, (D) Neuropsychiatric manifestations | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hearing lossElevated level of homocysteine (hyperhomocysteinemia) is associated with -i) Thrombosis, coronary aery disease & stroke.ii) Osteoporosis & fracture.iii) Neuropsychiatric manifestations.iv) Developmental delay.v) Visual disturbances.vi) Microalbuminuria. | |
Arthrocentesis can be performed efficiently by:: (A) Single needle technique., (B) Two needle technique., (C) Both of the above., (D) None. | Answer is B. None | |
All are complications of chronic staphylo-coccal blepharoconjunctivitis except:: (A) Chalazion, (B) Marginal conjunctivitis, (C) Follicular conjunctivitis, (D) Phylectenular conjunctivitis | Answer is A. Ans. Chalazion |
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