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Statins act on which enzyme -: (A) Acyl CoAsynthetase, (B) Acyl Co A reductase, (C) HMG CoA Synthetase, (D) HMG CoA reductase | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., HMG CoA reductase Hypolipidemic drugsHMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) - Lovastatin. Simvastatin, Pravastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin.Bile acid sequestrants (Resins) - cholestyramine, colestipol.Activate lipoprotein lipase (fibric acid derivatives) - clofibrate, gemfibrozil, beza... | |
Antiendomysial antibody is used in screening of ?: (A) Myasthenia gravis, (B) Auto immune hepatitis, (C) Coeliac diseases, (D) Graves disease | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coeliac diseases Coeliac disea.se (CD) is a permanent intolerance of the small intestine to gluten, characterized by gluten-dependent changes in villous morphology and/or signs of immunological activation detectable in the lamina propria of intestinal mucosa. The presence of serum anti-en... | |
Primary level of prevention is?: (A) Prevention of emergence of risk factors, (B) Prevention of disease in Pre-pathogenesis phase, (C) Prevention of disease in incipient stage, (D) Prevention of disability and rehabilitation | Answer is B. Modes Primordial Before the emergence of risk factor Health education Primary Risk factor but no disease yet Health promotion, specific protection Secondary Disease possible staed in the body Early diagnosis, Treatment Teiary Disease is already in progression Disability limitation , Rehabilitation | |
Predisposing factor for leukemia –: (A) Down syndrome, (B) Lowe's syndrome, (C) Fragile–x–syndrome, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
Allen test detects insufficiency of which aery: (A) Radial aery, (B) Umbilical aery, (C) Popliteal aery, (D) Aoa | Answer is A. Allen's Test Tests the adequacy of the blood supply to the hand from the radial and ulnar aeries and the arcade between them Allen's test is used to know the integrity of palmar arcg (patency of radial and ulnar aeries). If these are patent, AVF can be safely ligated Method of Allen's test Elevate the hand... | |
Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes:: (A) Hot air oven, (B) U.V. rays, (C) Gamma rays, (D) Boiling | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following features is not shared between 'T cells' and 'B cells' -: (A) Positive Selection during Development, (B) Class I MHC Expression, (C) Antigen Specific Receptors, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Option 1 During development T cells undergo both positive selection and negative selection, while B cells undergo only negative selection (by apoptosis of self-reacting immature B-cells in spleen). Death of cells with TCRs that do not react with self MHC proteins - negative selectionSurvival of cells with ... | |
Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation of bile duct: (A) Posteriorly related to 1st pa of duodenum, (B) Related posteriorly to the tunnel of pancreatic head, (C) Anteriorly related to 1st pa of duodenum, (D) Related to IVC posteriorly | Answer is C. Bile duct : Anatomy It lies in front of the poal vein and to the right of the hepatic aery Common hepatic duct is 1-4cm in length and has a diameter of approx. 4mm CBD is about 7-11 cm in length and 5-10 mm in diameter A fibroareolar tissue containing scant smooth muscle surround the mucosa (a distinct mus... | |
Which of the following is a manifestation of magnesium deficiency?: (A) Tetany, (B) Hyper reflexia, (C) Hypo reflexia, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Magnesium deficiency causes irritability, hyper reflexion and sometimes hyporeflexia, tetany and seizures. Ref: Park 22nd edition, page 577. | |
The most important function of epithelioid cells in tuberculosis is:: (A) Phagocytosis, (B) Secretory, (C) Antigenic, (D) Healing | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Secretory(Ref: Immunology, 8th edition, by David Male; pg 427)Epithelioid cells are transformed macrophages that have lost their phagocytic function but retained their secretory activity.Epithelioid cells contain numerous endoplasmic reticulum & golgi bodies.They secrete IL10, TNF alpha, TGF beta; | |
Smoke stake pattern is characteristic of?: (A) Sickle cell retinopathy, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Acute retinal necrosis, (D) Central serous retinopathy | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Central serous retinopathy * Smoke stack pattern (small hyper fluorescent spot which ascends vertically like a smoke-stack), which gradually spreads laterally to take a mushroom or umbrella configuration, is a Fundus Fluorescein Angiography (FFA) finding of Central Serous Retinopathy.* An... | |
Surgical scissors left in abdomen is covered under which doctrine -: (A) Res ipsa loquitur, (B) Medical maloccurrence, (C) Therapeutic misadventure, (D) Novus actus interveniens | Answer is A. Res ipsa loquitur: means the thing or fact speaks for itself. Here the patient has to merely state the act of negligence. It must satisfy the conditions that in the absence of negligence, the injury would not have occurred ordinarily, the doctor had exclusive control over the injury-producing treatment or ... | |
Sloughing of necrotic epithelium is characteristic of:: (A) Aspirin burn, (B) Denture sore mouth, (C) Traumatic ulcer, (D) Contact dermatitis | Answer is A. None | |
Patient presenting with abdominal pain, diarrhea taking clindamycin for 5 days. Treated with metronidazole symptoms subsided. What is the causative agent -: (A) Clostridium difficile, (B) Clostridium perfringens, (C) Clostridium welchi, (D) Clostridium marneffi | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clostridium difficile | |
Indication for intramuscular iron therapy?: (A) Pregnancy, (B) Postpartum period, (C) Emergency surgery, (D) Oral iron intolerance | Answer is D. Ans. d (Oral iron intolerance). (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 6th/pg.584)IRON THERAPY# Some iron preparations come with other compounds designed to enhance iron absorption, such as ascorbic acid,# Typically, for iron replacement therapy, up to 300 mg of elemental iron per day is given, usually as three or four ... | |
Edrophonium binds to which site of Acetylcholinesterase: (A) Anionic site, (B) Esteric site, (C) Both the sites, (D) Doesn't bind to any site | Answer is A. Edrophonium is ultra sho-acting acetylcholinesterase drug which binds only to anionic site Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 104 | |
Which of the following provide opacity to composite?: (A) TEGDMA, (B) BIS-GMA, (C) TiO2, (D) None | Answer is C. None | |
Indications for exchange transfusion are all except?: (A) Unconjugated bilirubin > 18 mg/100 ml, (B) Cord hemoglobin < 10 mg/100 ml, (C) Cord bilirubin < 5 mg/100 ml, (D) Bilirubin protein ratio > 3.5 | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cord bilirubin < 5 mg/100 ml Cord bilirubin 5 or more is an indication. | |
A 26-year-old recently married woman presents with tender nodules on her shin. Initial history taking should include questions about: (A) Her stress level, (B) Any new medications she may have staed, (C) History of foreign travel, (D) Insect bites to the legs | Answer is B. Red tender nodules on her shin could be erythema nodosum; Erythema nodosum is a type of panniculitis, i.e. an inflammatory disorder affecting subcutaneous fat.Oral contraceptives which this newly married woman would take is likely hereOther causes are Neutrophilic dermatoses (Behcet's disease, Sweet's synd... | |
Fatty acid found exclusively in breast milk is:-: (A) Linoleic acid, (B) Linolenic acid, (C) Docosa hexanoic acid, (D) Eichosa pentanoic acid | Answer is C. - Fatty acid found exclusively in breast milk: DHA (Docosa hexanoic acid) - It aids in development of brain by promoting myelination of neurons. OTHER ESSENTIAL FATTY ACIDS & THEIR RICH SOURCES: Linoleic acid, Arachidonic acid - Safflower oil Linolenic acid - flaxseed oil, soyabean oil Eichosa pentanoic ac... | |
Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by: March 2005: (A) Intensity of S1 hea sound, (B) Diastolic murmur duration, (C) Opening snap, (D) Intensity of diastolic murmur | Answer is B. Ans. B: Diastolic murmur duration Mitral Stenosis Severity assessment on auscultation - Time interval between A2 and opening snap is inversely propoional to the severity of MS. - Duration (of low pitched, rumbling, diatolic murmur, heard at the apex) of murmur correlates with the severity of stenosis in pa... | |
30 year old patient with pain in right hypochondrium for 5 days with soft and tender liver and intercostal tenderness. He complains of catch in breath on inspiration and has a non productive cough. On examination the lung fields are clear, patient looks pale and emaciated. Probable diagnosis is: (A) Amoebic liver absce... | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Ameobic liver abscessRef:Manipal Manual of surgery, 4th ed./521Refer to the above explanationHydatid cystUsually clinically silentEnlarged liver with smooth surface and is non tender.Pyogenic liver abscessMultiple abscess leading to spiky fever and enlarged liver.Hepatic adenomaPresents in young w... | |
In post-hepatic jaundice, the concentration of conjugated bilirubin in the blood is higher than that of unconjugated bilirubin because -: (A) There is an increased rate of destruction of red blood cells., (B) The unconjugated bilirubin is trapped by the bile stone produced in the bile duct., (C) The conjugation process... | Answer is C. Jaundice
Jaundice is not a disease but rather a sign that can occur in many different diseases.
Jaundice is the yellowish staining of skin and sclerae which is caused by the high level of blood bilirubin.
On the basis of etiology, jaundice can be divided into 3 types : -
1. Prehepatic jaundice
Prehepati... | |
The causative organism can be best isolated in which of the following conditions.: (A) Tampons in toxic shock syndrome, (B) Rheumatic valvulitis, (C) CSF in tetanus, (D) Diptheritic myocarditis | Answer is A. Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from a tampon of a patient with toxic shock syndrome. S.aureus strains isolated from patients with toxic shock syndrome produce a toxin called toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1), which can be found in the vagina, on tampons, in wounds or other localized infections, ... | |
A 63-year-old woman fell while crossing the street after her Thursday afternoon bridge game. Attempts at resuscitation for cardiac arrest by the emergency medical service (EMS) team were unsuccessful. The woman had previously been diagnosed as having aortic stenosis and left ventricular hypertrophy. In addition to thes... | Answer is B. Sudden cardiac death is defined as an unexpected death occurring within 1 hour after the beginning of symptoms in a patient who was previously hemodynamically stable. In asymptomatic patients presenting initially with cardiac disease, 20% will die within the first hour of symptoms. Electrolyte imbalance, h... | |
Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder is associated with-: (A) Schistosomiasis, (B) Naphthylamine, (C) Smoking, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Schistosomiasis; 'b' i.e., Naphthylamine & 'c' i.e., SmokingRisk factors for transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of bladder ?I. Smoking ---> Major etiological factor.Occupational exposure to chemicals Nephthylamine benzidine, aniline dyes, acrolein.Schistosoma haematobium (Bilharziasis) ---... | |
Which of the following regulates lipolysis in adipocytes?: (A) Activation of fatty acid synthesis mediated by cyclic AMP, (B) Activation of triglyceride lipase as a result of hormone-stimulated increases in cyclic AMP levels, (C) Glycerol phosphorylation to prevent futile esterification of fatty acids, (D) Activation o... | Answer is B. Ans. B. Activation of triglyceride lipase as a result of hormone-stimulated increases in cyclic AMP levelsa. Lipolysis is directly regulated by hormones in adipocytes. Epinephrine stimulates adenylate cyclase to produce cyclic AMP, which in turn stimulates a protein kinase.b. The kinase activates triglycer... | |
What is the expected mixed venous oxygen tension, in mm Hg, in a normal adult after breathing 100% oxygen for 10 minutes?: (A) 150, (B) 740, (C) 45, (D) 573 | Answer is C. Ans. (c) 45Ref: American Board of Anesthesiology American Society of Anesthesiologists, Book A 1996 q-67Breathing 100% oxygen will not change the oxygen saturation much. In arterial blood it is around 97% saturation which corresponds to a PO2 of 100 mm HgIn venous blood it is 75% saturation which correspon... | |
Muscle attached to medial border of scapula is-: (A) Rhomboidus Major, (B) Teres Major, (C) Deltoid, (D) Infraspinatus | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rhomboidus Major * Lateral border of scapula (posteriorly) : Origins of teres minor and teres major.* Medial border of scapula : (i) Anteriorly : Insertion of serratus anterior; (ii) Posteriorly : Insertions of levator scapulae, rhomboideus major and minor. | |
Seminal stain can be detected by: (A) Phenolphthalein test, (B) Reine's test, (C) Barberio's test, (D) Paraffin test | Answer is C. Test for seminal stains
Creatine phosphokinase test
Acid phosphatase test
Florence test (Choline iodide crystals)
Barberio's test (Crystals of spesmin picrate). | |
Oligohydramnios is seen in:: (A) Renal agenesis, (B) Cholangioma of placenta, (C) Spina bifida, (D) Esophageal atresia | Answer is A. Oligohydramnios can be caused by - Renal anomalies Uteroplacental insufficiency: IUGR ACE inhibitors Premature rupture of membranes Amniocentesis (leak) Pre-ecclampsia Amnion nodosum NSAIDs Post term pregnancy over estimated gestational age The sonographic diagnosis of oligohydramnios is usually based on a... | |
The normal P wave is inveed in lead :: (A) LI, (B) LII, (C) aVF, (D) aVR | Answer is D. Answer is D (aVR) The normal P wave is negative (inveed) in lead aVR. Characteristics of a Normal P Wave P wave results from spread of electrical activity through the atria (Atrial Depolarization) A normal p wave indicates that the electrical impulse responsible for the p wave originated in the sinus node ... | |
Physiological uncoupler is: (A) Thyroxine, (B) Free fatty acids, (C) Thermogenin, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Uncouplers will allow oxidation to proceed, but the energy instead of being trapped by phosphorylation Fig. 19.18. Impoant mitochondrial membrane transpoers. 1 = PYT (pyruvate transpoer); 2 = TCT (tricarboxylate transpoer); 3 = ANT (adenine nucleotide transpoer) is dissipated as heat. This is achieved by r... | |
A 55 year old diabetic man is brought to the emergency room in an unresponsive state. The following laboratory values are obtained: PCO2 19 mm Hg, HCO3 11 mEq/L, and pH 6.9. The most appropriate immediate treatment of this patient is ?: (A) Administration of an oral hypoglycemic agent, (B) Administration of bicarbonate... | Answer is C. This patient is in a diabetic ketoacidotic coma. The goals in treating such a patient are to increase the rate of glucose utilization by insulin-dependent tissues, to reverse ketonemia and acidosis, and to replenish fluid imbalances. Oral hypoglycemic agents are commonly prescribed for the maintenance of N... | |
Which of the following antibacterial drug is polar?: (A) Ampicillin, (B) Penicillin G, (C) Clavulanic acid, (D) Cefepime | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ampicillin Ampicillin: It is an ionized highly polar drug. In the duodenum it exes a zwitter ion effect and thus has a lower bioavailabilty. Though the oral absorption is incomplete it is adequate. It is an antibacterial drug acting both on gram positive and gram negative organisms. Main ... | |
The main action of muscle "Gamellius" is?: (A) Medial rotation of thigh, (B) Lateral rotation of thigh, (C) Gluteus maximus, (D) Gluteus medius and minimus | Answer is B. Gemellus muscle laterally rotates the femur at the hip joint. Superior gemellus muscle: Attaches proximally at the ischial spine; distally, the muscle attaches on the greater trochanter of the femur. The nerve to the obturator internus and superior gemellus muscles (L5, S1, S2) innervates this muscle.Infer... | |
A patient with pheochromocytoma would secrete which of the following in a higher concentration?: (A) Norepinephrine, (B) Epinephrine, (C) Dopamine, (D) VMA | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Norepinephrine o Most pheochromocytomas contain and secrete both nor epinephrine and epinephrine and the percentage of norepine phrine is usually greater than in normal adrenal.Pheoch rornocvtom||AdrenalCan't suppress ACTHo Most of them secrete norepinephrineo Exclusively secrete nor epin... | |
The structural abnormality of chromosome in which one arm is lost and remaining arm is duplicated is called:: (A) Ring chromosome, (B) Isochromosome, (C) Translocation, (D) Mutation | Answer is B. b. Isochromosome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 590', Ghai 8/e p 637)Iso-chromosome results when 1 arm of a chromosome is lost and the remaining arm is duplicated or when the axis of division occurs perpendicular to the normal axis of division. | |
Columella effect is seen in: (A) Tympanoplasty, (B) Septoplasty, (C) Tracheostomy, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Columella effect is seen in type 3 tympanoplasty (myringostapediopexy) where single ossicle remains just like that of bird&;s ear. In Type III tympanoplasty Malleus and incus are absent. Graft is placed directly on the stapes head. It is also called myringostapediopexy or columella tympanoplasty. Re: Textb... | |
A Patient with increased BP and decreased hea rate is likely to have: (A) Increased ICT, (B) Deep sea diving, (C) Brain tumor, (D) Head tumor | Answer is A. Cushing's reflex , is a physiological nervous system response to increased intra cranial pressure.Results in cushings triad - increased BP, irregular breathing and bradycardia. Usually seen in terminal stages of head injury . It can also be seen after iv administration of epinephrine. In head injury- CPP=M... | |
Chloroquine is given as 600 mg loading dose because:: (A) It is rapidly absoed, (B) It is rapidly metabolized, (C) It has increased tissue binding, (D) It is rapidly eliminated | Answer is C. Oral absorption of CQ is excellent. About 50% gets bound in the plasma. It has high affinity for melanin and nuclear chromatin: gets tightly bound to these tissue constituents and is concentrated in liver, spleen, kidney, lungs (several hundred-fold), skin, leucocytes and some other tissues. Its selective ... | |
Treatment of acute lymphangitis requires:: (A) Antibiotic and rest, (B) Immediate lymphangiography, (C) Immediate multiple incisions, (D) No special treatment | Answer is A. Treatment of acute lymphangitis requires antibiotic and rest. | |
Donepezil is used in treatment of -: (A) Alzheimer's dementia, (B) Schizophrenia, (C) Anxiety disorder, (D) Depression | Answer is A. None | |
Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle?: (A) Troponin, (B) Myosin, (C) Actin, (D) Protein-C | Answer is A. None | |
Lisch nodules (Pigmented Iris hamartomas) are seen in: (A) Niemann Pick disease, (B) Neurofibromatosis, (C) Ochronosis, (D) Glycogen storage disease | Answer is B. Ans. b (Neurofibromatosis) (Ref. Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th ed., Chapter 374; RRM 7th ed., p.316)# Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma) and Optic gliomas = NF-1.# Glaucoma = Sturge Weber syndome.# Retinal angiomas = VHL# GlaucomaNEUROFIBROMATOSIS# Autosomal dominant inherited disorder- pure neurofibromas ... | |
All of the features of Wilson's disease, EXCEPT:: (A) Haemolytic anaemia, (B) Testicular atrophy, (C) Chorea, (D) Chronic active hepatitis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' Testicular atrophy Basic defect in Wilson's disease is|Reduced biliary exception of copper*|Cu accumulates in hepatocytes resulting in liver damage (Manifest almost all types of hepatitis* including fulminant hepatitis)|Liver cells get saturated with Cu|Cu spilled in plasma|Gets deposited in fo... | |
Valley fever or dese rheumatism is caused by?: (A) Sporothrix, (B) Coccidioides, (C) Phialophora, (D) Histoplasma | Answer is B. Coccidioidomycosis (also called dese rheumatism or San Joaquin Valley fever or California fever) - A systemic fungal disease caused by a dimorphic soil dwelling fungus - Coccidioides Sporotrichosis or Rose Gardner's disease is chronic subcutaneous pyogranulomatous disease caused by a thermally dimorphic fu... | |
Which one of the following is not an amide –: (A) Lignocaine, (B) Procaine, (C) Bupivacaine, (D) Dibucaine | Answer is B. Esters (aminoesters) :- Procaine, chlorprocaine, tetracaine (amethocaine), Benzocaine, Cocaine.
Amides (aminoamides) Lignocaine, Mepivacaine, Prilocaine, Bupivacaine, Etidocaine, Ropivacaine , Dibucaine. | |
Complications of cataract surgery –a) Endophthalmitisb) Optic neuropathyc) Retinal detachmentd) Vitreous losse) Lagophthalmos: (A) abcd, (B) bcde, (C) abde, (D) acd | Answer is D. Important complications of cataract surgery
After cataract (opacification of the capsule)
Vitreous prolapse & loss
Cystoid macular edema
Endophthalmitis
Aphakic glaucoma
Retinal detachment
Fibrous & endothelial growth
Neovascular glaucoma
Iris prolapse
Anterior uveitis (iridocyclitis)
Stra... | |
The most common cause of malignant adrenal mass is: (A) Adrenocoical carcinoma, (B) Malignant phaeochromocytoma, (C) Lymphoma, (D) Metastasis from another solid tissue tumor | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Metastasis from another solid tissue tumor The most common cause of adrenal tumors is metastasis from another solid tumor like breast cancer and lung cancer. Malignant Percentage Adrenocoical carcinoma 2-5% Malignant pheochromocytoma <I% Adrenal neuroblastoma <0- 1% Lymphomas (incl. prima... | |
All are components of Sewer gas except -: (A) H2S, (B) CO2, (C) SO2, (D) Methane | Answer is C. When the sewage is highly concentrated and contains plenty of solids the anaerobic process is highly effective. The end products of decomposition are methane, ammonia, CO2, and H2S. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 794 | |
At CEJ Overlap joint is seen in:: (A) 30%, (B) 40%, (C) 50%, (D) 60% | Answer is D. None | |
Incomplete uterine rupture is defined as?: (A) Disruption ofpa ofscar, (B) Disruption of entire length of scar, (C) Disruption of scar including peritoneum, (D) Disruption of scar with peritoneum intact | Answer is D. Ans. is'd' i.e., Disruption of scar with peritoneum intact Incomplete rupture :In an Incomplete uterine rupture, the mother's peritoneum remains intact.The peritoneum is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity to suppo abdominal organs.It also acts as a channel for blood vessels and nerves.An incomple... | |
Insufflation pressure during laparoscopy is?: (A) 5-10 mm Hg, (B) 11-15 mm Hg, (C) 15-20 mm Hg, (D) 20-25 mm Hg | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) 11-15 mm HgREF: Maingot's 10th ed p. 243The intrabdominal pressure during laparoscopy is monitored by insufflator and it is set between 12-15 mm Hg. | |
Transitional epithelium is present in -: (A) Renal pelvis, (B) Loop of Henle, (C) Terminal part of urethra, (D) PCT | Answer is A. None | |
The teiary structure of protein is determined by: (A) X-ray Crystallography, (B) Spectrophotometry, (C) Electrophoresis, (D) Chromatography | Answer is A. Three-Dimensional Structure is determined by X-ray Crystallography or by NMR SpectroscopyRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 5; Proteins: Higher Orders of Structure | |
Along with succinyl CoA which of the following amino acid serve as staing material in heme synthesis?: (A) Lysine, (B) Leucine, (C) Glycine, (D) Alanine | Answer is C. The two staing materials of heme synthesis pathway are succinyl CoA and glycine. Pyridoxal phosphate is needed to activate glycine. ALA synthase catalyzes the conversion of succinyl CoA and glycine to delta aminolevulinate. This is the rate limiting enzyme in porphyrin biosynthesis in the mammalian liver. ... | |
Latanoprost (PGF0 alf: (A) Maintenance of ductus arteriosus, (B) Pulmonary hypertension, (C) Gastric mucosal protection, (D) Glaucoma | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) GlaucomaREF: Goodman and Gillmans 11TH edition page 1103, http://en.udkipedia.org/wiki/Latanoprost "Latanoprost ophthalmic solution is a topical medication used for controlling the progression of glaucoma or ocular hypertension by reducing intraocular pressure. It is a prostaglandin analogue (m... | |
Renshaw cell inhibition is an example of:: (A) Postsynaptic inhibition, (B) Feed forward inhibition, (C) Recurrent inhibition, (D) Collateral inhibition | Answer is C. Renshaw cells are inhibitory cells that transmit inhibitory signals to the surrounding motor neurons. This anterior motor neuron gets excitatory impulses from multiple sources, if all these excitatory inputs were sent to the muscles, muscle will fatigue early, so, there is some inherent check to reduce the... | |
Blood culture is positive in which infection of Staphylococcus aureus is: (A) TSS, (B) SSSS, (C) Infective endocarditis, (D) Impetigo | Answer is C. Infections caused by methicillin-sensitive S aureus, high-magnitude bacteremia (defined as >4 positive blood cultures ), and endocarditis. The most impoant test is a blood culture used to identify bacteria in the bloodstream. REFERENCE: www.mayoclinic.org | |
Gonadotropin levels decline to prepubertal levels by age: (A) 6 month to 1 year of age, (B) 1 year to 2 years of age, (C) 2 years to 3 years of age, (D) 3 years to 4 years of age. | Answer is B. Gonadotropin levels gradually decline to reach prepubertal levels by age 1 to 2 years. | |
Which among the following surgery requires lithotomy position: (A) Anal, (B) Cardiac, (C) Abdominal, (D) Limb | Answer is A. Ans) a (Anal) Ref: http://en.wikipedia.orgThe lithotomy position refers to a common position for surgical procedures and medical examinations involving the pelvis and lower abdomen. References to the position have been found in some of the oldest known medical documents including versions of the Hippocrati... | |
Stool investigation of a child who presented with anemia revealed worm infestation. Which of the following worm infestation is associated with iron deficiency anemia?: (A) Whipworm, (B) Hookworm, (C) Roundworm, (D) Pinworm | Answer is B. The common human hookworms are Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus. The larger A duodenale is more pathogenic because it consumes more blood, up to 0.5 mL per worm per day. The adult worms attach with their mouthpas to the mucosa, from which they suck blood. Blood loss is the major sequel of infec... | |
Homonymous hemianopsia is associated with lesion at: (A) Visual cortex, (B) Optic radiation, (C) Optic tract, (D) Optic chiasma | Answer is C. (C) Optic tract > It is difficult to localize a postchiasmal lesion accurately, because injury anywhere in the optic tract, lateral geniculate body, optic radiations, or visual cortex can produce a homonymous hemianopia, i.e., a temporal hemifield defect in the contralateral eye and a matching nasal hemifi... | |
The most common radio-opaque mass at root apex of a vital tooth is due to:: (A) Hypercementosis, (B) Condensing osteitis, (C) Periapical cemental dysplasia, (D) True cementoma | Answer is C. None | |
Tumor that follows rule of 10 is: (A) pheochromocytoma, (B) Onocytoma, (C) Lymphoma, (D) Renal cell carcinoma | Answer is A. Pheochromocytomas are neoplasms composed of chromaffin cells. They follow rule of 10: - 10% of pheochromocytomas are extra adrenal - 10% of sporadic adrenal pheochromocytomas are bilateral - 10% of adrenal pheochromocytomas are biologically malignant. -10% of adrenal pheochromocytomas are not associated wi... | |
Cystic hygroma may be associated with: March 2005: (A) Turner's syndrome, (B) Klinefelter's syndrome, (C) Down's syndrome, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D: All of the above Karyotypic abnormalities are present in 25-70% of children with Cystic Hygroma. CH has been noted to be more common in persons with: Turner's syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome Down's syndrome In addition, several nonchromosomal disorders, including Noonan syndrome, Fryns syndrome, mu... | |
False regarding electron transport chain is:: (A) Cyanide inhibits electron transport, but not ATP synthesis, (B) Atractyloside inhibiting H+/ ADP synthesis, (C) Oligomycin blocks H+ channel, (D) High dose aspirin acts as uncoupler | Answer is B. (Refer: DM Vasudevan, Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, pg no: 266)
Inhibitors of electro transport chain and Oxidative phosphorylation | |
During laryngoscopy and intubation procedure, all of these are true, except:: (A) A slight pressure may be applied at the cricoid cailage, (B) The laryngoscope is held in the right hand introduced from the right side of the patient, (C) The neck is flexed with extension at the atlanto!occipital joint, (D) After inseion... | Answer is D. Ans: D. After inseion of laryngoscope, it is levered on the upper incisor to pull up the tongue and visualize the vocal cords(Ref: Miller 81c, p I 666-7667. 71e p1587).The laryngoscope should never be hinged on the teeth to lift up the epiglottis.The patient is aligned in a "sniffing" position, i.e. neck (... | |
In Refeeding syndrome, all the given lab valves are monitored except: (A) Calcium, (B) Phosphate, (C) Ammonia, (D) Magnesium | Answer is C. In Refeeding syndrome, hypocalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia occurs. Hence, they are monitored. Ammonia levels are not altered. | |
At how many weeks of gestation can Hegar's sign be elicited?: (A) 8 weeks, (B) 10 weeks, (C) 12 weeks, (D) 15 weeks | Answer is A. Hegar's sign refers to widening and softening of of the body or isthmus of the uterus. It usually occurs at 6-8 weeks of gestation. Softening and dilatation at the external os is caused by estrogen and progesterone. Chadwick's sign: It refers to bluish discoloration of cervix caused by congestion of pelvic... | |
The major initiating response for peristalsis is: (A) Hormonal, (B) Local stretching of gut, (C) Neural, (D) Gastric acid | Answer is B. The major initiating response for peristalsis is local stretching of the gut. Peristalsis is a reflex that is initiated when the gut wall is stretched by the contents of the lumen. It occurs in all pas of the gastrointestinal tract from the esophagus to the rectum. The stretch initiates a circular contract... | |
Semicircular canal perceives ___________: (A) Linear acceleration, (B) Angular acceleration, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is B. They respond to angular acceleration and deceleration. The three canals lie at right angles to each other but the one which lies at right angles to the axis of rotation is stimulated the most. Thus horizontal canal will respond maximum to rotation on the veical axis and so on. Due to this arrangement of th... | |
Fetal tachycardia is defined as heart rate more than___: (A) 140, (B) 160, (C) 180, (D) 200 | Answer is B. Ans. B. 160. (Ref Williams obstetrics 20th/pg. 1428; Danforth9s obstetrics and gynecology - pg.157)Fetal bradycardia is defined as fetal heart rate <110 bpm; fetal tachycardia is defined as fetal heart rate >160 bpmThe normal FHR baseline ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute.Foetal tachycardia is define... | |
Angina pectoris and syncope are most likely to be associated with: (A) Mitral stenosis, (B) Aoic stenosis, (C) Mitral regurgitation, (D) Tricuspid stenosis | Answer is B. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1530 patients with pure or predominant AS have gradually increas- ing obstruction over years but do not become symptomatic until the sixth to eighth decades. Adult patients with BAV disease, however, develop significant valve dysfunction and symptoms one to two decades sooner. Exei... | |
Organ of coi is situated in ?: (A) Basilar membrane, (B) Utricle, (C) Saccule, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Scala media (cochlear duct or membranous labyrinth) has 3 walls : -i) The basilar membrane, which suppos the organ of coi.ii) The Reissner's membrane which separates it from the scala vestibuli.iii) The stria vascularis which contains vascular epithelium and is concerned with secretion of endolymph. | |
All of the following statements are true regarding warfarin toxicity except: (A) Skin necrosis occurs during initiation of therapy, (B) Most common sites are toes and tips of fingers, (C) Decreased quantity of protein C, (D) Decreased incidence of adverse effects if therapy with LMWH is staed | Answer is B. Refer Harrison 18/e p433 Common sites of warfarin -induced skin necrosis are breasts, thighs and buttocks | |
Frequent blushing ("erethism") is associated with poisoning of: (A) Mercury, (B) Lead, (C) Phenolic acid, (D) Carbolic acid | Answer is A. Mechanism of toxicity:Mercury reacts with sulfhydryl (SH) groups, resulting in enzyme inhibition and pathologic alteration of cellular membranes.Clinical presentation:Severe chemical pneumonitis and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.Acute gingivostomatitis may also occur.Chronic intoxication:Classic triad Tre... | |
Excretory poion of kidney is formed by?: (A) Urogenital sinus, (B) Mullerian duct, (C) Mesonephric duct, (D) Genital tubercle | Answer is C. DERIVATIVES OF MESONEPHRIC DUCT Both in Males and a Females Collecting tubules Minor and major calyces Pelvis Ureter Trigone of bladder In Males Epidydymis Vas derferens Seminal vesicles Mesoderm of prostate Ejaculatory duct In Females Ganers duct | |
Fear of open spaces is: NIMHANS 07; Kerala 11: (A) Agoraphobia, (B) Acrophobia, (C) Claustrophobia, (D) Algophobia | Answer is A. Ans. Agoraphobia | |
Treatment of systemic or disseminated variant of sporotrichosis is: (A) Itraconazole, (B) Amphotericin-B, (C) Griesofulvin, (D) saturated solution of pottasium iodide | Answer is B. Sporotrichosis:- Treatment:- : * Lymphocutaneous disease:- itraconazole, terbinafine, saturated solution of potassium iodide (SSKI) * Disseminated infection:- Amphotericin B (AMB). Ref:- Dermatology review by Asra Ali; pg num:-364 | |
Which is not a finding in viral encephalitis?: (A) A strogl i a I proliferation, (B) Perivascular mononuclear infiltrate, (C) Inclusion bodies intranuclear and intracytoplasmic, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Astroglial proliferation The pathologic Changes in viral encephalitis are : Parenchymal infiltrate chiefly in perivascular location, of mononuclear cells consisting of lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages. o Microscopic clusters of MICROGLIAL cells and presence of Neuronophagia. o Viral... | |
Oblique view in XRAY of hand is required for diagnosis of: (A) Capitate, (B) Scaphoid, (C) Navicular, (D) Hamate | Answer is B. Oblique view of the wrist is required for scaphoid fracture * Most common fractured bone in the wrist * Peanut shaped bone that spans both row of carpal bones * Does not require excessive force and often not extremely painful so can be delayed presentation * Pain over the anatomic snuff box * Pain is not u... | |
The pa of the broad ligament giving attachment and suppo to the uterine tube is the:: (A) Mesometrium, (B) Mesovarium, (C) Mesosalpinx, (D) Round ligament | Answer is C. The mesosalpinx is the pa of broad ligament that suppos the uterine tube. The mesosalpinx extends inferiorly to meet the root of the mesovarium; it attaches the uterine tube to the mesometrium. The mesometrium is the pa of the broad ligament below the junction of the mesosalpinx and the mesovarium; it atta... | |
Koplik spot is pathognomic of which infection ?: (A) Rubella, (B) Influenza, (C) Mumps, (D) Measles | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Measles | |
All the following are features of Anorexia Nervosa except :: (A) Predominantly seen in females, (B) BMI index is higher than normal Population, (C) Amenorrhea is rare, (D) Malabsorption Syndrome is most common cause | Answer is C. Ans.is C (Amenorrhea is rare):Anorexia nervosa often referred to simply as anorexia, is an eating disorder, characterized by low weight, food restriction, fear of gaining weight, and a strong desire to be thin.Complications may include osteoporosis, infeility, and hea damage, among others. Women will often... | |
Most likely diagnosis ?: (A) Interstitial lung disease, (B) Pulmonary aery hypeension, (C) Congestive hea failure, (D) Bronchiectasis | Answer is B. CT scan of chest showing enlarged pulmonary aeries In interstitial lung diseases HRCT shows bilateral subpleural reticular changes,with traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing(idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis).and varies according to cause of ILD. In bronchiectasis CT shows: tram tracts and signet ring sign. | |
Most accepted theory for conduction of pain is: (A) Gate control theory, (B) Specifity theory, (C) Membrane stabilization theory, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Type II respiratory failure best relates to which of the following?: (A) Alveolar hypoventilation, (B) Alveolar flooding, (C) Hypoperfusion of respiratory muscles, (D) Lung atelectasis | Answer is A. TYPE II RESPIRATORY FAILUREThis type of respiratory failure is a consequence of alveolar hypoventilation and results from the inability to eliminate carbon dioxide effectively. Mechanisms are categorized by Impaired central nervous system (CNS) drive to breathe (drug overdose, brainstem injury, sleep-disor... | |
Muscle that does not arises from the common tendinous ring at the apex of orbit is?: (A) Superior Oblique, (B) Inferior oblique, (C) Superior rectus, (D) Inferior rectus | Answer is B. The four recti arise from a common annular tendon or tendinous ring of zinn. This ring is attached to the orbital surface of the apex of the orbit. It encloses the optic canal and the middle pa of the superior orbital fissure.The lateral rectus has an additional small tendinous head which arises from the o... | |
Which of glial cell is mesodermal in origin -: (A) Macroglial cells, (B) Microglial cells, (C) Oligodendrocytes, (D) Ependymal cells | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Microglial cellso Microglial cells are derived from mesenchymal (mesodermal) cells.Development of cells in CNSCells of originDeveloped mature cellsNeuroepithelial cellso Neuronso Glial cells (Macroglial cells)# Oligodendrocytes# Astrocytes# Ependymal cellsMesenchymal (mesodermal) cellso M... | |
Which muscle is most resistant to neuromuscular blockage?: (A) Diaphragm, (B) Ocular, (C) Adductor pollicis, (D) Intercostal muscles | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) DiaphragmREF: Lee synopsis of anesthesia 13th e p. 182, Morgan 4th e p. 206-15Diaphragm is the most resistant muscle to muscle relaxants. | |
Fibroid with a typical "Lantern on top of St Paul's cathedral" appearance is: (A) Submucosal fibroid, (B) subserosal fibroid, (C) Cervical fibroid, (D) Interstitial fibroid | Answer is C. Cervical Fibroid is compared to "Lantern on dome of st Paul's catherdral". | |
'Inveed fir tree' appearance is characteristic of?: (A) Bacillus anthracis, (B) Haemophilus influenza, (C) Yersinia pestis, (D) Brucella | Answer is A. B anthracis has a tendency to form very long chains of rods and in culture it is nonmotile and nonhemolytic. Colonies are characterized by a rough, uneven surface with multiple curled extensions at the edge resembling a "Medusa head." B anthracis has a D-glutamic acid polypeptide capsule of a single antige... | |
Ranula is a: March 2013 (a, d, e): (A) Retention cyst, (B) Extravasation cyst, (C) Edema of uvula, (D) Edema of floor of mouth | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Retention cystBailey & Love (Surgery) states that ranula is an extravasation cyst, but CSDT (Surgey), Dhingra (ENT) & even internet references describe it as retention cyst. | |
Which cerebral layer is referred as "Internal granule cell layer"?: (A) Layer/Lamina IV, (B) Layer/Lamina V, (C) Layer/Lamina VI, (D) Layer/Lamina VII | Answer is A. Layer/Lamina IV of cerebral coex. Layer/Lamina IV - "Internal granule cell layer" Contains predominately granule cells & nerve fibers. Specific sensory input through thalamocoical fibers terminate primarily in coical layer IV on stellate (granule cells). Diffuse non-specific sensory afferents are distribut... | |
Periodic acid schiff stain shows Block positivity: (A) Myeloblasts, (B) Lymphoblasts, (C) Monoblasts, (D) Megakaryoblasts | Answer is B. Lymphoblast contain cytoplasmic aggregates of periodic acid-schiff (PAS)-positive material. | |
Pataus syndrome due to ?: (A) Trisomy 21, (B) Trisomy 18, (C) 18 P, (D) Trisomy 13 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Trisomy 13 | |
Which of the following inherited neutropenias show a self limited course?: (A) Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, (B) Dyskeratosis congenita, (C) Chiediak higashi syndrome, (D) Autoimmune neutropenia of infancy | Answer is D. Answer- D. Autoimmune neutropenia of infancyIt is recognized as a fairly specific syndrome of early childhood.Low neutrophil numbers are often discovered during the course ofroutine investigation for benign febrile illness.The illness abates but the neutropenia persists, sometimes for months and occasional... | |
What is true about Salter-Harris type IV epiphyseal injury:: (A) Fracture occur through growth plate only, (B) Fracture occur through growth plate & metaphy- sis only, (C) Fracture occur through growth plate, metaphysic & epiphysis, (D) Fracture occur through epiphysis only | Answer is C. Ans: C (Fracture occur through growth plate, metaphysic & epiphysis) SALTER~HARRIS FRACTURES http://wwwlbpt.bridgeport.edu/-gwl/salter-barrisdassification.htmThere are nine types of Salter-Harris fractures; types 1 to V as described by Robert B Salter and W Robert Harris in 1963, and the rarer types V! to ... |
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