instruction stringlengths 29 1.82k | input stringclasses 1
value | output stringlengths 14 22.5k |
|---|---|---|
A middle aged man came with fever 2 weeks. He also complains of occasional night sweats and has significant weight loss. BAL was done, in which MTB was not detected. Extra pulmonary TB is suspected. Which of the following sites is most likely affected?: (A) Skeletal system, (B) Gastrointestinal tract, (C) Lymph nodes, ... | Answer is C. Lumph nodes are the most common site of extrapulmonary TB. Associated pulmonary disease is present in fewer than 50% of cases. The diagnosis is established by fine needle aspiration biopsy. Cultures are positive in 70- 80%. In descending order of frequency, the extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved i... | |
. A neonate is seen crying with eyes closed and moving all his limbs. What is the Neonatal Behavioral response scale -: (A) Scale 1, (B) Scale 3, (C) Scale 5, (D) Scale 6 | Answer is D. Scale 6 Neonatal behavior assessment scale It is a scale developed by T. Berry Brazelton for evaluating the neurological conditions and behavior of newborn by assessing his or her aleness, motor maturity, irritability and interaction with people. Scores SLEEP STATE I)Deep sleep: - Sleep with regular breath... | |
Ohobaric oxygen is used in: (A) Carbon monoxide poisoning, (B) Ventilation failure, (C) Anaerobic infection, (D) Gangrene | Answer is A. .HYPERBARIC OXYGEN It is administration of oxygen 1 or 2 atmospheres above the atmospheric pressure in a compression chamber. It increases the aerial oxygen saturation so that oxygen perfusion of tissues will be increased.Indications 1. Carbon monoxide poisoning. 2. Tetanus, gas gangrene infections. 3. Bed... | |
All are true about Exenatide except -: (A) Decreases glucagon secretion, (B) It is GLP 1 analogue, (C) Used in type 1 DM, (D) Given subcutaneously | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Used in type I diabetes mellitus Exenatide is a synthetic glucagon-like peptide -1 (GLP-l) analogue. o It acts similar to GLP-1 --> Enhancement of postprandial insulin release, suppression of glucagon release and appetite as well as slowing of gastric emptying. o It is given by subcutaneo... | |
Smallest diameter of pelvis is?: (A) Interspinous diameter, (B) True conjugate, (C) Diagonal conjugate, (D) Inteuberous diameter | Answer is A. Interspinous diameter REF: Clinical Obstetrics 10th edition by S. Gopalan, Sarala & Jain, Vanita Page 4, Manual of Obstetrics, 3e by Shirish N Daftary Page 11-12, Manual Of Obstetrics (2Nd Edition) by Daftary Page 16-18 "Interspinous diameter (transverse diameter of midpelvis = 10 cm or somewhat more) is t... | |
NSAIDS with least anti inflammatory' action -: (A) Indomethacin, (B) Paracetamol, (C) Ketorolac, (D) Ibuprofen | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., ParacetamolParacetamolo It does not possess anti - inflammatory activity because it is ineffective in the presence of peroxides generated at the site of inflammation.o It produces very little GI toxicity and can be administered in patients intolerant to other NSAIDs. | |
H is helpful in all of the following except: (A) Vaginal atrophy, (B) Flushing, (C) Osteoporosis, (D) Coronary hea disease | Answer is D. . | |
Direct fibrinolytics are/is:: (A) R4prourokinase, (B) Alfimiprase, (C) rtpA, (D) All | Answer is B. Ans. b (Alfimeprase). (Ref. Harrison's medicine 16th ed. 690)Alfimeprase is a metalloproteinase that degrades fibrin in a plasmin-independent fashion. It is a novel thrombolytic based on snake venom derived protein. It is a direct fibrinolytic. It is not a plasminogen activator. It is neutralized by alpha-... | |
A 2 day old newborn baby presented with microcephaly, macroglossia, visceromegaly and a blood glucose level of 20 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis: (A) Prader–Willi syndrome, (B) Beck with–Wiedman syndrome, (C) Werner syndrome, (D) Cockayne syndrome | Answer is B. None | |
Drug of choice for sedation of a patient in ICU is: September 2009, March 2013 (a): (A) Diazepam, (B) Lorazepam, (C) Propofol, (D) Alprazolam | Answer is C. Ans. C: Propofol Benzodiazepines, e.g. diazepam, lorazepam and midazolam, are widely used as sedative agents in the ICU. Diazepam use has become less common as newer shoer-acting benzodiazepines have become available. Lorazepam is more potent than midazolam and, because of its low lipid solubility, crosses... | |
Decreased number of melanocytes are seen in: March 2005: (A) Pebaldism, (B) Albinism, (C) Vitiligo, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D: All of the above Melanopenic hypopigmentation is due to decrease in number of melanosomes, which could be due to: Genetic diseases-albinism, piebaldism A utoimmune diseases-vitiligo Post-inflammatory-Discoid lupus erythematosus Piebaldism is due to an absence of melanocytes in affected skin and hai... | |
Dentist act was introduced on: (A) 27th March 1948, (B) 29th March 1948, (C) 27th March 1949, (D) 29th March 1949 | Answer is B. None | |
A 40 year old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Which of the following is the best choice of treatment for him?: (A) Excision of tumor, (B) Radiotherapy, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Carotid aery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Excision of tumour | |
Branchial cyst arises due to-: (A) Failure of obliteration of second branchial cleft, (B) Persistance of urachus, (C) Thymus, (D) Thyroglossal tract | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Failure of obliteration of second branchial cleft Brachial Cyst* A branchial cleft cyst is a congenital epithelial cyst that arises on the lateral part of the neck usually due to failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic development. Less commonly, the cysts can d... | |
Most common pulmonary manifestation of SLE:: (A) Shrinking Lung, (B) Pleuritis, (C) Intra alveolar hemorrhage., (D) Interstitial inflammation | Answer is B. Ans. (b) PleuritisRef: Harrisons Principle of Internal Medicine 20th Ed; Page No- 2520Most Common Complication in SLE* Cutaneous Manifestations:# The most common acute SLE rash: Butterfly" rash# Most common chronic dermatitis in lupus: Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)* Vascular Occlusions: Myocardial infa... | |
Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of:: (A) P. falciparum, (B) P. vivax, (C) Pneumococcus, (D) Salmonella | Answer is A. Ans. a. P. falciparum (Ref: Robbins 9/e p390, 8/e p387)Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is protected from infection of P. falciparum."People who are heterozygous for the sickle cell trait (HbS) become infected with P. falciparum, but they are less likely to die from infectionQ. The HbS trait ca... | |
Some micro organisms produce a diffuse spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of: (A) Coagulase, (B) Peroxidase, (C) Bradykinin, (D) Hyaluronidase | Answer is D. None | |
Johne's bacillus is:: (A) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, (B) M. Paratuberculosis, (C) H. Acgipticus, (D) Micrococcus | Answer is B. M. Paratuberculosis | |
A 30 year ols woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be -: (A) Craniopharyngioma, (B) Prolactinoma, (C) Meningioma, (D) Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage | Answer is B. prolactinoma stimulate pituitary causing excessive milk secretion and it also inhibit GnRH causing decreased FSH &LH level causing secondary amenorrhea (Harrison 17 pg 2206) | |
Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:: (A) Thyrotoxicosis, (B) Vit. D intoxication, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) Furosemide | Answer is D. Answer is D (Furosemide): Thiazide diuretics cause hypercalcemia while loop diuretics (furosemide) cause hypocalcemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is characteristically associated with hypocalcemia and not hypercalcemia. | |
All of the following are true regarding chronic active hepatitis, except:: (A) Common in females, (B) Progression to cirrhosis is not seen, (C) Remission with steroids, (D) May associate with autoimmune disease | Answer is B. Chronic hepatitis is defined as a chronic inflammatory reaction of the liver of more than 3-6 months duration, demonstrated by persistently abnormal serum aminotransferase levels and characteristic histologic findings. The causes of chronic hepatitis include. HBV, HCV and HDV autoimmune hepatitis, chronic ... | |
HLA is present on -: (A) Sho term of chromosomes 3, (B) Sho arm of chromosomes 6, (C) Long arm of chromosomes 3, (D) Long arm of chromosomes 6 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sho arm of chromosomes 6 o HLA complex of genes is located on the sho arm of chromosome 6. | |
Hemochromatosis affect the following organs: (A) Heart, (B) Pancreas, (C) Skin, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16,hed, p. 2301 | |
SSRI is first-line treatment for: (A) OCD, (B) Panic disorder, (C) Social phobia, (D) Post traumatic stress disorder | Answer is C. In social phobia, among the antidepressants, SSRIs are currently drugs of choice, with paroxetine being the most widely used drug. Other SSRIs, such as fluoxetine and seraline are also equally effective. Fluoxetine has the advantage of a longer half-life. Other antidepressants such as imipramine (TCA) and ... | |
The most common site of primary osteoarthrosis is -: (A) Hip joint, (B) Knee joint, (C) Ankle joint, (D) Shoulder joint | Answer is B. In general, weight bearing lower limb joints are affected more commonly than upper limb joints.
However, No textbook has mentioned which is the commonest joint : knee or hip.
According to me it is knee because of following facts :-
I have seen hardly one or two cases of primary OA of hip; while, I have s... | |
Anemia of chronic renal failure -a) Normocytic normochromic anaemiab) Erythropoietin improves the symptomsc) Dialysis causes severe anemiad) Anemia is proportional to the kidney disease: (A) acd, (B) bcd, (C) abd, (D) ab | Answer is C. None | |
The classical example of muscular violence is: (A) of fibula, (B) of patella, (C) of clavicle, (D) all of the these | Answer is B. B i.e. of patella | |
Which of the following sonographic finding suggests development of preeclampsia: (A) Increased volume of chorionic villi., (B) Extensive remodelling of spiral arterioles., (C) Increased invasion of extravillous trophoblastic tissue., (D) None of the above. | Answer is A. Superabundance of chorionicvilli is implicated in etiopathogenesis of preeclampsia. | |
Copper containing enzyme is: (A) Catalase, (B) Cytochrome oxidase, (C) LDH, (D) None | Answer is B. None | |
Perl's stain or prussion blue test is for:: (A) Bilirubin, (B) Calcium, (C) Hemosiderin, (D) Glycogen | Answer is C. Perls' stain (Prussian-Blue Reaction) is to demonstrate Ferric salts in tissues. These are seen as iron granules in bone marrow macrophages, erythroblasts (Sideroblasts) and erythrocytes (Siderocytes) in blood films and haemosiderin in spun urine. | |
Secondary hemorrhage is after how many days of tonsillectomy: (A) Within 6 hrs of operation, (B) Within 24 hrs of operation, (C) Within 3 weeks of operation, (D) Within 3 months of operation | Answer is C. Secondary haemorrhage (occur from 3rd day onwards (5th to 10th day higher chances) due to sloughing of aeries caused by infection). It is the result of sepsis and premature separation of membrane. Ref : ENT textbook by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 430 | |
The most common cuase of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is -: (A) Trauma, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis, (D) Interstitial nephritis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vesicouretrial reflux induced pyelonephritis The small scarred kidney in childhood;. Risdon RA] `Reflux nephropathy is now a generally accepted term to describe small scarred kidneys discovered during childhood; it recognises the close association between this renal lesion and vesicourete... | |
In chronic inflammation confined to the portal tract with intact limiting membrane and normal lobular parenchyma, the histopathological diagnosis would be -: (A) Active hepatitis, (B) Chronic active hepatitis, (C) Chronic persistent hepatitis, (D) Acoholic heaptitis | Answer is C. Intact limiting membrane with inflammation confined to portal area is seen in chronic persistent hepatitis. | |
A neonate born to infected hepatitis-B mother, should be treated with:: (A) Isolation, (B) Immunoglobulins, (C) Hepatitis-B-vaccine, (D) Immunoglobulins and hepatitis-B-vaccine | Answer is D. D. Immunoglobulins and hepatitis-B-vaccine(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1942-1952)"Infants born to HbsAg positive mothers should receive both Hep B Ig and Hep B vaccine at separate sites within 12 hours of birth, followed by 2nd and 3rd dose of vaccine at 1 and 6 months. | |
Advantage of coho study ?: (A) Involves fewer number of subjects, (B) Inexpensive, (C) Suitable for rare disease, (D) More than one outcomes can be studied | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., More than one outcomes can be studied | |
The most earliest sign of anterior uveitis is:: (A) Aqueous flare, (B) Keratic precipitates, (C) Constriction of pupil, (D) Raised intraocular pressure | Answer is A. Ans. Aqueous flare | |
Ligament of Cooper, used in the surgery for femoral hernia repair, is formed by which of the extentions of inguinal ligament?: (A) Lacunar ligament, (B) Pectineal ligament, (C) Ilioinguinal ligament, (D) Reflected pa of inguinal ligament | Answer is A. Answer-A. Lacunar ligamentIt is also called Gimbernat's ligament.From the medial end, deep fibres curve horizontally backward to the medial side of pectin pubis forming lacunar ligament.This ligament is trainagular in shape, with the apex attached to the pubic tubercle.Its sharp lateral edge forms the medi... | |
False statement about impetigo –: (A) Mostly caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus or both, (B) It predisposes to glomerulonephritis, (C) Produces scar on healing, (D) Erythromycin is drug of choice | Answer is C. Impetigo is a highly contagious (infectious) Gram-positive bacterial infection of the superficial layer of the epidermis. It occurs in two forms :-
Impetigo contagiosa (Non-bullous) → Caused by both staph aureus & streptococcus (group `A )
Bullous impetigo Caused by Staph.aureus.
Lesions of Impetigo co... | |
Mantoux test reading of less than 5mm indicates: (A) Tuberculosis infection, (B) Disseminated TB, (C) Susceptiblity to TB, (D) Immunity to TB | Answer is B. Ref Robbins 9/e p371 Mantoux test is simply able to predict the presence or absent of cell mediated immunity against the tubercular antigens .it cannot differentiate between infection and disease Negative mantoux test just indicates that the individual has not been exposed to tuberculin bacilli | |
Which Vitamin is involved in Redox reactions -: (A) Pyridoxin, (B) Biotin, (C) Folic acid, (D) Riboflavin | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Riboflavin VitaminCoenzymeFunction as coenzymeEntity transferredThiamine (Vit B1)Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)Oxidative decarboxylation and transketolase reactionHydroxy-ethylRiboflavin (Vit B2)Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN)Oxidation and reduction reactio... | |
A Wahin's tumour is: (A) An adenolymphoma of parotid gland, (B) A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid, (C) A carcinoma of the parotid, (D) A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland | Answer is A. Wahin's tumor Is the second most common benign tumor of the parotid gland (1st is pleomorphic adenoma). It consists of both epithelial and lymphoid elements thus known as adenolymphoma (probably arises from remnants of parotid tissue trapped in lymphnodes within the parotid gland). Also known as papillary ... | |
Natural killer cells: (A) Belongs to B-cell lineage, (B) Belongs to T-cell lineage, (C) Display cytotoxic effect on tumor cell, (D) Requires previous antigen exposure for activation | Answer is C. Natural Killer CellsThe function of NK cells is to destroy irreversibly stressed and abnormal cells, such as virus-infected cells and tumor cells. NK cells make up approximately 5% to 10% of peripheral blood lymphocytes. They do not express TCRs or Ig.NK cells are endowed with the ability to kill a variety... | |
Radioisotope used systemically in Polycythemia rubra vera.: (A) 32p, (B) 131I, (C) Strontium-89, (D) Rhenium-186 | Answer is A. 32p - Polycythemia rubra vera.
Rhenium -186; Painful bone metastasis. | |
Life span of CuT 380 A is -: (A) 10 years, (B) 8 years, (C) 4 years, (D) 5 years | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10 years o The longest life span is of CuT380A: 10 years.IUDsLife spanFirst generation:Lippe's loop (obsolete)--Second generationCopper-T--CuT-200-B4 yrCuT-2003yrCuT-220C--Nova-T5 yrMultiload - 2503 yr3755 yrCuT-3 80A10 yrThird generationProgestasert1 yrLNG-20 (Mirena)5 yr (Ref: Novak p26... | |
Herpes simplex infection can lead to?: (A) Frontal lobe infarction, (B) Parietal lobe infarction, (C) Temporal lobe involvement, (D) Occipital neuralgia | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Temporal lobe involvement Pathology of Herpex simplex encephalitis:o Herpes simplex infection has a prediliction for the involvement of Temporal lobe.o The lesions in HSV encephalitis are intense hemorrhagic necrosis of the inferior and medial temporal lobe and the mediorbital part of fro... | |
Corbohydrate reserve of human body: (A) 350 gm, (B) 600 gm, (C) 950 gm, (D) 1500 gm | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 350 gmCarbohydrate store of body is approximately 350 grams (70 grams hepatic glycogen and 280 grams muscle glycogen). | |
Which cranial nerve is commonly involved in meningeal tuberculosis infection?: (A) 7th nerve, (B) 8th nerve, (C) Ocular nerve, (D) Oculomotor nerve | Answer is C. Meningeal involvement is pronounced at the base of the brain, paresis of cranial nerves (ocular nerves in paicular) is a frequent finding. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1348 | |
A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent -: (A) 0 157 : H7, (B) 0 159 : H7, (C) 0 107 : H7, (D) 0 55 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 0157 : 117 | |
17 D vaccine is used for the prevention and control of-: (A) Yellow fever, (B) Japanese encephalitis, (C) Haemorrhagic fever, (D) Dengue | Answer is A. None | |
MRI is unsuitable for:: (A) Cardiac pacemakers, (B) Metallic clips, (C) Woody items, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. (All of the above) (19-Sutton 7th)MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGINGADVANTAGESDISADVANTAGES* It is non-invasive technique* It is safe as it does not involve the use of ionising radiation* There is no adverse biological effect.* Images can be readily produced in any plane eg. Axial sagittal or coronal without chang... | |
Cytochrome P450 is identified to 11-ss hydroxylase is known as: (A) CYMA-IB, (B) CYPA-2B, (C) CYPA-3B, (D) CYPA-4B | Answer is B. Cytochromes P450 (CYPs) are a family of enzymes containing heme as a cofactor that function as monooxygenases. In mammals, these proteins oxidize steroids, fatty acids, and xenobiotics, and are impoant for the clearance of various compounds, as well as for hormone synthesis and breakdown Ref: guyton and ha... | |
True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non ketotic hyperglycemia is: September 2005: (A) No change, (B) Mild elevation, (C) Moderate elevation, (D) Severely elevated | Answer is D. Ans. D: Severely elevated Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is being diagnosed with increasing frequency in obese children with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2 DM). The syndrome is characterized by severe hyperglycemia, a marked increase in serum osmolality and dehydration without accumula... | |
Premalignant bone lesion among the following is -: (A) Pagets disease, (B) Osteoid osteoma, (C) Osteochondroma, (D) Enchondroma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pagets disease Paget's disease o Paget s disease is characterized by increased bone turnover and enlargement and thickening of the bone the internal architecture is abnormal and the bone is usually brittle, o Primary defect is in osteolastic. o It is marked by regions of furious osteolast... | |
Which among the following is the epithelial lining of vagina?: (A) Stratified squamous non-keratinized, (B) Columnar, (C) Stratified squamous keratinized, (D) Cuboidal | Answer is A. There are two types of stratified squamous epithelia: nonkeratinized and keratinized. Nonkeratinized epithelium exhibits live surface cells and covers moist cavities such as the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, vagina, and anal canal. Keratinized epithelium lines the external surfaces of the body. | |
Drug of choice for hypeension crises in systemic sclerosis is: (A) Beta blocker, (B) Losaan, (C) ACE inhibitor, (D) Nitrates | Answer is C. One of the main causes of death is hypeensive renal crisis, characterised by rapidly developing malignant hypeension and renal failure. Hypeensive renal crisis is much more likely to occur in DCSS than in LCSS, and in patients with topoisomerase 1 antibodies. Hypeension should be treated aggressively with ... | |
The conversion of an optically pure isomer into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as-: (A) a) Polymerization, (B) b) Stereoisomerism, (C) c) Racemization, (D) d) Fractionation | Answer is C. Racemic Mixture - Equimolar mixture of optical isomers which has no net reaction of plane polarized light. | |
Apoptosis is?: (A) Internally controlled, programmed cell death, (B) Externally controlled, programmed cell death, (C) Internally controlled, programmed enzyme degradation, (D) Externally controlled, programmed karyolysis | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Internally controlled, programmed cell deathRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /52* Apoptosis is internally controlled, programmed cell deathSalient Features of Apoptosis:* No inflammation* Cell shrinkage* Formation of apoptotic bodiesExample* PhysiologicahEmbryogenesis, Organogenesis, Men- struation... | |
Posterior ethmoidal sinus drains into (JIPMER May 2019): (A) Spheno-ethmoidal recess, (B) Superior meatus, (C) Middle meatus, (D) Inferior meatus | Answer is B. - There are 3 groups of ethmoidal air sinuses Anterior Middle Posterior - Posterior ethmoidal sinus is opening in lateral wall of the nose. - Lateral wall of the nose has 3 elevations called superior, middle & inferior turbinates / conchae - Under each turbinate, there is space called meatus called superio... | |
Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except: (A) Seen in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life, (B) It is a example of gradual painless visual loss, (C) Males can transmit the disease, (D) No leak of dye is observed in fluorescein angiography | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Males can transmit the disease Leber's Hereditary optic neuropathv Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy is characterized by sequential subacute optic neuropathy in males aged 11-30 years. The underlying genetic abnormality is a point mutation in mitochondria! DNA. Since mitochondrial DNA i... | |
Radiation of 5 Gy will kill patients in: March 2013 (b, c, d, e, f): (A) 1 day, (B) 1 week, (C) 2-3 weeks, (D) 4-6 weeks | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. 4-6 weeks | |
Regarding anaplastic carcinoma which statement is false: (A) Common in elderly, (B) Associated with P53 mutation, (C) Surrounding neck tissue is usually infiltrated, (D) Radiotherapy cures | Answer is D. More commonly seen in elderly women. Local infiltration is an early feature of these tumours with spread by lymphatics and by the bloodstream. They are extremely lethal tumours and survival is calculated in months. p53 mutations are found in 15% of tumors, Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg: 910 | |
A 56-year-old man is diagnosed with an extradural tumor in the posterior cranial fossa. When the patient protruded his tongue during physical examination, the tongue deviated to the right. Which of the following muscles and nerves are most likely injured?: (A) Right hypoglossal nerve and right genioglossus, (B) Left hy... | Answer is A. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue and is therefore directly involved in alteration of shape and movement of the tongue. A lesion in this nerve would cause deviation of the tongue toward the injured side, which could be observed upon protrusion of the tongue. The genioglossus is the... | |
Staphylococcus differs from streptococcus by:: (A) Coagulase test, (B) Catalase test, (C) Phosphatase, (D) Gram negative | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Catalase test(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 200 and 8th/e, p. 196)* Coagulase test is used to differentiate the different species of staphylococci (staph, aureus, staph, epidermidis).* Catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from streptococci.* Coagulase test cannot be used ... | |
A 6-month old infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had a history of itchy lesions.The most likely diagnosis is :: (A) Scabies, (B) Infantile eczema, (C) Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis, (D) Impetigo contag... | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Scabies Vesicobullous lesion in an infant can be seen in Scabies Infantile eczema Seborrheic dermatitis The clincher here is involvement of palms and soles. This is a characteristic feature of scabies in infants * Differential diagnosis Scabies Infantile eczema Characteristic distribution... | |
In tandem bullet, number of bullet/ bullets coming out of the gun is/are:: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is B. 2 | |
All of the following conditions may be associated with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly, Except: (A) Aplastic Anemia, (B) Hairy Cell Leukemia, (C) Myelofibrosis, (D) Hypersplenism | Answer is A. Answer is A (Aplastic Anemia) Splenomegaly is typically absent in patients with aplastic anemia, and if present, the diagnosis of aplastic anemia should be questioned and search for another associated pathology be initiated Splenomegaly, Lymphadenopathy and Hepatomegaly in Aplastic Anemia The finding of sp... | |
If both parents are sickle cell anemia patients then the likelyhood of offsprings having the disease is-: (A) 10%, (B) 25%, (C) 50%, (D) 100% | Answer is D. Sickle cell anemia is autosomal recessive. | |
Scotochromogens are: (PGI Dec 2008): (A) Mycobacterium Gordonae, (B) Mycobacterium Marinum, (C) Mycobacterium Intracellulare, (D) Mycobacterium avium | Answer is A. Ans: A (Mycobacterium Gordonae) M. Marinum & M. Kansasii are photochromogenes while M. intracellulare & M. avium are non-photochromogenes.Scotochromogens# M, Gordonae (formely M.aquae) - Often found in tap water (hence called 'the tap water scotochromogen), is a common contaminant in clinical specimens and... | |
The most common site of rupture of Abdominal Aortic-Aneurysm is: (A) Laterally into the Left Retroperitoneum, (B) Laterally into the Right Retroperitoneum, (C) Posteriorly into the Posterior Retroperitoneum, (D) Anteriorly into the Peritoneum (Intraperitonial) | Answer is A. None | |
A 3 month baby can do:: (A) Social smile, (B) Can sit without suppo, (C) Transfer objects from right to left, (D) Can change position from prone to supine | Answer is A. Social smile appears at 3 months | |
Child of 6 weeks with Hemoglobin of 10 gm% pale on examination, diagnosis is -: (A) Physiological anemia, (B) Pathological anemia, (C) Thalassemia, (D) Iron dificiency anemia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Physiological anemia o Physiologic Anemia of InfancyHemoglobin drops to low point at age 6 to 8 weeksErythropoietin nadir drops HemoglobinTerm Infants: Hemoglobin drops to 9-11 g/dlPreterm Infants: Hemoglobin drops to 7-9 g/dlo No work-up or treatment unless Hemoglobin lower than expected... | |
A 15 year old girl was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm the antemortem diagnosis is-: (A) Serum for anti-rabies IgG antibody, (B) Corneal impression smear for immunofluorescence stain, (C) CSF sample for viral culture,... | Answer is B. For the antemortem diagnosis of rabies, viral antigens can be demonstrated in the corneal smear, skin biopsy from the face or neck or saliva. | |
All of the following are microsomal enzyme inhibitors except: (A) Glucocoicoids, (B) Cimetidine, (C) Ciprofloxacin, (D) INH | Answer is A. Other inhibitors- Ketoconazole, Metronidazole, Allopurinol, Erythromycin, OCPs, Omeprazole | |
Amount of radiation used in mammography -: (A) 0.5 mSv, (B) 0.7 mSv, (C) 0.9 mSv, (D) 1 mSv | Answer is B. Ans. is'b'i.e.,0.7 mSvScreening mammography and radiation A screening mammogram is an X-ray of the breast tissue for women without any breast symptoms.It uses low doses of radiation (about 0.7mSv for 4 X-rays). | |
The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle: (A) Extensor pollicis longus, (B) Extensor carpi radialis longus, (C) Brachioradialis, (D) Extensor carpi ulnaris | Answer is B. The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle are: Tendons of Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus. Distal radial tubercle (Lister's tubercle) is located at the distal dorsal aspect of the radius It is a bony prominence that can be easily palpated. Function: It acts as a pulley for the Ext... | |
Best imaging study for the earliest diagnosis of cerebral infarct-: (A) FLAIR MRI, (B) Non-contrast CT, (C) CECT, (D) Diffusion-weighted MRI | Answer is D. Diffusion-weighted MRIDiffusion-weighted MRI detects cytotoxic edema in just a few hours of infarction. | |
Effect of infusion of hypotonic saline?: (A) Increased ICF only, (B) Increased ECF only, (C) Increased in both ICF and ECF, (D) Increased ICF and decreased ECF | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased in both ICF and ECFAfter infusion of hyptonic saline causes a decline in plasma osmolality and a shift of water into interstial space (as water moves from higher osmolarity to lower osmolarity), causing decrease in ICF osmolality.This results in shift of water from ECF to ICF.Fi... | |
Which of the following is not true about fibroblasts?: (A) Secrete & Synthesize collagen, (B) Derived from blood precursor cells, (C) Migrate to wound along fibres used as scaffold, (D) Large fibrin clot acts as barrier to fibroblast penetration | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following structures are developed from Septum transversum, EXCEPT:: (A) Coronary ligament, (B) Falciform ligament, (C) Lesser omentum, (D) Ligamentum teres hepatica | Answer is D. Structures developed from septum transversum:1. Diaphragm (central tendon)2. The fibrous pericardium3. The falciform ligament4. The stroma and capsule of the liver5. The triangular and coronary ligaments6. The lesser omentum The round ligament of the liver (ligamentum teres hepatica) is an embryological re... | |
A 40 year old male patient complains of diminished vision during night and dryness of eyes. Patient gives history of recurrent bacterial infections. Ophthalmic examination reveals white triangular plaques on conjunctiva. This patient is suffering from deficiency of:: (A) Vitamin D, (B) Vitamin B, (C) Vitamin A, (D) Vit... | Answer is C. Night blindness (nyctalopia) is one of the earliest symptoms of vitamin A deficiency. Severe deficiency of vitamin A leads to xerophthalmia. This is characterized by dryness in conjunctiva and cornea, and keratinization of epithelial cells. In certain areas of conjunctiva, white triangular plaques known a... | |
The usual incubation period of pertusis is -: (A) 7-14 days, (B) 3-5 days, (C) 21-25 days, (D) Less than 3 days | Answer is A. None | |
Which helps in the production of more glucose?: (A) Pyruvate kinase, (B) Pyruvate carboxylase, (C) PDH, (D) Pyruvate decarboxylase | Answer is B. Reversal of the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase in glycolysis involves two endothermic reactions. Mitochondrial pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, Key Gluconeogenic Enzymes 1. Pyruvate carboxylase.Pyruvate Carboxylase Reaction Pyruvate in the cytoplasm enter... | |
8000 rads dosage in Cancer cervix is given to -: (A) Point A, (B) Point B, (C) Side walls of pelvis, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans- A a. External beam via cobalt or linear accelerator & brachytherapy (e.g. Radium, cobalt or cesium) are used in the treatment of carcinoma cervix. b. The radium dosage is calculated with respect to the amount of irradiation received at 2 theoretical points a & b. c. Point a lies 2cm above & 2cm latera... | |
HPV vaccine is ?: (A) Monovalent, (B) Bivalent, (C) Quadrivalent, (D) Both bivalent and Quadrivalent | Answer is D. Both bivalent and Quadrivalent Currently, there are two types of cervical cancer vaccines available Gardasil vaccine (quadrivalent vaccine) Cervavarix vaccine (Bivalent vaccine) Gardasil vaccine Gardasil is a quadrivalent human papillomavirus vaccine. Gardasil is the only vaccine that helps protect against... | |
Rhabdomyolysis with myoglobinuria seen in -: (A) Viper bite, (B) Heat stroke, (C) Malignant hyperthermia, (D) Multiple hornet stings | Answer is D. None | |
The prognosis is best in rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis associated with:: (A) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, (B) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), (C) Henoch-Schoenlein purpura, (D) Polyaeritis nodosa | Answer is A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may occur in association with the five diseases mentioned and also with periaeritis (polyaeritis) nodosa, Wegener's granulomatosis, and essential cryoglobulinemia. Some cases arise without a known antecedent disease (idiopathic). Although the prognosis is poor in all ... | |
Which of the following causes a dead end infection?: (A) C. tetani, (B) V. cholerae, (C) S. aureus, (D) Hemophilus | Answer is A. Ans. A. C. tetani.Since, there is no further human to human transmission, tetanus is a dead end infection.Dead end infections in humans-Tetanus, Legionnaire's disease, Leptospirosis, Lyme's diseaseRabies, JE, West Nile fever, Equine encephalitis, KFDCysticercosis, Hydatid disease, Trichinellosis, Babesiosi... | |
Phossy jaw is caused by-: (A) White phosphorus, (B) Red Phosphorus, (C) Arsenic, (D) Antimony | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., White Phosphorus o Phossy jaw is caused by phosphorus poisoning. All phosphorus poisoning are caused by white (yellow) phosphorus (Red phosphorus is nontoxic).Phosphorus poisoningo Phosphorus is a protoplasmic poison affecting cellular oxidation and causing anoxic necorbiosis, classically... | |
The kidney stone whose development is seen most commonly is:-: (A) Calcium oxalate, (B) Triple phosphate, (C) Uric acid, (D) Cysteine | Answer is A. Commonest stone seen in in kidney - Calcium oxalate Other types of kidney stones : Triple phosphate - Ca, NH4+ ,MgP04 Uric acid Cysteine stones | |
A 25-year-old man requests cholesterol screening because of a family history of premature coronary artery disease (CAD). His lipid levels reveal an elevated total and LDL cholesterol. The high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and triglyceride values are normal. His physical examination is completely normal. Which of the follo... | Answer is A. Familial combined hyperlipidemia has an incidence of 1/100. It is an autosomal dominant disorder and different affected family members may display different dyslipidemic phenotypes. Familial hypercholesterolemia (1/500) and familial defective Apo B (1/1000) are also common. The other two disorders (Apo C-I... | |
True about Trotters triad -a) Conductive deafnessb) Involvement of CN VIc) Involvement of CN Xd) Palatal paralysise) Associated with nasopharyngeal angiofibroma: (A) acd, (B) ad, (C) bc, (D) bde | Answer is A. None | |
List of the charges established or agreed to, by a dentist for specific dental services:: (A) Table of allowances, (B) Fee schedule, (C) Reasonable fee, (D) Capitation | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following can be administered in acute highpeension during labour except: (A) IV labetalol, (B) IV nitroprusside, (C) IV hydralazine, (D) IV esmolol | Answer is B. Ref - KDT7/e p572 Sodium nitroprusside is contra indicated in eslampsia | |
Labetalol is an: (A) Alpha 1 blocker, (B) Alpha 2 blocker, (C) Alpha 1 and selective beta 1 blocker, (D) Alpha 1 and non-selective beta blocker | Answer is D. Labetalol is a commonly used a 1 and non-selective b-adrenergic blockerDose: 200-2400mg/day, orally in two to three divided dosesIn an emergency: 20mg IV, followed by 20-80mg every 20min to a maximum of 220mg. Avoid in patients with Asthma, congestive cardiac failure, Liver failure(Ref: William's Obstetric... | |
True about Ringer's Lactate -: (A) Isotonic, (B) Colloidal solution, (C) Potassium level is same as that of serum potassium, (D) Helps in acidosis by acid neutralization | Answer is A. Ringer's lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution and Hamann's solution, is a mixture of sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride in water. It is an isotonic solution .it is used for replacing fluids and electrolytes in those who have low blood volume or... | |
Submandibular gland is divided into superficial and deep parts by -: (A) Digastric, (B) Geniohyoid, (C) Mylohyoid, (D) Stylohyoid | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mylohyoid Submandibular glando This walnut sized gland lies belowr the mandible in the anterior part of digastric triangle. It is J-shaped and consists of a large superficial and a small deep parts, separated by mylohyoid muscle and continuous with each other around the posterior border o... | |
Treatment of choice for genital was in pregnancy is:: (A) Salicylic acid with lactic acid solution, (B) Imiquimod, (C) Podophyllotoxin, (D) Cryotherapy | Answer is D. During pregnancy, electrocoagulation, cryotherapy, or CO2 laser therapy should be administered at approximately 32 weeks to avoid, on one hand, post-treatment necrosis, which may last as long as 4-6 weeks, and to prevent, on the other hand, recurrence if treated too early. Podophyllin, podofilox, and imiqu... | |
Apgar stands for: (Asked twice in exam): (A) Attitude pulse grimace activity respiratory effort, (B) Attitude pulse grimace appearance respiratory effort, (C) Appearance pulse grimace activity respiratory effort, (D) Appearance pulse grimace attitude respiratory effort | Answer is C. ANS. C | |
The false statement associated with Kaposi's sarcoma is:: (A) Caused by human herpes virus 8, (B) Seen in immune suppressed persons, (C) Proliferative tumor of the blood vessels, (D) Surgery is the treatment of choice | Answer is D. Kaposi sarcoma, a vascular tumor ,induced by HHV 8. The lesions of KS are characterized by the proliferation of spindle-shaped cells that express markers of both endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells. There is also a profusion of slit like vascular spaces, suggesting that the lesions may arise from pri... | |
Which of the following is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent in a patient with cardiac arrest:: (A) Amiadorone, (B) Lidocaine, (C) Procainamide, (D) Atropine | Answer is A. Answer is A (Amiodarone) Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent jiff resuscitation in a patient with cardiac arrest. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent for resuscitation, In patients with VF/VT that does not respond to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. Amiodarone is the ... |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.