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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency depament complaining of frequent nose-bleeds. What is the most likely site of acute epistaxis?: (A) Turbinate, (B) Septum, (C) Maxillary sinus, (D) Ethmoid sinus
Answer is B. The most common source of epistaxis is Kisselbach's vascular plexus on the anterior nasal septum. Predisposing factors include foreign bodies, forceful nose-blowing, nose-picking, rhinitis and deted septum
Linitis plastica is a type of :: (A) Gastric ulcer, (B) Ca stomach, (C) Duodenal ulcer, (D) None of the above
Answer is B. Linitis plastica is a subtype of gastric cancer that is characterized by diffuse infiltrating adenocarcinoma without obvious caers and ulcers. It is thought to originate from parietal cell poion of gastric mucosa. Because of its diffuse nature ,this form of gastric cancer ususally involves the whole stomac...
True about genital infection is?: (A) Thin frothy secretions associated with mondial infection, (B) Patients and partners are given metronidazole for mondial infection, (C) Tetracycline is drug of choice for trichomonas vaginalis, (D) Clue cells are associated with gardenella vaginalis
Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Clue cells are associated with Trichomonas vaginalisREF: Shaw 14th ed p. 132Drug of choice for various genital infections in women:Chlamydia : azithromycin + contact tracing , in pregnancy erythromycin is 1st DOC , amoxicillin is 2ndTrichomonas : metronidazole to both the partnersBacterial vagi...
Long acting glucocoicoid is ?: (A) Dexamethasone, (B) Triamcenolone, (C) Prednisolone, (D) Hydrocoisone
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dexamethasone
An emergency room physician examines a patient who has fallen from a motorcycle and injured his shoulder. The clinician notices a loss of the normal contour of the shoulder and a abnormal-appearing depression below the acromion. Which of the following injuries did the patient most likely sustain?: (A) Avulsion of the c...
Answer is B. The abnormal depression described is a characteristic tip-off for a dislocated shoulder joint. This is impoant to remember, as it may help you make a rapid diagnosis.Avulsion of the coronoid process of the ulna (at the elbow) can occur following a severe contracture of brachialis.Fracture of the midshaft o...
Given below shows an examination technique. The structure being examined originated from:-: (A) Popliteal Aery, (B) Anterior Tibial Aery, (C) Post Tibial Aery, (D) Dorsal Arch of Foot
Answer is B. In the video ,structure being examined has originated from Anterior Tibial Aery =Dorsalis Pedis Aery Pulse can be palpated readily lateral to the Extensor Hallucis Longus Tendon (or medially to the Extensor Digitorum Longus Tendon) on the dorsal surface of the foot, distal to the dorsal most prominence of ...
False about sjogren's syndrome: (A) Kerato conjunctivitis sicca, (B) Periductal and Perivascular lymphocytic infilteration, (C) Parotid gland biopsy preferred, (D) MALToma is most common lymphoma
Answer is C. Biopsy from Lip is preferred.
Proposed guideline values for Radioactivity in Drinking water is: (A) Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L and Gross b activity 10.0 Bq/L, (B) Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L and Gross b activity 0.1 Bq/L, (C) Gross a activity 0.1 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L, (D) Gross a activity 10 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L
Answer is C. Key guideline aspects of WHO recommended drinking water quality: – Colour < 15 true colour units (TCU) Turbidity < 5 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU) pH: 6.5 – 8.5 Total dissolved solids (TDS) < 600 mg/litre Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infecti...
In conductive deafness of right ear, Weber's test will show?: (A) Lateralised to right side, (B) Lateralised to left side, (C) Normal, (D) Centralised
Answer is A. In middle ear pathology usually there is conductive deafness. With a unilateral conductive hearing loss, the tone is perceived in the affected ear. With a unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, the tone is perceived in the unaffected ear.
Thromboangitis obliterans is associated with ?: (A) HLA B27, (B) HLA - DR4, (C) HLA - B5, (D) HLA - DR2
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., HLA - B5 Thromboangitis obliterans (Berger disease) Thrombangitis obliterans is a distinctive disease that is characterized by segmental, thrombosing acute and chronic inflammation of medium sized and small sized aeries, and sometimes secondarily extending to veins and nerves. Thromboangi...
All are histiocytosis except -: (A) Letterer siwe syndrome, (B) Chloroma, (C) Hand schuller christian triad, (D) Eosinophilic granuloma
Answer is B. None
Anti-D should be given following Rh+ delivery within:: (A) 6 hours, (B) 24 hours, (C) 72 hours, (D) 7 days
Answer is C. 72 hours
Erythema nodosum is seen in all Except: (A) Salicylate poisoning, (B) Typhoid, (C) Tuberculosis, (D) Leprosy
Answer is A. Drugs causing it are: Levofloxacin Medroxyprogesterone Minocycline Naproxen OC Penicillin Phenytoin Trimethoprim Sulfasalazine Sulphonamides *Erythema nodosum is a skin condition where red lumps appear on the shins and less commonly forearms and thighs. Often it may be the first sign of a systemic disease ...
Platelets in stored blood do not live after: (A) 24 hours, (B) 48 hours, (C) 72 hours, (D) 96 hours
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 72 hours Platelets are provided as a pooled preparation from one or several donors, usually as a 6-unit bag, which is the usual amount given to an average-sized adult. Each unit contains approximately 8 x 101deg platelets and should increase the platelet count by about 7000-10,000/ pL in ...
Fallen fragment sign is a feature of: (A) Simple bone cyst, (B) Aneuurysmal bone cyst, (C) Giant cell tumor, (D) Fibrous dysplasia
Answer is A. Fallen fragment sign and hinged faragemnt sing are signs of simple bone cyst SIMPLE BONY CYST : ACTIVE : Develop in patients under 10 years of age * Cyst arises adjacent to growth plate & may grow to fill most of metaphysis Bone may be slightly expanded within coical shell * May cause pathologic fracture P...
Hepatomegaly with liver pulsations indicates: (A) TR, (B) MR, (C) Pulmonary hypeension, (D) MS
Answer is A. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1548 AyatoSys pulsqtpuls of liver and marked hepatomegaly are characteristic features of tricuspid regurgitation.
The Alkayat and Bramely approach to the TMJ is a modification of the:: (A) HemicoronaL approach, (B) Retroauricular approach, (C) Preauricualr approach, (D) Risdon's incision
Answer is C. None
Rise in BBT after ovulation is by :: (A) 0.5 degree Fahrenheit, (B) 1.0 degree Fahrenheit, (C) 0.5 degree Celsius, (D) 1.0 degree Celsius
Answer is A. Ans:A.)0.5 degree Fahrenheit. Before ovulation, there is only a small amount of progesterone present in your body and your basal body temperatures (your resting temperatures) are in the lower range. After ovulation, when there is increased progesterone secreted from the corpus luteum, temperatures become e...
Treatment of choice in 65 year old female with impacted neck of humerus is:: (A) Triangular sling, (B) Arm chest strapping, (C) Ahroplasty, (D) Observation
Answer is A. A i.e. Triangular sling
Ectopic rest of normal tissue is known as -: (A) Choristoma, (B) Hamaoma, (C) Pheudotumor, (D) Lymphoma
Answer is A. Choristomas, forms of heterotopia, are closely related benign tumors, found in abnormal locations. The two can be differentiated as follows: a hamaoma is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation (e.g. a bihmark on the skin), while a choristoma is an excess of tissue in an abnormal situation (e.g. p...
Regarding Chronic Viral Hepatitis -: (A) Hepatitis A virus infection is a common cause in children, (B) Morphological classification into Chronic Active Hepatitis and Chronic Persistent Hepatitis are important, (C) Fatty change is pathognomic of Hepatitis C virus infection, (D) Grading refers to the extent of necrosis ...
Answer is D. Classification of hepatitis In the new classification system of Hepatitis, Grading refers to the assessment of necroinflammatory activity. Chronic hepatitis represents a series of liver disorders of varying causes and severity in which hepatic inflammation and necrosis continue for at least 6 months. Earl...
Administration of disulfiram in an alcoholic can cause all these side effects except: (E. REPEAT 2010): (A) Flushing, (B) Headache, (C) Hypertension, (D) Nausea
Answer is C. Ref: The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics by Goodman and Gillman, 12th edition. Page 644 and KD Tripathis Essentials of Pharmacology, 6th edition. Page 3H6Explanation:DISULFIRAMDisulfiram irreversibly inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. This action is also brought about by its metabolites such as dieth y...
Which of the following cellular body is NOT found in nucleus?: (A) P-bodies, (B) Nucleolus, (C) Cajal bodies, (D) Interchromatin granule clusters
Answer is A. Even if you don't know about all the options and you just know about P body you can answer this question. The P body is a cytoplasmic organelle involved in mRNA metabolism. Here is where miRNA-mRNA complexes are temporarily stored. They can either undergo degradation or mRNA can be released back for transl...
Which is the only phacomatosis to be inherited on an autosomal recessive basis:: (A) Ataxia-telangiectasia, (B) Sturge-Weber syndrome, (C) von Hippel lindau syndrome, (D) Neurofibromatosis
Answer is A. Ans. Ataxia-telangiectasia
What is torsional limit?: (A) Amount of apical pressure that can be applied to a file to the point of breakage, (B) The beginning of plastic deformation of the instrument, (C) Amount of rotational torque that can be applied to a “locked” instrument to the point of breakage, (D) Amount of force necessary so that a file ...
Answer is C. Torsional limit is the amount of rotational torque that can be applied to a "locked" instrument to the point of breakage (separation).  Obviously, an instrument should have sufficient strength to be rotated and worked vigorously without separating in the canal. Smaller instruments (less than size 20) can w...
Nucleus accumbens is related to which of the following?: (A) Basal ganglia, (B) Brain stem, (C) Thalamus, (D) Cerebellum
Answer is A. Ans. a (Basal ganglia). (Ref. Ganong, Physiology 21st ed., 265)NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS# Nucleus accumbens is located at the base of the striatum, and is a part of basal ganglia.# Addiction is associated with the reward system, particularly with nucleus accumbens.# The medial frontal cortex, the hippocampus, and ...
The following is not one of the 4 key cell cycle regulators which are dysregulated in a variety of human cancers: (A) P16/INK4a, (B) Cyclin D, (C) P21, (D) RB
Answer is C. .
Ghons focus lies at ?: (A) Left apical parenchymal region, (B) Right apical parenchymal region, (C) Sub pleural caesous lesion in right upper lobe, (D) Sub pleural caesous lesion in left upper lobe
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Right apical parenchymal regionPrimary T.B. includes :?An area of grey white (size of approx. 1-1.50 cm) inflammatory consolidation - called ghon's focus. o Lymph node.Lymphatics and lymphatic channel.Cavity and fibrosis is seen in secondary T.B.Inhaled tubercule bacilli implanted in the ...
Which is case based online TB notification system developed by the central TB Division: (A) Nischinth, (B) Nikshay, (C) laksha, (D) Yaksma
Answer is B. Case Notification can be done online through NIKSHAY, Which is case based online TB notification system developed by the central TB Division. Ref: Pg.no: 318;IAPSM Textbook of Community Medicine.
Which of the following statement is TRUE about NPU (net protein utilization), used in protein quality assessment?: (A) It is the ratio of energy from protein to total energy in diet, (B) It is the ratio between nitrogen retained by the body and total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100, (C) It is the amount of one amino ...
Answer is B. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is the ratio between nitrogen retained by the body and total nitrogen intake multiplied by 100. It is a product of digestibility coefficient and biological value divided by 100. It gives a more complete expression of protein quality than the amino acid score. In calculating pr...
Which of the following statements about pulmonary hamartoma is true?: (A) It is the most common benign tumor of lung, (B) More common in males, (C) Chest X-ray shows "Pop corn calcification", (D) All are true
Answer is D. None
What is the APGAR score of a child born blue with HR 70/ mt, floppy with feeble cry and grimacing on nasal suction?: (A) 3, (B) 2, (C) 4, (D) 5
Answer is A. APGAR is used to quantitatively evaluate newborns condition after bih by giving scores between 0 and 2 in each of 5 different categories assigned at 1 and 5 minutes of life. The 5 criteria used were hea rate, respiration's, muscle tone, reflex irritability and color. APGAR score for HR less than 100 is 1, ...
Combined oral pill reduces the risk of ?: (A) Breast cancer, (B) Ovarian cancer, (C) Cervical cancer, (D) Vaginal cancer
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b i.e., Ovarian cancer Functional ovarian cyst o Endometrial carcinoma o Benign breast disease (fibroadenosis) Ovarian malignancy o Urerine fibroid o Premenstural tension & dysmenorrhoea Pelvic inflammatory disease o RA o Osteoporosis Ectopic pregnancy o Colon cancer o Acne
Normal serum, Ca and alkaline PO4 are in: (A) Cherubisnri, (B) Hypothyroidism, (C) Hyperparathyroidism, (D) Paget's disease
Answer is A. None
Which of the following is true about Nephron function:: (A) Ascending thick limb is permeable to water, (B) Descending thin limb is impermeable to water, (C) Osmolality of intra-tubular content in DCT is more than surrounding interstitution, (D) Osmolality of intratubular content in PCT is isotonic to surrounding inter...
Answer is D. D i.e. Osmolality of intratubular content in PCT is isotonic to surrounding interstitiumAt the end of proximal tubule 60-70% of filtered solute is reabsorbed & also 60-70% of filtered water is reabsorbedQ. Thus in the proximal tubule, water moves passively out of the tubule, along osmotic gradients set up ...
Praziquantel is used for the treatment of: (A) Strongyloidiasis, (B) Trichomoniasis, (C) Schistosomiasis, (D) Rhinosporidiosis
Answer is C. Platyhelminthes (flukes & tapeworms) DOC for all the platyhelminths is praziquantel DOC for Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) is triclabendazole DOC for dog tapeworm is albendazole DOC for trichomoniasis is metronidazole Surgery is done for rhinosporidiosis Nematodes DOC for nematodes is albendazole DOC for ...
All of the following muscles forms the boundary of the suboccipital triangle found in the suboccipital region of the neck, EXCEPT:: (A) Obliquus capitis superior muscle, (B) Obliquus capitis inferior muscle, (C) Rectus capitis posterior major muscle, (D) Rectus capitis posterior minor muscle
Answer is D. The suboccipital triangle is bounded by rectus capitis posterior major and the obliquus capitis superior and inferior muscles. The floor of this triangle is formed by the posterior occipitoatlantal membrane and the posterior arch of the C1 veebrae.Contents of the triangle are:Veebral aerySuboccipital nerve...
A ranula is most appropriately described by which of the following statements?: (A) It is a type of Epulis, (B) A form of thyroglossal cyst, (C) A cystic swelling in the floor of mouth, (D) A type of mucus retention cyst
Answer is C. Ranula is a cystic swelling in the floor of the mouth due to the obstruction of one or more ducts of the sublingual gland. It does not always represent a mucus retention cyst, it is more commonly a mucus extravasation cyst. It is neither a type of Epulis nor a type of thyroglossal cyst. Ref: The Medical St...
Wire loop lesion seen in lupus nephritis is due to: (A) Capillary wall thickening, (B) Basement membrane thickening, (C) Subepithelial deposits, (D) Sclerosis of mesangium
Answer is A. Subendothelial immune complex deposits may create a circumferential thickening of the capillary wall, forming "wire loop" structures on light microscopy. This condition is seen in lupus nephritis. 50% of SLE patients have clinically significant renal involvement Currently there are six pattern of glomerula...
Not true regarding suprachoroidal hemorrhage:: (A) Shallowing of anterior chamber, (B) Expulsion of intraocular contents, (C) Bleeding from sho posterior ciliary aery into suprachoroidal space, (D) Self resolving
Answer is D. Suprachoroidal hemorrhage needs immediate management. Suprachoroidal Hemorrhage Rare dreaded complication of intraocular surgery. Bleeding from long or sho posterior ciliary aery into suprachoroidal space. Risk Factors: Uncontrolled hypeension, advancing age, systemic cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, vitr...
In Adenoids hyperophy, treatment is: (A) Nasal decongestants, (B) Antibiotics, (C) B-blockers, (D) B2-agonists
Answer is A. When symptoms are not marked, breathing exercises, decongestant nasal drops, and antihistaminics. When symptoms are marked adenoidectomy is done. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, PL Dhingra; 7th edition, pg no. 276)
Simplest and most common method to measure variation is:: (A) Mean, (B) Median, (C) SD, (D) Range
Answer is D. Range: The difference between the smallest and largest value results in a set of data. Simplest and most common method to measure variation is range. Reference: Essentials of Preventive and Community Dentistry, Soben Peter, 4th ed page no 395
The most common type of congenital atresia is: (A) Proximal blind end, distal end communicating with trachea, (B) Distal blind end, proximal end communicating with trachea, (C) Proximal and distal ends open and communicating with trachea, (D) Both ends bleed
Answer is A. Type C is the most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula. It involves proximal esophageal atresia with distal TEF.
In Indoor air pollution, carbon monoxide is produced by -: (A) Combustion equipment, (B) Stove, (C) Gas heaters, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Indoor air pollution originates from both outdoor and indoor sources, is likely to contribute to population exposure than the outdoor environment. The indoor environment represents an impoant microenvironment in which people spend a large pa of the time. Carbon monoxide, an indoor pollutant source include ...
Hay's sulpher test is used to detect which of the following ?: (A) Bile salts in urine, (B) Reducing sugar in urine, (C) Ketone bodies in urine, (D) Urobilinogen in urine
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bile salts in urineTestsUsed forRothera's test (nitroprusside test) Ketone bodies in urine :- acetone and acetocetate Gerhardt's test (ferric chloride test) Ketone bodies in urine :- acetoacetate. Benedict's test Reducing sugars in urine Fehling's test Reducing sugars in urine Hay's sulph...
Commonest cause of rupture of spleen is: (A) Chronic malaria, (B) Infectious mononucleosis, (C) Leukemia, (D) Chronic kala azar
Answer is C. spontaneous splenic rupture, which remain widely accepted to date: Mechanical effect of distention secondary to leukemic infiltration of the spleen, paicularly the capsule; splenic infarct with capsular hemorrhage and subsequent rupture; Ref Davidson edition23rd pg812
Left renal vein crosses aoa:: (A) Posterior at level of superior mesenteric aery, (B) Anterior above the level of superior mesenteric aery, (C) Anterior below the superior mesenteric aery, (D) Anterior below the inferior mesenteric aery
Answer is C. C i.e., Anterior below the superior mesenteric aery
There is a case of infanticide. During the post-moem examination, the doctor performs Breslau's second life test. This test detects changes in which of the following organ: (A) Brain, (B) Hea, (C) Lung, (D) Stomach and intestine
Answer is D. Ans. d. Stomach and intestine Breslau's Second Life Test (Stomach Bowel test) Principle: It assumes that a live born child would respire and therefore would also swallow some air into the stomach and bowelQ. Thus detecting the presence of air in stomach and intestine (positive test) proves live bih (even i...
Epiphora seen in all except:: (A) Lefort 2, (B) Zygomatic complex fracture., (C) Lefort 3, (D) Nasal complex fracture.
Answer is B. None
Microspherocytosis in peripheral blood smear are seen in-: (A) Congenital spherocytosis, (B) Autoimmune acquired haemolytic anaemia, (C) Thalassemia, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Spherocytosis is characterized by presence of spheroidal rather than biconcave disc shaped red cells. Spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis ,autoimmune hemolytic anaemia and in ABO hemolytic disease of newborn like Thalassemia Reference: textbook of Pathology ,7th edition Author: Harsha Mohan, p...
The femoral hernia - Base of the sac lies at (Saphenous opening - Landmark). Related to pubic tubercle: (A) Below and lateral, (B) Below and medial, (C) Above and lateral, (D) Above and medial
Answer is A. Ans. (a) Below and LateralRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 1035* Hernia appears below and lateral to Pubic tubercle and lies in upper leg rather than lower abdomen.* Please note Femoral hernia is seen below the inguinal ligament.
Secondary attack rate of peussis in unimmunization household contacts of peussis: (A) 30%, (B) 40%, (C) 60%, (D) 90%
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 90% SAR of some impoant infectious diseases Measles Rubella Chicken pox Peussis Mumps 80% 90 - 95% -- 90% -- 90% 86%
All off the following are components of nephrotic syndrome except -: (A) Edema, (B) Hypercoagulability, (C) Hypocholesterolemia, (D) Infection
Answer is C. None
A 25yr old male presented to OPD with complain of recurrent oral ulcers and congested eyesOn enquiry he has h/o prior hospital admission for venous thrombosis What is the condition he is suffering from: (A) SLE, (B) Reiter's syndrome, (C) BEHCETS DISEASE, (D) Wegner's Granulomatous
Answer is C. Behcet&;s Disease: A delay in the diagnosis of Behcet&;s disease is common. Knowing what to look for can help you take control of the disease Eye Inflammation -Occurs in more than 50% of patients and can result in blurry vision, sensitivity to light pain and redness. Can lead to blindness if untreated. Mou...
Most common site of carcinoma of paranasal sinus is?: (A) Frontal, (B) Ethmoid, (C) Maxillary, (D) Sphenoid
Answer is C. Ans. (c) MaxillaryRef: Dhingra's 4th ed p-195
Criteria to diagnose PID include all of the following except:: (A) Uterine tenderness, (B) Cervical motion tenderness, (C) Nausea and Vomiting, (D) Adnexal tenderness
Answer is C. Criteria for the diagnosis of PID: - Minimum Criteria 1) Lower abdominal tenderness 2) Adnexal tenderness 3) Cervical motion tenderness. Additional criteria 1. Culture and senstivity of Endometrial biopsy Vaginal swab Cervical swab Culture media for Gonorrhea: Thayer Main media Chlamydia: Mc Coy cell lines...
Tumor induced hypoglycemia is seen in all , EXCEPT:: (A) Mesenchymal tumors, (B) Hepatocellular carcinoma, (C) Adrenal carcinoma, (D) Lymphoma
Answer is D. Tumor induced hypoglycemia Mesenchymal tumors, hemangiopericytomas, hepatocellular tumors, adrenal carcinomas produce excessive amounts of insulin-like growth factor type II (IGF-II) precursor, leading to insulin-like actions and hypoglycemia. Ref: Harrison,E-18,P-830
Which of the following are not included under 10 chemicals of major public health concern by WHO:: (A) Arsenic, (B) Asbestos, (C) Dioxin, (D) Radium
Answer is D. Many chemicals can, when properly used, significantly contribute to the improvement of our quality of life, health and well-being. But other chemicals are highly hazardous and can negatively affect our health and environment when improperly managed.10 chemicals or groups of chemicals of major public health...
A neonate having congenital diaphragmatic hernia developed respiratory distress. Breath sounds were decreased on the left side. After bag and mask ventilation. ET tube was put and the maximal cardiac impulse shifted to the right side. What should be the next step in management ?: (A) Confirm the position of endotrachea...
Answer is B. The tube is inseed into the nose or mouth and slid into the stomach. The formula is then put into the tube and flows through it into the stomach. A nasogastric tube with a guide wire is a soft silicone tube that may be left in place for up to a month. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Megaloblastic anemia is due to?: (A) Folic acid deficiency, (B) Vitamin B6 deficiency, (C) Defect in RNA synthesis, (D) Defect in protein synthesis
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Folic acid deficiency * Megaloblastic anemia is an anemia which results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production.* It is characterized by many large immature and dysfunctional red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow, and also by hypersegmented neutrophil...
Hypoglycemia is a recognized feature of all of the following conditions, except -: (A) Uieinia, (B) Acromegaly, (C) Addison's disease, (D) Hepatocellular failure
Answer is B. None
Sinusoidal heart rate pattern is seen in:: (A) Placenta previa, (B) Vasa previa, (C) Battledore placenta, (D) Succenturiate placenta
Answer is B. Sinusoidal Pattern: Stable baseline heart rate of 120 to 160 beats/min with regular oscillations. Amplitude of 5 to 15 beats/min (rarely greater). Long-term variability frequency of 2 to 5 cycles per minute. Fixed or flat short-term variability. Oscillation of the sinusoidal waveform above or below a base...
ECG change seen in hypocalcemia: (Repeat 2011): (A) QT prolongation, (B) Prolonged PR interval, (C) Shortened PR interval, (D) QT Shortening
Answer is A. Ans: A (QT prolongation) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18ed.Explanation:Clinical Manifestations of HypocalcemiaPatients with hypocalcemia may be asymptomatic if the decreases in serum calcium are relatively mild and chronic.Moderate to severe hypocalcemia is associated with paresthesias,...
Most commonly injured organ in blunt trauma of abdomen is -: (A) Liver, (B) Spleen, (C) Small intestine, (D) Pancreas
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Spleen "The spleen is the intra-abdominal organ most frequently injured in blunt trauma"- Sabiston 18/e* Blunt trauma: In blunt trauma the organs most commonly injured are the solid organs:# Spleen (MC)# Liver# Kidney* In addition to spleen, liver and kidney, extreme blunt force to the up...
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about primary HSV infections?: (A) Primarily affects the anterior portion of the mouth, (B) Causes acute gingivits, (C) Occurs as epidemic, (D) Shows prodromal symptoms
Answer is C. None
Burn involving one lower limbs in adult correspondence to area:: (A) 4.50%, (B) 9%, (C) 13.50%, (D) 18%
Answer is D. Ans: D (18 %) Determination of Burn Size Sabiston 19th/523# Burn size is generally assessed by the so-called rule of nines . In adults, each upper extremity and the head and neck are 9% of TBSA, the lower extremities and the anterior and posterior aspects of the trunk are 18% each, and the perineum and gen...
Extensive abrasions are found all over the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the likely cause ?: (A) Primary Impact Injury, (B) Secondary Impact Injury, (C) Secondary Injury, (D) Postmortem artifact
Answer is C. In secondary injury, when the body is rolled over after the impact, the skin may show abrasions of more than two surfaces (front, back and sides).
Qualitative data presentation diagrams are all except:: (A) Pie diagram, (B) Pictogram, (C) Spot map, (D) Frequency polygon
Answer is D. Data Presentation
Amyloidosis of hea presents with -: (A) Arrhythmia, (B) AV block, (C) |Ed mass/voltage, (D) AS
Answer is A. Cardiac amyloidosis may affect the way electrical signals move through the hea (conduction system). This can lead to abnormal heabeats (arrhythmias) and faulty hea signals (hea block). The condition can be inherited. This is called familial cardiac amyloidosis Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 456
All can occur due to blunt trauma of eye except -: (A) Berlin's edema, (B) Angle recession, (C) Sympathetic ophthalmitis, (D) Rosette cataract
Answer is C. 1. Lids: Ecchymosis, Black eye, avulsion of the lid, traumatic ptosis. 2. Orbit: Fracture of the orbital walls, orbital haemorrhage, orbital emphysemas. 3. Lacrimal apparatus: Laceration of canaliculi, dislocation of lacrimal gland. 4. Conjunctiva: Subconjunctival haemorrhage, chemosis, lacerating tears of...
A 40-year-old woman is suspected of having a carotid body tumor. Which one of the following is most characteristic of such a tumor?Carotid body tumor: (A) They secrete catecholamines., (B) They are more common at sea level., (C) They arise from structures that respond to changes in blood volume., (D) They arise from th...
Answer is D. Carotid body tumor is the most common type of paraganglioma in the head and neck region, followed by the glomus jugular tumor. Carotid body tumor grows slowly, rarely metastasizes, and may secrete catecholamines. The tumor usually is supplied by the external carotid artery, and dissection to remove it off ...
Neuroendocrine cells in the lungs are:: (A) Dendritic cells, (B) Type I pneumocytes, (C) Type II pneumocytes, (D) APUD cells
Answer is D. APUD (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation) cells are neuroendocrine cells found in respiratory system, G.I. tract and other organs; they manufactrure amines (e.g. 5-HT). These cells form carcinoid tumors.
Dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor is:: (A) Clozapine, (B) Bupropion, (C) Zolpidem, (D) Miazapine
Answer is B. Bupropion This inhibitor of DA and NA uptake has excitant rather than sedative propey. It is metabolized into an amphetamine like compound. It has been marketed in a sustained release formulation as an aid to smoking cessation. In clinical trials it has been found to yield higher smoking abstinence and qui...
Complication of blood transfusion can be all except -: (A) Hyperkalemia, (B) Citrate toxicity, (C) Metabolic acidosis, (D) Hypothermia
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Metabolic acidosis The question is most probably about complications of massive blood transfusion.Massive Blood Transfusion * Massive blood transfusion is generally defined as transfusion of one to two volumes of patient's own blood volumes (For most adults that is equivalent to 10-20 uni...
Regarding Clostridium perfringens gas gangrene, false is -: (A) Common cause of gas gangrene, (B) Nagler reaction positive, (C) Most common toxin is hyaluronidase, (D) Food poisoning strain of Cl. perfringens produces heat resistant spores
Answer is C. Ans. is. 'c' i.e., Most common toxin is hyalronidase . The most common and most impoant toxin produced by CL perfringensis a- toxin (lecithinase). Clostridium perfringens food poisoning . Some strains of type A Cl. perfringens produce poisoning. They are characterised by the marked heat resistance of their...
Mark the false statement among given options regarding malaria species :: (A) P. vivax infects RBC's < 14 days, (B) P. falciparum infects young RBC's only, (C) P. ovale selectively infect reticulocytes, (D) P. malariae infects old RBC's.
Answer is B. Plasmodium species P. falciparum infects RBC's of all ages P. vivax infects RBC's < 14 d. P. malariae infects old RBC's. P. ovale selectively infect reticulocytes.
Pseudotumor cerebri is seen in: (A) Obese women in the age group 20-40 yrs, (B) Obese males 20-40 yrs., (C) Thin females 50-60 yrs., (D) Thin males 50-60 yrs.
Answer is A. * Pseudotumour cerebri(idiopathic intracranial hypeension) usually occur in obese young women . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456
A young child presented with history of passage of dark colored with urine with reduced urine output. He has a past history of abdominal pain, fever, and bloody diarrhea for 4 days which resolved on its own. There is absence of peripheral edema or rashes. Investigations show anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated blood...
Answer is B. - Child given is presenting with classical history of hemolytic uremic syndrome In HUS, there is initial history of diarrhea caused d/t E-coli which causes damage to endothelial cells resulting in thrombotic microangiopathy affecting kidney. Typical Causative agent: Escherichia coli strain O157:H7 infectio...
A child draws circle at –: (A) 12 months, (B) 24 months, (C) 30 months, (D) 36 months
Answer is D. None
Neonatal septicemia is most commonly caused by ?: (A) Group B Streptococci, (B) E.coli, (C) Streptococcus viridans, (D) Staphylococcus aureus
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Group B streptococci
All are true about pulmonary embolism,except -: (A) Chest pain is the most common symptom, (B) Most commonly presents within 2 weeks, (C) More is the survival time, more is the chance of . recovery, (D) Arises from leg veins
Answer is A. None
All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney, EXCEPT?: (A) It is a type of poal-circulation, (B) Stellate veins drain superficial zone, (C) Its segmental aeries are end-aeries, (D) The renal aery divides into five segmental aeries before entering the hilum
Answer is A. Blood supply to the kidney: The renal aery arises from the aoa at the level of the second lumbar veebra. Each renal aery usually divides into five segmental aeries that enter the hilum of the kidney. Lobar aeries arises from each segmental aery, one for each renal pyramid. Each lobar aery gives off two or ...
Best IOL is:: (A) Ant chamber, (B) Post chamber, (C) Iris suppoed, (D) Angle suppoed
Answer is B. B i.e. Posterior chamber Classical signs of aphakia are - a deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis (tremulousness of iris), only 2 images on Purkinje's test, dark (jet black) papillary reflexQ and highly hypermetropic small disc on fundus examination with markedly defective vision for both far and near d/t hi...
Most common cause of urinary retention in children includes: (A) Posterior urethral valves, (B) Urethral stenosis, (C) Urethral aplasia, (D) Ectopic ureteric opening
Answer is A. (A) Posterior urethral valves # Posterior urethral valves: These constitute an important cause of distal urinary tract obstruction in boys.> Dribbling, abnormal urinary stream, palpable bladder and recurrent UTI are the usual presenting features.> The presence of severe obstruction in the urinary tract in ...
Spectacle shown below is used in: (A) Bifocal for presbyopia, (B) Bifocal for adult aphakia, (C) Bifocal for pediatric aphakia, (D) Progressive bifocal for presbyopia
Answer is C. Ans. (c) Bifocal for pediatric aphakiaRef: Diagnosis and Management of Ocular Motility Disorders by Alec M. Ansons, Helen Davis 3/e, p. 36These are straight type/ executive type bifocals with a central lie dissecting the visual axis, such that the top of the reading segment passes just below the middle of ...
Not a treatment option for psoriasis -: (A) Retinoids, (B) Methotrexate, (C) Cyclosporine, (D) Oral corticosteroids
Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e. Oral corticosteroids Treatment options for psoriasisSystemic medicineso Acitretino Cyclosporineo Razoxaneo Biological therapieso Colchicineo Antithyroid drugs (methimazole, propylthiouracil)o Methotrexateo Hydroxyureao Mycophenolate mofetilo Goldo Zidovudineo AzathioprineTopical medicines f...
A patient at 22 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having IUD which occurred at 17 weeks but did not have a miscarriage. The patient is at increased risk of :: (A) Septic aboion, (B) Future infeility, (C) Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia, (D) Ectopic pregnancy
Answer is C. Dead fetus if retained for more than 4-5 weeks, release thromboplastin which leads to DIC Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 304.
An agent added to local anesthetics to speed the onset of action is:: (A) Methylparapben, (B) Bicarbonate, (C) Fentanyl, (D) Adrenaline
Answer is B. * LAs are weak bases. These require penetration inside the neuron for their action. For entry in the neuron, LAs have to cross the neuronal membrane. * Unionized drugs (lipid soluble) can easily cross the membrane, therefore addition of NaHCO3 in the local anaesthetic solution (weak bases are un-ionized in...
Shaking palsy is associated with poisoning with :: (A) Lead, (B) Mercury, (C) Arsenic, (D) Strontium
Answer is B. B i.e Mercury
About the treatment of esophageal cancer, false statement is:: (A) 5% of patients survive 5 years after the diagnosis, (B) The efficacy of primary radiation therapy for squamous cell carcinomas is similar to that of radical surgery, (C) Surgical resection of all gross tumor is feasible in only 45% of cases, (D) Chemoth...
Answer is D. ESOPHAGEAL CARCINOMA: The prognosis is poor. 5% of patients survive 5 years after the diagnosis Surgical resection of all gross tumor is feasible in only 45% of cases About 20% of patients who survive a total resection live 5 years. The efficacy of primary radiation therapy for squamous cell carcinomas is ...
Aery to bleed in duodenal ulcer haemorrhage -: (A) Splenic aery, (B) Gastroduodenal aery, (C) Left gastric aery, (D) Sup. mesenteric aery
Answer is B. Gastro duodenal aery is the most common aery involved in duodenal ulcer hemorrhage. Also, remember A peptic ulcer is the most common cause of massive upper gastrointestinal bleed (Duodenal ulcers > Gastric ulcers) Bleeding ulcers in the duodenum are usually located on the posterior surface of the duodenal ...
In PCR, DNA polymerase is used in: (A) DNA replication, (B) DNA Elongation, (C) DNA Mulitiplication, (D) All
Answer is C. All PCR applications employ a heat-stable DNA polymerase, such as Taq polymerase (an enzyme originally isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquatics).This DNA polymerase enzymatically assembles a new DNA strand from DNA building blocks, the nucleotides, by using single-stranded DNA as a template and DNA oli...
Abdominal pain in Henoch Schonlein purpura is due to -: (A) Mucosal erosions and swelling of the G1 mucosa, (B) Gastrointestinal hemorrhage, (C) Volvulus, (D) Associated pancreatic inflammation
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mucosal erosions and swelling of the GI mucosa Abdominal pain in HSPo The second most frequent symptom of Henoch-Schonlein purpura is abdominal pain, which occurs in up to 65 percent of cases. The most common complaint is colicky abdominal pain, which may be severe and associated with vom...
An 8 year old child has shown of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches as anexcuse to avoid school. What would be the most appropriate clinical diagnosis in this patient?: (A) Rule out migraine, (B) Rule out depression, (C) Rule out an opposi...
Answer is C. Since the person in the question is showing a hostile behavior which is impairing his academic activities for the last 6 months, the most appropriate next step would be to rule out Oppositional defiant disorder.Oppositional defiant disorder is a recurrent pattern of negativistic, hostile or defiant behavio...
A 12-year-old boy had a gradually progressive plaque on a buttock for the last 3 years. The plaque was 15 cm in diameter, annular in shape, with crusting and induration at the periphery and scarring at the centre. The most likely diagnosis –: (A) Tinea corporis, (B) Granuloma annulare, (C) Lupus vulgaris, (D) Borderlin...
Answer is C. This boy has Annular plaque On buttock Crusting at periphery Scarring at centre These suggest the diagnosis of lupus vulgaris. Annular lesions  When the lesions of a skin disease are arranged in ring shape, they are called annular lesions.
Mortality rate of measles in developing countries-: (A) 10%, (B) 20%, (C) 30%, (D) 40%
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10% o Measles-associated mortality is usually higher among the very' young and very old.o Mortality in developing countries may be as high as 10 to 15% due to one or several factors, including the early age of infection, malnutrition, diarrhea, concomitant-secondary bacterial infections, ...
Which of the following deciduous molars bears the greatest resemblance to a premolar: (A) Maxillary first, (B) Maxillary second, (C) Mandibular first, (D) Mandibular second
Answer is A. None
Most common site of berry's aneurism is -: (A) Trifurcation of internal carotid artery, (B) Junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating artery, (C) Bifurcation of basilar artery, (D) Middle cerebral artery
Answer is B. Ans. is' b' i.e., Junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating artery Most common sites of Berry's Aneurysma. Junction of anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteryb. Bifurcation of MCAc. Trifurcation of CIAd. Bifurcation of basilar artery
Smoothest and maximum polishability is the property of:: (A) Traditional composite, (B) Microfilled composite, (C) Hybrid composite, (D) Small particle filled composite
Answer is B. These properties are due to low filler loading, hence microfilled composites are principally used for anterior esthetic restorations.
Which of the following is the most common cause of late neurological deterioration in a case of cerebro- vascular accident -: (A) Rebleeding, (B) Vasospasm, (C) Embolism, (D) Hydrocephalus
Answer is B. None