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Haversian system is seen in: (A) Coical bone, (B) Cancellous bone, (C) Teeth, (D) Nail | Answer is A. * Microscopically, the bone is of five types, namely lamellar (including both compact and cancellous), woven, fibrous, dentine and cement. 1. Lamellar bone: Most of the mature human bones, whether compact or cancellous, are composed of thin plates of bony tissue called lamellae. These are arranged in piles... | |
A 50-year-old woman presents with easy fatigability, a smooth sore tongue, numbness and tingling of the feet, and weakness of the legs. A complete blood count shows a megaloblastic anemia that is not reversed by folate therapy. Hemoglobin is 5.6 g/dL, WBC count is 5,100/mL, and platelets are 240,000/mL. This patient mo... | Answer is C. Except for a few rare situations, vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency is usually a result of pernicious anemia, an autoimmune disease of the stomach. Vitamin B12 is required for DNA synthesis, and its deficiency results in large (megaloblastic) nuclei.Diagnosis: Vitamin B12 deficiency, pernicious anemi... | |
Quadrivalent Meningococcal vaccine is not used for?: (A) Serotype A, (B) Serotype B, (C) Serotype C, (D) Serotype Y | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Serotype BRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1002* There are currently three vaccines available in the USA to prevent meningococcal disease, all quadrivalent in nature, targeting serogroups A, C, W-135, and Y.* Meningococcal polysaccharide or conjugate vaccines provide no protection against serogroup B disea... | |
In systemic form of JIA, all are true EXCEPT:: (A) RA factor positive, (B) High fever with rash, (C) Hepatosplenomegaly, (D) Elevated ESR | Answer is A. RA factor may be positive in polyahritis, but not in systemic onset JIA. Systemic form of JIA: High fever with rash Hepatosplenomegaly Elevated ESR Types of JIA Systemic JIA- Systemic involvement seen Oligoaicular- Affects four or fewer joints, often the knee or ankle. Polyaicular ahritis, rheumatoid facto... | |
Which of the following is true regarding IUGR ?: (A) Asymmetrical IUGR: is far more common than symmetrical IUGR, (B) Ponderal index is normal in symmetrical IUGR, (C) Prognosis is better in asymmetrical IUGR than symmetrical IUGR, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. All of the above | |
Duct of Bartholins gland opens: (A) On outer side of Labium minus, (B) On inner side of Labium majus, (C) On outer side of Labium majus, (D) On inner side of Labium minus | Answer is D. Duct of Bartholins gland opens on the inner side of Labium minus external of hymen. | |
For shield (mould) in eye tumors which of the following is preferred?: (A) Iodine-131, (B) Gold-198, (C) Strontium-90, (D) Phosphorous-32 | Answer is D. Ans. D. Phosphorous-32Some useful radionuclides used in clinical radiotherapyRadionuclideEnergy Half-life Medical uses* Radium-2260.83mv1625 yearsfor brachytherapy but not used now a days* Cobalt-601.25mv5.4 yearsteletherapy & brachytherapy* Caesium-1370.666mv30 yearsteletherapy & brachytherapy* Iridium-19... | |
Posterior limb of internal capsule is supplied by all except: (A) Middle cerebral aery, (B) Recurrent aery of Heubner, (C) Anterior choroidal, (D) Posterior cerebral aery | Answer is B. Recurrent aery of Heubner does not supply posterior limb of internal capsule. Blood supply of internal capsule Anterior Limb Recurrent aery of Heubner Genu Recurrent aery of Heubner Charcot&;s aery (lenticulostriate aery or aery of cerebral hemorrhage) Posterior limb Charcot&;s aery (branch of middle cereb... | |
In prayer Willi syndrome, which of the following is increased: (A) A. LH, (B) B. FSH, (C) C. TSH, (D) D. Ghrelin | Answer is D. Ghrelin is a growth hormone secreatagogue and the only gut harmone with orexigenic propey It is primarily produced in the stomach. In children ,it's value is inversely related with body mass index and insulin values. robbins 8/e 441-2 9/e 444 | |
Which of the following is associated with Madonna-Putana complex ?: (A) Female arousal disorder, (B) Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder, (C) Male erectile disorder, (D) Anorgasmia | Answer is C. Madonna-Putana complex Psychogenic male erectile disorder Can be organic or psychologic or both. Inability to have arousal towards a woman , the man desires. Men have arousal only with women whom they see as degraded. | |
Ductus arteriosus closes in response to:: (A) Decrease in peripheral oxygen saturation, (B) Indomethacin therapy, (C) Prostaglandin E1, (D) Increase in pulmonary vascular resistance | Answer is B. b. Indomethacin therapy(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2197, Ghai 8/e p 417)Indomethacin, a Prostaglandin inhibitor is used in medical closure of Ductus arteriosus. | |
Russel's periodontal index scores range from: (A) 0-2, (B) 0-4, (C) 0-6, (D) 0-8 | Answer is D. None | |
A person has unprotected sex 3 weeks back, To rule out HIV infection the best test is: (A) P 24 antigen assay, (B) ELISA, (C) Western blot, (D) Lymphnode biopsy | Answer is A. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection
Laboratory diagnosis is made by:
A. Antibody detection
It is the most common method used for diagnosis of HIV infection.
ELISA is the most sensitive test and therefore is the screening test of choice.
Western blot is the most specific (Confirmatory) test and therefore... | |
All are true about vocal cord nodule except:: (A) Caused by phonotrauma, (B) Commonly occur at Junction of middle & posterior 1/3, (C) Common at junction of A 1/3 with P 2/3, (D) Common in teachers | Answer is B. Ans:B (Commonly occur at Junction of middle & posterior 1/3 ) VOCAL NODULES (SINGER'S OR SCREAMER S NODES)PL Dhingra 6th/303-04# Their size varies from tha t of pin-head to half a peaThey are the result of vocal trauma when person speaks in unnatural low tones for prolonged periods or at high intensitiesTh... | |
Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in: (A) Cerebellar hemisphere, (B) Thalamus, (C) Temporal lobe, (D) Parietal lobe | Answer is D. Brain abscesses in congenital cyanotic heart diseases occur due to hematogenous seeding of bloodborne bacteria. These blood borne bacteria bypass the pulmonary capillary bed d/t right to left shunt. They commonly infect parietal & frontal lobes (territory of middle cerebral artery). | |
Beta blockers are indicated in -: (A) Phobic disorders, (B) Anxiety, (C) Schizophrenia, (D) Mania | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' Anxiety Antianxiety Drugs areBenzodiazepinesB BlockersBuspironeMeprobamate & Hydroxyzine | |
All are waterborne diseases except -: (A) Typhoid, (B) Fish tape worm, (C) HAV, (D) Cholera | Answer is B. Fish tapeworm(Diphyllobothrium latum) Infection is acquired when the person eats undercooked fish containing the parasite and not by drinking water! Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition Ref: 25th Ed K.Park's Textbook Of Preventive and Social Medicine | |
Not true about Fosphenytoin: (A) Used for GTCS, (B) Prodrug of Phenytoin, (C) Lipid soluble, (D) Highly protein bound | Answer is C. Fosphenytoin, a more soluble phosphate prodrug of phenytoin, is well absorbed. Fosphenytoin sodium is available for intravenous or intramuscular use and replaces intravenous phenytoin sodium, a much less soluble form of the drug. Used in generalized Tonic-clonic seizures and paial seizures. Highly bound to... | |
All are duties of a medical practitioner except: (A) A medical practitioner should uphold the dignity and honor of his profession, (B) Doctor need not have to get consent from patient or his relatives regarding the procedures or surgery, (C) In emergencies doctor should execute his moral and humanitarian duty to save t... | Answer is B. Doctor should get informed consent from the patient or his relatives after explaining all procedures and risks before doing a surgery DUTIES OF REGISTERED MEDICAL PRACTITIONER TOWARDS PATIENT 1. Duty to exercise reasonable degree of skill and knowledge. 2. Duties in regard to attendance and examination. 3.... | |
Which premolar resembles a canine:: (A) Maxillary first premolar., (B) Mandibular first premolar., (C) Maxillary second premolar., (D) Mandibular second premolar. | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following drug's use alone is to be avoided in a patient with adrenaline producing pheochromocytoma?: (A) Phentolamine, (B) Enalapril, (C) Clonidine, (D) Methyldopa | Answer is A. Vasomotor Reversal Of Dale - Adrenaline has biphasic effect on blood pressure. - a1 - Strong receptor thus more effect. - b2 - Sensitive receptor thus stimulated at low dose too. When adrenaline is given IV at high doses 1st BP will increase due to stimulation of a1 > b2 & then BP will decrease due to b2 s... | |
Which one of the following is an Aldosterone antagonist?: (A) Spironolactone, (B) Amiloride, (C) Triameterine, (D) Acetazolamide | Answer is A. (A) Spironolactone > Spironolactone is a steroid chemically related to the mineralocorticoid aldosterone> Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist. | |
Disinfection by autoclaving is NOT recommended for -: (A) Sputum, (B) Linen, (C) Sharp instrument, (D) Glass syringes | Answer is C. .sterilizers which operate at high temperatures and pressure are called autoclaves.they generate steam under pressure or saturated steam which is the most effective sterilizing agent.they fall in two categories,grvity displacement autoclaves and high speed pre-vaccum autoclaves.works on the same principle ... | |
During bilateral adrenalectomy, intraoperative dose of hydrocoisone should be given after: (A) Opening the abdomen, (B) Ligation of left adrenal vein, (C) Ligation of right adrenal vein, (D) Excision of both adrenal glands | Answer is D. "Patients undergoing surgery for a primary adrenal adenoma secreting glucocoicoids require preoperative and postoperative steroids due to suppression of the contralateral adrenal gland. Duration of steroid therapy is determined by the ACTH stimulation test. Exogenous steroids may be needed for up to 2 year... | |
Prolonged apnea may occur in patients with a genetically determined abnormal variant of cholinesterase following intravenous administration of: (A) Pancuronium, (B) Tubocurarine, (C) Atracurium, (D) Succinylcholine | Answer is D. Both succinylcholine and mivacurium are completely and rapidly eliminated by plasma cholinesterase. Other nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, and atracurium, are eliminated by renal or hepatic mechanisms or by spontaneous hydrolysis (atracurium). Patients with genetic... | |
Which proton pump inhibitor can be used IV ?: (A) Omeprazole, (B) Rabeprazole, (C) Pantoprazole, (D) Fomeprazole | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pantoprazole Pantaprazole - it is more acid stable and has higher oral bioavailability. It is also available for i.v. administration; paicularly employed in bleeding peptic ulcer and for prophylaxis of acute stress ulcers. | |
A 25-year-old woman with amenorrhea has never had menarche. On physical examination, she is 145 cm (4 ft 9 in) tall. She has a webbed neck, a broad chest, and widely spaced nipples. Strong pulses are palpable in the upper extremities, but there are only weak pulses in the lower extremities. On abdominal MR imaging, her... | Answer is A. The features described are those of classic Turner syndrome. Individuals who reach adulthood may have mosaic cell lines, with some 45, X cells and some 46, XX cells. A female carrier of the fragile X syndrome, X(fra), is less likely to manifest the disease than a male, but the number of triple repeat seque... | |
ALL are true about Colles fracture except -: (A) In old age, (B) Dorsal shift, (C) At cortico-cancellous junction, (D) Garden spade deformity | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Garden spade deformity' COLLES FRACTUREo Colles fracture is an extra-articular fracture at the distal end of radius, at its corticocancellous junction. It is the most common fracture in person over 40 years of age and especially in women after menopause (Postmenopausal females). The assoc... | |
Which of the following is the most common renal vascular anomaly -: (A) Supernumerary renal arteries, (B) Supernumerary renal veins, (C) Double renal arterires, (D) Double renal veins | Answer is A. None | |
A 70 year old female with psychiatric symptoms diagnosed of having schizophrenia. Which is the poor prognostic factor in schizophrenia?: (A) Acute onset, (B) Middle age, (C) Family history of affective disorder, (D) Gradual onset | Answer is A. Predictors of poorer outcome in schizophrenia:Age below 20Dilated ventricles, brain atrophy in CT or MRINegative symptoms (e.g., flat affect, povey of thought, apathy, asociality); obsessive-compulsive symptomsIrregular occupational recordInsidious onsetSlow rate of progressionmalesYears of duration prior ... | |
Occlusion of the LAD will lead to infarction of which area -: (A) Posterior part of the interventricular septum, (B) Anterior wall of the left ventricle, (C) Lateral part of the heart, (D) Inferior surface of right ventricle | Answer is B. Occlusion of proximal LAD can result in large anterior wall infarction. If it is distal LAD, then anteroapical or anteroseptal infarction can occur. | |
The slogan for WHO 2005 –: (A) Road safety, (B) Maternal and child health, (C) Aging, (D) Physical activity | Answer is B. Year → World Health Day (WHD) Theme
2004 → Road safety is no accident
2005 → Make every mother and child count
2006 → Working together for health
2007 → International health security: Invest in health, build a safer future
2008 → Protecting health from climate change
2009 → Health facilities in emergencies | |
Investigation of choice for esophageal rupture is?: (A) Dynamic MRI, (B) Rigid esophagoscopy, (C) Barium contrast swallow, (D) Water soluble low molecular weight contrast swallow | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Water soluble low molecular weight contrast swallowREF: with textUse of non ionic water soluble contrast medium instead of barium is warranted when there is any risk of aspiration or esophageal leak. (Ref: Gastrointestinal Imaging: The Requisites By Giles W. Boland 4th ed page 2)Careful endosco... | |
The incidence of mental illness is the maximum if the causal factors affect a paicular period -: (A) Perinatal period, (B) First five years of life, (C) School age, (D) Adolescence | Answer is B. The incidence of mental illness is the maximum if the causal factors affect a paicular period of first five years of life crucial points in the life cycle of human being which are impoant from the view of mental health are prenatal period, first five years of life, school child , adolescence, old age. ref ... | |
Brain dead individuals have all of the following features EXCEPT (* NIMHANS March-2017 Post-MBBS, NIMHANS - Feb. 2008): (A) Dolls eye movement is absent, (B) Oculo-vestibular reflex is absent, (C) Only pain is preserved, (D) Corneal reflex is absent | Answer is C. (C) Only pain is preserved# BRAIN-DEAD> individual has no clinical evidence of brain function upon physical examination.> No response to pain and no cranial nerve reflexes.> Reflexes include pupillary response (fixed pupils), oculocephalic reflex, corneal reflex, no response to the caloric reflex test, and... | |
Miss folded proteins might be produced due to defect of:: (A) Cholesterol, (B) Mitochondrial, (C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum | Answer is C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is associated with protein synthesis, protein folding and miss folded protein degradation. Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:10,11,12 | |
APGAR score include A/E: (A) Respiratory effo, (B) Hea rate, (C) Respiratory rate, (D) Colour | Answer is C. Apgar score is an objective method of evaluating the newborn&;s condition. It includes Hea rate, Respiratory effo, Muscle tone, Reflex irritability and Color. It is generally performed at 1min and again at 5 min after bih. Reference : page 126 Ghai Essential Pediatrics 8th edition | |
Bloom Richardson staging is for?: (A) Prostate cancer, (B) Breast cancer, (C) Ovarian cancer, (D) Penile cancer | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Breast cancer(Ref Internet source)Bloom and Richardson grading for cancer breast is based on* Tubules formation* Nuclear pleomorphisms* Mitotic counts | |
Which of the following is seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura:: (A) Thrornbocytosis, (B) Increased prothrombin time, (C) Increased bleeding time, (D) Increased clotting time | Answer is C. None | |
Point B in treatment of Ca cervix corresponds to: (A) Mackenrodts ligament, (B) Obturator Lymph node, (C) Isheal tuberosity, (D) Round ligament | Answer is B. B i.e. Obturator Lymph node | |
Which is the MOST appropriate gestational age for performing amniocentesis?: (A) 10-12 weeks, (B) 12-16 weeks, (C) 20-25 weeks, (D) 25-30 weeks | Answer is B. Amniocentesis is ideally performed between 14-16weeks of gestation. Early amniocentesis can be carried out at 12-14 weeks under ultrasonographic guidance. The fetal cells so obtained are subjected for cytogenetic analysis. Fetal fibroblasts and fluid for biochemistry are used for study. Chorionic villus sa... | |
In a 5 year old child, instead of the physiological splitting of second hea sound, expected only during inspiration, a wide and a fixed split of S2 is heard, both during inspiration, as well as expiration. Condition associated with this is?: (A) Atrial septal defect, (B) Ventricular septal defect, (C) Mitral regurgitat... | Answer is A. WIDE FIXED SPLIT OF S2 IS SEEN IN: ASD Right Bundle Branch Block TAPVC WIDE VARIABLE SPITTING OF S2 IS SEEN IN: Pulmonic stenosis VSD Mitral regurgitation | |
Which of the following drugs is used to treat both diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus: (A) Chlorpropamide, (B) Glibenclamide, (C) Glicazide, (D) Glipizide | Answer is A. None | |
Deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase causes: (A) Complement deficiency, (B) Cellular immunodeficeincy, (C) Humoral immunodeficeincy, (D) Combined immunodeficeincy | Answer is B. A combined T cell and B cell immunodeficiency that is a rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that has material basis in mutation in the PNP gene and characterized mainly by decreased T-cell function. Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e | |
Cataracta brunescens result due to deposition of: (A) Copper, (B) Iron, (C) Melanin, (D) Keratin | Answer is C. Nuclear senile cataract: The usual degenerative changes are intensification of the age- related nuclear sclerosis associated with dehydration and compaction of the nucleus resulting in a hard cataract. It is accompanied by a significant increase in water insoluble proteins. However, the total protein conte... | |
The role of plasmids in conjugation was first described by Lederberg and Tatum(46) in -: (A) H.influenzae, (B) Corynebacterium, (C) Pseudomonas, (D) Esch.Coli | Answer is D. None | |
Viridans streptococci
A Include Streptococcus mutans, mitis, sanguis and salivarious
B Reliable produce haemolysis on blood Agar plates
C Accounts for few cases of infective endocarditis
D The men strains of cariogenic streptococcus
E Can be isolated from the bloodstream in the majority of patients immediately after de... | Answer is B. None | |
The least extrapyramidal side effects are seen with which of the following phenothiazine?: (A) Clozapine, (B) Triflupromazine, (C) Fluphenazine, (D) Thioridazine | Answer is D. Side effects of impoant CNS drugs Midazolam Ataxia, Blackouts in elderlyTolcapone Hepatotoxic Phenytoin Hirsuitism , Gingival hyperplasia , Osteomalacia , Teratogen , Megaloblastic anemia , Ataxia, Lymphadenopathy, Hyperglycemia , Arrhythmias, Vitamin K deficiency Valproate Irreversible hepatic necrosis in... | |
Which is not a variable of MDRD (Modification of Diet in Renal Disease) formula?: (A) Age, (B) Gender, (C) Race, (D) Weight | Answer is D. TEST : 1. CKD - EPI - cystatin C method (BEST) ; Cystatin - C is produced by nucleated cells 2. Modification of diet in renal disease formula GFR= 186.3 x (serum creatinine level ( mg/dl))-1.154 x age-0.203 x ( 0.742 if female ) x (1.21 if black) 3. Cockroft Gault formula 4. Creatinine clearance 5. Inulin ... | |
Feature of post ovulatory endometrium on ultrasound is:: (A) Single hyperechoic thin line, (B) Three line sign, (C) Prominent halo, (D) Prominent posterior enhancement | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. Prominent posterior enhancementRef: Transvaginal Ultrasound by Melvin G. Dodson 1st/ed, p86This is a very important QuestionIMPORTANT: The appearances of endometrium on transvaginal ultrasound during different stages of normal menstrual cycle has been summarized here.A. Just after menstruat... | |
Kaposi sarcoma is commonly seen in ?: (A) Upper limbs, (B) Lower limbs, (C) Head and Neck, (D) Trunk | Answer is B. " It occurs predominantly on the skin and can involve viually any organ, perhaps except the brain. The initially described form, now known as classic KS, predominantly involves the lower extremities of elderly men. KS is now the most common tumor seen in HIV-infected patients Ref : Bailey and love surgery ... | |
Tension band wiring is indicated in fracture of which of the following ?: (A) Fracture humerus, (B) Olecranon, (C) Fracture tibia, (D) Fracture spine | Answer is B. Tension band wiring is indicated in the treatment of two types of olecranon fracture. First type is a clean break with separation of the fragments, and second type is comminuted fracture of the olecranon with displced fragments. A crack in the olecranon without displacement is treated by immobilising the e... | |
Giant papillary conjunctivitis is seen: (A) Trachoma, (B) Contact lens, (C) Phlytenular conjunctivitis, (D) Vernal kerato conjunctivitis | Answer is B. It is the inflammation of conjunctiva with formation of very large sized papillae. Etiology :It is a localised allergic response to a physically rough or deposited surface (contact lens, prosthesis, left out nylon sutures). Probably it is a sensitivity reaction to components of the plastic leached out by t... | |
Best investigation for pericardial effusion is -: (A) MRI, (B) CT, (C) X ray, (D) Echocardiography | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Echocardiography Investigations o Investiation of choice to identify individual cardiac chamber enlargement - 2D-echocardiography. o Inv estigation of choice for pericardial effusion - 2D-echocardiography. o Investigation of choice for valvular heart disease - 2D-echocardiography. o Inves... | |
Histopathology showing large cells with plant like apperance with perinuclear halo is seen in which type of renal cell carcinoma ?: (A) Onchocytoma, (B) Granular cell carcinoma, (C) Angiosarcoma, (D) Chromophobic | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., ChromophobicHistopathological findings of perinuclear halo and plant cell appearance are seen in chromophobe cell carcinoma ofRCC.o Electron microscopic finding consisting of numerous 150-300 nm microvesicles is the single most distinctive and defining feature of chromophobe cell ca. | |
Selective alpha 2 agoinst used in glaucoma -: (A) Timolol, (B) Epinephrine, (C) Dipivefrine, (D) Brimonidine | Answer is D. Brimonidine (0.2% : 2 times/day). It is a selective alpha-2-adrenergic agonist and lowers IOP by decreasing aqueous production. Because of increased allergic reactions and tachyphylaxis rates it is not considered the drug of first choice in POAG. It is used as second drug of choice and also for combination... | |
The rate of formation of CSF per day:: (A) 1000 c.c., (B) 2000 c.c., (C) 5000 c.c., (D) 8000 c.c. | Answer is C. 5000 c.c. | |
Cells are most sensitive to radiation in:: (A) G2 phase, (B) G1 phase, (C) G1 phase and early S phase, (D) G2 phase and late S phase | Answer is A. None | |
Which one of the following surgical procedures is considered to have a clean-contaminated wound ?: (A) Elective open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis, (B) Herniorrhaphy with mesh repair, (C) Herniorrhaphy with mesh repair, (D) Appendectomy with walled off abscess | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Elective open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis | |
Esthetics starts with:: (A) Taking impression, (B) Occlusal rims, (C) Teeth setting, (D) Selection of teeth | Answer is A. None | |
A 63-year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes develops a black, crusting lesion in the nose and left maxillary sinus. Biopsy reveals nonseptate hyphae, which confirms the diagnosis of what? SELECT ONE.: (A) Erysipelas, (B) Eczema, (C) Scarlet fever, (D) Mucor mycosis | Answer is D. Mucor is an opportunistic mold that causes mucormycosis. At least 50% of reported cases are associated with uncontrolled diabetes, and many of the remaining patients are immuno- suppressed. It appears as black crusting in the nose and sinuses and spreads rapidly to involve the cerebrum. Biopsy reveals nons... | |
Coagulative necrosis is seen in: (A) TB, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Gangrene, (D) Cryptococcal infection | Answer is C. . | |
Depigmenting agent of choice in in treatment of dermatological disorders is -: (A) Hydroquinone, (B) Zinc, (C) Kojic acid, (D) Azelaic acid | Answer is A. <p>DEPIGMENTING AGENTS:- Include agents like hydroquinone(2%-5%),azelaic acid (10%-20%), glycolic acid (6%-12%) and monobenzene. They act by inhibiting tyrosinase enzyme. Hydroquinone is most commonly used.It can be combined with steroids and retinoids in the treatment of melasma. Kligmans regimen- 5% hydr... | |
The sudden appearance Dumb-bell shaped swelling during third molar nerve block is mainly due to:: (A) Injection in pterygoid plexus, (B) Injection in parotid gland, (C) Injection into internal maxillary artery, (D) Injection into nasal cavity | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following is true regarding Okazaki fragment?: (A) Are segments of RNA attached to an RNA initiator component, (B) Are related to the leading strand, (C) Several Okazaki fragments must be sequentially synthesized for each replication fork, (D) Helicase acts on the leading strand to unwind dsDNA | Answer is C. Ans. C. Several Okazaki fragments must be sequentially synthesized for each replication forka. Okazaki fragments are segments of DNA attached to an RNA initiator component.b. They are related to the lagging strand.c. Helicase acts on the lagging strand to unwind dsDNA. | |
The hyperosmolarity of the renal meduila is due to increased content of -: (A) K+, (B) Na +, (C) Glucose, (D) Na ++ | Answer is B. B i.e. Na + | |
Paradoxical respiration is seen in: (A) Multiple fracture ribs, (B) Diaphragmatic palsy, (C) Bulbar polio, (D) Severe asthma | Answer is B. Diaphragmatic palsy Bilateral diaphragmatic paralysisUnilateral diaphragmatic paralysisMost common cause of bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis are:High spinal cord injuryThoracic trauma (cardiac surgery)Multiple sclerosisAnterior horn disease Muscular dystrophyMost patients present with hypercapnic respirat... | |
In this child Which of the following enzymes is likely to be deficient?: (A) HGPRTase, (B) Adenosine deaminase, (C) APRTase, (D) Acid maltase | Answer is A. Ans. A. HGPRTaseSlide 1 showing nibbling of lips and fingers; slide 2 showing bite marks on hand inflicted by self. Self-mutilation seen in Lesch Nyhan Syndrome; characteristic of the disease in children.Clinical signs and symptoms seen in Lesch Nyhan Syndrome:a. Biochemical: Hyperuricemia, can result ini.... | |
Musculature of first pharyngeal arch is supplied by which cranial nerve?: (A) V, (B) VII, (C) IX, (D) X | Answer is A. Musculature of the first pharyngeal arch includes the muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, and pterygoids), anterior belly of the digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, and tensor palatini. The nerve supply to the muscles of the first arch is provided by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerv... | |
which of the following antidepressent causes hypeensive crisis: (A) dapoxetine, (B) duloxetine, (C) clomipramine, (D) phenelezine | Answer is D. MAOI * IMPOANCE First class of antidepressant drugs that were introduced * MECHANISM There are three monoamines namely dopamine, adrenaline and serotonin. These mon amines are degraded by monoamine oxidase. MAOI inhibit this enzyme and acts increasing monoamines * DRUGS Phenelezine Tranylcipromine * USE AT... | |
All the following polyps are premalignant except:March 2011: (A) Juvenile polyposis syndrome, (B) Familial polyposis syndrome, (C) Hyperplastic polyps, (D) Peutz Jegher syndrome | Answer is C. Ans. C: Hyperplastic polypsIt is now appreciated that hyperplastic polyps are without malignant potentialJuvenile polyps that are single and have been completely excised carry no significant increased risk of malignancy. Multiple juvenile polyps can be a sign of the familial juvenile polyposis syndrome. Th... | |
In an elective lap cholecystectomy with no gross spillage, antibiotics required are: (A) Single dose of Preoperative IV antibiotic followed by a 5 day course of oral antibiotics, (B) Post operative IV antibiotics for 1 day followed by a 5 day course of oral antibiotics, (C) Single dose of Preoperative IV antibiotic onl... | Answer is C. Elective lap cholecystectomy is a clean-contaminated surgery, single preoperative IV antibiotic during decisive period is sufficientThere is no evidence that fuher doses of antibiotics after surgery are of any value in prophylaxis against infectionWhen wounds are heavily contaminated or when an incision is... | |
Glomerulonephritis is due to -: (A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction, (B) Type IV hypersensitivity reation, (C) Immune complex deposition, (D) Type V hypersensitivity reaction | Answer is C. None | |
All of the following may be used to treat Acute Hypercalcemia Except:: (A) Hydration with saline, (B) Calcitonin, (C) Biphosphonates, (D) Gallium Nitrate | Answer is D. Answer is D (Gallium Nitrate) Gallium Nitrate exes s hypocalcemic effect by inhibiting calcium resorption from bone. Maximum hypocakemic effect of gallium nitrate may take 3-4 days to appear and it is not often used now because of availability of superior alternatives. Gallium nitrate is the single best an... | |
Hampton's line is feature of: (A) Benign ulcers, (B) Malignant ulcers, (C) Both, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. 'Hampton's line' :- - is thin radiolucent line seen at the neck of a gastric ulcer in barium studies - it is seen in benign gastric ulcer - it's caused by thin line of mucosa overhaning ulcer's crater Hampton's line Carman Meniscus sign - (in Malignant gastric ulcer) Duodenal ulcer: - is associated with in... | |
Advantage of single chamber incinerator is: (A) Effective for thermally resistant articles, (B) Useful for cytotoxic drugs, (C) Good disinfection efficiency, (D) Low pollutant emissions | Answer is C. None | |
A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echo-cardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Acute MI, (B) Pulmonary embolism, (C) Hypotensive shock, (D) Cardiac tamponade | Answer is B. The clinical history corresponding to the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. For a patient presenting with acute breathlessness and chest pain and in whom right ventricular dilatation with tricuspid regurgitation and mild elevation of pulmonary aery pressure is noted, a pulmonary embolus should be the initia... | |
Dimorphic with subcutaneous Mycosis is: (A) Histoplasmosis, (B) Rhinosporidiosis, (C) Sporotrichosis, (D) Blastomycosis | Answer is C. Sporotrichosis:
Dimorphic fungi
Causes subcutaneous infections. | |
The phenomenon of conception of a woman due to deposition of semen on vulva without vaginal penetration is called as: (A) Superfoetation, (B) Superfecundation, (C) Fecundation ab extra, (D) Vaginismus | Answer is C. FECUNDATION AB EXTRA: The conception of the female due to deposition of semen on the vulva, without penetration of the vagina - The insemination occurs due to the passage of spermatozoa from external genitalia to the uterus. Ref - Krishnan Vij 5th edition pg 395 , 404 | |
Pilocarpine reduce the intraocular pressure in person with closed angle glaucoma by: (A) Reducing aqueous humour secretion, (B) Contacting iris spincter muscle, (C) Increasing aqueous humour outflow, (D) Relaxin ciliary muscle | Answer is C. Refer kDT 7/e p 156 It has also been used in the treatment of chronic open-angle glaucoma and acute angle-closure glaucoma It acts on a subtype of muscarinic receptor (M3) found on the iris sphincter muscle, causing the muscle to contract -resulting in pupil constriction (miosis). Pilocarpine also acts on ... | |
48 year old male reported with the chief complaint of ulcer on the gums and on general examination headache, fever and malaise was observed. On oral examination, sharply punched out crater-like erosions of the interdental papillae of sudden onset were noted. The patient also complained of bad breath.
Diagnosis is: (A)... | Answer is A. None | |
A variety of basic assays are used to detect autoantibodies. Nephelometry is based on the principle of:: (A) Light attenuated in intensity by scattering, (B) Refraction of light, (C) Reduced transmission of light, (D) Filtration of solutes by kidney | Answer is A. Nephelometry measures the interaction of antibodies and antigens in solution, detecting immune complex formation by monitoring changes in the scattering of an incident light. Ref: Imboden J.B. (2007). Chapter 3. Laboratory Diagnosis. In J.B. Imboden, D.B. Hellmann, J.H. Stone (Eds), CURRENT Rheumatology Di... | |
Stocker&;s line is seen in: (A) Pinguecula, (B) Pterygium, (C) Congenital ocular melanosis, (D) Conjunctival epithelial melanosis | Answer is B. Pterygium It presents as a triangular fold of conjunctiva encroaching the cornea in the area of the palpebral apeure, usually on the nasal side, but may also occur on the temporal side. Deposition of iron seen sometimes in corneal epithelium anterior to advancing head of the pterygium called as stocker's l... | |
For large country surveys the sampling method of choice is:: (A) Multiple sampling, (B) Multiphase sampling, (C) Cluster sampling, (D) Multistage random sampling | Answer is D. None | |
Which one of the following congenital hea diseases has cyanosis without cardiomeglay and/ or congestive hea failure -: (A) Transposition of great aeries, (B) Fallot's tetralogy, (C) Congenital mitral regurgitaion, (D) Congenital pulmonary stenosis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fallot's Tetralogy Cardiomegaly and CHF do not occur in Fallot's tetrology. No Cardiomegaly o First you should know the following facts : ? i) Pressure overload to ventricles causes concentric hyperophy without dilatation. ii) Volume overload to ventricles causes hyperophy with dilatation... | |
True about stomach carcinoma -: (A) Weightloss is commonest feature, (B) Secondaries are most commonly seen in peritoneum & omentum, (C) Lymphatic & hematogenous spread are rare, (D) Barium meal is diagnostic | Answer is A. Answer 'a' i.e. Weightloss is commonest feature Symptoms of gastric cancer Earliest symptom is usually vague postprandial abdominal heaviness Most common symptom is weight loss Other symptoms are: - anorexia - abdominal pain (usually not severe) vomiting may be present and becomes a major feature if pylori... | |
The control for mastication is normally exercised by: (A) Pontine centres, (B) Sub cortical centres, (C) Cerebellar centres, (D) Medulla centres | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following organism is most commonly considered responsible for SIDS especially after giving honey to the neonate or infant?: (A) Clostridium botulinum, (B) Staphylococcus aureus, (C) E. coli, (D) Clostridium perfringens | Answer is A. Ans. A. Clostridium botulinum.(Ref. Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th ed. Chapter 367)Sudden infant death syndrome# Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the unexpected, sudden death of a child under age 1 in which an autopsy does not show an explainable cause of death.# SIDS is most likely to occur bet... | |
A patient consults a dermatologist about a skin lesion on her neck. Examination reveals a 1-cm diameter,red, scaly plaque with a rough texture and irregular margins. Biopsy demonstrates epidermal and dermal cells with large, pleomorphic, hyperchromatic nuclei. Which of the following conditions would most likely predisp... | Answer is A. The lesion is a squamous cell carcinoma of the skin. Actinic keratosis, which is a hyperplastic lesion of sun-damaged skin, predisposes for squamous cell carcinoma. Another predisposing condition to remember is xeroderma pigmentosum, which predisposes for both squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas of ski... | |
In Osteomalacia: (A) Osteoid formation is defective, (B) Mineralization of bone is defect, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is B. Rickets / Osteomalacia Pathophysiology - Failure of calcification & mineralization of cailage and osteoid tissue Clinical featuresRadiological featuresGeneralized muscle weakness, lethargy, irritability and listlessness Protuberant abdomen Large head, open fontanelles and craniotabesThickening of knees, an... | |
Frotteurism:: (A) Pleasure in watching intercourse, (B) Pleasure in using article of opposite sex, (C) Pleasure in touching opposite sex, (D) Pleasure in wearing opposite sex clothes | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Pleasure in touching opposite sexRef: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed. / 404* FROTTEURISM: rubbing the genitalia with the body of the person of other sex for sexual satisfaction.* Paraphilias: Abnormal 8c unorthodox sex play by using unusual objects or parts are know as paraphil... | |
A 23-year-old woman is noticed to have irregular pupils on routine examination. She has 1 large pupil, which has minimal response to light stimulation, but it does respond to accommodation. The eye movements are normal and she experiences no double vision.For the above patient with a pupillary abnormality, select the m... | Answer is C. The tonic pupil (Holmes-Adie syndrome) is caused by a parasympathetic lesion at or distal to the ciliary ganglion. The pupil is large and usually unilateral, with absent response to light. A bright room, by causing constriction of the normal pupil, accentuates the anisocoria. The tonic pupil can be associa... | |
Which of the following is secreted by TRH stimulation?: (A) Prolactin only, (B) TSH only, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is C. TRH is derived from a pro-TRH peptide. Like other hypothalamic-releasing hormones, TRH reaches the anterior pituitary the hypothalamic-pituitary poal circulation. It interacts with specific receptors on pituitary thyrotrophs to release TSH and on mammotrophs to release prolactin. Ref: Textbook of Endocrine... | |
All of the following are components of withdrawl reflex except: (A) Flexor reflex, (B) Reciprocal reflex, (C) Inverse stretch reflex, (D) Crossed extensor reflex | Answer is C. Inverse stretch reflex is not component of withdrawl reflex. | |
Nutrient and oxygen reach the chondrocytes across perichondrium by: (A) Capillaries, (B) Diffusion, (C) Along neurons, (D) Active transpo | Answer is B. an impoant fact about cailage matrix is that it is avascular, i.e. not supplied by capillariestherefore, chondrocytes within the matrix must receive nutrients and oxygen by diffusion from vessels that lie outside the cailagethis long-distance diffusion is possible because of the large volume of water trapp... | |
A 20 year old boy c/o hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. When asked to his family, they say that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. There is no of psychiatric illness. Likely diagnosis is:: (A) Dementia, (B) Acute psychosis, (C) Delirium, (D) Delusional disorde... | Answer is B. B i.e. Acute psychosis- Delusions or hallucinations (suchas hearing voices in this case) with grossly disorganized speech and behavior (such as muttering to self, gesticulation, aggressiveness in this case) of acute onset with normal cognition & consciousness indicate the diagnosis of acute psychosis (i.e.... | |
Spuriously high BP is seen in A/E :: (A) Auscultatory gap, (B) Small cuff, (C) Thick calcified vessels, (D) Obesity | Answer is A. A i.e. Auscultatory gap | |
All are Glucogenic hormones except?: (A) ADH, (B) Glucagon, (C) Thyroxine, (D) Glucocorticoids | Answer is A. Ans. A ADHRef: Ganong, 25th ed. pg. 442Glucagon, thyroxine, cortisol and growth hormone increase blood sugar levels and are glucogenic. ADH regulates water re-absorption via the collecting duct. | |
Which type of Human papilloma virus is most commonly associated with Cervical cancer ?: (A) HPV 16, (B) HPV 24, (C) HPV 32, (D) HPV 36 | Answer is A. Genital HPV infection is extremely common and most often cause no symptoms. A propoion of individuals infected with low-risk HPV types such as HPV-6 or HPV-11 will develop genital was, whereas a subset of women with high-risk HPVs such as HPV-16 or HPV-18 will develop preneoplastic lesions of cervical intr... | |
Ashley's rule is used to :: (A) Determine age using sternum, (B) Determine sex using sternum, (C) Determine age using mandible, (D) Determine sex using mandible | Answer is B. Ashley's rule States that male sternum lenth will be more than 149mm and female sternum lenth will be less than 149mm. |
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