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Initial amino acid in prokaryotic protein synthesis ?: (A) Arginine, (B) Methionine, (C) Formyl-methionine, (D) Alanine | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Formyl-methionine | |
"Tear drop" sign on X-ray PNS is seen in: (A) Blow out fracture of the floor of the orbit, (B) Comminuted fracture of the maxilla, (C) Fracture of the nasal bone, (D) Fracture of the mandible | Answer is A. Ans. a (Blow out fracture of the floor of the orbit) (Ref. Grainger Diagnostic Rad 4th/2527; Ref . Q. 159. Of MH-2207)BLOW-OUT FRACTURE is caused by fracturing of the orbital walls with herniation of orbital contents and subsequent tethering of the globe, resulting in pain and diplopia. It usually involves... | |
Which classification is used to divide the liver into segments?: (A) Couinaud, (B) Muhe, (C) Starzl, (D) Anatomical | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Couinaud'sRef: Bailey and Love 26th edition page 1066* Couinaud divided the liver into multiple segments- 8 segments* He is a French Anatomist | |
In a patient with compensated liver cirrhosis presented with history of variceal bleed. The treatment of choice in this patient is -: (A) Propranolol, (B) Liver transplantation, (C) TIPS (Transjugular intrahepatic poal shunt), (D) Endoscopic sclerotherapy | Answer is D. When a cirrhotic patient presents with upper GI bleed, the single most impoant diagnostic as well as therapeutic procedure to be performed is endoscopy (although after intravenous fluid resuscitation and correction of coagulation abnormalities) If varices are found they are treated by either Endoscopic var... | |
During an emergency thoracotomy, the incision is made > 1cm lateral to the sternal margin. This will preserve which of the following structures?: (A) Intercostal aery, (B) Superficial epigastric aery, (C) Internal mammary aery, (D) Intercostal vein | Answer is C. In case of anterolateral thoracotomy, which is usually a transverse or a veical incision staing from fouh intercostal space, incision is made lateral to sternal in order to avoid injury to the adjacent vessels which include internal mammary aery. Superficial epigastric aery is the terminal branch of intern... | |
Causative organism of rheumatic fever -: (A) Group A Streptococci, (B) Staphylococci, (C) Group B Streptococci, (D) Group D Streptococci | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Group A Streptococci Rheumatic fevero Rheumatic fever (RF) is an acute, inununologically mediated, multisystem inflammatory disease classically occurring a few weeks after an episode of group A streptococcal pharyngitis; occasionally, RF can follow streptococcal infections at other sites,... | |
Kliiver-Bucy syndrome is associated with lesion in the following area of brain: (A) Amygdala, (B) Cerebral cortex, (C) Hippocampus, (D) Mammillary body | Answer is A. (A) Amygdala # Kliiver-Bucy syndrome is a behavioral disorder that occurs when both the right and left medial temporal lobes of the brain malfunction. People with lesions in their temporal lobes show similar behaviors.> They may display oral or tactile exploratory behavior (socially inappropriate licking o... | |
Surest sign of brain stem death: (A) Absent Doll's eye reflex, (B) Fixed dilated pupil not reacting to light, (C) Cheyne Stokes breathing, (D) Decerebrate posture | Answer is B. B i.e. Fixed dilated pupil not responding to light Cooling of body & rigor mois is a sign of molecular or cellular death. - Somatic (systemic, clinical or brain) death is cessation of spontaneous breathing, circulation and brain activity (as indicated by flat isoelectric EEG, deep unconsciousness with no r... | |
Stereoanesthesia is due to lesion ofa) Nucleus Gracilisb) Nucleus cuneatusc) Cerebral cortexd) Spinothalamic tract: (A) abc, (B) bc, (C) acd, (D) bcd | Answer is A. Astereognosis/Stereoanaesthesia- Loss of ability to recognize size and shape of an object.
Seen in- lesion of somatosensory cortex, lesion of tractus cuneatus, lesion of tractus gracilis.
Somatosensory cortex lesion- proprioception and tactile sensations are lost while pain and temperature sensations are p... | |
A 70-years old male presented with asymptomatic white patch on oral cavity following application of the denture. Treatment of choice is: (A) Low does radiotherapy, (B) Biopsy of the all the tissues, (C) Asceaining that denture is fitted properly, (D) Antibiotics | Answer is C. Leukoplakia regress spontaneously after stopping alcohol or tobacco consumption or correction of underlying cause | |
Radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood is-: (A) Ghon's focus, (B) Normal chest Xray, (C) Lymphadenopathy, (D) Pleural effusion | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymph adenopathy Primary tuberculosis in childhoodo Primary' tuberculosis in childhood can present in 4 major ways in addition to the normal chest radiography. These are:LymphadenopathyLobar or segmental parenchymal diseasePleural effusionMilitary involvemento Lymphadenopathy with or with... | |
Positive shick's test indicates that person is ?: (A) Immune to diptheria, (B) Hypersensitive to diptheria, (C) Susceptible to diptheria, (D) Carrier of diptheria | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Susceptible to diphtheria Shick test . Shick test is no longer in use. It was used for the susceptibility of for diphtheria. . It was an intradermal test, in which after intradermal injections of diphtheria toxin in one forearm (usually left) and toxoid in other forearm two readings were ... | |
Dependency' ratio includes -: (A) Less than 15 years, (B) Less than85 years, (C) 30-50 years, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Less than 15 years Dependency ratiooThe proportion of persons above 65 years of age and children below 15 years of age are considered to be dependent on the economically productive age group {15-64 years).o The ratio of combined age group 0-14 years plus 65 years and above to the 15-65 ye... | |
All the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient except:: (A) 37 weeks, (B) IUD, (C) Transverse lie, (D) Continuous bleeding | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Transverse lieRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 249In these questions, there is no confusion about any option except for 'lie of the fetus'.As far as lie is concerned:Friends, why would you terminate pregnancy just because of unstable lie or transverse lie, unless and until there is some other complic... | |
An eight-month-old female infant presented with recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia, especially if time interval of feeding is increased. Dicarboxylic acid is present in the urine. Urine ketone bodies is negative. The child responded well to IV Glucose, less fat and more carbohydrate diet, frequent feeding. The child wa... | Answer is B. Ans. B. Lack of ATP to support gluconeogenesis* This is a case of MCAD deficiency.* Identifying features are:* Recurrent episodes of hypoglycaemia is time interval of feeding increased* Dicarboxylic acids in urine* Absence of ketone bodies in urine* Reasons for hypoglycemia are:* Due to MCAD deficiency, be... | |
Hypersensitivity vasculitis usually involve: (A) Aerioles, (B) Post capillary venules, (C) Capillaries, (D) Medium sized aeries | Answer is B. Refer robbins 9/e p510, 8/e 515 Harrison 7/2128 Direct quote from Harrison 18th /2798; Postcapillary venules are most commonly involved vessels. Capillaries and aerioles are less frequent involved | |
Amino acid absorption is by:: (A) Facilitated transport, (B) Passive transport, (C) Active transport, (D) Pinocytosis | Answer is C. Ans. C. Active TransportFree amino acids are absorbed across the intestinal mucosa by sodium-dependent active transport. There are several different amino acid transporters, with specificity for the nature of the amino acid side-chain.Transporters of Amino AcidsFor Neutral Amino acidsFor Basic Amino acids ... | |
Hyponatremia in multiple myeloma is -: (A) TRUE, (B) Relative, (C) Absolute, (D) Pseudo | Answer is D. • Patients with multiple myeloma also have a decreased anion gap because the M component is cationic, resulting in retention of chloride.
• This is often accompanied by hyponatremia that is felt to be artificial (Pseudohyponatremia) because each volume of serum has less water as a result of the increased ... | |
Index case is the -: (A) First case in a community, (B) Case getting infection from primary case, (C) Case getting infection from secondary case, (D) First case detected by investigator | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., First case defected by investigator [Ref: Park 22nd/e d. 92 & 21st/e p. 9/1o Primary caseo Index case--First case of communicable disease introduced into the population.First case to come to attention of the investigator.o It is not always necessary that primary case will be index case : ... | |
Gastrojejernostomy surgery belongs to: (A) Clean surgery, (B) Contaminated surgery, (C) Clean contaminated surgery, (D) Dirty surgery | Answer is C. Clean contaminated surgery :
Wound is exposed to not only skin but also GI tract / Respiratory tract / Urinary tract organism in controlled enviroment.
Hence Gastrojejunostomy surjery belongs to this category. | |
Hand and foot syndrome is due to ?: (A) Vincristine, (B) Cisplatin, (C) 5 FU, (D) Azathioprine | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5 FU | |
Gaisbock syndrome is better known as?: (A) Primary familial polycythemia, (B) High-altitude erythrocytosis, (C) Spurious polycythemia, (D) Polycythemia vera | Answer is C. Gaisbock syndrome is characterised by secondary polycythemia. It occurs mainly in male sedentary individuals, on a high-calorie diet. Prevalence is unknown. The clinical picture includes mild obesity, hypeension and decrease in plasma volume with relative increase in hematocrit, blood viscosity, serum chol... | |
After an incised wound, new collagen fibrils are seen along with a thick layer of growing epithelium. The approximate age of the wound is -: (A) 12-24 hours, (B) 24-72 hours, (C) 4-5 days, (D) About 1 week | Answer is C. . 4-5 days | |
Thyrotoxic periodic paralysis leads to extreme muscle weakness due to?: (A) Hypokalemia, (B) Hypocalcemia, (C) Hypomagnesemia, (D) Hyponatremia | Answer is A. T3| T4| - Positive Na- K+ ATPase activity in the cells (3 Na outside 2 K+ inside) | K Influx | K| | Thyrotoxic Periodic Paralysis | |
vitamin involved in 1 carbon metabolism: (A) Folic acid, (B) Thiamine, (C) biotin, (D) niacin | Answer is A. THFA is the carrier of One Carbon groups The folic acid is first reduced to 7,8-dihydrofolic acid and fuher reduced to 5,6,7,8-tetrahydrofolic acid (THFA) . Both reactions are catalyzed by NADPH dependent folate reductase. The THFA is the carrier of one-carbon groups. One carbon compound is an organic mole... | |
Cauliflower ear is -: (A) Keloid, (B) Perchondritis in Boxers, (C) Squamous cell carcinoma, (D) Anaplastic cell carcinoma | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following diuretics is contraindicated in the presence of cardiac failure?: (A) Mannitol, (B) Spironolactone, (C) Furosemide, (D) Hydrochlorothiazide | Answer is A. None | |
Snow blindness is caused by :: (A) Ultravoilet rays, (B) Infrarads, (C) Microwaves, (D) Defect in mirror | Answer is A. A i.e. Ultra violet rays | |
The most common neoplasm among HIV positive homosexual males:: (A) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, (B) Glomus tumor, (C) Kaposi's sarcoma, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Hyponatremia in multiple myeloma is: (A) TRUE, (B) Relative, (C) Absolute, (D) Pseudo | Answer is D. Pseudohyponatremia Patients with multiple myeloma also have a decreased anion gap because of the M component is cationic, resulting in retention of chloride This is often accompanied by hyponatremia that is felt to be aificial (pseudohyponatremia) because each volume of serum has less water as a result of ... | |
Schiller-Duval bodies are seen in-: (A) Teratoma, (B) Seminoma, (C) Yolk sac tumour, (D) Chorio Carcinoma | Answer is C. Yolk sac tumor of the testis: Raised a-fetoprotein level (AFP). Schiller-Duval bodies. Schiller-Duval body: It is the characteristic feature of the endodermal sinus tumor. This is a glomerulus-like structure composed of a central blood vessel enveloped by germ cells within a space lined by germ cells. Endo... | |
Which one of the following disorders is related to sense of unreality?: (A) Depersonalization disorder, (B) Derealization disorder, (C) Delusion, (D) Phobias | Answer is A. Ans. A. Depersonalization disorderDepersonalization:Depersonalization is a sense of unreality or strangeness concerning the self, manifested by feeling detached from and being an outside observer of one's mental processes or body.A patient who experiences depersonalization may describe feeling like things ... | |
Floaters can be seen in following except: (A) Vitreous haemorrhage, (B) Retinal detachment, (C) Uveitis, (D) Acute congestive Glaucoma | Answer is D. Black spots or floaters in front of the eyes may appear singly or in clusters. They move with the movement of the eyes and become more apparent when viewed against a clear surface e.g., the sky. Common causes of black floaters are: Vitreous hemorrhage Vitreous degeneration e.g., - senile vitreous degener... | |
Term psychoanalysis was coined by?: (A) Eysenck, (B) Freud, (C) Jung, (D) Adler | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Freud * The credit for invention of psychoanalysis belong to Sigmund FreudImportant contributors in psychiatryTermCoined by* Demence precoce* Moral Emil* Dementia precox* Kraepelin* Catatonia, cyclotymia* Kahlbaum* Hebephrenia* Hecker* Schizophrenia* Eugen Bleuler* Ambivalence* Eugen Bleu... | |
CSOM with Picket fence fever is seen in: (A) Meningitis, (B) Sigmoid Sinus Thrombosis, (C) Brain Abscess, (D) Extradural Abscess | Answer is B. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis/lateral sinus thrombosis is an inflammation of inner wall of lateral venous sinus with formation of an intra sinus thrombus It occurs as a complication of chronic suppuration of middle ear or acute coalescent mastoiditis, and cholesteatoma Picket fence fever temperature never comes... | |
Which dietary deficiency of a vitamin can cause Pellagra.: (A) Vitamin C, (B) Niacin, (C) Vitamin D, (D) Biotin | Answer is B. Some amino acids (isoleucine, tryptophan, phenylalanine, and tyrosine) are both glucogenic and ketogenic because their degradation pathway forms multiple products.a. Amino acids that are converted to pyruvate (see Figure I).(1). The amino acids that are synthesized from the intermediates of glycolysis (ser... | |
Good prognostic factor for schizophrenia is ?: (A) Blunted affect, (B) Early onset, (C) Presence of depression, (D) Male sex | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Presence of depression Good prognostic factors :- Acute onset; late onset (onset after 35 years of age); Presence of precipitating stressor; Good premorbid adjustment; catatonic (best prognosis) & Paranoid (2nd best); sho duration (< 6 months); Married; Positive symptoms; Presence of depr... | |
All drug inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis EXCEPT: (A) Spectinomycin, (B) Vancomycin, (C) Aztreonam, (D) Cephalexin | Answer is A. Spectinomycin is an aminocyclitol antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. The other drugs all inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. Vancomycin and bacitracin inhibit early steps in the biosynthesis of the peptidoglycan component of the cell wall, whereas 3-- lactams such as aztreonam (a mono... | |
The most common cause of death in Kaposi's Sarcoma is -: (A) Dissemination, (B) AIDS, (C) Massive pulmonary haemorrhage, (D) Diabetes mellitus | Answer is C. None | |
Longest and thinnest extrocular muscle -: (A) SR, (B) IR, (C) SO, (D) IO | Answer is C. SO arises from the bone above and medial to the optic foramina. It runs forward and turns around a pulley- " the trochlea" and is inseed in the upper and outer pa of the sclera behind the equator. Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition;Page no:336 | |
Ribosomes has following enzymatic activity?: (A) Peptidyl transferase, (B) Peptidase, (C) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, (D) GTPase | Answer is A. The formation of peptide bonds is catalysed by peptidyl transferase, an activity intrinsic to the 23 S r-RNA of 50 S subunit in prokaryotes and 28 S r-RNA of 60 S subunit in eukaryotes. So, it is referred to as ribozyme & indicates a direct role of r-RNA in protein synthesis. | |
Inhibin inhibits the secretion of which hormone :: (A) FSH, (B) LH, (C) Estrogen, (D) Prolactin | Answer is A. FSH | |
True regarding traumatic facial nerve palsy is all, except: (A) Usually occurs with transverse petrous temporal bone fracture, (B) Usually occurs with longitudinal petrous temporal bone fracture, (C) Posttraumatic facial nerve palsy may be complete at the time of presentation, (D) Decompression of the canal can be usef... | Answer is B. TRAUMA TIC FACIAL NERVE PARALYSIS 1. FRACTURES OF TEMPORAL BONE Fractures of temporal bone may be longitudinal, transverse or mixed. Facial palsy is seen more often in transverse fractures (50%). Paralysis is due to intraneural haematoma, compression by a bony spicule or transection of nerve. In these case... | |
Mean Hb values in two population groups are compared by: (A) Paired t test, (B) Unpaired t test, (C) Chi square test, (D) Fischer test | Answer is B. Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed | |
A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient depament. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by -: (A) 70 % alcohol for 5 min, (B) 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 min, (C) 2% formaldehyde for 10 min... | Answer is B. Glutaraldehyde is especially effective against the tubercle bacilli, fungi, and viruses. It is less toxic and irritant to eyes and skin than formaldehyde. It has no deleterious effects on the cement or lenses of instruments such as cystoscope and bronchoscopy It can be safely used to treat corrugated rubbe... | |
Most important amino acid for formation Neutrophilic extracellular trap (NET) is: (A) Leucine, (B) Methionine, (C) Citrulline, (D) Valine | Answer is C. Conversion of arginine residues to Citrulline in the histones is an essential step in the formation of neutrophill extracillular traps. | |
All muscles of the pharynx are supplied by pharyngeal plexus, EXCEPT?: (A) Inferior constrictors, (B) Salpingopharyngeus, (C) Stylopharyngeus, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. With the exception of stylopharyngeus, which is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve, the muscles are supplied by the cranial pa of the accessory nerve the pharyngeal plexus. | |
On exertion urine stream increases in -: (A) Prostate enlargement, (B) Marion's disease, (C) Post. urethral valves, (D) Urethral stricture | Answer is D. None | |
Mauriac's syndrome is characterized by all except: (A) Diabetes, (B) Obesity, (C) Dwarfism, (D) Cardiomegaly | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cardiomegaly Mauriac Sydrome Children with poorly controlled type I diabetes may develop Mauriac syndrome. It is characterized by : - Growth attenuation Delayed pubey Hepatomegaly Abnormal glycogen storage and steatosis Cushingoid features Rare in modern era of insuling therapy but is occ... | |
Which is not transmitted by arthropod -: (A) Rickettsia prowazekii, (B) Coxiella burnetii, (C) Rickettsia akari, (D) Rickettsia rickettsii | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following are true about Herpes group virus except-: (A) Ether sensitive, (B) May cause malignancy, (C) HSV II involves below diaphragm, (D) Burkitt's lymphoma involves Tcells | Answer is D. Herpes viruses are susceptible to fat solvents like alcohilic ether chlorofirm and bike salts. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:466 | |
The diabetes control and complication trial (DCCT) provided definitive proof that reduction In chronic hyperglycemia helps to improve -: (A) Microvascular complications of type 1 DM, (B) Microvascular complications of type 1 DM, (C) Microvascular complications of type 2 DM, (D) Macro vascular complications of type 2 DM | Answer is A. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) found definitive proof that a reduction in chronic hyperglycemia can prevent many of the complications of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). This multicenter randomized trial enrolled over 1400 patients with type 1 DM to either intensive or conventional diabe... | |
. True about polio is all except:: (A) Sabin vaccine is attenuated, oral vaccine, (B) Salk is a killed formalized vaccine used, (C) Vaccine induced polio is usually due to Type 2 virus, (D) Most common type of virus in epidemics is Type 1 | Answer is C. Vaccine induced polio" is usually due to Type 2 virus | |
Strawberry gingivitis is seen in:: (A) Wegener's Granulomatosis, (B) Scorbutic Gingivitis, (C) Plasma Cell Gingivitis, (D) Leukemic Gingivitis | Answer is A. None | |
Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by destruction of:: (A) Endothelial cells, (B) Type I pneumocytes, (C) Type II pneumocytes, (D) Alveolar macrophages | Answer is B. Ans. b. Type I pneumocytes Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by destruction of Type I pneumocytes.Histopathotogy of Lung in Bleomycin Toxicity* Endothelial cell edema and blebbing* Necrosis of type 1 pneumocytes* Proliferation of fibroblast and fibrosis* Hyperplasia and metaplasia of type II pneumocytes*... | |
A policemen foo..a a person ln ing unconscious in iglu lateral position on the road with superficial injury to the face, bruises on the right arm, and injury to the lateral aspect of right knee. Nerve most probably injured:: (A) Femoral nerve, (B) Radial nerve, (C) Common peroneal nerve, (D) Trigeminal nerve | Answer is C. Ans. c. Common peroneal nerve Common peroneal nerve (L4, L5, Sl, S2) is the smaller terminal branch of sciatic nerve. The larger terminal branch of sciatic nerve is the tibial nerve. The common peroneal nerve is relatively unprotected as it traverses the lateral aspect of the head of fibula and is easily c... | |
To which of the following events is 'good' outcome in neuroblastoma associated -: (A) Diploidy, (B) N-myc amplification, (C) Chromosome 1 p deletion, (D) Trk A expression | Answer is D. None | |
HLA B27 histocompatibility antigen is correlated With: (A) Sjogren's disease, (B) Ankylosing spondylitis, (C) Felty's syndrome, (D) Scleroderma | Answer is B. REF:HARRISONS PRINCIPLE&;S OF INTERNAL MEDICINE 18TH EDITION | |
Dileufloy's lesion is seen in -: (A) Stomach, (B) Jejunum, (C) Oesophagus, (D) Anus | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Stomach Dieulafoy's lesion* Dieulafoy's lesion is a medical condition characterized by a large tortuous arteriole most commonly in the stomach wall (submucosal) that erodes and bleeds.* It can cause gastric hemorrhage but is relatively uncommon. It is thought to cause less than 5% of all ... | |
All the following are complications of streptokinase, except: (A) Joint pain, (B) Intracranial bleed, (C) Anaphylaxis, (D) Hypotension | Answer is A. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1605 Allergic reactions to streptokinase occur in ~2% of patients who receive it. While a minor degree of hypotension occurs in 4-10% of patients given this agent, marked hypotension occurs, although rarely, in association with severe allergic reactions. | |
Odontogenic tumors just 1cm away from lower border: (A) Enbloc resection, (B) Hemi mandibulectomy, (C) Enucleation, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
A 40-year-old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?: (A) Excision of tumor, (B) Radiotherapy, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Carotid aery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor | Answer is A. Best treatment for a 40-year-old patient who is suffering from carotid body tumor is excision of tumor. CAROTID BODY TUMOR TREATMENT Because these tumors rarely metastasizeQand their overall rate of growth is slow, the need for surgical removal must be considered carefully as complication of surgery are po... | |
Following may be seen in the exit wound: DNB 10; NEET 14: (A) Di collar, (B) Abrasion collar, (C) Tattooing, (D) Inveed edges | Answer is B. Ans. Abrasion collar | |
Substance which is not absorbed in the loop of Henle: March 2005: (A) K+, (B) Urea, (C) CI?, (D) Na+ | Answer is B. Ans. B: Urea The descending pa of the thin segment of the loop of Henle is highly permeable to water and moderately permeable to most solutes and little or no active reabsorption. The thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle reabsorbs about 25% of the filtered loads of sodium, chloride and potassium as we... | |
Frequency distribution is studied by -: (A) Histogram, (B) Line diagram, (C) Pie diagram, (D) Ski diagram | Answer is A. None | |
A 28 year old woman, suffers from emotional liability and depression, about 10 days prior to her menses. She repos that once she begins to bleed, she feels back to normal. She also gives a history of premenstrual fatigue, bloating and breast tenderness. What would be the best treatment for the patient?: (A) Evening pri... | Answer is C. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) and SSRIs have shown the greatest efficiency in PMS treatment. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS), also called Premenstrual Tension (PMT), is a symptom complex, recognised primarily by cyclic changes, associated with ovulatory cycles. It occurs 7 to 14... | |
Which of the following statements about 'Multiple Pregnancies' is TRUE?: (A) Fetuses of same gender excludes dichorionicity, (B) Twin Peak Sign is seen in dichorionicity, (C) Thick separating membrane is a feature of monochorionic twins, (D) Chorionicity can be reliably detected only after 16 weeks of gestation | Answer is B. Twin peak or Lambda sign is seen in dichorionic diamniotic twin gestation. In this the chorion and amnion for each twin reflect away from the fused placenta to form an inter twine membrane. A space that exist in the intewine membrane is filled by proliferating placental villi giving rise to twin peak sign.... | |
Protein secreted by odontoblast:: (A) Chitin, (B) Keratin, (C) Collagen, (D) Elastin | Answer is C. None | |
In hyponatremia following renal failure, serum sodium should be maintained at what levels ?: (A) 120 mEq/L, (B) 125 mEq/L, (C) 130 mEq/L, (D) 135 mEq/L | Answer is A. Hyponatremia in CKD population is associated with increased moality, but the effect on renal outcome was unknown.. Hyponatremia (serum sodium <120 mEq/L) was associated with excessive volume and volume depletion, measured as total body water by bioimpedance analysis, in diuretic users, but not in diuretic ... | |
True about VSD are all except –: (A) Left to right shunt, (B) Pansystolic mormor, (C) Reverse spliting of S2, (D) Left atrial hypertrophy | Answer is C. Hemodynamics of VSD
A VSD results in shunting of oxygenated blood from left to right because left ventricle has more pressure than right → Left to right shunt.
Blood flow from left to right ventricle due to high pressure gradient → Pansystolic murmur and systolic thrill.
Because left ventricle starts cont... | |
Rapid change of presbyopic glass is a feature of: (A) Senile cataract, (B) Retinal detatchment, (C) Intumescent cataract, (D) Open angle glaucoma | Answer is D. D i.e. Open angle glaucoma Conditions associated with altered refraction Feature Found in Frequent change of presbyopic glasses Open angle glaucoma Q Second sight/ Myopic Shift/Improvement in near vision Senile immature nuclear cataract Fluctuation of refractory error Diabetic cataract Frequent change of g... | |
Alopecia areata is not associated with which of the folllowing condition?: (A) Exclamation sign, (B) Atopy, (C) Pitting nails, (D) Geographical tongue | Answer is D. Alopecia areata may be associated with atopy, downs syndrome, vitiligo, pernicious anemia, myxedema , diabetes or hypeension in the family. Sho,1-2 mm fractured hairs can frequently be seen at the active margins of alopecia areata. These hairs are described as exclamation mark hairs because these character... | |
Risk of mother to child HIV transmission in pregnant woman at the time of delivery, and after delivery in non breast feeding woman is: (A) 5-10%, (B) 15-30%, (C) 10-15%, (D) More than 50% | Answer is B. HIV transmission in absence of intervention:
MTCT of HIV in developed countries: 20% (15-25%)
MTCT transmission of HIV in developing countries: 30% (25-35%) | |
True about receptor potential is?: (A) Due to difference in permability of receptors for different ions, (B) Is propogated, (C) Refractory period of 15-20 sec, (D) Is a graded change | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Is a graded changeREF: Textbook of Medical Physiology by Khurana page 1032-1033, Physiology - Prep Manual for Undergraduates, 4th Edition by Vijaya D Joshi page 562, Ganongs 22nd ed p. 123-125When a stimulus excites the receptor, it changes the potential across the membrane of the receptors. Th... | |
Condition required for autoclave is?: (A) 121°C temperature for 20 min, (B) 121°C temperature for 15 min, (C) 100°C temperature for 60 min, (D) 100°C temperature for 90 min | Answer is B. Autoclave: Recommended condition- 121–124°C temperature for 15 min at 1.1 bar pressure
Alternate: 134–138°C temperature for 3 min at 2.2 bar pressure
Hot air oven: 160°C temperature for 120 min or 180°C temperature for 30 min | |
An obese, diabetic patient with hypertension who is also a smoker, currently on anti-hypertensive and OHA drugs presents with complains of apnea during night. Polysomnography reveals 5 apneic episodes and 1 hypoapneic episode in one hour. What will be best next line of management is: (E. REPEAT 2007): (A) Nasal CPAP, (... | Answer is D. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. 18th edition, Page 2188Explanation:OSAHS is defined as the coexistence of unexplained excessive daytime sleepiness with at least five obstructed breathing events (apnea or hypopnea) per hour of sleep.EPWORTH SLEEPINESS SCOREHow often are you likely to doze o... | |
Blue sclera is seen in -: (A) Alkaptonuria, (B) Osteogenesis imperfect, (C) Down syndrome, (D) Kawasaki syndrome | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Osteogenesis imperfect * Blue scleral discoloration is caused by thinning or transparency with resultant visualization of the underlying uvea.* Causes of blue sclera are: Osteogenesis imperfecta, Marfan syndrome, Ehler - Danlos syndrome, Pseudoxanthoma elasticum. | |
A 3 year graduate MBBS programme was suggested by which committee?: (A) Sundar Committee, (B) Expert Level Committee on Universal Health Coverage, (C) Srivastava Committee, (D) Krishnan Committee | Answer is B. HLEG Recommendations
High Level Expert Group (HLEG, Planning Commission, GOI) on Universal health Coverage has suggested 3½ year MBBS course for serving rural population
HLEG was developed for XII Five Year Plan
Rural doctors will be called as ‘Community Health Officers’
3½ Degree given: B.Sc. Community H... | |
Quinidine exes action on hea by: (A) Ca+ Channel blocker, (B) Kt Channel blocker, (C) Na+ Channel opener, (D) Cl+ Channel opener | Answer is B. Refer katzung 11e p 237 * Mechanism of action Like all other class I antiarrhythmic agents, quinidine primarily works by blocking the fast inward sodium current (INa). ... The effect of blocking the fast inward sodium current causes the phase 0 depolarization of the cardiac action potential to decrease (de... | |
In the beginning of resuscitation effos, 0.5 mg of epinephrine is administered subcutaneously. Which adrenergic receptors, in which tissues, are responsible for the beneficial effect of epinephrine in this patient?: (A) Alpha-1 receptors in vascular smooth muscle, alpha-2 receptors in the hea, and beta-1 receptors in b... | Answer is C. Epinephrine is a non selective adrenergic agonist and a valuable resuscitative drug because of its effects at multiple adrenergic receptor subtypes. In the treatment of anaphylaxis, epinephrine increases myocardial contractility, accelerates hea rate, causes constriction of vascular smooth muscle, and caus... | |
Residul lung volume increased in: (A) Obesity, (B) Emphysema, (C) Bacterial pneumonia, (D) Idiopatic pulmonary fibrosis | Answer is B. (B) Emphysema# FACTORS AFFECTING FRC> FRC Increases with: Increased height Erect position (30% more than in supine) Decreased lung recoil (E.g. emphysema)> FRC Decreases with: Obesity, Muscle Paralysis (especially in supine) Restrictive lung disease (E.g. Fibrosis, Pregnancy) Anaesthesia FRC does not chang... | |
What is the most probable diagnosis for on the x-ray of a 20 year old female who came with knee swelling: (A) Osteosarcoma, (B) Osteoclastoma, (C) Osteochondroma, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Sunburst appearance of Osteosarcoma Sunburst appearance is a type of periosteal reaction giving the appearance of a sunburst secondary to an aggressive The sunburst appearance occurs when the lesion grows too fast and the periosteum does not have enough time to lay down a new layer and instead the It is fr... | |
Which among the following is true about atrial myxoma?: (A) Most common in right atrium, (B) Rarely reoccurs after excision, (C) Distant metastases are seen, (D) More common in males | Answer is D. Atrial myxomas are the most common primary hea tumors, and 75-85% occurs in the left atrial cavity. The most common site of attachment is at the border of the fossa ovalis in the left atrium. Although atrial myxomas are typically benign, local recurrence due to inadequate resection or malignant change has ... | |
For the following statements, select whether it is applicable to any or all of the below medications.Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme I (ACE I): (A) hydralazine, (B) enalapril, (C) spironolactone, (D) metoprolol | Answer is B. Enalapril may exert its effect by inhibiting formation of angiotensin II. This lowers systemic vascular resistance. In addition, ACE inhibitors have a natriuretic effect by inhibition of aldosterone secretion. They have been shown to improve mortality and decrease hospitalization in patients with CHF. | |
Lesion of optic tract causes?: (A) Binasal hemianopia, (B) Bitemporal hemianopia, (C) Homonymous superior quadrantonopia, (D) Homonymous hemianopia | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Homonymous hemianopiaRef.: Harrison's 19th ed. /198-199* Unilateral optic nerve lesion: Unilateral blindness* Binasal hemianopia: Bitemporal optic chiasma lesion. Two different lesions compressing the chiasma from the lateral parts.* Bitemporal hemianopia: Binasal retinal damaged optic chiasmal le... | |
Who coined term anaesthesia: (A) Moon, (B) Holmes, (C) Morgan, (D) Priestly | Answer is B. Oliver Wendell Holmes coined the term anesthesia. In 1846, Holmes coined the word anesthesia. In a letter to dentist William T. G. Moon, the first practitioner to publicly demonstrate the use of ether during surgery, he wrote: "Everybody wants to have a hand in a great discovery. All I will do is to give a... | |
A 55-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain. Upper GI endoscopy and gastric biopsy reveal a neoplastic, lymphocytic infiltrate invading glandular tissue. Giemsa staining is positive for Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Burkitt lymphoma, (B) Marginal zone lymph... | Answer is B. Diagnosis: Marginal zone lymphoma, MALT lymphoma Marginal Zone Lymphoma is an indolent tumor develop due to chronic B cell stimulation either by H.pylori or Auto immune disorders Translocation (11:18) involved | |
Maintenance of high urinary pH is important during methotrexate treatment because:: (A) Bladder irritation is reduced, (B) It decreases renal tubular secretion of methotrexate, (C) Leucovorin toxicity is increased in a dehydrated patient, (D) Methotrexate is a weak acid | Answer is D. Methotrexate is a weak acid and is reabsorbed in acidic urinary pH. Higher plasma concentration may result in toxicity. Therefore, to decrease the reabsorption through renal tubules, high urinary pH must be maintained. | |
Which of the following statement is true regarding Atazanavir:-: (A) Effective against only HIV-1, (B) Resistance is due to mutation in codon 50 isoleucine to valine substitution, (C) Decrease cholesterol and triglyceride levels, (D) Combination with ritonavir do not have any advantage | Answer is B. Atazanavir is effective against both against HIV 1 and HIV 2 but NNI are effective only against HIV 1. They do not decrease cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Combination with ritonavir have an advantage due to the phenomenon of Ritonavir boosting. The resistance is due to mutation in codon 50 isoleucine... | |
Cerebrosides consist mostly of this: (A) Glucose, (B) Galactose, (C) Fructose, (D) Arabinose | Answer is B. Both glucocerebrosides and galacto cerebrosides are present however galactocerebrosides are most commonly seen on neural cells and are abundant | |
Bence Jone's Protein is: March 2005: (A) Monoclonal heavy chains, (B) Monoclonal light chains, (C) Both of above, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. B: Monoclonal light chains A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein found in the blood or urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa. The proteins are immunoglobulin light chains (paraproteins) and are produced by neoplastic plasma cells. They can be kappa (most of the time) or lambda. ... | |
Risk factors for gonococcal infection is all except: (A) Age > 25 year, (B) Prior or current STDs, (C) New or multiple sexual partners, (D) Lack of barrier modes of protection | Answer is A. Age < 24 years is a risk factor. | |
If a 5–year-old child suddenly develops stridor, which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis –: (A) Laryngomalacia, (B) Acute laryngo–tracheobronchitis, (C) Foreign body aspiration, (D) Acute epiglottitis | Answer is C. None | |
The ability of a screening test to detect "true positives" is known as -: (A) Sensitivity, (B) Specificity, (C) Positive predictive value, (D) Negative predictive value | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following best defines the "Saccade"-: (A) Voluntary slow eye movements, (B) Involuntary slow eye movement, (C) Abrupt, involuntary slow eye movements, (D) Abrupt, involuntary rapid eye movements | Answer is D. Saccades are sudden, jerky conjugate eye movements that occur as the gaze shifts from one object to another. Supranuclear eye movement systems include : Saccadic system Smooth pursuit system Vergence system Vestibular system Optokinetic sysytem Position maintenance system Ref;A.K.Khurana;6th edition; Page ... | |
Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by-: (A) Trachoma, (B) Pneumococcus, (C) Candida, (D) Neisseria | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trachoma Adult inclusion conjunctivitiso It is a type offollicular conjunctivitis caused by serotypes D to K of chlamydia trachomatis-in sexually active young adults.o The primary source of infection is urethritis in males and cervicitis in females.o Transmission may occur either through ... | |
A 25 years old male smoker presents with high grade fever with chills and severe right sided pleuritic chest pain and cough with expectoration physical examination of the patient is likely to show: (A) Increased percussion sounds, (B) Decreased vocal fremitus, (C) Bronchial breath sounds, (D) Decreased vocal resonance | Answer is C. This is the case of pneumonia shows signs of consolidation lung :
Reduced thoracic movements.
Increased vocal fremitus and vocal resonance.
Dull note on percussion.
Bronchial breath sounds. | |
All except one is continued prior to elective caesarean section in an hypertensive diabetic term gestation, obese female who is a case of chronic aorto iliac obstruction.: (A) Labetalol, (B) Statins, (C) Magnesium sulphate, (D) Heparin | Answer is D. Heparin is stopped 6 hours priorly. Rest all drugs need to be continued till day of surgery. | |
Triple bonds are found between which base pairs: (A) A–T, (B) C–G, (C) A–G, (D) C–T | Answer is B. Adenine is always paired with thymine by the formation of two hydrogen bonds. Guanine is always paired with cytosine by the formation of three hydrogen bonds.
Thus, the C-G bonds are more resistant to denaturation. | |
Which is not an effect of atropine?: (A) Rise of body temperature, (B) Decreased salivary secretion, (C) Bradycardia, (D) Increased A-V conduction | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) BradycardiaREF: KDT 4th Ed p. 94EFFECTS OF ATROPINE:CNS* Stimulates medullary , vasomotor and respiratory center* Depresses vestibular excitation , hence anti motion sickness* Suppresses cholinergic activity in basal ganglia, hence decreases tremor.* High doses may cause cortical excitation , r... |
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