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Mirena (LNG IUCD) has to be replaced after :: (A) 1 year, (B) 5 years, (C) 3 years, (D) 6 months | Answer is B. Mirena (LNG IUD) contains a total of 52 mg levonorgestrel (LNG) LNG is released into the uterine cavity at a rate of approximately 20 microgram/day. Act mainly by local progestogenic effects Effective for up to 5 years. | |
5 year old Boy with something coming out of the anus with pedicle attached to rectal/ anal wall and bright red bleeding- most common diagnosis -: (A) Juvenile rectal Polyp, (B) Pedicle pile, (C) Fissure, (D) CA Colon | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Juvenile rectal Polyp * Juvenile polyps are the most common type of childhood polyp, occurring in up to 1% of preschool children. They are usually solitary polyps found in the rectum which most commonly present with rectal bleeding.* These are hamartomatous polyps, which are usually pedun... | |
Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as antioxidant -: (A) Vitamin E, (B) Niacin, (C) Vitamin C, (D) Vitamin A | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Niacin o Option a, c & d are themselves antioxidants, but glutatbion requires niacin as NADPH.o NADPH is necessary tor the maintenance of a reducing environment in the cell.o NADPH plays a key role in antioxidant defences by converting the oxidized glutathione into the reduced glutathione... | |
Prophylactic Chemotherapy is indicated after evacuation of H.Mole in all, Except:: (A) Initial level of urine HCG is 40000 IU after 6 week of evacuation, (B) Increase in HCG titre 24000 IU after 10 week of evacuation, (C) Metastasis, (D) Nulliparous lady | Answer is D. None | |
Oral contraceptive pills decrease incidence of all of the following conditions except :: (A) Salpingitis, (B) Hepatic adenoma, (C) Ovary CA, (D) Fibroadenosis | Answer is B. Hepatic adenoma | |
A 14 year old boy with difficulty in walking and behavioural disturbance, recovered from prolonged jaundice recently, has bluish pigmentation over lunula. The next investigation to be done:: (A) Nail fold cappillaroscopy, (B) Slit lamp examination, (C) Biopsy of the pigmented area, (D) Ankle-brachial pressure index | Answer is B. Neurological involvement + Jaundice + Azure Nails (Bluish discoloration of nails) = Wilson's disease Dx: Slit lamp examination and 24 hrs urinary copper Rx: for Neurological feature - Tetrathiomolybdate | |
Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion is used in the management of burns caused by: (A) Nitric acid, (B) Hydrofluoric acid, (C) Formic acid, (D) Hydrochloric acid | Answer is B. Hydrofluoric acid causes Hypocalcemia. Calcium based therapies are main stay of treating Hydrofluoric acid burns. Topical application of calcium gluconate onto wounds and IV administration of calcium gluconate for systemic symptoms. Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion provides effective treatment of pr... | |
A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg, and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:: (A) Very severe disease, (B) Severe P... | Answer is A. The child is unable to drink water for 12hrs & weight of the child is 5kg which is less than expected (12kg), which shows severe malnutrition. Inability to drink constitutes a danger sign amongst the clinical manifestations and classifies the pneumonia as very severe disease. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preven... | |
Familial amylodotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of: (A) Amyloid associated protein, (B) Mutant calcitonin, (C) Mutant transthyretin, (D) Normal transthyretin | Answer is C. Ref Robbins 9/e p259 Familial (Hereditary) Amyloidosis A variety of familial forms of amyloidosis have been described; most are rare and occur in limited geographic areas. The best-characterized is an autosomal recessive condition called familial Mediterranean fever. This is a febrile disorder characterize... | |
Which of the following is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy -: (A) Jacquemier's sign, (B) Dalrymple sign, (C) Hegar's sign, (D) Palmer's sign | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dalrymple's sign o The following are presumptive signs for diagnosis of pregnancy:# Breast changes: Enlargement with vascular changes with delicate veins visible under the skin.# Jacquemier's sign/Chadwick's sign: Dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall, due to local congesti... | |
False about Hyperophic gastropathy is: (A) Seen in menetriers disease and ZES, (B) It is associated with malignancy, (C) It shows cerebriform rugacity on stomach, (D) Produce MALTomas | Answer is D. It is seen in menetriers disease&ZES &it associated with malignancies & it form cribriform rugacitu on stomach. The condition needs to be differentiated from other forms of hyperophic gastropathy such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, hyperophic hypersecretory gastropathy, lymphocytic gastritis, or gastric ca... | |
Body temperature regulation centre is located at: (A) Pituitary, (B) Thalamus, (C) Hypothalamus, (D) Basal ganglia | Answer is C. Anterior hypothalamus, responds to heat;Posterior hypothalamus, responds to cold. Ref: Ganongs Review of medical physiology;25 th edition ; pg :309; table 17-1. | |
High Air velocity is measured by -: (A) Psychrometer, (B) Anemometer, (C) Kata thermometer, (D) Hygrameter | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Anemometer | |
A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable:: (A) Fouchet, (B) Rothera, (C) Hays, (D) Benedicts | Answer is B. Women in the question stem with altered sensorium and dehydration is suffering from ketoacidosis. Absence of sugar exclude the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. So ketosis could be due to starvation which can be detected by Rotheras test. During starvation acetylCoA takes alternate fate to form ketone bo... | |
A sixteen year old boy receives a superficial cut on the thumb side of his forearm. The superficial vein most likely affected is the?: (A) Basilic, (B) Cephalic, (C) Median antebrachial, (D) Median cubital | Answer is B. There are two large cutaneous veins running up the arm. Both veins take origin from the dorsal venous arch of the hand and run up the lateral and medial sides of the arm. On the medial side (near the 5th digit) there is the basilic vein. On the lateral side (by the thumb), there is the cephalic vein. Since... | |
Defect in Snurps causes-: (A) Sickle cell anemia, (B) Thalassemia, (C) Marfan syndrome, (D) EDS | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thalassemiao Defective splicing (defect in snurps) is the most common mutation causing thalassemia,o Molecular defect in pathogens is of thalassemia:-b-Thalassemiao Most common type of genetic abnormality in b-thalassemia is point mutation i.e., nonsense.o Some may also occur due to delet... | |
Not true about Red degeneration of myomas is-: (A) It occurs commonly during pregnancy, (B) Immediate surgical intervention is needed, (C) Due to interference with blood supply, (D) Treated with analgesics | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' ie immediate surgical intervention needed Red degenerationis the most frequent* complication of myomas during pregnancy.The tumour assumes a peculiar purple red colour.It usually occurs due to thrombosis of large veins in the tumour.it has a peculiar fishy odour*Clinical featuresAcute onset of ... | |
Which of the following is not supplied by C8 T1 -: (A) Abductor pollicis brevis, (B) Extensor indicis, (C) Palmar interossei, (D) 3rd & 4th lumbricals | Answer is B. Small muscles of hand include- Thenar, Hypothenar, interossei and lumbricals. They are supplied by C8-T1. Extensor indicis is supplied by C7, C8 | |
All the following enzymes activity is increased in fasting state except: (A) Acetyl CoA carboxylase, (B) Carnitine acyl transferase, (C) Phospho enol pyruvate carboxykinase, (D) Pyruvate carboxylase | Answer is A. MetabolismRegulatory enzymesLipid metabolism Fatty acid oxidation Carnitine acyltransferase 1KetogenesisHMG CoA synthaseLipolysis Hormone-sensitive lipaseCarbohydrate metabolism Glycogenolysis Glycogen phosphorylase Gluconeogenesis Pyruvate carboxylase Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)Fructose1,6 ... | |
Anaesthetic agent not metabolized by body is?: (A) N20, (B) Gallamine, (C) Sevofluorane, (D) Halothane | Answer is A. Ans. (a) N20Ref: Miller's 7thedch: 24 | |
Which of the following is not true about hydroquinone?: (A) It is a weak hypopigmenting agent, (B) It inhibits tyrosinase, (C) Response is incomplete and pigmentation may recur, (D) It should not be used for melasma or chloasma of pregnancy | Answer is D. Ans. is'd'i.e., It should not be used for melasma or chloasma of pregnancy .Ref: KDT Vhle p. 8921Hydroquinone:It is a weak hypopigmentation agent.Inhibits tyrosinase and other melanin forming enzymes, decreases formation of and increases degradation of melanosomes.Regular application (as 2-6% lotion or cre... | |
A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as:: (A) Gynecoid, (B) Android, (C) Anthropoid, (D) Platypelloid | Answer is C. Ans. C. AnthropoidBy tradition, pelvis are classified as belonging to one of four major groups. The gynecoid pelvis is the classic female pelvis with a posterior sagittal diameter of the inlet only slightly shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter. In the android pelvis, the posterior sagittal diameter ... | |
Celiac plexus block all the following is true except ?: (A) Relieved pain from gastric malignancy, (B) Cause hypotention, (C) Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery, (D) Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach Celiac plexus block can be done by following three approaches : Retrocrural (classic) approach, anterocrural approach and splanchnic nerve block. See explanation- 4 of session- 8 of Anaesthesia of All India 2014-15 pattern of this book. | |
Which of the following is used in mixed dentition classification of malocclusion: (A) Angles classification, (B) Simon's orbital plane, (C) Flush terminal plane, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. None | |
All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except: (A) Induction is slow, (B) Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchial secretions, (C) Cautery cannot be used, (D) Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias | Answer is D. Ether has high blood solubility (high blood : gas partition coefficient) → induction is slow.
It is irritant in nature and increases salivary & respiratory secretions.
Blood pressure is maintained because of reflex stimulation and high sympathetic tone. It does not sensitizes the heart to arrhythmogenic ac... | |
Minimum fluid collection required for radiological detection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view is: September 2009: (A) 15 ml, (B) 25 ml, (C) 35 ml, (D) 45 ml | Answer is B. Ans. Amount of pleural fluid required to cause a blunted costophrenic angle discernible on chest radiography is more than 300 ml. A chest computerized tomography scan is more sensitive than a simple chest x-ray and is often used for assessment of loculated effusions because, in some instances, up to 500 cc... | |
Pseudopolyps are features of –: (A) Crohn's disease, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) Celiac sprue, (D) Whipple's disease | Answer is B. Ulcerative colitis
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by -
Inflammation involving only the mucosa and submucosa
Formation of pseudopolyps
Involvement is in a continuous fashion (absent of skip lesions which are characteristic of CD)
Ulcerative colitis involves the rectum... | |
Coracoid process of the scapula is:: (A) Pressure epiphysis, (B) Traction epiphysis, (C) Atavistic epiphysis, (D) Aberrant epiphysis | Answer is C. Ans. C Atavistic epiphysisRef: Clinical Anatomy, Kulkarni 2nd ed. P 73TYPES OF EPIPHYSIS* Pressure: Seen at the end of long bones subjected to pressure. E.g. Femur, head of humerus, condyles of tibia and femur.* Traction: Formed due to pull of muscles. E.g. Mastoid process, tibial tuberosity, tubercles, tr... | |
Which of the following is the least likely cause of infant moality rate?: (A) Severe infections, (B) Prematurity, (C) Tetanus, (D) Bih asphyxia | Answer is C. The principal causes of infant moality in India are low bih weight (57%), respiratory infections (17%), diarrhoeal diseases(4%), congenital malformations (5%), cord infections (2%), bih injury (3%) Park 23e pg:569 | |
Mittelschimerz pain is -: (A) Pain during onset of menstrual cycle, (B) Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle, (C) Pain during the or at the end of menstrual cycle, (D) Pain during menstrual bleeding | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle o Has been explained in previous sessions. | |
Osteoporosis is seen in all the following except-: (A) Thyrotoxicosis, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Hypoparathyroidism, (D) Steroid therapy | Answer is C. Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroi... | |
All are true about rifampicin except :: (A) Microsomal enzyme inducer, (B) Used in treatment of meningiococcal meningitis, (C) May cause OCP failure, (D) Bactericidal in nature | Answer is B. None | |
All local anesthetic produces vasodilation on local application except: (A) Cocaine, (B) Lignocaine, (C) Bupivacaine, (D) Ropivacaine | Answer is A. Cocaine is a vasoconstrictor as it is sympathomimetic. * Cocaine was the first local Anesthetic to be used clinically. IT is only natural local anesthetic. Koller introduced this in the field of ophthalmology. It is the only local anesthetic with vasoconstrictor action. It is sympathomimetic and inhibits m... | |
Which is not elevated in a child presenting with icterus, Pruritus and clay coloured stools: (A) Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, (B) Alkaline phosphatase, (C) 5'- nucleotidase, (D) Glutamate dehydrogenase | Answer is D. The child is suffering from obstructive jaundice or Cholestasis Enzymes elevated in Chloestasis ALP 5'-Nucleotidase Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1997 | |
Distal muscles of the hand needed for fine wrok are controlled by-: (A) Radial nerve, (B) Median nerve, (C) Ulnar nerve, (D) Axillary nerve | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ulnar nerve * Ulnar nerve is also known as musicians nerve as it is needed to carry out fine and precision movements of the hand. | |
In humans and other primates, as well as in guinea pigs, this vitamin cannot be synthesized, because of the absence of the enzyme L-gulonolactone oxidase; the vitamin is:: (A) Pantothenic acid, (B) Nicotinic acid, (C) Ascorbic acid, (D) Folic acid | Answer is C. None | |
Psoriasis is associated with:: (A) Geographic tongue, (B) Benign median rhomboid glossitis, (C) Lupus erythematosus, (D) Lupus vulgaris | Answer is A. None | |
Diagnostic feature of parathyroid carcinoma is: (A) Cytology, (B) Metastasis, (C) Clinical features, (D) All | Answer is B. Parathyroid carcinomas may be circumscribed lesions that are difficult to distinguish from adenomas. Cells are usually uniform and resemble normal parathyroid cells and of enclosed in a capsule. Diagnosis of carcinoma based on cytologic detail is unreliable , and invasion of surrounding tissues and metasta... | |
D.I.C. is seen in-: (A) Acute promyelocytic leukemia, (B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia, (C) CMC, (D) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia | Answer is A. Answwr is option 1 Abstract Malignancy is associated with a "hypercoagulable" state and a high risk for thrombohemorrhagic complications. Clinical complications may range from localized thrombosis to bleeding of varying degrees of severity because of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Life-threa... | |
Halting a disease at its incipient stages and preventing its complications is known as:: (A) Primordial prevention, (B) Primary prevention, (C) Secondary prevention, (D) Tertiary prevention | Answer is C. None | |
The most common ocular motility defect noted in ocular Graves' disease is due to involvement of:: (A) Inferior rectus, (B) Medial rectus, (C) Medial rectus, (D) Inferior oblique | Answer is A. Ans. Inferior rectus | |
Foreign body aspirated during dental procedures can be retrieved by:: (A) Bronchoscopy, (B) Gastroscopy, (C) Arthroscopy, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Drug of choice for neurogenic diabetes insipidus: (A) Vasopressin, (B) Terlipressin, (C) Desmopressin, (D) Pralipressin | Answer is C. Desmopressin is used to treat neurogenic diabetes insipidus, bedwetting, hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease it acts as an agonist to vasopressin receptor or ADH receptor- produce antidiuresis- less urine production-used in DI, bedwetting, vasoconstriction - used in esophageal varices and produces vwf- us... | |
A 20 Yr old male presented with repeated episodes of hemetemesis. There is no history of jaundice or liver decompensation. On examination the significant findings include splenomegaly (8cms below costal margin), and presence of esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic ulceration. The liver function tests are n... | Answer is B. Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis Condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of liver(mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusoidal) causing wide variation in normal architecture There is no true cirrhosis Etiology Chronic ingestion of arsenic, copper, vinyl chloride Clinical features Youny age... | |
Which electrolyte should be replenished in hyperophic pyloric stenosis ?: (A) Sodium, (B) Hydrogen, (C) Chloride, (D) Bicarbonate | Answer is C. Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis is the classic electrolyte and acid-base imbalance of pyloric stenosis. This prolonged vomiting causes progressive loss of fluids rich in hydrochloric acid, which causes the kidneys to retain hydrogen ions in or of potassium. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatri... | |
Feed forward mechanism is employmed in regulation of:: (A) Temperature, (B) Ph, (C) Blood pressure, (D) Blood volume | Answer is A. Feed forward control ,in which no stimulus is required but the system still anticipates and makes changes.it is also known as anticipatory control or adaptive control .It is seen in: Temperature regulation Cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion Role of cerebellum in motor coordination Thinking about exer... | |
Not safe disposal but good for soil building:: (A) Incineration, (B) Controlled tipping, (C) Composting, (D) Dumping | Answer is C. None | |
Perifascicular atrophy is seen in –: (A) Duchenne muscular atroply, (B) Wilson disease, (C) Beckers's dystrophy, (D) Dermatomyositis | Answer is D. Muscle biopsy in dermatomyositis shows myonecrosis, myophagocytosis and perifascicular atrophy. | |
Antenatal screening is done using the following except :: (A) Cord blood, (B) Amniotic fluid, (C) Chorionic villi, (D) Peripheral lymphocytes | Answer is D. Peripheral lymphocytes | |
The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:-: (A) 5-8 mm of Hg, (B) 10-15 mm of Hg, (C) 20-25 mm of Hg, (D) 30-35 mm of Hg | Answer is B. Laparoscopy Needle used for pneumoperitoneum veress needle Most commonly used gas: CO2 Flow of gas: 1L /min Intra-abdominal pressure: 12-15 mm Hg Trocar is inseed at or just below the umbilicus penetrating skin, superficial & deep fascia, fascia transversals & parietal peritoneum | |
Cells which surround the oocyte in Graafian follicle are called:: (A) Discus proligerus, (B) Cumulus oophorus, (C) Luteal cells, (D) Villus cells | Answer is B. Oocyte lies eccentrically in the ovarian (Graafian) follicle surrounded by some granulosa cells called cumulus oophorus. Discus proligerus is the attachment point of the cumulus oophorus to the most peripheral granulosa cells of an antral follicle. Large fluid-filled antrum (A) Cumulus oophorus (CO) Membra... | |
In transtentorial herniation, a pa of the brain is displaced from the supratentorial to the infratentorial compament through the tentorial opening. It results in all of the following, EXCEPT:: (A) Cheyne stokes respiration, (B) Decerebration, (C) Ipsilateral hemiparesis, (D) Ipsilateral oculomotor paresis | Answer is C. The uncus (on the medial aspect of the temporal lobe) herniates under the tentorium cerebelli. The uncus can compress the oculomotor nerve (CN III), compromising the parasympathetic fibers and resulting in ipsilateral pupillary dilation with associated ophthalmoplegia ("down and out"). Cheyne-Stokes respir... | |
Infection occuring after man's bite is -: (A) Spirochetes, (B) Staphylococcus, (C) Anaerobic streptococci, (D) Candida | Answer is B. None | |
Drug of choice in thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy is :: (A) Carbimazole, (B) Lugol's iodine, (C) Propranolol, (D) Radioactive iodine | Answer is A. Carbimazole | |
Which of the following is the skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in liver and renal disease ?: (A) Mivacurium, (B) Atracurium, (C) Gallium, (D) Vecuronium | Answer is B. Atracurium is degraded by both pH and temperature dependent Hofmann elimination (autolysis) and by ester hydrolysis; it therefore does not require a dosage adjustment in patients with renal or hepatic failure. However, acidosis and severe hypothermia decrease the rate of drug metabolism and should prompt d... | |
Residual bodies are: (A) Mitochondria, (B) Nucleus, (C) Golgi apparatus, (D) Lysosomes | Answer is D. lysosomes Residual bodies are nothing but secondary lysosomes with undigested wastes. The digested materials are diffused into the cell cytoplasm through the lysosomal membrane. (Ref: www.sivabio.50web.com) | |
Measure of communicability of a disease -: (A) Case fatality rate, (B) Secondary attack rate, (C) Sullivan index, (D) Incubation period | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary attect rate Secondary attack rateo SAR is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary caseSAR =No of exposed persons developing disease within the range of the incubation period------------... | |
In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome'?: (A) Optic radiation, (B) Optic tract, (C) Cerebellum, (D) Pulvinar | Answer is C. Answer is C (Cerebellum) Von Hipple-Lindau Syndrome is associated with haemangioblastomas of cerebellum, spinal cord, medulla or pons. | |
Signature fracture of skull is seen in: (A) Gutter fracture, (B) Depressed fracture, (C) Ring fracture, (D) Sutural seperation | Answer is B. DEPRESSED SKULL FRACTURE It is a common neurosurgical problem among the head injuries. It means fracture depression is more than the depth of inner table of the skull. Investigations: CT scan. Problems in depressed fracture Tear in the dura beneath Haematoma in the deeper plane Injury to the cerebrum Injur... | |
True about intrauterine fetal death (IUD) :: (A) Gas bubbles in great vessels, (B) Amniotic fluid volume, (C) Overlapping of skull bone, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Gas bubbles in great vessels; Overlapping of skull bone; and Decreased amniotic fluid volume | |
Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by?: (A) Inhibiting initiation and causing misreading of mRNA, (B) Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA, (C) Inhibiting peptidyltransferase activity, (D) Inhibiting translocation | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl tRNA Tetracycline interact with small ribosomal subunits, blocking access of aminoacyl- tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex. | |
Adverse effects of losaan are all EXCEPT -: (A) Angioedema, (B) Cough, (C) Hyperkalemia, (D) Headache | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Angioedema | |
Muscle's of anterior compament of leg is/ are:: (A) Peroneus teius, (B) Peroneus brevis, (C) Peroneuslongus, (D) Flexordigitorumlongus | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Peroneus teiusThe 4 muscles in the anterior compament of the leg are- the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis(Peroneus) teius | |
Albinism is a genetic disease that results in
incomplete metabolism of:: (A) Histidine, (B) Cystine, (C) Tyrosine, (D) Alanine | Answer is C. None | |
40 years male with spherophakia is at risk for developing: (A) Phacolytic glaucoma, (B) Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma, (C) Phacomorphic glaucoma, (D) Obscuration of disc margins | Answer is C. (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 248) Phacomorphic glaucoma is an acute secondary angle-closure glaucoma caused by:Intumescent lens i.e., swollen cataractous lens due to rapid maturation of cataract or sometimes following traumatic rupture of the capsule is the main cause... | |
Crystalline Lens is derived from (JIPMER May 2019): (A) Surface ectoderm, (B) Neuroectoderm, (C) Mesoderm, (D) Endoderm | Answer is A. - Eye ball have contribution from several structures - Neural plate ectoderm forms Neural tube form - CNS which have diencephalon pa of brain aExtension of diencephalon (optic sulcus) into eyeball form retina (optic cup) & optic nerve (optic stalk) - Neural plate ectoderm also forms - epithelium of ciliary... | |
Morbid jealousy is associated with which addiction?: (A) Alcohol, (B) Heroin, (C) LSD, (D) Charas | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alcohol Morbid jealousy (Pathological jealousy)* Also referred to as delusional jealously, obsessive jealousy and Othello syndrome. This condition occurs when a person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful.* Morbi... | |
Tripod fracture is the name given for: (A) Zygomatic fracture, (B) Maxillary fracture, (C) Mandibular fracture, (D) Temporal fracture | Answer is A. Zygoma fracture is also known as tripod fracture. Clinical features of zygoma fracture Considerable swelling over zygomatic arch is common and makes clinical diagnosis more difficult. Flattening of malar prominence. Step-deformity of infraorbital margin. Anaesthesia in the distribution of infraorbital nerv... | |
Which of these are seen on Romanowsky stain: (A) Cabot ring, (B) Basophilic strippling, (C) Howell_jolly bodies, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ref : PJ Mehta 16/e p372,T. Singh 1/e p34 Ref Robbins 9/e pg 24 Romanowsky dyes are used for staining blood films,They are made up of combination of acid and basic dyes. The nucleus and neutrophils granules are basophilic and stains blue.hemoglobin is acidophilic and stains red. Various modification availa... | |
Most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasis is: (A) 11 β Hydroxylase deficiency, (B) 21 Hydroxylase deficiency, (C) 17 α Hydroxylase deficiency, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Kelly's medium is used in the isolation of -: (A) Leptospira, (B) Borrelia, (C) Bartonella, (D) Brucella | Answer is B. None | |
In all of the found except:: (A) Measles, (B) Typhoid, (C) Hepatitis B, (D) Gonorrhea | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Measles cZef Park 22/e, p 154 In measles and whooping cough only cases are found with no carriers. Chronic carriers seen in: Typhoid Dysentery Hepatitis B Cerebrospinal meningitis Malaria Gonorrhea | |
Which is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis in pregnancy:: (A) Penicillin, (B) Ceftriaxone, (C) Rifampicin, (D) Ampicillin | Answer is B. N. meningitidis is dangerous because it can cause Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome & Addisonian crisis So, chemoprophylaxis is recommended Ceftriaxone as a single IM or IV injection is highly effective in carriage eradication and can be used at all ages and in pregnancy | |
Regarding pleomorphic adenoma of salivary gland true statement (s) is /are: (A) Parotid gland is most commonly involved, (B) Malignant transformation does not occur, (C) Also called adenolymphoma, (D) More commonly found in Men than Women | Answer is A. Eighty percent salivary neoplasms are in the parotids of which 80% are benign.Pleomorphic adenoma is more common in parotids(80%).It is more common in females in a ratio of 3:1.It is also called as mixed salivary tumour.Malignant transformation can occur in 3-5% in early tumours and 10% in long duration tu... | |
Least failure in sterilization occurs with :: (A) Falope ring, (B) Bipolar cautery, (C) Unipolar cauterisation, (D) Hulka clip | Answer is C. The success rates are best when clips and rings are used and worst with electrocoagulation. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 393 | |
Bowel can get strangulated in all of the following space, EXCEPT:: (A) Rectouterine pouch, (B) Ileocolic recess, (C) Paraduodenal recess, (D) Omental bursa | Answer is A. Omental bursa, paraduodenal recess and ileocolic recess are peritoneal recesses. Peritoneal recesses These are small pockets of the peritoneal cavity enclosed by small, inconstant folds of peritoneum. These are best observed in fetuses and are mostly obliterated in adults. Sometimes they persists to form p... | |
All are true about aspirin poisoning except: (A) Acidosis, (B) Hypothermia, (C) Dehydration, (D) Oliguria | Answer is B. None | |
Low grade Central Nervous System tumour among the following is: (A) Diffuse astrocytoma, (B) Anaplastic astrocytoma, (C) Glioblastoma multiforme, (D) Meningioma | Answer is D. (D) Meningioma # SPECTRUM OF CNS TUMORS range from Diffuse astrocytoma (grade ll/IV) Anaplastic astrocytoma (grade lll/IV) Glioblastoma (grade IV/IV)> Most meningiomas have a relatively low risk of recurrence or aggressive growth, and so are considered WHO grade l/IV. | |
The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is :: (A) 3%, (B) 8%, (C) 15%, (D) 29% | Answer is D. WHO classification of Progression to Carcinoma The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is 29% Reference : Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; pg no: 248 | |
A female presents with 3 cm painless ulcer with raised edges on labia majora. Most common cause is: (E. REPEAT 2013): (A) Syphilis, (B) Gonorrhea, (C) Herpes, (D) Chlamydia trachomatis | Answer is A. Ref: E s sent to Is in Dermatology, 1st editionExplanation:* Presence of 3 cm ulcer with raised edges in the labia majora suggests Syphilis. (See the following table) SyphilisGranuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)Chancroid(Soft sore. Soft Chancre, Ulcus molle)LymphogranulomaVenereumEtiologyTreponema pallidumCal... | |
Regarding stones in gall bladder the following are true except -: (A) Mixed stones are common in the west, (B) In Saints Triad diverticulosis of colon and hiatus hernia coexist, (C) Is a risk factor in the development of GB carcinoma, (D) 90% of GB stones are radioopaque | Answer is D. None | |
Skeletal frame work of a cell is maintained by:: (A) Nucleus, (B) Microtubules, (C) Ribosomes, (D) Mitochondria | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Microtubules(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.39)Microtubules provide structural support that can determine the shape of the cell and resist forces that tend to deform it | |
systematic desensitization was introduced by: (A) seligman, (B) joseph wolpe, (C) lorenz, (D) skinner | Answer is B. SYSTEMATIC DESENSITIZATION JOSEPH WOLPE Joseph Wolpe gave the concept of systematic desensitization This is a treatment used in phobia In phobia there is a conditioned fear response to aversive neutral stimulus and avoidance of that response leads to phobia Whenever there is a fear response there is stimul... | |
Haabs striae are seen in-: (A) Buphthalmos, (B) Keratoglobus, (C) Trachoma, (D) Keratoconus | Answer is A. Haabs striae -Tears and breaks in descemets membrane . These occur because Descemt's membrane is less elastic than the corneal stroma. Tears are usually peripheral, concentric with the limbus and appear as lines with double contour. Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:... | |
Which of the following is not a minor diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma?: (A) Lytic bone lesions, (B) Plasmacytosis greater than 20%, (C) Plasmacytoma on biopsy, (D) Monoclonal globulin spike on serum electrophoresis of > 2.5 g/dl for IgG, >1.5 g/dl for IgA | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Plasmacytoma on biopsy(Ref: Wintrobes 12th/pg2377)Durie and Salmon criteria for diagnosis of Multiple myeloma.A minimum of 1 major and 1 minor criterion needed, although (1) + (a) is not sufficient, or 3 minor criteria that must include (a) and (b).However, International myeloma working group 2011... | |
Frequency polygon is obtained by joining the points of: (A) Bar diagram, (B) Complete bar diagram, (C) Multiple bar diagram, (D) Histogram blocks | Answer is D. Ans. d (Histogram blocks) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/ 788; Methods in Bio-statistics, by B. K. Mahajan 6th/p. 23)Quantitative data is presented by the following graphsQualitative or discrete or enumeration data is presented by the following graphs:# Histogram.# Bar diagram# Frequency polygon.# Pie or sector diagr... | |
Wave One is classified as: (A) Sgp31, (B) Sgp32, (C) Sgp33, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Following are hepatotoxic anesthetic agents except-: (A) Halothane, (B) Chloroform, (C) Ether, (D) Propofol | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Propofol o Following are the groups of hepatotoxic anesthetic agents:i) Group I: Drugs with well known hepatotoxic potential and containing Chlorine or bromine. Eg: chloroform,ii) Group II: Drugs which contain fluorine Eg: halothane, methoxyflurane. o Desflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, i... | |
Normal glomerular filtration rate is -: (A) 50 ml/min, (B) 125 ml/min, (C) 250 ml/min, (D) 500 ml/min | Answer is B. In man, resting glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml/min (lSOL/day), the renal plasma flow is about 600 ml/min.
Thus about one-fish (20%) of plasma passing through kidney is filtered„ i.e., a fraction of renal plasma flow that is filtered (filtration fraction) | |
An elderly male presents with one episode of gross haematuria. All of the following investigations are recommended for investigating this patient except:: (A) Cystoscopy, (B) Urine microscopy for malignant cells, (C) Urine tumor markers, (D) Intravenous Pyelogram | Answer is C. Answer is C (Urine tumor markers) Urine tumor markers are the single best answer of exclusion as these are neither sensitive nor specific enough to replace cystoscopy and cytology. 'Individuals older than 40 years of age who develop haematuria , should have a urine specimen for cytology and undergo cystosc... | |
Cold caloric test stimulates: (A) Cochlea, (B) Lateral semicircular canal, (C) Posterior semicircular canal, (D) All | Answer is B. Stimulation of semicircular canal produces nystagmus and the direction of nystagmus is determined by the plane of the canal being stimulated. In cold caloric test, the lateral semicircular canal is stimulated. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition) | |
Drug resistant in tuberculosis is due to ?: (A) Transformation, (B) Transduction, (C) Conjugation, (D) Mutation | Answer is D. Drug resistance in M.tb is by Mutation in Chromosomes Metabolic defects occur as a result of mutation Eg - M.tb is normally catalase +ve INH resistant M.tb are Catalase -ve | |
Cells present in Cerebellar coex are all except?: (A) Purkinje, (B) Bipolar, (C) Granule, (D) Golgi | Answer is B. There are 5 types of neurons present in cerebellar coex:- Granule cell- Golgi cell- Basket cell - Stellate cell- Purkinje cellBipolar neurons are less common. A single axon and dendrite arise at opposite poles of the cell body. Their cell bodies are located in the retina, the olfactory epithelium, and the ... | |
Telefono is: (A) Pulling of hair, (B) Beating on soles, (C) Beating on ears, (D) Beating on fingers | Answer is C. TELEFONO consists of repeated slapping of the sides of the head by open palms of the assailant this may cause rupture of ear drums. Ref : internet sources | |
Adipocere is likely to occur in -: (A) Warm humid climate, (B) Dry hot climate, (C) Burial in sandy soil, (D) Extreme cold | Answer is A. None | |
Rituximab is a targeted antibody against -: (A) CD 20, (B) CD 22, (C) CD 34, (D) CD 55 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 20 * Rituximab is a targeted antibody against cell surface molecule CD-20, i.e. Rituximab is anti CD-20 antibody.* It is used in:i) B-cell lymphomas Low grade lymphomas, mantle cell lymphomas, relapsed aggressive B cell lymphomas, CLLii) SLEiii) Rheumatoid arthritis | |
Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is: (A) Myeloperoxidase, (B) Superoxide dismutase, (C) MAO, (D) Hydroxylase | Answer is B. Superoxide dismutase ref Robbins 7/e p17 , Harrison 17/e p 2572 ,9/e p48. | |
Fastest acting antithyroid drugs ?: (A) Iodides of Na/ K, (B) Propylthiuracil, (C) Methimazole, (D) Nitrates | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iodides of Na Iodine and Iodides Iodine is the fastest acting thyroid inhibitor Most impoant action is inhibition of hormone release (thyroid constipation); but all facets of thyroid synthesis may be affected. Excess iodide inhibits its own transpo in thyroid cells and may alter the redox... | |
Clinically in the non-injured eye, sympathetic ophthalmitis may manifest as:: (A) Acute plastic iridocyclitis, (B) Neuroretinitis, (C) Choroiditis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. All of the above | |
An 8 years old child has left sided flank pain and mental retardation. On ultrasound, a hyperechoic lesion in the right kidney and multiple lesions in the liver are noted. CT examination of the abdomen revealed -50 to -80 HU density of these lesions. The most probable diagnosis is:: (A) Tuberous sclerosis, (B) Heredita... | Answer is A. Answer- A (Tuberous sclerosis)AML is a benign clonal neoplasm consisting of varying amounts of mature adipose tissue, smooth muscle and thick-walled vessels. |
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