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Hyalin emembrane disease presents as: (A) Pulmonary edema, (B) Hea failure, (C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome, (D) Pulmonary embolism | Answer is C. In hyaline membrane disease the basic pathology is surfactant defeciency.surfactant is a lipoprotein containing phospholipids like phosphatydylcholine and phosphatydylglycerol. Surfactant is produced by type ll alveolar cells of lungs which helps to reduce surface tension in alveoli,in its absence surface ... | |
Secondary active transport true is -: (A) Occurs only in same direction, (B) Occurs only in opposite direction, (C) Uses ATP molecule, (D) No carrier required | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Uses ATP molecule Active transporto As the name suggests active transport is active pumping of drug molecules through a membrane against concentration gradient by a molecular pump (carrier mediated), which requires energy to function.o So, active transport has following characteristics:Mo... | |
Which muscleft is the chief mover of the mandible towards the left: (A) Left medial pterygoid, (B) Left lateral pterygoid, (C) Right medial pterygoid, (D) Right lateral pterygoid | Answer is D. The formula method states that the right lateral pterygoid moves the mandible left, whereas the left lateral pterygoid moves the mandible right. | |
Bilateral rib notching is seen in –: (A) Coarctation of aorta, (B) PDA, (C) TAPVC, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Radiological features of COA
Reverse figure of '3' sign or double bulge sign or E sign on the left border of aortic shadow is formed by (above downward:- Prestenotic dilatation; coarctation itself (indentation); poststenotic dilatation.
Double aortic knuckle.
Dock's sign:- There is bilateral notching of i... | |
A gallstone gets impacted most commonly in which pa of common bile duct: (A) Supra duodenal, (B) Retro duodenal, (C) Ampulla of vater, (D) Common hepatic duct | Answer is C. Most gallstones pass out of body unnoticed, but some become lodged in the common bile duct, causing jaundice A frequent site of gallstone impaction is the ampulla of vater, where common channel meets the small intestine Blockage of the common channel by a gallstone can induce acute pancreatitis Ref: Intern... | |
Which of the following is the order of activation after stimulation of Purkinje fibers is: (A) Septum → Endocardium → Epicardium, (B) Endocardium → Septum → Epicardium, (C) Epicardium → Septum → Endocardium, (D) Septum → Epicardium → Endocardium | Answer is A. Order of depolarization in the heart.
- First- Left side of interventricular septum
- Moves to right across the mid-portion of the septum
- Apex of heart
- Along ventricular walls to AV groove (Endocardium to epicardium)
- Last- Posterobasal portion of the left ventricle,... | |
Bariatric surgical procedures include: (A) Gastric Banding, (B) Gastric Bypass, (C) Biliopancreatic diversion, (D) Ileal Transposition | Answer is D. Treatment for Obesity includes * Dieting. * Exercise.and also the various modalities of surgery indicated is the following, * Veical banded gastroplasty. * Gastric bypass. * Laparoscopic gastroplasty or gastric bypass. * Jaw wiring. * Biliopancreatic diversion. * Jejuno-ileal bypass ref: SRB&;s manual of s... | |
The colorless or transparent pit and fissure sealants are usually: (A) Indicated only in case of rampant caries, (B) Accepted even though retention is limited, (C) Limited to buccal pits, (D) Indicated only before six years of age | Answer is B. None | |
Which one of the following factors is labelled as cytokine in the pathogenesis of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) ?: (A) Nitric oxide, (B) Complements, (C) Leukotrienes, (D) Tumor Necrosis factor | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tumor Necrosis factor | |
Hypeonic urine is excreted due to absorption of water in:: (A) Collecting ducts, (B) DCT, (C) Ascending pa of loop of Henley, (D) Descending pa of loop of Henley | Answer is A. A i.e. Collecting DuctOsmolality of urine depends on the action of vasopressin on the collecting ductsQ. Alteration in water metabolism by vasopressinUrine isotonic to plasmaGFR (ml/min)% of filteredwaterreabsorbedUrine volume(L/d)Urine concentration(mosm /kg H20)Gain /Loss of water inexcess of solute (L/d... | |
Impotent female is having -: (A) Gonadal dysgenesis, (B) Hermaphrodits, (C) Vaginismus, (D) Absence of ovary | Answer is C. Ref: Synopsis of Forensic medicine and Toxicology (Dr.K.S.Narayana Reddy) Pg 200 In females impotence is of an active nature , leading to vaganismus . vaginisumus is a spasmodic contraction of vagina due to hyperesthesia .it's a classical example of psychosomatic illness .anatomically, it may affect the pe... | |
Which among the following causes Malta fever?: (A) Treponema pallidum, (B) Borrelia burgdorferi, (C) Brucella melitensis, (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Answer is C. Brucellosis, also called Bang's disease, Crimean fever, Gibraltar fever, Malta fever, Maltese fever, Mediterranean fever, rock fever, or undulant fever. The infection is transmitted from animals to humans. Brucella abous (cattle), B suis (hogs), and B melitensis (goats) are the main agents. Transmission to... | |
Rupture of the carotid artery in the neck region. Which of the following site pressure is applied: (A) C3 vertebra, (B) C4vertebr, (C) C5 vertebra, (D) C6 vertebra | Answer is D. D. i.e. (C6 - vertebra ) (444 - Grey 14th)The bifurcation of the common carotid artery in to the internal and external carotid arteries can be palpated just beneath the anterior border of sterno cleidomastoid muscle at the level of the superior border of the thyroid cartilage. This is a convenient site to ... | |
Daily maintanence fluid for a child weighing 10 kg is:: (A) 1000 ml/day, (B) 800 ml/day, (C) 500 ml/day, (D) 1200 ml/day | Answer is A. Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics. 19th Edition.Explanation:The Holliday-Segar MethodIn the Holliday-Segar Method, fluid and electrolyte requirements are empirically based on the caloric needs of the average hospital patient.The same formula is used for calculating calorie requirement as well as fluid r... | |
Soft markers on ultrasonography are helpful in diagnosing?: (A) Fetal age, (B) Chromosomal anomalies, (C) Fetal size, (D) Site of pregnancy | Answer is B. Ans. is'b'i.e., Chromosomal anomaliesAntenatal soft ultrasound markers are fetal sonographic findings that are generally not abnormalities as such but are indicative of an increased age adjusted risk of an underlying fetal aneuploidic or some non chromosomal abnormalities. | |
Baby born to DM have following except :: (A) Hypercalcemia, (B) Hypokalemia, (C) Hypoglycemia, (D) Obesity | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Hypercalcemia Neonatal complications of Maternal diabetes : Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) Hypoglycaemiadeg Hypocalcemiadeg Hypomagnesemia Polycythemia Hyperbilirubinaemia Hyperviscosity syndrome Hyperophic cardiomyopathy Bih trauma - Erb's and Klumpke's paralysis and fractures of the c... | |
Oblitration of left cardiac shadow on PA view is due to:: (A) Lingular lesion, (B) Left hilar lymphadenopathy, (C) Left lower lobe lesion, (D) Left upper apical lobe lesion | Answer is A. A i.e. Lingular lesion | |
There is spontaneous rupture of the Achilles tendon in an 18 year old male. It is most likely to be due to excess stress beyond -: (A) Tendon strength, (B) Bone strength, (C) Muscle strength, (D) Musculotendinous junction strength | Answer is A. ACHILLES TENDON RUPTURE: A ripping or popping sensation is felt, and often heard, at the back of the heel. This most commonly occurs in spos requiring an explosive push-off: squash, badminton, football, tennis, netball. The patient will often repo having looked round to see who had hit them over the back o... | |
A 10 month of child weighing 8kg has bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribed vitamin A to this child -: (A) 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14, (B) 1 lakh units IM on day 0,14, (C) 2 lakh units on day 0, 1 and 14, (D) 1 lakh units on day 0, 1 and 14 | Answer is D. Vitamin A deficiency treatment: Vitamin A on days 1,2 and 14 each Age >12 months - 200,000 IU Age 6-12 months - 100,000 IU for age 0-5 months - 50,000 IU Ref: Guidelines for the inpatient treatment of severely malnourished children, WHO Pgno : 23 | |
All of the following drugs alter calcium hemostasis except-: (A) Flouride, (B) Indomethacin, (C) Mithramycin, (D) Thiazides | Answer is B. drugs or Non hormonal substances altering calcium hemostasis are Calcium preparations Flouride Thiazides Bisphosphonates Vit D or Calcitriol Some antibiotics like mithramycin Ref - Harrisons internal medicine 20e p2945-2946 2911-12 | |
Epornithic is outbreak of disease among?: (A) Animal, (B) Birds, (C) Reptiles, (D) Human | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of cyclosporine?: (A) Hirsutism, (B) Nephrotoxicity, (C) Hypeension, (D) Hypoglycemia | Answer is D. (Ref: KDT 6/e p840) Cyclosporine causes hyper and not hypoglycemia | |
Epithelium of cornea is: (A) Stratified squamous non Keratinizing, (B) Stratified squamous Keratinizing, (C) Collumnar Keratinized, (D) Collumnar non Keratinized | Answer is A. A. i.e. Stratified Squamous non Keratinizing | |
Ligamentum teres is:: (A) Remnant of ductus aeriosus, (B) Remnant of umbilical vein, (C) Remnant if ductus venosus, (D) Remnant of umbilical aery | Answer is B. After bih, the left umbilical vein are obliterated and forms the ligamentum teres hepatisLigamentum teresIt is the obliterated fibrous remnant of the left umbilical vein of the fetus.It originates at the umbilicus.It passes superiorly in the free margin of the falciform ligament.From the inferior margin of... | |
Structures passing through obturator foramen are all except -: (A) Obturator nerve, (B) Obturator aery, (C) Obturator vein, (D) Internal pudendal vessels | Answer is D. Through the canal the obturator aery, obturator vein and obturator nerve pass out of the pelvis. | |
The Earliest sign of male pubey is: (A) Pubic hair, (B) Axillary hair, (C) Hoarseness of voice, (D) Testicular enlargement | Answer is D. In boys, the first visible sign of pubey and hallmark of SMR2 is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 9 1/2 years. This is followed by penile growth during SMR3. Peak growth occurs when testis volumes reach approximately 9-10 cm3 during SMR4. Under the influence of LH and testosterone, and prostat... | |
Mechanism of action of Tetanospasmin:-: (A) Inhibition of GABA release, (B) Inhibition cAMP, (C) Inactivation of Ach receptors, (D) Inhibition of cGMP | Answer is A. Mechanism of action of Tetanospasmin is Inhibition of GABA release. C. tetani produces:- Tetanolysin:heat labile, oxygen labile hemolysin. It plays no role in the pathogenesis. Tetanospasmin or tetanus toxin (TT) : neurotoxin responsible for the pathogenesis of tetanus: - It is oxygen stable but heat labil... | |
Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia-: (A) Thickened bone matrix, (B) Coical erosion, (C) Ground glass appearance, (D) Bone enlargement | Answer is C. Fibrous Dysplasia (FD) Asymptomatic, self-limiting developmental regional alteration of bone in which the normal architecture is replaced by fibrous tissue and nonfunctional trabeculae-like osseous tissue. It is self-limiting (thus it is not a true neoplasm) * Represents a group of disorders with variety o... | |
A 9-year-old girl presents for evaluation of regular vaginal bleeding. History reveals the thelarche at the age of 7 years and adrenarche at the age of 8 years. The most common cause of this condition in girls is:: (A) Idiopathic, (B) Gonadal tumors, (C) McCune-Albright syndrome, (D) Hypothyroidism | Answer is A. Pubeal changes before the age of 8 years in girls and 9 years in boys are considered as Precocious pubey Most common cause of precocious pubey in girls - Idiopathic Others causes: Congenital lesions of the hypothalamus-pituitary Acquired lesions--trauma, infection, neoplasm-- tuberculosis (TB) meningitis i... | |
Frameshift mutation occurs due to:: (A) Transition, (B) Transversion, (C) Inseion, (D) Point mutation | Answer is C. A frameshift mutation is caused by a deletion or inseion in a DNA sequence that shifts the way the sequence is read. | |
Not controlled directly by ACTH-: (A) Glucocorticoids, (B) Aldosterone, (C) DHEA, (D) Epinephrine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'D' i.e., Epinephrine o The question is very simple. o Adrenocorticotropin hormone ( ACTH), as the name indicates, stimulate adrenal cortex. o Epinephrine is secreted by adrenal medulla other three hormones (given in question) are secreted by adrenl cortex, o ACTH has its main and most important ef... | |
True about berry-aneurysm is following except ?: (A) Associated with familial syndrome, (B) Most common site of rupture is apex which causes SAH, (C) Wall contains smooth muscle fibroblasts, (D) 90% occurs at ant. pa of circulation at branching point | Answer is C. Answer is 'c' i.e. Wall contains smooth muscle fibroblasts The wall of Berry aneurysm is made up of thickened hyalinized intima. The adventitia covering the sac is continuous with that of the parent aery. Berry aneurysm (or Saccular or congenital aneurysm) Are the most common type of intracranial aneurysm ... | |
Earliest clinical indicator of sodium loss is: (A) Altered sensorium, (B) Reduced skin turgor, (C) Arrhythmia, (D) Orthostatic hypertension | Answer is A. Ans. a (Altered sensorium) (Ref. Harrison's - 18th/pg. Ch. 45).Hyponatremia may be due to water excess, diabetes, lipidemia etc. Drugs known to release ADH will cause dilutional hyponatremia include morphine, tricyclics, nicotine, NSAIDs, etc. The individual present with confusion, anorexia, lethargy and c... | |
Feature(s) of Allergic conjunctivitis is/are all except:: (A) Itching, (B) Papillary'hyperplasia, (C) Presence of abundant eosinophils in the discharge, (D) Usually present throughout year | Answer is D. Ans: D (UsuaIly..) SIMPLE ALLERGIC CONJUNCTIVITISIt is a mild, non-specific allergic conjunctivitis characterized by itching, hyperaemia and mild papillary response. Basically, it is an acute or subacute urticarial reaction.EtiologyIt is seen in following forms:Hay fever conjunctivitis. It is commonly asso... | |
The combination of alcohol and disulfiram results in nausea and hypotension as a result of accumulation of:: (A) Acetaldehyde, (B) Acetate, (C) Methanol, (D) NADH | Answer is A. Disulfiram is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor that can be used for de-addiction of chronic alcoholics. Due to inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase, there is accumulation of acetaldehyde that leads to several distressing symptoms (which strengthens the resolution of a person to quit alcohol). | |
Possible contra indications for periapical surgery are: (A) Controlled diabetis mellitus, (B) The danger of damage to adjacent structures, (C) A history of rheumatic fever, (D) Congenital heart disease | Answer is B. None | |
Lymph node biopsy of an AIDS patient shows: March 2009: (A) Wahin-Finkeldey cells, (B) Marked follicular hyperplasia, (C) 'Moth-eaten appearance', (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D: All of the above Histopathology of HIV Florid reactive hyperplasia-may be: - Collections of monocytoid B cells in sinuses - Neutrophils - Features of dermatopathic lymphadenopathy Often reactive germinal centers show 'follicle lysis':i.e. invagination of mantle lymphocytes into germinal centers ass... | |
In oesophageal ca which Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is used -: (A) Cisplatin, (B) Cyclophosphamide, (C) Doxorubicin, (D) Methotrexate | Answer is A. Sabiston writes-"Since its introduction in 1980, cisplatin has emerged as the cornerstone of combination therapy in esophageal cancer.
As a single agent, it has a response rate of 25% to 30%. Given in combination with 5-fluorouracil, a response rate of 50% may be achieved, and this is an established chemot... | |
Choriocarcinoma commonly metastasize to:
a.Brain
b. Lung
c. Vagina
d. Ovary
e. Cervix: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) cd, (D) de | Answer is B. Most common sites of metastases in choriocarcinoma are:
Lung (80%) > Vagina (30%) > Pelvis (20%) > Liver (10%) and Brain (10%) | |
In burns least useful is: (A) Normal saline, (B) Blood, (C) Dextran, (D) Ringer lactate | Answer is B. We know that Ringer's lactate is the preferred agent during initial 24 hrs. Nasogastric intubation is done to decrease the risk of emesis and possible aspiration (as parlytic ileus develops in a pt. with significant burn) Dextran is a colloid and can be used in 2nd 24 hrs., however albumin is the preferred... | |
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with-: (A) Panacinar-emphysema, (B) Centriacinar-emphysema, (C) Paraseptal-emphysema, (D) Irregular-emphysema | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Panacinar-emphysema Pathogenesis of Emphysemao The most accepted theory in the pathogenesis of emphysema is protease - antiprotease mechanism which is responsible in the pathogenesis of two common forms of emphysema, i.e. centriacinar and panacinar.o The alveolar wall destruction results ... | |
Blocking out undercuts in cavity preparation for CAD/CAM inlay is carried out by:: (A) Dentist after final cavity preparation stage, (B) Laboratory technician before wax pattern preparation, (C) The system automatically during the optical impression, (D) Dentist in the wax preparation | Answer is A. None | |
Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following aeries, EXCEPT?: (A) Occipital, (B) Posterior auricular, (C) Thyrocervical trunk, (D) Superior thyroid | Answer is B. The Sternocleidomastoid muscle flap is used in reconstructive surgery of the neck. The exact knowledge of its blood supply helps to minimize the risk of flap necrosis after transposition.Blood supply of Sternocleidomastoid: Upper third - supplied by branches of the occipital aery. Middle third - supplied b... | |
Stereognosis will be lost in the lesion of:: (A) Fasciculus gracilis, (B) Fasciculus cuneatus, (C) Anterior spinothalamic tract, (D) Lateral spinothalamic tract | Answer is B. Stereognosis is the ability to identify an object by its touch, texture. The object is placed in hands and is identified without seeing it. Fine touch sensation from the upper limb is carried toward coex in fasciculus cuneatus. The tract also carries the finer aspects of touch. Perception of touch occurs i... | |
Lateral boundary of cubital fossa is formed by:: (A) Brachioradialis, (B) Pronator teres, (C) Brachialis, (D) Biceps | Answer is A. Brachioradialis Boundaries of cubital fossa- Laterally - Medial border of brachioradialis. Medially - Lateral border of pronator teres. Base - It is directed upwards, and is represented by an imaginary line joining the front of two epicondyles of the humerus. Apex - It is directed downwards, and is formed ... | |
Second gas effect is seen with -: (A) Ether, (B) Nitrous oxide, (C) Desflurane, (D) Sevoflurane | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nitrous oxide Second gas effecto If another inhalation agent is (eg Halothane) is being given at the same time with N2O2 it also will be delivered to lung from the cylinder (due to negative intraalveolar pressure).Also Remembero Concentration effect and secondary gas effect - during induc... | |
Elastic cartilage is present in-: (A) Thyroid cartilage, (B) Epiglottis, (C) Cricoid, (D) Arytenoid cartilage | Answer is B. None | |
Example of electrical synapse:: (A) Tight junction, (B) Gap junctions, (C) Anchoring junction, (D) Neuromuscular junction | Answer is B. (Refer: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology, 24th edition, pg no: 43-44)
Intercellular junctions
Connects the cell membranes of the neighboring cells also known as junctional complexes | |
All are medically important streptococci except -: (A) Strep. pyogenes, (B) Strep. agalactiae, (C) Strep. equisimilis, (D) Strep. salivarius | Answer is D. STREPTOCOCCI
Streptococci are gram-positive, nonmotile, non-spore-forming, catalase & oxidase negative medically important bacteria.
Many organisms of streptococcus genus cause human diseases. | |
True about meningiomas-: (A) More common in men, (B) 50% are malignant, (C) 95% cure rate following treatment, (D) Arise from arachnoid layer | Answer is C. Meningiomas are predominantly benign tumors that arise from arachnoid meningothelial cells. They usually occur in adults and are often attached to the dura. Meningiomas may be found along any of the external surfaces of the brain as well as within the ventricular system, where they arise from the stromal a... | |
A 52-year-old alcoholic notices a skin rash on his chest, and also has symptoms of diarrhea and abdominal pain. On examination, he has a scaly and pigmented rash on the sun-exposed areas of his skin, the abdomen is soft, and his short-term memory is impaired. He has dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia syndrome.For the p... | Answer is A. Diarrhea, dementia, and dermatitis are the classic triad for pellagra (niacin deficiency). The diagnosis is based on clinical suspicion and response to therapy, and can be confirmed by demonstrating low levels of the urinary metabolites 2-methylnicotinamide and 2-pyridone. Small doses of niacin (10 mg/day)... | |
The transmembrane adhesive molecules present in hemi desmosomes which specifically binds to basal lamina glycoprotein laminin are: (A) integrin α6-β4, (B) the catenins desmoplakin, (C) cadherins desmoglein, (D) α and β catenin | Answer is A. None | |
Tarsometatarsal amputation and Intertarsal amputation known as respectively,: (A) Lisfranc and Pirogoff, (B) Lisfranc and Chopart, (C) Chopart and Lisfranc, (D) Chopart and Pirogoff | Answer is B. None | |
A 19-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of early fatigue and muscle cramps while playing sports. He is fine when walking or doing less intense levels of work. On physical examination, he appears well and the vital signs are normal. Muscle bulk, tone and strength in the proximal muscles are normal. There is... | Answer is C. There are many types of glycogen storage diseases, each caused by a different enzymatic abnormality. The best-known types of glycogen storage disease are those that have hepatic hypoglycemic pathophysiology (eg, von Gierke disease) or those that have muscle energy pathophysiology (McArdle disease). InMcArd... | |
A 36-year-old lady presents with a 20 yrs duration fluctuant and translucent swelling on right side of her neck. No other history available. No other findings on examination of neck. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Lymph cyst, (B) Lymph node, (C) Colloid nodule, (D) Cold abscess | Answer is A. The only swelling among the 4 options which will show translucency is Lymph cyst. | |
Tumorogenesis in aging is due to -: (A) Telomerase reactivation, (B) Telomerase inactivation, (C) Increased apoptosis, (D) Suppression of proto-oncogenes | Answer is A. After a fixed number of divisions, normal cells becomes arrested in a terminally nondividing state.
How does the normal cells count their divisions i.e. How, do the cells find out that now they do'nt need to divide further.
Cells achieve this through telomer shortening
Telomers are short repeated sequen... | |
All are true regarding typhoid ulcer EXCEPT: September 2012: (A) Ileum is the common site, (B) Bleeding is common, (C) Stricture is usual and causes obstruction, (D) Perforation is common | Answer is C. C i.e. Stricture is common and causes obstruction Typhoid ulcers Longitudinal, Ulceration of Peyer's patches, Stricture is rare | |
All are true regarding paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, except-: (A) Haemosiderinuria, (B) Pancytopenia, (C) Increased alkaline phosphatase, (D) Cellular marrow | Answer is C. None | |
The lesion listed below that would most likely pursue a benign course is :-: (A) Vaginal adenosis, (B) Adenomyosis, (C) Extramammary Paget's disease, (D) Endometrial hyperplasia | Answer is B. Adenomyosis is a benign condition characterised by the presence of benign endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium, Common cause of diffuse uterine enlargement and menstrual irregularities. Vaginal adenosis is a DES-related precursor lesion for clear cell adenocarcinoma. Extrammary paget's disea... | |
Chromophobe variant of renal cell carcinoma is associated with -: (A) VHL gene mutations, (B) Trisomy of 7 and 17 (+7, +17), (C) 3 p deletions (3p-), (D) Monosomy of 1 and Y (-1, -Y) | Answer is D. None | |
Canakinumab is a monoclonal antibody against:: (A) IL-1, (B) IL-2, (C) IL-5, (D) IL-6 | Answer is A. Canakinumab and Anakinra are IL-1 inhibitors used in the treatment of gout. | |
Minimum amount of GI bleed to cause malena is: (A) 10 ml, (B) 40 ml, (C) 60 ml, (D) 115 ml | Answer is C. Melaena refers to the passage of typical black, tarry coloured foul smelling stool. It signifies upper GI bleed. At least 50-60 ml bleeding should be there to cause melaena. Reference : page 834 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | |
Sympathetic innervation of heart is by -: (A) T1-T3, (B) T1 - T5, (C) c) T3-T7, (D) L1 - L5 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., T1- T5 * Parasympathetic supply to heart - Vagus.* ympathetic supply to heart - T1- T5Innervation of Heart* Innervations of heart are :-A) Sympathetic innervation of heart:# All parts of the heart (SA node, atria, AV node and ventricles) recieve sympathetic innervations.# The sympathetic ... | |
All of the following can induce methemoglobinemia EXCEPT:: (A) Nitroglycerine, (B) Procaine, (C) Prilocaine, (D) Phenytoin | Answer is D. Drugs that may cause Methemoglobinemia includes- nitrates derivatives (nitrates salt, nitroglycerin), nitrites derivatives (nitroprusside, amyl nitrite, nitric oxide), sulfonamides, dapsone, phenacetin, phenazopyridine, local anesthetics such as prilocaine, topical anesthetics such as Emla cream, benzocain... | |
Kamli Rani, 75-years -old woman present with post myocardial infarction after 6 weeks mild CHF. There was past H/O neck surgery for parathyroid adenoma 5 years ago, ECG shows slow atrial fibrillation. Serum Ca2+ 13.0 mg/L and urinary Ca2+ is 300 mg/24 hr. On examination there is small mass in the Para tracheal position... | Answer is D. Patient is a case of recurrent hyperparathyroidism, as she was operated previously for parathyroid adenoma. In the setting of recent myocardial infarction, CHF and atrial fibrillation, any operation carries a high risk. Ultrasound-guided alcohol injection in the mass is preferred in this setting. | |
True regarding multiple myeloma is all, EXCEPT-: (A) Bone pain, (B) Lytic lesions, (C) Increased alkaline phosphatase, (D) Tarterate resistance, acid phosphatase positive | Answer is C. None | |
All are true for transplanted kidney except: (A) Humoral antibody responsible for rejection, (B) CMI is responsible for rejection, (C) Previous blood transfusion, (D) HLA identity similarity seen in 1:100 people | Answer is D. Answer- D. HLA identity similarity seen in 1:100 peopleWithin any paicular family, sibling's have a 7:4 chance of being HLA identical. In contrast among unrelatedpeople, the probabilities of HLA identity in several thousand depending upon phenotype involved' It is due to the fact thatHLA complex is inherit... | |
Non-coding RNAs are: (A) siRNA, (B) miRNA, (C) tRNA, (D) mRNA | Answer is A. A non-coding RNA (ncRNA) is a functional RNA molecule that is transcribed from DNA but not translated into proteins. Epigenetic related ncRNAs include miRNA, siRNA, piRNA, and lncRNA. In general, ncRNAs function to regulate gene expression at the transcriptional and post-transcriptional level. | |
'Brush burns' are synonymous with: (A) Graze abrasion, (B) Scalds, (C) Electrical injury, (D) Injury by a brush | Answer is A. Ans. a (Graze abrasion) (Ref. Reddy FMT 23rd ed. 145)ABRASIONS (GRAZES, SCRATCHES, BRUSH BURNS)# Loss/crushing of outer skin layer due to impact with a rough surface- Tangential impact produces a moving abrasion:* Indicates direction.* Trace material (e.g., grit).- Direct impact produces an imprint abrasio... | |
Cervical cone biopsy in a case of carcinoma cervix causes all, except :: (A) Bleeding, (B) Cervical stenosis, (C) Infection, (D) Spread of malignancy | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e. Spread of malignancy Complications of Cone biopsy are : Hemorrhagedeg Sepsis (infection)deg Cervical stenosisdeg Pregnancy complications which include : Mid trimester aboionsdeg Preterm labourdeg -- Cervical dystociadeg Also Know : Cone biopsy should be done under general anaesthesia. The co... | |
A 57-year-old man arrives at the emergency room complaining of weakness, fatigue, and intermittent fever that has recurred for several weeks. The patient had a cardiac valvular prosthesis implanted 5 years ago. Blood cultures grew ceain gram-positive cocci on which catalase and coagulase test were done. The gram-positi... | Answer is B. Physical examination reveals petechiae (pinpoint, nonraised, purplish red spots caused by intradermal hemorrhage) on the chest and stomach. Catalase-positive and coagulase negative The patient is probably suffering from bacterial endocarditis caused by S. epidermidis infection of the prosthetic hea valve. ... | |
A patient aged 63 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. The best option of treatment is :: (A) Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine, (B) A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling, (C) A non-myeloablative bone marrow transplan... | Answer is A. Answer is A (Antithymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine) Tor adults over age 50 years or those without HLA matched siblings, the treatment of choice for severe Aplastic anemia is immunosupression with antithymocyte globulin (A TG) plus Cvclosporine' | |
Cobblestone appearance is seen in: (A) Spring Catarrh, (B) Viral conjunctivitis, (C) Bacterial conjunctivitis, (D) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis | Answer is A. Cobblestone appearance is severe papillary hyperplasia in upper palpebral conjunctiva Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 73 | |
Not a molecular motor:: (A) Kinesin, (B) Dynein, (C) Actin, (D) Myosin | Answer is C. Motor proteins: Molecular motors include the proteins: myosin kinesin dynein They move along a track- microtubules or microfilaments - and pull larger structures such as vesicles, fibers, or paicles. Such movement can be used for intracellular transpo or movement of the cell's entire framework. | |
True about anaplastic thyroid carcinoma:a) Common in elderlyb) Well encapsulatedc) Will not invade surrounding structuresd) Distant metastasis commone) Some degree of differentiation to Papillary and Follicular types seen: (A) acd, (B) bde, (C) ade, (D) ad | Answer is C. About option 'e' Schwartz writes:
"On gross inspection, anaplastic tumors are firm and whitish in appearance. Microscopically, sheets of cells with marked heterogeneity are seen. Cells may be spindle-shaped, polygonal, or large, multinucleated cells. Foci of more differentiated thyroid tumors, either folli... | |
Recommended Dietary allowance in pregnancy are -: (A) +100-300 cal, (B) 35 mg Iron, (C) 4 mg folic acid, (D) 2500 mg Mg | Answer is B. Requirements in pregnancy Pregnancy Proteins +23 g/day Calcium 1200 mg/day Iron 35 mg/day Vitamin A 800mcg/day Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 674 | |
Which of the following is not a feature of chronic tonsillitis?: (A) Fever, (B) Halitosis, (C) Recurrent attacks of sore throat, (D) Choking spells at night | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fever(ref Dhingra 6h/e p. 258]Fever is a symptom in case of acute tonsillitis, not chronic tonsillitis.Chronic tonsillitis is characterized by:- Recurrent attacks of sore throat or acute tonsillitis. | |
Which of the following muscle relaxants causes maximal pain on injection –: (A) Succinyl choline, (B) Vecuronium, (C) Rocuronium, (D) Cistracurium | Answer is C. Pain during injection is an important and common feature of Rocuronium Injection. | |
Steroids are indicated in all of the following forms of tuberculosis except:: (A) Meningitis, (B) Pericarditis, (C) Ileo-caecal tuberculosis, (D) Adrenal involvement | Answer is C. Steroids are contraindicated in intestinal tuberculosis because silent perforation can occur. (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 778) | |
Which of the following is false about viral thyroditis?: (A) Self limiting, (B) Painful, (C) Initial hypothyroid state, (D) Raised ESR | Answer is C. Viral thyroditis has initial hyperthroid state due to release of harmones due to gland destruction. | |
Expansible pulsating secondary metastasis is a feature of: (A) Basal cell carcinoma, (B) Renal cell carcinoma, (C) Osteogenic sarcoma, (D) Carcinoma prostate | Answer is B. B i.e. Renal Cell carcinoma | |
Most common cause of bleeding for massive hemothorax in blunt trauma to chest is from: (A) Intercostal vessels, (B) Bronchial vessels, (C) Pulmonary vessels, (D) Internal mammary aery | Answer is A. Answer- A. Intercostal vesselsThe most common cause of massive haemothorax in blunt injury to chest is continuing bleeding from torn intercostal vexels or occasionallyfrom the internal mammary aety. | |
The main clinical significance of sliding type hiatus hernia is:: (A) Propensity for GERD, (B) High risk of barrett's esophagus, (C) High chance for dieulafoy's lesion, (D) Dysphagia is common | Answer is A. Four types of hiatus hernia are present. Type I, or sliding hiatal hernia comprising at least 95% of total. Pathology is the weakening of the phrenoesophageal ligament attaching the gastroesophageal junction to the diaphragm at the hiatus. Incidence of sliding hernias increases with Age and conceptually, r... | |
The fascia of Denonvilliers -: (A) Membranous layer of fascia of the thigh, (B) Perirenal fascia, (C) Fascia between the rectal ampulla and the prostate and the seminal vesicles, (D) Posterior layer of perirenal fascia | Answer is C. The posterior surface of prostate is separated from the rectum by the fascia of Denonvilliers which is the obliterated rectovesical pouch of the peritoneum. | |
How many items are there in Mini mental state examination (MMSE)?: (A) 10, (B) 15, (C) 20, (D) 30 | Answer is D. Ans.D.30ExplanationMMSE or Folstein test is a simplified form of routine cognitive status examination. It is routinely used to track improvement and deterioration. It includes following points:Orientation to time-5Orientation to place-5Registration-3Attention and calculation-5Recall-3Language-2Repetition-1... | |
Accidental from a needle stick, an unknown quantity of blood from an AIDS patient is injected into a nurse, lab reports of the patient show CD4 count 20/microL and a viral RNA load of more than 10^7copies/ml. What action should be taken regarding the treatment of the nurse: (A) Monitor the nurse's blood to determine wh... | Answer is D. None | |
According to Lecompte (1987), the following are the recommendations for topical application of high potency fluoride products EXCEPT-: (A) No more than 2 g of gel per tray or approximately 40% of tray capacity should be dispensed., (B) The use of a saliva ejector during the procedure is recommended., (C... | Answer is C. According to Lecompte (1987), the following are the recommendations for topical application of high potency fluoride products:
1. No more than 2 g of gel per tray or approximately 40 % of tray capacity should be dispensed. Even more conservative amounts should be considered for small chi... | |
Ion required for exocytosis is -: (A) Potassium, (B) Sodium, (C) Calcium, (D) Magnesium | Answer is C. (C) (Calcium) (4.8 Ganong 24th edition, 18 A.K. Jain 5th)Exocytosis is the Ca^ dependant process.Exocytosis: here-substances secreted by the cell are trapped within vesicles or granules which fuse with the cell membrane and release their contents to the ECF. This leaves the contents of the vesicles or gran... | |
Essential radiological feature of acute mastoiditis is:: (A) Temporal bone pneumatization, (B) Clouding of air cells of mastoid, (C) Rarefaction of petrous bone, (D) Thickening of temporal bone | Answer is B. (b) Clouding of air cells of mastoid(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2161)X-ray mastoid and CT scan shows clouding of air cells because of the collection of exudates in them. Later on mastoid pneumatisation is lost and a single mastoid cavity may be seen. | |
All the following are features of Wilson's disease except:: (A) Increased copper content in liver, (B) Increased ceruloplasmin, (C) Mental changes, (D) Features of chronic active hepatitis | Answer is B. Answer is B (Increased Ceruloplasmin) In Wilson's disease, Ceruloplasmin levels are decreased (not increased). In Wilson's disease excess Cu saturates liver and spills in the plasma thereby decreasing ceruloplasinin levels. | |
Pelvic exentration is known as ?: (A) Miles Operation, (B) Lyods operation, (C) Finch operation, (D) Brunshwings operation | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Brunschwig's operation | |
Seen in a fresh dead body, which of the following features is suggestive of antemortem drowning?: (A) Fine leathery forth, (B) Thick mucoid forth, (C) Blood stained forth, (D) Any of the above | Answer is A. None | |
What is the latest reference to body length in ICD-10 to call it perinatal moality rate?: (A) 28cm, (B) 30cm, (C) 35cm, (D) 38cm | Answer is C. parks textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition * ninth revision of international classification of diseases (ICD) added that :(1) babies choosen for inclusion in perinatal statistics should be tjose above a minimum bih weight ie1000g at bih. (2)if bihweight is not available ,a gestational pe... | |
Palpatory thud audible slap is seen in:: (A) Tracheal foreign body, (B) Bronchial foregion body, (C) Laryngeal foreign body, (D) None | Answer is A. A foreign body in trachea may move up and down the trachea between the carnia and the undersurface of vocal cords causing "audible slap" and "palpatory thud." | |
An example for primary prevention of dental diseases is:: (A) Scaling & polishing and filling, (B) Extractions, RCT and periodontal surgeries, (C) Wearing gloves and sterilization of the instruments, (D) Replacements of Lost teeth and orthodontic treatments | Answer is C. None | |
Pseudogestational sac is seen in: (A) Missed aboion, (B) Threatened aboion, (C) Inevitable aboion, (D) Ectopic pregnancy | Answer is D. The gestational sac --an anechoic fluid collection that represents the exocoelomic cavity--may be seen by 4.5 weeks.A caveat is that a gestational sac may appear similar to other intrauterine fluid accumulations--the so-called pseudogestational sac. This pseudosac may be seen with ectopic pregnancy and is ... | |
A 50 years old patient presented to the skin OPD with erythematous scaly plaques over trunk and extremities for last l0 years. Lesions are occasionally itchy. There is history of remission and relapse with exacerbation during winters. Most likely diagnosis is?: (A) Lichen planus, (B) Psoriasis vulgaris, (C) Pityriasis ... | Answer is B. Ans: B. Psoriasis vulgaris(Ref: Neena Khanna 4'h/e p. 40-48; Roxburg lVh/e p. 128-42; Venkataram 1"'/e p. 491)Psoriasis (psoriasis vulgaris):Psoriasis is chronic dermatosis characterized by unpredictable course of remission and relapse and presence of well defined silvery white scaly papules and plaques on... | |
Child with primary amenorrhoea with negative progesterone challenge test but positive combined progesterone and estrogen test. Diagnosis may be :: (A) Mullerian agenesis, (B) PCOSD, (C) Asherman syndrome, (D) Prolactinoma | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e. Prolactinoma This child is presenting with - Primary amenorrhea with : Negative progesterone challenge test - which rules out PCOD - (otherwise too, PCOD is a cause of secondary amenorrhea). When next step was done i.e., estrogen, progesterone combined test - It comes out to be positive i.e.... | |
The average whey/casein ratio in breast milk is:: (A) 60:40:00, (B) 80:20:00, (C) 0.888888889, (D) 40:60 | Answer is A. a. 60:40(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 286-290, Ghai 8/e p 150-161)Human milk contains two types of proteins 60% is: whey and 40% is casein; helps in quick & easy digestion. | |
All of the following agents act by intracellular receptors EXCEPT:: (A) Thyroid hormones, (B) Vitamin D, (C) Insulin, (D) Steroids | Answer is C. The insulin receptor is located at outer membrane Pg.no.261KD TRIPATHI SEVENTH EDITION |
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