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Ebstein anomaly is known teratogenic effect due to this drug:: (A) Clozapine, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Lithium, (D) Lamotrogine | Answer is C. (Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 527)* Lithium is DOC in manic disorder.* DOC for prophylaxis of mania: Lithium* DOC for acute attack of mania: Sedative + Atypical antipsychotics* DOC for mania in pregnancy: Atypical antipsychotics* Side effect of lithium (Mn: LITTH)# L: LEUCOCYTOSIS# I: Insipidus diabetes# T: ... | |
Recent nobel prize for -: (A) RNA i, (B) Lipoxin, (C) T beta transcription factor, (D) Mitochondrial DNA | Answer is A. None | |
If a fibrinolytic drug is used for the treatment of acute myocardial infarction, the adverse effect most likely to occur is:: (A) Acute renal failure, (B) Development of antiplatelet antibodies, (C) Encephalitis secondary to liver dysfunction, (D) Hemorrhagic stroke | Answer is D. Bleeding is the most common adverse effect of anticoagulants, antiplatelets and fibrinolytic agents. Bleeding can manifest as hemorrhagic stroke in pts. on fibrinolytics therapy such as- Alteplase, Retaplase, Streptokinase. C/I of Fibrinolytics :- H/O Hemorrhagic Stroke H/O NON Hemorrhagic Stroke (within 1... | |
Most impoant indicator of successful neonatal resuscitation:: (A) Color change, (B) Improved air entry, (C) Increase in hea rate, (D) Bilateral chest movements | Answer is C. Most impoant indicator of successful neonatal resuscitation - Increase in hea rate. | |
In an after coming head the following bone is perforated during decapitation:: (A) Occiput, (B) Parietal, (C) Palate, (D) Frontal | Answer is A. None | |
Courvoiser's law exception: (A) Double impaction, (B) Poal lymphademopathy, (C) Periampullary CA, (D) None | Answer is A. Answer- A. Double impactionCourvoisier's law states that in the presence of an enlarged gall bladder which is nontender and accompanied with jaundice the cause is unlikely to be gallstones. This is because gall stones areformed over alonger period oftime, and this result in a shrunken, fibrotic gall bladde... | |
Which drug is vassopressin V2 receptor selective agonist -: (A) Lypressin, (B) Desmopressin, (C) Terlipressin, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Desmopressin o Lypressin - Agonist on V1 & V2.o Desmopressin - Selective V2 agonisto Terlipressin - Prodrug of vasopressin. | |
About Vi polysaccharide vacine, true is:: (A) Can be given in patients with yellow fever and hepatitis B, (B) Has many contraindications, (C) Has many serious systemic side effects, (D) Has many serious local side effects | Answer is A. Ans. is (a) Can be given in patients with yellow fever and hepatitis B Yellow fever is not a contraindication for VICPS typhoid vaccine. | |
Dental lamina cysts of new born are seen at:: (A) The junction of hard and soft palate, (B) Along the median raphae of hard palate, (C) The alveolar ridges, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. "Bohn's nodules" are seen at the junction of hard and soft palate, whereas "Epstein pearls" are seen along the median raphae of hard palate. A third type known as "Dental lamina cysts of new born" are seen on the alveolar ridges. | |
Anaerobic bacteria commonly found in cervix or vagina?: (A) Lactobacilli, (B) Gardnerella, (C) Mobilincus, (D) Clostridium | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) LactobacilliREF: Shaw 13th ed p. 125"Lactobacillus or Doderlein's bacillus is the most common organism found in vagina" | |
Orally active hormone is:: (A) TSH, (B) Thyroxine, (C) GH, (D) Prolactin | Answer is B. None | |
A 26 yrs old male with restriction of eye movements in all directions &moderate ptosis but with no diplopia or squint. Diagnosis is: (A) Thyroid ophthaltnopathy, (B) Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, (C) Myasthenia gravis, (D) Multiple cranial nerve palsies | Answer is B. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia Bilateral ptosis without diplopia is seen in chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia (CPEO). Ptosis & diplopia are presenting symptoms in approx 50% of patients of Myasthenia gravis, & subsequently develop in 96% of patient during the course of the disorder... | |
All are markers of Mantle cell lymphoma except -: (A) CD5, (B) CD 19, (C) CD 20, (D) CD 23 | Answer is D. None | |
Convulsions in a child with dehydration and vomiting can only be due to-: (A) Decreased serum sodium, (B) Decreased serum magnesium, (C) Decreased serum potassium, (D) Decreased serum potassium | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Decreased serum sodium | |
Which among the following is highest risk factor for molar pregnancy: (A) Prior C-section, (B) Hypertension in pregnancy, (C) Advanced age, (D) Diabetes in pregnancy | Answer is C. Strongest risk factors for molar pregnancy are age and prior history of molar pregnancy. | |
Which of the following is not a difference between Centric relation and Centric occlusion?: (A) Centric relation is a bone to bone relationship. Centric occlusion is the relationship of upper and lower teeth to each other., (B) Centric relation is for denture occlusion, whereas centric occlusion is present in natural d... | Answer is D. Centric relation is present behind centric occlusion in natural dentition. | |
Optimal front-line treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal includes:: (A) Abdominal perineal resection., (B) Low anterior resection when technically feasible., (C) Radiation therapy., (D) Combined radiation and chemotherapy. | Answer is D. Combination radiation therapy and chemotherapy is now the treatment of choice for squamous cell carcinoma of the anus. The area of the primary lesion is biopsied, and the patient begins radiotherapy to the pelvis. If inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, they are also biopsied, usually by fine needle aspirati... | |
NOT a feature of Holt Oram Syndrome is: (A) Absent Radius, (B) Atrial septal defect, (C) Thrombocytopenia, (D) Autosomal dominant inheritance | Answer is C. Holt Oram Syndrome Patient have normal blood picture. | |
Patient presents to casualty with sudden onset LMN facial palsy on right side and inability to abduct right eye. There is left sided hemiparesis. Whats your diagnosis?: (A) Fovilles syndrome, (B) Milard gubler syndrome, (C) Ramsay hunt syndrome, (D) Tolosa hunt syndrome | Answer is B. Triad of ipsilateral 6th nerve palsy, ipsilateral 7th nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis constitutes milard gubler syndrome. | |
Burst EEG pattern is seen in?: (A) Herpes simplex encephalitis, (B) Absent seizures, (C) Myoclonic epilepsy, (D) SSPE | Answer is B. Burst suppression is an electroencephalography (EEG) pattern that is characterized by periods of high-voltage electrical activity alternating with periods of no activity in the brain. The pattern is found in patients with inactivated brain states, such as from general anesthesia, coma, or hypothermia EEG v... | |
The coronal pulp has: (A) Two surfaces, (B) Five surfaces, (C) Six surfaces, (D) Four surfaces | Answer is C. None | |
The most common site of osteoma is( REPEAT QUESTION): (A) Maxillary sinus, (B) Ethmoidal sinus, (C) Frontal sinus, (D) Sphenoid sinus | Answer is C. Most osteomas are asymptomatic and are found incidentally when imaging the sinuses either for sinonasal symptoms or for unrelated complaints. Osteomas are frequently seen elsewhere in the head and neck paicularly the mandible and outer table of the skull vault. There is a paicular frequency distribution wi... | |
Investigation of choice in cholestasis of pregnancy ?: (A) Serum bilirubin levels, (B) Serum bile acids levels, (C) Serum alkaline phosphatase levels, (D) Serum glutathiones transferase levels | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Serum bile acid levels Obstetric cholestasis (also known as intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy or cholestasis of pregnancy) is a liver disease unique to pregnancy which presents with pruritus.Clinical featuresObstetric cholestasis most commonly presents in the third trimester (80% deve... | |
Half-life of basiliximab is:-: (A) 7 days, (B) 7 hours, (C) 15 days, (D) 24 hours | Answer is A. Half life of basiliximab is 7 days.Basiliximab* This is anti CD-25 antibody with higher affinity for the IL-2 receptor, but shoer plasma t 1/2 (1 week).* It is used to prevent renal and other transplant rejection reaction.* It can cause anaphylactic reactions and promote oppounistic infection. | |
Poiseuille’s hagen lawis: (A) F = (PA–PB) × 3.14 × r4/8nl, (B) F = (PA+PB) × 3.14 × r4/8nl, (C) F = (PA/PB) × 3.14 × r4/8nl, (D) F = (PA × PB) × 3.14 × r4/8nl | Answer is A. Poiseuille-Hagen Formula
The relation between the flow in a long narrow tube, the viscosity of the fluid, and the radius of the tube is expressed mathematically in the Poiseuille-Hagen formula: | |
A patient presented with a 3.5-cm size lymph node enlargement, which was hard and present in the submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. Which of the following investigations should follow?: (A) Chest X-ray, (B) Triple endoscopy, (C) Supravital oral mucosa staining, (D) Laryngos... | Answer is B. Suspected lymph node may have metastases from the upper aerodigestive tract. Since no lesion is found on physical examination of head and neck, triple endoscopy would be justified next. Supravital staining helps in selecting the site of biopsy in a lesion. As no lesion is discovered, it will not be very us... | |
Hour glass deformity is seen in -: (A) Carcinoma stomach, (B) Peptic ulcer, (C) Duodenal atresia, (D) CHPS | Answer is B. Hour glass stomach is caused due to cicatracia contraction of a saddle shaped ulcer at the lesser curvature. | |
Most common detion used in social medicine is-: (A) Mean, (B) Range, (C) Variance, (D) Standard detion | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Standard detion "Standard detion is most common and generally most appropriate measure of dispersion (variation)". | |
Which of the following is an investigation of choice to diagnose gall stones?: (A) X ray abdomen, (B) Ultrasound abdomen, (C) ERCP, (D) MRCP | Answer is B. Ans. B. Ultrasound abdomenCholelithiasis involves the presence of gallstones which are concretions that form in the biliary tract, usually in the gallbladder. Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of one or more gallstones in the common bile duct (CBD) Patients with uncomplicated cholelithiasis or sim... | |
The Most common complication in varicose vein surgery is: (A) Ecchymosis, (B) Deep vein thrombosis, (C) Recurrence of varicosity, (D) Venous ulcer | Answer is A. (A) Ecchymosis # Complications of varicose vein surgery: Bruising and discomfort are common following removal of varices, especially where the veins were of very large diameter. However, the pain usually requires only mild analgesics. | |
Females with orgasmic difficulties are advised following exercises to strengthen pubococcygealmuscles-: (A) Kegel's exercises, (B) Jacobson's stent on top, (C) Keeping muscle up exercises, (D) Johnsons exercises | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kegel's exercises o Kegels exercises are used to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles mainly pubococcygeal.o These exercises can thus be used to treat orgasmic difficulties and prevent genital prolapse. | |
A 3 year old male presents with a skin rash and epistaxis. He has had several, severe sinopulmonary infections. A careful history reveals that his maternal uncle died of bleeding complications following an emergency cholecystectomy. What additional findings are likely in this case?: (A) A CD4/CD8 ratio of < 1.5:1, (B) ... | Answer is D. This clinical scenario is typical for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. This is a sex-linked recessive disorder presenting with the triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent sinopulmonary infections. Serum IgM levels are low but IgG, IgA, and IgE levels are increased. Patients have a defective response to p... | |
Age for regular mammography is: (A) 20, (B) 30, (C) 40, (D) 50 | Answer is C. Screening mammography: For screening purpose it is done after 40 years. Early screening is indicated when there is family history of carcinoma breast or histological risk factor. Mammography before 35 years of age is usually not done unless there is a suspicious lump or a strong family history. Screening i... | |
The spine of the scapula can be palpated at which of the following level of veebrae?: (A) T 1, (B) T 3, (C) T 5, (D) T 7 | Answer is B. Spine of the scapula lies at the level of T3 veebrae. Scapular spine is seen on the posterior surface of the scapula and it expands into a terminal process called acromion process. The scapulae overlie the posterior poion of the thoracic wall, and cover the upper seven ribs. The superior angle of scapula c... | |
NAD acts as a cofactor for: (A) Citrate synthetase, (B) Isocitrate dehyrogenase, (C) a ketoglutarate dehyrogenase, (D) Malate dehydrogenase | Answer is B. In the TCA cycle,Step 3. In the third step, isocitrate is oxidized and releases a molecule of carbon dioxide, leaving behind a five-carbon molecule--a-ketoglutarate. During this step, \text{NAD}^+NAD + N, A, D, sta superscript, plus, end superscript is reduced to form \text{NADH}NADHN, A, D, H. The enzyme ... | |
Criteria for a pancreas donor include:: (A) No history of diabetes, (B) No liver donation, (C) No replaced hepatic aery vessels arising from the superior mesenteric aery (SMA), (D) No previous splenectomy | Answer is A. - Combined liver-pancreas procurement should be routine, even if the right hepatic aery arises from the superior mesenteric aery. - In this situation, since the transplanted liver is the life-saving organ, the proximal superior mesenteric aery should remain with the liver and the distal superior mesenteric... | |
Indication for intramuscular iron therapy is: (A) Oral desforaxamine, (B) Oral deferiprone, (C) Intramuscular EDTA, (D) Oral succimer | Answer is B. Refer KDT 6/e p 868 Drug of choice for acute iron poisoning is desferroxamine, however it has to be admistered parentarally It is not effective by oral route In beta thalassemia major iron excess can result due to repeated blood transfusions and massive Hemolysis Cheating agent has to be admistered for lon... | |
Beta 2 selective agonist are often effective in: (A) Angina due to cornary insufficiency, (B) Asthama, (C) Delayed labour, (D) All the above | Answer is B. Ref-KDT 6/e p127 Beta 2 agonist are useful in premature uterine contraction to delay labour and not for delayed labour. Beta blockers are used in the treatment of the angina | |
Which of the following refers to the occurrence of hypehyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter?: (A) Jod-Basedow effect, (B) Wolff-Chaikoff effect, (C) Thyrotoxicosis Factitia, (D) De Quervain's Thyroiditis | Answer is A. Jod Basedow Effect: Refers to induction of thyrotoxicosis by iodine in the form of dietary supplements or medication, especially especially in patients who are relatively iodide deficient. Treatment includes combination of antithyroid drugs and perchlorate paicularly in amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis. R... | |
Seoli cells play a key role in which of the following process: (A) Spermiogenesis, (B) Testosterone secretion, (C) Secretion of seminal fluid, (D) Production of germ cells | Answer is A. Seoli cells are elongated cells in the seminiferous tubules that ensheathe spermatogenic cells, providing a microenvironment that suppos spermiogenesis and spermatocytogenesis; they secrete androgen-binding protein and establish the blood-testis barrier by forming tight junctions with adjacent Seoli cells.... | |
According to WHO, crede's method is applied for prophylactic use in ophthalmia neonatorum, is: (A) Silver nitrate solution, (B) Erythromycin ointment, (C) Tetracycline ointment, (D) Penicilline injection | Answer is A. (Silver nitrate solution): Ref: 164-65-P, 71-KHOPHTHALMIA - NEONATORUM: any discharge or even watering from the eyes in the first week of life should arouse suspion of ophthalmia neonatorum* Use of either 1% tetracycline ointment or 0.5% erythromycin ointment or 1% silver nitrate solution (Crede's method) ... | |
A 6-week pregnant lady is diagnosed with sputum positive TB. Best management is -: (A) Wait for 2nd trimester to start ATT, (B) Start Category I ATT in first trimester, (C) Start Category II ATT in first trimester, (D) Start Category III ATT in second trimester | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Start Category I ATT in first trimester * Tuberculosis during pregnancy should be diagnosed promptly and as early as possible. Late diagnosis and care is associated with 4-fold increase in obstetric morbidity and 9-fold increase in preterm labor.* Poor nutritional states, hypoproteinemia,... | |
Commonest cause of acute intestinal obstruction is:: (A) Adhesions, (B) Volvulus, (C) Inguinal hernias, (D) Internal hernias | Answer is A. SMALL BOWEL OBSTRUCTION - Adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the MC cause of SBO. - Causes: Adhesions (60%) > Malignant tumors (20%) >Hernia (10%) > Crohn's disease (5%)Q. - Primary colonic cancers (paicularly those arising from the cecum and ascending colon) may present as a SBO. | |
The criteria for validity of a screening test are -: (A) Accuracy, (B) Predictability, (C) Sensitivity & Specificity, (D) Cost effectiveness | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Predictability Screening test to be applied o The screening test to be applied should fulfil the following impoant criteria before it is considered suitable for screening : ? 1. Acceptability The test should be acceptable to the people at whom it is aimed. In general painful or embarrasin... | |
Aery supplying major pa of superolateral surface of brain is: (A) Middle cerebral aery, (B) Anterior cerebral aery, (C) Posterior cerebral aery, (D) Veebral aery | Answer is A. The middle cerebral aery is the largest terminal branch of the internal carotid aery and it runs laterally in the lateral cerebral sulcus of the brain.It supplies the entire lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere except the narrow strip along the superomedial border extending from the frontal pole to t... | |
Double apical impulse is seen in?: (A) HOCM, (B) Cardiac tamponade, (C) Aortic regurgitation, (D) Pulmonary hypertension | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) HOCMREF: Harrison's 17th ed chapter 227"Most HOCM patients demonstrate a double or triple apical precordial impulse and a fourth heart sound. Those with intraventricular pressure gradients may have a rapidly rising arterial pulse. The hallmark of HOCM is a systolic murmur, which is typically ha... | |
Tocilizumab used against Rheumatoid arthritis is a monoclonal antibody against :: (A) Interleukin-6, (B) Interleukin-6 receptor, (C) Interleukin-5, (D) Interleukin-5 receptor | Answer is A. Monoclonal antibody against IL-6 : Tocilizumab
Monoclonal antibody against IL-6 receptor : Sarilumab
Both are approved for Rheumatoid arthritis. | |
One of the characteristic bedside features of Korsakoff's psychosis is-: (A) Astereogenesis, (B) Apraxia, (C) Confabulation, (D) Hallucination | Answer is C. None | |
Sequence which is responsible for retaining proteins in membrane: (A) Translocon, (B) Sec 61 complex, (C) Docking protein, (D) Halt signal | Answer is D. D i.e. Halt signal | |
Most important amino-acid substrate for gluconeogenesis -: (A) Leucine, (B) Lysine, (C) Histidine, (D) Alanine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alanine o The major noncarbohydrate precursors (substrate) for gluconeogenesis are lactate, pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids, propionate and intermediates of the citric acid cycle. All aminoacids, exceptfor leucine and lysine, are substrate for gluconeogenesis. Alanine is the mo... | |
Investigation of choice in appendicitis in adults: (A) CT Scan, (B) USG, (C) Serum ESR, (D) MRI Abdomen | Answer is A. Answer- A. CT Scan | |
Lack of Leucocyte adhesion molecules (LAM) is associated with -: (A) Delayed closure of umblical cord, (B) Normal chemotaxis, (C) Compliment opsinization, (D) Neutropenia | Answer is A. None | |
A 66 year old female is posted for subtotal gastrectomy for adenocarcinoma. The important procedure related complication:: (A) Pneumothorax, (B) Constipation, (C) Hemolytic anemia, (D) Bilious vomiting | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Bilious vomitingRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Page 1212Complications of Gastric Surgeries:* Dumping syndrome* Afferent loop syndrome* Efferent loop syndrome* Malabsorption syndrome (Anemia, hypocalcemia, B12 deficiency)* Alkaline reflux gastritis* Bile reflux gastritis* Gastric atony* Duodenal stump... | |
Treatment of TOF ?: (A) Modified BT shunt, (B) Fontan procedure, (C) Glenn shunt, (D) Rastelli operation | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Modified BT shunt | |
All of the following are cause of blood in stools in children except -: (A) Meckels diveiculum, (B) Carcinoma, (C) Intussusception, (D) Juvenile polyp | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carcinoma | |
Seoli cells secrete ?: (A) Testosterone, (B) Androgen, (C) FSH, (D) Inhibin | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., InhibinLeydig cells have receptors for LH and secrete androgens, i.e. Testosterone, dihydrotestosterone (DHT), androstenedione, and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).Seoli cells have receptors for FSH and secrete ABP, inhibin and MIS. seoli cells also have receptor for testosterone. | |
The term 'psychoanalysis' is associated with: March 2009: (A) John Broadus Watson, (B) Carl Gustav Jung, (C) Sigmond Freud, (D) Wilhelm Reich | Answer is C. Ans. C: Sigmond Freud Psychoanalysis/Freudian psychology is a body of ideas developed by Austrian physician Sigmund Freud and continued by others. It is primarily devoted to the study of human psychological functioning and behavior, although it can also be applied to societies. Psychoanalysis has three app... | |
All the following can occur in a neonate for heat production except –: (A) Shivering, (B) Breakdown of brownfat with adrenaline secretion, (C) Universal flexion like a fetus, (D) Cutaneous vasoconstriction | Answer is A. "Always remember that newborn cannot produce heat by shivering."
Thermogenesis in Newborn
A newborn is more prone to develop hypothermia because of a large surface area per unit of body weight.
A low birth weight baby has decreased thermal insulation due to reduced subcutaneous and brown fat. | |
Muscle not included in Anterior compartment of thigh: (A) lliacus, (B) Sartorius, (C) Gracilis, (D) Rectus femoris | Answer is C. Gracilis is a muscle of Medial compartment | |
Ziemann's dots in RBC are seen in infection with: (A) Pl vivax, (B) Pl falciparum, (C) Pl malaria, (D) Pl ovale | Answer is C. Ziemann dots in RBC-PL Malaria Schaffner dots in RBC- Pl vivax Accola rings-falciparum Ref: D.R. Arora. Medical parasitology 4th ed pg 108 | |
Which of the following is not an example of Phase II drug metabolic reaction?: (A) Acetylation, (B) Sulfation, (C) Decyclization, (D) Methylation | Answer is C. phase 1 reactions- oxidation, reduction, cyclization, decyclization and hydrolysis Phase II reactions: 1. Glucuronidation 2. Acetylation 3. Glutathione conjugation 4. Glycine conjugation 5. Sulfation 6. Methylation 7. Water conjugation Reference: Katzung Pharmacology; 13th edition; Chapter 4; Drug Biotrans... | |
Which of the following is not true about tabes Dorsalis -: (A) Seen in Neurosyphiilis, (B) Deep tendon reflexes are brisk, (C) Loss of vibration sense, (D) Acute abdominal pain and visceral symptoms | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Deep tendon reflexes are brisk Tabes dorsaliso Usually develops 15 - 20 years after syphilis infectiono Major symptoms are- lightning pain, ataxia, urinary' incontinenceLightning paino Lightning or lancinating pain are sharp stabbing pain and brief like a flash of lightning.o More common ... | |
Necrotising lymphadenitis is seen with: (A) Kimura disease, (B) Kikuchi disease, (C) Castle Man disease, (D) Hodgkin's lymphoma | Answer is B. None | |
'Scalloping' of the edge of sigmoid colon on barium enema seen in:: (A) Diveiculosis, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) Carcinoma colon, (D) Pneumatosis intestinalis | Answer is D. Ans. Pneumatosis intestinalis | |
The cutoff point of serum estrogen level for the diagnosis of ovarian failure:: (A) 10 pg/ml, (B) 20 pg/ml, (C) 30 pg/ml, (D) 40 pg/ml | Answer is B. Diagnosis of menopause is from classical symptom of hot flush (50%) confirmed by elevated FSH levels to more than 100 mlU/ml and serum estradiol < 20 pg/ml. | |
Post term pregnancy is the pregnancy which continues beyond: September 2006: (A) 274 days, (B) 284 days, (C) 294 days, (D) 304 days | Answer is C. Ans. C: 294 days The normal duration of pregnancy is approximately 37 to 42 weeks, with the estimated due date at 40 weeks or 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period. A postterm pregnancy/prolonged pregnancy/post maturity is one that has extended beyond 2 weeks of the expected date of deli... | |
A 45-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with breathing problems. During physical examination the patient shows signs of airway obstruction. A CT scan examination reveals a nasal polyp obstructing the airway. Drainage from which of the following structures is also obstructed?: (A) Sphenoid sinus, (B) Maxillary sin... | Answer is B. (b) Source: GAS 797, 879, 1018, 1020, 1022; GA 487, 518, 525 The nasal polyp also involved the maxillary sinus, located immediately laterally to the nasal cavity. The sphenoid sinus, located posterosuperiorly to the nasopharynx, is unlikely to be affected by a nasal polyp. The ethmoidal sinuses, located me... | |
Gene associated with autosomal dominant breast cancer?: (A) PTEN and KAI, (B) BRCA 1 and 2, (C) APC, (D) P53 | Answer is B. Ans. B. BRCA 1. (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 817)The BRCA1 gene has been associated with an increased incidence of breast (and ovarian) cancer and is located on the long arm of chromosome 17 (17q). The gene frequency in the population is approximately 0.0006. It does, however, occur with greater frequenc... | |
A 35-year-old lady presents with vaginal discharge. Smears from vaginal discharge show presence of?: (A) Trichomonas, (B) Entamoeba Histiolytica, (C) Toxoplasma, (D) Giardia | Answer is A. Ans-A Trichomonas VaginalisThe image shows the presence of the anaerobic flagellated protozoan parasite, which causes vaginitis in women with the development of greenish malodorous discharge. | |
A mother brings her 1 year old child to the hospital with complaints that he turns blue while breastfeeding. It resolves when he assumes a squatting position. On examination, a cleft palate is seen. Labs show hypocalcemia. Which of the following abnormalities are expected to be seen in the lymphoid organs?: (A) Decreas... | Answer is A. Decreased size of paracoical areas of lymph nodes is expected as this child has DiGeorge Syndrome. DiGeorge Syndrome: Deficient CMI is seen due to aplasia of thymus and hence deficiency of T cells. This leads to paracoical areas of lymph nodes and periaeriolar sheaths of the spleen being reduced in size. B... | |
Length of Posterior vaginal wall is: (A) Variable, (B) Same as anterior vagina wall, (C) Less than anterior vagina wall, (D) More than anterior vagina wall | Answer is D. The anterior wall of the vagina is about 8 cm long and the posterior wall about 10 cm long. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 393 | |
Austin flint murmur is seen in cases of: (A) Aortic stenosis, (B) Aortic regurgitation, (C) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy, (D) Ventricular stenosis | Answer is B. The Austin Flint murmur of chronic severe AR is a low-pitched mid to late apical diastolic murmur that sometimes can be confused with MS. The Austin Flint murmur typically decreases in intensity after exposure to vasodilators, whereas the murmur of MS may be accompanied by an opening snap and also may incr... | |
HBV replication is indicated by -a) HBV DNAb) DNA polymerasec) HBeAgd) Anti-HBe: (A) abc, (B) bc, (C) acd, (D) bcd | Answer is A. None | |
Pheochromocytoma is associated with -: (A) Vitiligo, (B) Cafe-au-lait spots, (C) Ash leaf amelanotic macusles, (D) Acanthosis Nigricans | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cafe-au-lait spots o About 25-33% of patients with a pheochromocytoma or paraganglioma have an inherited syndrome.# Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) was the first described pheochromocytoma-associated syndrome.o The NF1 gene functions as a tumor suppressor by regulating the Ras signaling ca... | |
Not a feature of brain death: (A) Complete apnea, (B) Absent Pupillary reflex, (C) Absence deep tendon reflex, (D) Hea rate un-responsive to atropine | Answer is D. The structural and functional damage of brain-stem may be diagnosed depending upon the following observations: Dilated fixed pupils, not responding to sharp changes in intensity of incident light. Absence of motor responses within the cranial nerve distribution on painful stimulation. Absence of corneal r... | |
Squamous cell carcinoma on tongue most common site is: (A) Apex, (B) Base, (C) Lateral borders, (D) Dorsum | Answer is C. None | |
False statement regarding adductor pollicis muscle:: (A) Has 2 heads, (B) Supplied by Median nerve, (C) Causes Adduction of thumb, (D) Arterial supply is from Arteria priceps pollicis | Answer is B. Ans: B (Supplied by Median nerve) Ref : Gray s Anatomy, 39th edition, 2008.Page.918Explanation:Adductor pollicis:Has 2 heads, i) Obi ique head ii) Transverse headOblique head: Origin from capitate, bases of 2nd, & 3rd metacarpal bonesTransverse head: Origin from palmar surface of 3rd metacarpal honeInserti... | |
Testing for microdeletion of Y-chromosome is offered for which patient with a normal Karyotype: (A) Sperm concentration of 2 million/ml, (B) Semen volume of 2 ml, (C) Presence of fructose in semen, (D) Normal morphology sperms >4% | Answer is A. A patient with severely decreased sperm counts and a normal Karyotype is offered testing for microdeletion of Y chromosome. | |
True statement regarding insulin:: (A) Produced by alpha cells of pancreas, (B) Two polypeptide chains are bound by disulfide linkages, (C) Shifts potassium outside the cell, (D) S.c insulin tl/2 is 60 mins | Answer is B. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry,28th editionExplanation:InsulinSecreted from pancreatic islet b cellsReleased regulated by blood (glycemic thresholdSynthesized as a single chain : pro-insulinInsulin is formed from proinsulin (removal of the connecting or "C" peptide)Insulin is thus made up of 2 chai... | |
Internal carotid artery is derivative of: (A) First pharyngeal arch, (B) Third pharyngeal arch, (C) Fourth pharyngeal arch, (D) Sixth pharyngeal arch | Answer is B. None | |
Nipple shadows in chest xray characteristically have a sharp: (A) Medial margin, (B) Lateral margin, (C) Superior margin, (D) Inferior margin | Answer is B. Miller et al proposed that solitary pulmonary nodules that reach some or all of the following criteria can be considered nipple shadows :Bilateral and symmetric"fuzzy" margins or radiolucent "halo"Sharp lateral border and poorly defined medial border (may be present only on pa projections 3)Nodules are in ... | |
What changes the conformation of alpha helix in collagen: (A) Methionine, (B) Proline, (C) Alanine, (D) Tyrosine | Answer is B. Ans. (b) ProlineRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 141, 298-99* Proline is the amino acid which changes the conformation of the alpha helix in collagen due to the nature of proline having a cyclical structure. It also forms the ends of the beta sheets in the secondary structures. | |
Disruption or disorganization of biological rhythm is observed in: (A) Schizophrenia, (B) Anxiety, (C) Depression, (D) Mania | Answer is C. Disturbance of biological functions is common with depression, with insomnia (or sometimes increased sleep), loss of appetite and weight (or sometimes hyperphagia and weight gain), and loss of sexual drive. When the disturbance is severe, it is called as melancholia ( somatic syndrome) The somatic syndrome... | |
All of the following are features of musculocutaneous nerve injury at axilla except: (A) Loss of flexion of shoulder, (B) Weak elbow flexion, (C) Weak forearm supination, (D) Loss of sensation on radial side of forearm | Answer is A. Loss of flexion of shoulder* Flexion at shoulder is done by major muscles like pectoralis major, anterior fibres of deltoid, which are intact here. Musculocutaneous nerve (MCN)originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus of nerves. It pierces the coracobrachialis muscle and gives off branches to... | |
Material used in veebroplasty:: (A) Polymethyl methacrylate, (B) IsoMethyl Methacry]ate, (C) Isoethyl Methacrylayte, (D) Silicon | Answer is A. Ans. Polymethyl methacrylate | |
Paramesonephric duct in males remains as: (A) Prostatic utricle, (B) Prostatic uretha, (C) Colliculus seminalis, (D) Ejaculatory duct | Answer is A. The paramesonephric ducts remain rudimentary in the maleThe greater pa of each duct eventually disappearsThe cranial end of each duct persists as a small rounded body attached to the testis(appendix of testis)It has been considered that the prostatic utricle represents the uterovaginal canalRef: Inderbir S... | |
Following injury to the right temple region, patient complaints of pain in the right eye and loss of vision. On examination the eye movements are normal, and pupil normally reacts to light. The diagnosis is: (A) Functional loss of vision, (B) Optic nerve atrophy, (C) Traumatic glaucoma, (D) Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage | Answer is C. (C) Traumatic glaucoma# Traumatic Glaucoma: Atraumatic separation to the iris root and citiary body. Is not an uncommon cause of trauma by blunt object or by penetrating injury to globe.> Symptoms: Pain, blurred vision, history of blunt and penetrating injury.> Sings: Hyphaema, an irregular pupil in acute ... | |
Under EMCP launched in 1997,the criteria for selection of PHCs included the following EXCEPT:: (A) API more than 2 for the last 3 years, (B) Plasmodium falciparum more than 30% of total malaria cases, (C) The area has been reporting deaths, (D) The area has been reporting epidemics | Answer is D. Under EMCP (Enhanced Malaria Control Project) launched in 1997, the criteria for selection of PHCs (Primary Health Center) include API more than 2 for the last 3 years, Plasmodium falciparum more than 30% of total malaria cases and the area has been reporting deaths. | |
All of the following statements about purification of water are true except :: (A) Presence of Clostridial spores indicate recent contamination of water, (B) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 10 ml sample of drinking water, (C) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine., (D) Coliforms may be detected by ... | Answer is A. Spores of Cl. perfrignence (in the absence of coliform group) indicate remote fecal contamination of water.
Total coliform bacteria must not be detectable in any 100 ml of sample.
Sodium thiosulphate is used to dechlorinate tap water for aquariums or treat effluent from waste water treatments prior to rele... | |
In rhinosporidiosis the following is true:: (A) Fungal granuloma, (B) Greyish mass, (C) Surgery is the treatment, (D) Radiotherapy is treatment | Answer is C. (c) Surgery is the treatment(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 4/8/40)Rhinosporidiosis is managed by wide excision and cauterisation of base. Recurrence may occur if sporangium is left behind. Dapsone is given in the postoperative period to decrease the chances of recurrence. | |
A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department with a complaint of severe abdominal pain. CT scan and MRI examinations reveal a tumor of the head of the pancreas involving the uncinate process. Which of the following vessels is most likely to be occluded?: (A) Common hepatic artery, (B) Cystic artery and v... | Answer is C. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta, deep to the neck of the pancreas, then crosses the uncinate process and third part of the duodenum. An uncinate tumor can cause compression of the superior mesenteric artery. The common hepatic artery arises superior to the body of the pancreas and is u... | |
Among various glands, salivary gland secretion is unique in that, its secretions are controlled by: (A) Hormones, (B) Nerves, (C) Chemicals, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. None | |
A 35-year-old man presents with following problem. Most likely diagnosis?: (A) Cellulitis, (B) Deep vein thrombosis, (C) Gout, (D) PAN | Answer is C. Ans. C. Gouta. Acute gout causing swelling, erythema and extreme pain and tenderness of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.b. This is also known as Podagra- Colchicine and indomethacin are the drug of choice in this acute attack. | |
All of the following passthrough lesser sciatic foramen except:: (A) Pudendal nerve, (B) Internal pudendal vessels, (C) Nerve to obturatorinternus, (D) Inferior gluteal vessels | Answer is B. Internal pudendal vessels | |
Extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics -a) Dystoniab) Akathisiac) Seizuresd) Diarrheae) Parkinsonism: (A) abc, (B) bcd, (C) abe, (D) acd | Answer is C. Extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics
Extrapyramidal side effects are the major dose limiting side effects of antipsychotics.
Maximum extrapyramidal side effects are seen with haloperidol.
Least extrapyramidal side effects are seen with clozapine (amongst all antipsychotics).
Among typical antips... | |
Hard exudates are seen in the following except: (A) Hypeensive retinopathy, (B) Diabetic retinopathy, (C) Exudative retinopathy of Coat's, (D) Leukemic retinopathy | Answer is D. Leukaemic retinopathy It is characterised by pale and orange fundus background with dilated and touous veins. In later stages, greyish white lines may be seen along the course of the veins (due to perivascular leukaemic infiltration). Aerioles become pale and narrow. Retinal haemorrhages with typical white... | |
A newborn child presents with inverted foot and the dorsum of the foot cannot touch the anterior tibia. The most probable diagnosis is:: (A) Congenital vertical talus, (B) Arthrogryposis Multiplex, (C) CTEV, (D) Cerebral palsy | Answer is C. Ans. c. CTEV (Ref: Apley's 9/e p291, 591-594; Turek's 6/e p658-661; Campbell's 11/e p1474-1475)The most probable diagnosis in a newborn child with inverted foot in whom the dorsum of the foot cannot touch the anterior tibia is CTEV.Congenital Talipes EquinoVarus (CTEV):Congenital deformity involving one fo... | |
Increase in body temp during ovulation is by -: (A) Estrogen, (B) Progesterone, (C) LH, (D) FSH | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Progesterone o Ovulation mav be inferred bv measuring the basal body temperature throuehout the menstrual cycle.o Temperature recordings are done on a chart and sustained upward shift of temperature (0.3degrees F for three days) infers that progesterone is being synthesized and released i... | |
Replacement of etonogestrel implant(Implanon) is normally done after how many years?: (A) 2 years, (B) 3 years, (C) 4 years, (D) 5 years | Answer is B. Implanon is a single rod subdermal implant with 68 mg of the progestin etonogestrel (ENG), and an ethylene vinyl acetate copolymer cover. It can be used as contraception for 3 years and then replaced at the same site or opposite arm. It is placed in the medial surface of the upper arm 6 to 8 cm from the el... | |
True morbidity in a population can be calculated by: (A) Sentinel Surveillance, (B) Passive Surveillance, (C) Active Surveillance, (D) Monitoring | Answer is C. Active Surveillance Extra measures are taken to collect data and confirm diagnoses to ensure more complete repos for surveys and outbreak investigations. Active surveillance encompasses formal and informal communications. Eg: Malaria surveillance by a health worker Main objectives of Surveillance 1. Provid... |
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