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Which among the following doesn't enter human body skin?: (A) Ancyclostoma, (B) Strongyloides, (C) Trichinella, (D) Necator | Answer is C. Trichinella REF: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24T" edition chapter 46 Table 46-4 Indirect repeat in December 2011, See APPENDIX-74 for "DISEASES DUE TO HELMINTHS" "Trichinella infectes by ingestion of undercooked pork which contains encysted larvae in the straited muscle" Skin penetr... | |
All of the following are TRUE about the middle ear, EXCEPT:: (A) The joints between ossicles are synol, (B) The chorda tympani nerve is related to the lateral wall, (C) The facial nerve passes in a canal situated in the medial and anterior walls, (D) The auditory tube connects the nasopharynx with the anterior wall | Answer is C. The facial nerve passes in a canal situated in the posterior and medial walls of the middle ear. It is not associated with the anterior wall. | |
All of the following malignancies present with osteoblastic secondaries, except: (A) Multiple myeloma, (B) Ca prostate, (C) Ca breast, (D) Carcinoid tumor | Answer is A. Multiple myeloma commonly presents as multiple osteolytic lesions in older patients and may simulate metastatic cacinoma. Carcinomas which present with osteoblastic secondaries are prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, seminoma, neurogenic tumors and carcinoid. Reference: Bone and Soft Tissue Pathology By ... | |
Which if the following is the ‘Yellow fever’ reference centre?: (A) Haffkin’s institute, Mumbai, (B) AIIMS, Delhi, (C) NIN, Hyderabad, (D) Central institute, kasauli | Answer is D. None | |
Structure passing through the greater sciatic foramen are all of the following except `: (A) Pyriformis, (B) Superior gluteal nerve, (C) Inferior gluteal nerve, (D) Obturator internus tendon | Answer is D. Structure passing through lesser sciatic notch Tendon of obturator internus Pudendal nerve Nerve to obturator internus Internal pudendal aery | |
Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries: (A) Bleeding, (B) Associated fracture spine, (C) Infection, (D) Respiratory obstruction | Answer is D. None | |
A young 8 years old boy with multiple, small, pin point, shiny, papular lesions on dorsal aspect of hand, forearms and his penis also. Diagnosis is:: (A) Molluscum cantagiosum, (B) Scabies, (C) Lichen planus, (D) Lichen nitidus | Answer is D. Ans. d Lichen nitidus (Ref: Mark Lebwohl 2nd/345)A young 8 years old boy with multiple, small, pin point, shiny, papular lesions on dorsal aspect of hand, forearms and his penis also. Diagnosis is Lichen nitidus.Grouped pinhead lesions on elbow. abdomen, penis and dorsum of hand in a child as shown in the ... | |
Desmoplaskin is the target antigen in:: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris., (B) Paraneoplastic pemphigus., (C) Drug induced pemphigus., (D) Pemphigus foliaceous. | Answer is B. Paraneoplastic pemphigus is a severe variant of pemphigus, associated with an underlying neoplasm - most frequently non Hodgkin's lymphoma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, thymoma, and castleman disease. Tumor antigens are hypothesized to evoke an immune response that leads to the development of an autoimmun... | |
Highest slope of stress v/s strain curve seen in:: (A) Ceramic, (B) Enamel, (C) Impression compound, (D) Gold crown | Answer is D. Elastic modulus of different materials | |
The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is: (A) LD-1, (B) LD-2, (C) LD-3, (D) LD-5 | Answer is A. In myocardial infarction, total LDH activity is increased, while H4 iso-enzyme ( monomer of LDH ) is increased 5-10 times more. The magnitude of the peak value, as well as the area under the graph, will be roughly propoional to the size of the myocardial infarct. Ref: D M Vasudevan 7th edition Page no: 304 | |
What is the strength of shock given to below victim of cardiac arrest with shockable rhythm:: (A) 200 J asynchronous Shock, (B) 300 AC shock, (C) 200 Syn. Shock, (D) 300 J Syn. Shock | Answer is A. It should be between 120-200 J asynchronized shock. | |
Unsaturated fatty acids are converted to:: (A) Prostaglandins, (B) Cholesterol, (C) Cell membrane lipid, (D) Saturated fatty acid | Answer is A. A Harper, 26lh ed. p. 192 & 25th ed, p. 250 | |
"3 by 5" initiative in AIDS control programme is ?: (A) Providing 3 million people treatment by end of 2005, (B) Providing treatment to 3 out of 5 patients, (C) Reducing incidence of AIDS by 3% by 2005, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Providing 3 million people treatment by end of 2005 3 by 5 target On 1st December 2003, WHO and UNAIDS announced a detailed plan to reach the "3 by 5 target" of providing antiretroviral treatment (A) to three million people living with HIV/AIDS in the developing countries by the end of 20... | |
Which of the following congenital malformation is seen in a child of a mother who is on treatment with oral anticoagulants -: (A) Craniofacial malformations, (B) Renal agenesis, (C) Long bone defects, (D) All | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Craniofacial malformations o "Administration of warfarin (Oral anticoagulants) during pregnancy causes syndrome characterized by 1. Nasal hypoplasia (Craniofacial malformation) 2. Stippled epiphyseal calcifications that resemble chondrodysplasia punctata." | |
All of the following are advantages of LMA Except: (A) More reliable than face mask, (B) Prevent aspiration, (C) Alternative to endotracheal intubation, (D) Does not require laryngoscope & visualization | Answer is B. LMA is intermediate between the face mask and endotracheal intubation in terms of reliability, invasiveness, and facilitation of gas exchange (face mask has minimum and endotracheal intubation has maximum)LMA does not prevent aspiration - should not be used in full stomach patientsLMA can be used as an alt... | |
Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of thrombolytic agent in the setting of an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction-: (A) History of CVA with hemiparesis one month ago, (B) Diabetic retinopathy, (C) Patient's age more than 70 years, (D) Patients is on warfarin for A.F with INR rat... | Answer is A. Ref: R. Alagappan Manual for Medicine 4th Edition pg no:188-189 Contraindications for Thrombolytic Therapy Absolute contraindications: Active bleeding Defective haemostasis Recent major trauma Surgical procedures < 10 days Invasive procedures < 10 days Neurosurgical procedure < 2 months GI/genito-urinary b... | |
Calcaneum is associated most commonly with which # -: (A) # rib, (B) # vertebrae, (C) # skull, (D) # fibula | Answer is B. Most common mechanism of injury is fall from height, often from a ladder, onto one or both heels. The calcaneum is driven up against the talus and is split or crushed.
About one fifth of these patients suffer associated injuries of the spine, pelvis or hip. | |
A farmer presented with a black mole on the check. It increased in size, more than 6mm with sharply defined borders with central black lesion, what could be the diagnosis?: (A) Acral lentigo melanoma, (B) Superficial spreading melanoma, (C) Lentigo maligna melanoma, (D) Nodular melanoma | Answer is B. Superficial spreading melanoma It is the M/C type of melanoma It is the M/C type which occurs in a patient with pre existing mole. R/F for superficial spreading melanoma- Increasing age Melanoma in situ Many melanocytic nevi Multiple >5 atypical nevi Strong family H/O melanoma | |
Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis: (A) Alcoholic pancreatitis, (B) Gall stone pancreatitis, (C) Post operative pancreatitis, (D) Idiopathic pancreatitis | Answer is B. .Ranson's prognostic criteria On admission:--* Old age >55 years * Blood sugar >200 mg% * TC >16,000/mm3 * Serum LDH > 350 IU/L * Serum SGOT > 250 IU/L In 48 hrs: * Base deficit > 4 mEq/L * Serum calcium < 8 mEq/L * Haematocrit : altered by 10% * Aerial O2 (PO2) < 60 mm Hg * Extravascular space fluid loss:... | |
Which method is used to locate a known gene locus?: (A) FISH, (B) CGH, (C) Chromosome painting, (D) RT-PCR | Answer is A. Ans. A. FISH(Ref: Robbins 9/e page 177)Robbins 9th edition gives the following descriptionFISH uses DNA probes that recognize sequences specific to particular chromosomal regions.MethodRequires growing cellsDetects deletion and duplicationDetects balanced structural rearrangementsDetects uniparental disomy... | |
Most common nosocomial infection is: (A) Respiratory tract infection, (B) Gastrointestinal tract infection, (C) Urinary tract infection, (D) Throat infection | Answer is C. None | |
A child is posted for operative repair of exostrophy of bladder with renal failure. Which anesthetic should be preferred?: (A) Pancuronium, (B) Vecuronium, (C) Ataracurium, (D) Rocuronium | Answer is B. C i.e. Ataracurium In pediatric patients the choice of non depolarizing muscle relaxant depends on side effects and duration of action. The method of excretion of atracurium and cisatracurium (Hofman elimination and ester hydrolysis) makes these relaxants paicularly useful in newborns and children with liv... | |
Which of the following is the best predictor for future risk of cardiovascular events?: (A) hs CRP, (B) Interleukin 6, (C) Lipoprotein 'a', (D) Homocysteine | Answer is A. CRP is made in the liver in response to excess triglyceride storage. Elevated CRP levels>3mg/l using a high sensitive assay is associated with an increased risk of CHD. Another useful marker is lipoprotein associated phospholipase A2(LpPLA2). It is made by macrophages in response to excess cholesterol stor... | |
Enzyme use in ELISA -: (A) Alkaline phosphatase, (B) Acid phosphatase, (C) Glucosidase, (D) Glycosyl transferase | Answer is A. (A) (Alkaline Phosphate) (64- Harper 29th) (730 U. Satyanarayana 4th)ELlSAs use antibodies covalently linked to a "reporter enzyme" such as alkaline phosphatase or horseradish peroxidase whose products are readily detected, generally by the absorbance of light or by flourescence (64- Harper 24th)* ELISA is... | |
Which of the following structures is not at immediate risk of erosion by cholesteatoma?: (A) Long process of incus, (B) Fallopian canal containing facial nerve, (C) Horizontal semicircular canal, (D) Basal plate of stapes | Answer is D. Cholesteatoma has the propey to destroy the bone by viue of the enzymes released by it.Structures immediately at the risk of erosion are:-The long process of the incusFallopian canal containing facial nerveHorizontal/lateral semicircular canalRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg... | |
High-risk breast cancer female investigation of choice is?: (A) MRI, (B) USG, (C) Mammography, (D) Clinical examination | Answer is A. – To differentiate scar from recurrence.
– To image breasts of women with implants.
– To evaluate the management of axilla and recurrent disease.
It is useful in screening females with the high-risk group.
T1 and T2 weighted images are taken.
Irregular mass with speculations, changes in skin and nipple, l... | |
Radiosensitisers are all Except: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Nimorazole, (C) Cisplatin, (D) Amifostine | Answer is D. Radiosensitisers are agents that increase the lethal effects of radiation when given during (or sholy prior) to its delivery. There are three clinically used radiosensitisers - hypoxic cell sensitisers, hypoxic cell cytotoxics and the halogenated pyrimidines - that increase the sensitivity of tumour cells ... | |
Open reduction is indicated in: (A) clavicle, (B) both bone forearm in children, (C) lateral condyle humerus, (D) supra condyle humerus | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. lateral condyle humerus lateral condyle humerusis commonly displaced and is treated by OR & IF with K wires*Treatment of clavicle -Conservative figure of 8 bandage *Treatment of both bones fore arm in children -In children these fractures are often undisplaced or minimally displaced theref... | |
A neonate delivered at 38 weeks of gestation with a bih weight of 2.2 kg develops intolerance to feed /abdominal distension on second day. Physical examination is unremarkable. Sepsis screen is negative. PCV is observed to be 72%. Which of the following represents the best management option?: (A) Hydration with IV Flui... | Answer is B. Neonate mentioned in the case is suffering from neonatal polycythemia. Long term complications of neonatal polycythemia can be prevented by treating symptomatic children with paial exchange transfusion of blood. Ref: Neurology in Clinical Practice: The neurological disorders - Page 1108; Blueprints pediatr... | |
22-year-old lady, with a history of epilepsy is undergoing the pre-anaesthetic review. The use of which inhalational agent is contraindicated in this patient?: (A) Halothane, (B) Enflurane, (C) Sevoflurane, (D) Isoflurane | Answer is B. Enflurane can precipitate generalized tonic clonic seizure in epileptics. It is however safer than halothane, causes less myocardiac depression and less hypotension. | |
Commonest side effect of cryotherapy for carcinoma cervix in situ :: (A) Hemorrhage, (B) Persistent watery discharge, (C) Cervical stenosis, (D) Ulceration | Answer is B. Persistent watery discharge | |
Most commonly associated Fungus with orbital cellulitis in patients with Diabetic Ketoacidosis is: (A) Candida, (B) Mucor, (C) Aspergillus, (D) Histoplasma | Answer is B. (B) MucorRhino - Orbital mucormycosis:Mucormycosis is a very rare opportunistic infection caused by fungi of the family Mucoraceae, which typically affects patients with diabetic ketoacidosis or immunosuppression. This aggressive and often fatal infection.Specific infections - rhinocerebral mucormycosis:Fu... | |
All of the following are ocular symptom seen in Herpes ophthalmicus, EXCEPT:: (A) Oculomotor nerve involvement, (B) Disciform keratitis, (C) Anterior uveitis, (D) Nummular keratitis | Answer is A. Herpes Zoster ophthalmicus involves ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Herpes Zoster affecting the second and third division of the trigeminal nerve, and other cranial nerves is likely uncommon. When it occurs it may produce lesions in the mouth, ear, pharynx or larynx. Signs of Herpes Ophthalmicus... | |
True about pilocytic astrocytoma all except aEUR': (A) Long survival, (B) Total surgical resection possible, (C) Can involve posterior fossa, (D) Median age at presentation is more than 80 years | Answer is D. Median age at presentation is more than 80 years Astrocytomas Histologically astrocytomas are classified into ? a) Protoplasmic or fibrillary b) Gemistocytic (enlarged cells distended with hyaline and eosinophilic material) c) Pilocytic (consists of enlarged bipolar cells) d) Mixed astrocytoma or oligodend... | |
Radiofemoral delay is characteristic of ____________: (A) Patent ductus aeriosis, (B) Coarctation of aoa, (C) Aoic dissection, (D) Takayasu's disease | Answer is B. In coarctation of aoa there will be radiofemoral delay. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:432 | |
Dried semen stains on clothes identified by -: (A) Spectrometry, (B) UV rays, (C) Infrared rays, (D) LASER | Answer is B. Ref: the synopsis of forensic medicine &toxicology-Dr.K.S. Narayana reddy 28th edition pg no:236 proof of semen: the only absolute prrof of semen is the finding of atl;east one unbroken spermatozoon,or electrophoretic LDH isoenzyme detection of sperms. in the absence of spermatozoa, a stain which gives cha... | |
Superior quadrantanopia is seen in lesion of:: (A) Parietal lobe, (B) Temporal lobe, (C) Frontal lobe, (D) Occipital lobe | Answer is B. Ans: b (Temporal lobe) Ref: Khurana, 4th ed,p. 290Superior quadrantanopia is seen in temporal lobe lesions and inferior quadrantanopia is seen in parietal lobe lesions.Lesions of the visual pathway* Optic nerve- u/1 complete loss of vision* Optic chiasma(Central lesion)-bitemporal hemianopia* Lateral chias... | |
Drug of choice for reversal of is neuromuscular blockade by vacuronium-: (A) Edrophonium, (B) Neostigmine, (C) Sugamadex, (D) Pyridostigmine | Answer is C. Ans: C. Sugamadex(Ref: KDT 7h/e p. 355; Basic of Anasthesia e book - 157)Sugamadex provides faster reversal of vacuronium - induced neuromuscular blockade compared with neostigmine.A modified gamma-cyclodextrin with high affinity towards vacuronium & recuronium. | |
A 23-year-old woman has noticed that she develops a skin rash if she spends prolonged periods outdoors. She has a malar skin rash on physical examination. Laboratory studies include a positive ANA test result with a titer of 1 :1024 and a "rim" pattern. An anti-double-stranded DNA test result also is positive. The hemo... | Answer is C. An autoimmune disease, most likely systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in this patient, can be accompanied by monocytosis. Cytopenias also can occur in SLE because of autoantibodies against blood elements, a form of type II hypersensitivity. Basophilia occurs infrequently, but also can be seen in chronic my... | |
Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on:: (A) Lean body mass, (B) Body mass index, (C) Obesity, (D) Body surface area | Answer is A. A i.e. Lean body mass | |
Teratozoospermia refers to?: (A) Absence of semen, (B) Absence of sperm, (C) All dead sperms in ejaculate, (D) Morphologically defective sperms | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Morphologically defective spermsRef: Harrison 18thed ch-346, Smith Urology 17thed p.691, style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> publications/2010Z9789241547789_eng.pdf | |
Tamoxifene -: (A) SSRI, (B) SERM, (C) SNRI, (D) DNRI | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., SERM o Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATION (SERMs)1. Tamoxifen citrate# It is a nonsteroidal compound# It has both estrogen antagonist as well as partial agonist activity -Tamoxifen (selective estrogen receptor modulator)o Sit... | |
A myocardial infarct specimen is showing early granulation tissue. According to this change when has the infarct occurred?: (A) Less than 1 hour, (B) Within 24 hours, (C) Within 1 week, (D) Within 1 month | Answer is C. Following a myocardial infarction, early formation of fibrovascular granulation tissue at margins occur in 7-10 days.Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 558; Essentials of Rubin's Pathology By Emanuel Rubin, 5th Edition, Pages 277-8 | |
A man came to the casualty with some skin lesions after exposure to the sun. He is allergic to sunlight. Solar uicaria is characterized by:: (A) Stinging, (B) Erythema, (C) Wheal formation, (D) Loss of sensation | Answer is C. Uncommon sunlight-induced whealing confined to exposed body sites. Eruption occurs within minutes of exposure and resolves in a few hours. Very disabling and sometimes life threatening. Action spectrum is UVB, UVA, and visible light or any combination thereof. Most commonly UVA. Is an immediate type I hype... | |
A double aoic arch is due to persistent ?: (A) Right 4th arch, (B) Right 6th arch, (C) Left 4th arch, (D) Left 6th arch | Answer is A. Double aoic arch is most common vascular ring, caused by abnormal persistence of the distal segment of the RIGHT of 4th aoic arch. On lateral, arches are posterior to esophagus and anterior to trachea. Symptoms (of tracheal compression or difficulty swallowing) may begin at bih. Aoic arches: Aoic arches ar... | |
"Intranuclear inclusions" in oligodendrocytes are seen in: (A) Creutzfeldt Jacob disease, (B) Polio, (C) Japanese encephalitis, (D) Progressive multiple encephalopathy | Answer is D. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, JC virus-infected oligodendroglia display 2 distinct patterns of intranuclear viral inclusions: full inclusions in which progeny virions are present throughout enlarged nuclei and dot-shaped inclusions in which virions are clustered in subnuclear domains termed "... | |
PSGN (post-streptococcal GN) associated with -: (A) Subepithelial deposits, (B) Nephritis along with acute Renal failure, (C) Low complement levels, (D) HTN and protenuria | Answer is A. Electron microscopy shows deposited immune complexes arrayed as subendothelial, intramembranous, or, most often, subepithelial "humps" nestled against the GBM robbins book of pathology. 9th edition. Page 529 | |
Essential atrophy of the choroid is due to inborn error of metabolism of which amino acid?: (A) Cystine, (B) Cysteine, (C) Arginine, (D) Ornithine | Answer is D. Ans.D.) Ornithine. Ornithine aminotransferase deficiency (also known as gyrate atrophy of the choroid and retina) is an inborn error of ornithine metabolism, caused by decreased activity of the enzyme ornithine aminotransferase. Biochemically, it can be detected by elevated levels of ornithine in the blood... | |
A 9-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute rheumatic fever. Instead of recovering as expected, her condition worsens and she dies. Which of the following is the most likely cause of death?: (A) Central nervous system involvement, (B) Endocarditis, (C) Myocarditis, (D) Streptococcal sepsis | Answer is C. The most common cause of death that occurs during acute rheumatic fever is cardiac failure secondary to myocarditis. | |
Minimal change glomerulopathy may be seen ' association with all of the following except,: (A) Hepatitis B, (B) HIV, (C) Drug-induced interstitial nephritis, (D) Hodgkin's disease | Answer is A. Secondary MCD wherein the extraglomerular disease process evokes, directly or indirectly, the characteristic changes in permselectivity and morphology. In this circumstance the morphology is similar, if not identical, to primary or 'idiopathic' MCD. Moreover, it is possible, even likely, that similar or id... | |
Reactive ahritis is usually caused by:: (A) Shigella flexneri, (B) Shigella boydii, (C) Shigella shiga, (D) Shigella dysenteriae | Answer is A. Organisms that have been associated with Reiter Ahritis include the following: C trachomatis (L2b serotype) Ureaplasma urealyticum Neisseria gonorrhoeae Shigella flexneri Salmonella enterica serovars Typhimurium Mycoplasma pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Yersinia enterocolitica and pseudotuberculosis... | |
Puerperal sepsis is due to spread of Infection along which route :: (A) Direct extension, (B) Aerial, (C) Venous, (D) Lymphatics | Answer is A. Direct extension | |
Total body water constitute what percentage of Body Weight: (A) 80%, (B) 60%, (C) 33%, (D) 25% | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following characterizes mallampati class 3: (A) Only hard palate visible, (B) Both hard palate and soft palate visible, (C) Hard palate ,soft palate, uvula and faucial pillars visible, (D) None | Answer is B. Both hard and soft palate should be seen in grade 3. | |
Functions of limbic system :: (A) Emotion, (B) Memory, (C) Higher function, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e. Emotion B i.e., Memory C i.e., Higher function Limbic System It is the entire neuronal circuit that controls emotional behaviour & motivational drives and a term that originally was used to describe bordering structures around basal region of cerebrum. Functions of hypothalamus Posterior Hypothalmus... | |
Variconazole is not effective against-: (A) Aspergillosis, (B) Mucormycosis, (C) Candida albicans, (D) Candida tropicalis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mucormycosis o Amongst azole, only posaconazole is active against mucormycosis. o Voriconazole is used for i) Invasive aspergillosis (voriconazole is the DOC) Candida infection iii) Pseudollescheria boydii (Scedosporium apiospermum) infection iv) Fusarium infection | |
The third heart sound is due to:: (A) Closure of AV valve, (B) Closure of aortic valve, (C) Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle, (D) Atrial contraction | Answer is C. “A soft, low-pitched third sound is heard about one third of the way through diastole in many normal young individuals.” | |
All of the following are branches of cerebral pa of the internal carotid aery, EXCEPT:: (A) Ophthalmic aery, (B) Anterior cerebral aery, (C) Posterior communicating aery, (D) Meningeal aery | Answer is D. Meningeal aery is a branch of cavernous pa of Internal carotid aery.Must know:The internal carotid aery begins at the superior border of the thyroid cailage as one of the terminal branches of common carotid aery.Its course is divided into four pas: Pas of ICABranches(A) Cervical pasNo branches(B) Petrous p... | |
Fundoscopic features of papilledema include all the following except -: (A) Ill- defined disc margin, (B) Deep physiological cup, (C) Absent venous pulsation, (D) Bending of blood vessels | Answer is B. Physiological cup is filled and obliterated (not becomes deep).
Ophthalmoscopic signs of papilloedema
Blurring of disc margin (first sign)
Venous :- Engorgment, congestion, loss of pulsation
Hyperemia of the disc with capillary dilatation.
Filling of physiological cup with gradual obliteration of physio... | |
All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus, except:: (A) It is transmitted by feco-oral route, (B) Asymptomatic infections are common in children, (C) There is a single serotype causing infection, (D) Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., There is a single serotype causing infection There are 3 types of poliovirus which are associated with infection. | |
Consider the following disorder- Sydenham's chorea Migraine Mania Obsessive compulsive disorder Valproic acid is used in ehich of the above disorders?: (A) 1 and 3 only, (B) 2 and 4 only, (C) 1, 2, and 3, (D) 2, 3, and 4 | Answer is C. Treatment. There is no specific treatment for Sydenham's chorea and symptoms usually resolve themselves in approximately 3 to 6 months. Bed rest, sedatives and medication to control movements may be prescribed. Penicillin prophylaxis may also be prescribed to avoid fuher streptococcal infection. valproic a... | |
The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus: (A) Layers 2,3 & 5., (B) Layers 1,2 & 6., (C) Layers 1,4 & 6., (D) Layers 4,5 &6. | Answer is C. Look at figure 12-17 trace the nasal field of one eye it goes to layers 1,4,6 on contralateral side. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;23rd edition; pg:194 | |
Delta waves are seen in:: (A) Deep sleep, (B) REM sleep, (C) Awake state, (D) Stage II nREM sleep | Answer is A. REM sleep is characterized by b waves, the waves actually of ale wakefulness. Hence, REM sleep is also called "paradoxical sleep". Awake state with eyes closed - a waves; with eyes open - b waves. NREM sleep: stage 1 shows periodic sho bursts of a waves. | |
Eyelid drooping in/are seen in:: (A) Damage to edinger-westphal nucleus, (B) Damage to motor pa of facial nerve, (C) Damage to sympathetic nerve supply, (D) Damage to lacrimal nerve | Answer is C. Ans. Damage to sympathetic nerve supply | |
Van Nuys prognostic indicator for DCIS does not include which of the following parameter?: (A) DCIS size, (B) Age of the patient, (C) Type of DCIS, (D) Excision margin | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Type of DCIS(Ref: Sterenberg diagnostic surgical pathology 5th ed p 312)The Van Nuys Prognostic Index (VNPI) classifies patients with DCIS to guide decisions on the best treatment option. The index uses patient age, tumour size, tumour growth patterns (histological grade) and the amount of healthy... | |
Wernicke's encephalopathy, during refeeding syndrome, can be precipitated in deficiency of which of the following vitamin: September 2011: (A) Riboflavin, (B) Pyridoxine, (C) Thiamin, (D) Vitamin C | Answer is C. Ans. C: Thiamin In patients who are thiamin deficient, Wernicke's encephalopathy can be precipitated by refeeding with carbohydrates This is prevented by administering thiamin before staing nutritional suppo | |
Condition that can be diagnosed on laparoscopy?: (A) Endometriosis, (B) DUB, (C) Carcinoma cervix, (D) Pyometra | Answer is A. Ans. a (Endometriosis). (Ref. Williams, Obstertrics, 21st ed., 930)ENDOMETRIOSISDefinition# Occurrence of ectopic endometrial tissues outside the true cavity of uterus.Etiology# Samson's implantation theory attributed to reflux of menstrual endometrium through tubes.# Coelomic metaplasia theory.# Metastati... | |
The Point of distinction between paial mole to complete mole is: (A) Paial mole show trophoblastic proliferation with absent villi, (B) Typical of paial mole is cellular atypia, (C) Paial mole is more prone to tumor malignancy, (D) Paial mole is triploid | Answer is D. Ref: Shaw&;s Textbook of Gynecology; 16th edition; Chapter 22; Gestational Trophoblastic Diseases | |
The late features of kernicterus include all except: (A) Hypotonia, (B) Sensorineural Hearing loss, (C) Choreoathetosis, (D) Upward Gaze palsy | Answer is A. Hypotonia is not a feature of kernicterus . Initial findings associated with kernicterus may vary from case to case, but often include lack of energy (lethargy) or drowsiness, poor feeding habits, fever, a shrill high-pitched cry, and/or absence of ceain reflexes (e.g., Moro reflex, etc.). Affected infants... | |
Drug of choice for gonococcal as well as non gonococcal urethritis is: (A) Clindamycin, (B) Cefepime, (C) Metronidazole, (D) Azithromycin | Answer is D. Gonococcal Infections For gonococcal urethritis: DOC is ceftriaxone For non gonococcal urethritis: DOC is AZITHROMYCIN It is used in combination with ceftriaxone in both gonococcal & non gonococcal urethritis AZITHROMYCIN (Single dose is enough) | |
Hardy Weinberg law indicates all except:: (A) States that genotype frequencies in a population remain constant or are in equilibrium from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced, (B) Hardy Weinberg law states that population is static, (C) Factors influencing gene pool include muta... | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Natural selection is a process where harmful genes are not eliminated from the gene pool and genes favorable to individual are not passed onto offspring.Acc to Hardy Weinberg law genes are passed on to the offsprings in a gene pool. | |
River blindness is caused by :: (A) Drinking river water without boiling., (B) Oncocerca volvulus, (C) Toxoplasma canis, (D) Glaucoma | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. Onchocerca volvulus Onchocerca volvulus is transmitted by Simulium damnosum, a black fly* that breeds in areas of rapidly flowing streams thus the term 'river blindness9T/t by Ivermectin* | |
All are indications for stopping effending ATT drug permanently except: (A) Gout, (B) Autoimmune thrombocytopenia, (C) Optic neuritis, (D) Hepatitis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hepatitis For patients with symptomatic hepatitis and those with marked (five to six fold) elevations in serum levels of aspaate aminotransferase, treatment should be immediately stopped and drugs reintroduced one at a time after liver function has returned to normal. Indications for stop... | |
True regarding 10-0 sutures is/are?: (A) Thicker than 1-0 sutures, (B) Synthetic sutures, (C) Diameter is 0.9 mm, (D) Stronger than 1-0 | Answer is B. Answer- B. Synthetic suturesThe larger the size ascribed to the suture, the smaller the diameter be.10-0 sutures- 0.2 (0.020-0.029) | |
For Ca Anal canal t/t of choice is -: (A) Surgery, (B) Surgery + Radiotherapy, (C) Chemoradiation, (D) Chemotherapy | Answer is C. Nigro regimen refers to combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy for primary treatment of malignant tumors of the anal canal.
In the 1970s, Nigro pioneered preoperative combination chemoradiation therapy to convert unrespectable cases to respective cases. There was no surgical pathological evidence of tumor ... | |
All are involved in iron metabolism except:: (A) Hepcidin, (B) Ferroportin, (C) Transthyretin, (D) Ceruloplasmin | Answer is C. Ans. C. TransthyretinHepcidin is the regulator of iron homeostasis. Ferroprotin is their on exporter protein into circulation from intestinal cells. Ceruloplasmin has ferroxidase which convert Fe2+ to Fe3+ so it can serve the purpose of hephaestin in iron metabolism. Transthyretin is a transport protein fo... | |
All are a type of audio-visual aids except: (A) Television, (B) Cinema, (C) Flannel graph, (D) Side-tape combination | Answer is C. Flannel graph: Audiovisual aids: No health education can be effective without audiovisual aids. Auditory aids: radio, cassette tape-recorder, microphone, amplifier, earphone, public address system, disks Visual aids: Not requiring projection: Chalk-bored, leaflets, posters , chas, flannel graphs, exhibits,... | |
All are true regarding satellite DNA EXCEPT?: (A) Repeated DNA sequences in tandem, (B) Clustered around centromere, (C) Clustered around telomeres, (D) Transcriptionally active | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Transcriptionally active Repetitive sequences in DNAis also called (satellite DNA)These consist of 5-500 base pair lengths repeated many times.These are often clustered in centromeres (central protein of chromosomes where sister chromatids join each other) and telomeres (repeated sequence... | |
What happens to corneal endothelium after injury?: (A) Slowly regenerates, (B) Regenerates rapidly, (C) Never regenerates, (D) Forms a scar | Answer is C. (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 95 - 96)The cell density of endothelium is around 3000 cells/mm2 in young adults, which decreases with the advancing ageCorneal endothelium does not regenerate but adjacent cells slide to fill in a damaged area.Endothelium studied by specu... | |
Drug not causing exanthematous skin eruption: (A) Phenytoin, (B) Hydrocoisone, (C) Ampicillin, (D) Phenylbutazone | Answer is B. Drugs causing exanthematous eruptions are penicillin, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, anti tubercular , allopurinol, nevirapine, phenylbutazone. Hydrocoisone is a coicosteroid is used for the treatment of severe drug reactions but will not induce exanthem | |
Fulminant Amoebic meningoencephalitis caused by-: (A) Acanthamoeba, (B) N.fowleri, (C) E.Histolytica, (D) E. Coli | Answer is B. None | |
Cochlear function in fetus develops between: (A) 12 to 15 weeks, (B) 18 to 20 weeks, (C) 22 to 25 weeks, (D) 30 to 34 weeks | Answer is C. Cochlear function develops between 22 and 25 weeks, and its maturation continues for six months after delivery.Reference: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 7; Embryogenesis and Fetal Morphological Development | |
Which of the following is not one of the phases of Implantation of Embryo?: (A) Epithelialization, (B) Apposition, (C) Adhesion, (D) Invasion | Answer is A. Implantation of Embryo can be divided into three phases: Apposition--initial contact of the blastocyst to the uterine wall Adhesion--increased physical contact between the blastocyst and decidua; and Invasion--penetration and invasion of syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast into decidua , inner third of... | |
Which is false about pulmonary embolism?: (A) Chest pain is most common symptom, (B) Arises from leg vein, (C) More the survival time, more the chance for recovery, (D) Neck veins may be distended | Answer is A. Dysponea is the commonest symptom and tachyponea is the commonest sign. The most common presenting symptom of pulmonary embolism is dyspnea. Dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea were present in 97% of patients with pulmonary embolism. PE most commonly results from deep vein thrombosis. Clinical sig... | |
Dysmorphic RBC with ARF is seen in?: (A) Glomerular disease, (B) Renal carcinoma, (C) Proximal tubule disease, (D) Distal tubule disease | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Glomerular disease(Ref: Henry's 22nd/ 457- 458)Dysmorphic RBCs with ARF is seen in Glomerular disease, while isomorphic RBCs are seen in non-glomerular bleeds; | |
Cadaveric spasm develops: (A) Less than 2 hours of death, (B) 6 hours of death, (C) Instantaneous with death, (D) Same as rigor mortis | Answer is C. (Instantaneous with death): (150 31st/edition; 3.18- Parikh's 6th/e)CADAVERIC SPASM or instantaneous rigor or Cataleptic rigidityCharacterized by stiffening of the muscles immediately after death without being preceded by the stage of primary relaxationThe conditions necessary for its development are1. Som... | |
LEAST common presentation of fibroid uterus is?: (A) Infeility, (B) Amenorrhoea, (C) Pelvic mass, (D) Menorrhagia | Answer is B. Symptoms of fibroid uterus Menorrhagia, polymenorrhoea, metrorrhagia, continuous or postmenopausal bleeding Infeility, recurrent aboions Pain Pressure symptoms Abdominal lump Vaginal discharge | |
All of the following is given for the treatment for Pityriasis versicoler Except:: (A) Ketoconazole, (B) Griseofulvin, (C) Clotrimazole, (D) Selenium sulphate | Answer is B. B i.e. Griseofulvin | |
Which of the following anti–arrythmic drug decreases the action potential duration in purkinje fibers ?: (A) Quinidine, (B) Flecainide, (C) Amiodarone, (D) Lignocaine | Answer is D. None | |
Symmetrical persistent enlargement of the parotid gland is seen in:: (A) Sjogren syndrome., (B) Cylindroma., (C) Mickuliz disease., (D) All of the above. | Answer is C. None | |
All of the following drugs are indicated in the treatment of bipolar disorder except?: (A) Carbamazepine, (B) Vigabatrin, (C) Sodium valproate, (D) Lamotrigine | Answer is B. BIPOLAR DISORDER Drug of choice for bipolar disorder is lithium. Alternatives to lithium are some antiepileptics (carbamazepine, valproate, lamotrigine, topiramate), antipsychotics (olanzapine, aripiprazole, haloperidol) and benzodiazepines. Carbamazepine and valproate are useful in manic depressive psycho... | |
Fear is: (A) A primary emotion acquires soon after birth, (B) A primary emotion acquired in utero, (C) A primary emotion acquires several years after birth, (D) Not a primary emotion | Answer is A. None | |
Cultivable (in vitro) hepatitis virus is?: (A) Hepatitis A, (B) Hepatitis B, (C) Hepatitis C, (D) Hepatitis D | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hepatitis A "HAV can be cultivated reproducibly in vitro" - Harrison Remember . HAV is the only cultivable hepatitis virus | |
In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except:: (A) Measles, (B) Typhoid, (C) Hepatitis B, (D) Gonorrhoea | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Measles In measles the only source of infection is a case of measles. Carriers are not known to occur.For more see Q no. 31 of Dec 1998. | |
Most common cause of hydronephrosis is children: (A) PUJ obstruction, (B) Ureterocele, (C) Posterior urethral valve, (D) Ectopic ureter | Answer is A. In children Most common cause of hydrophosis is Pelvi Ureteric junction obstruction. | |
The following are direct signs of Lung collapse seen on the Chest X-ray except:: (A) Mediastinal shift, (B) Displacement of the fissure, (C) Crowding of the vessels, (D) Loss of aeration | Answer is A. Ans. A. Mediastinal shift. (Ref. Sutton radiology 7th ed. 161)Direct signs of lung collapse includeIndirect signs are:i) opacity of the affected lobe(s)ii) crowding of the vessels and bronchi within the collapsed area:iii) displacement or bowing of the fissures.i) compensatory hyperinflation of the normal ... | |
A patient presents with melaena normal renal function, hypeension and mononeuritis multiplex. The most probable diagnosis is:: (A) Classical polyaeritis nodosa, (B) Microscopic polyangiitis, (C) Henoch-Schonlein purpura, (D) Buerger's disease | Answer is A. Answer is A (Classic PAN) : Amongst the options provided, mononeuritis multiplex is a feature of classical PAN and microscopic polyangitis. Presence of hypeension (infrequent in microscopic polyangitis) and normal renal function (infrequent in microscopic polyangitis) leads us to a diagnosis of classical p... | |
A wave in JVP is due to -: (A) Atrial systole, (B) Atrial diastole, (C) Ventricular systale, (D) Ventricular diastole | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Atrial systole JUGULAR VENOUS PULSE.a waveIt is the positive presystolic wave produced by right atrial contraction.x descenta wave is followed by the negative systolic wave the x' descent.The x descent is produced due to atrial relaxation.The atrial relaxation is produced as a result of v... | |
Area falling under 2 S.D. curve would be around -: (A) 66%, (B) 95%, (C) 57%, (D) 99% | Answer is B. Ref: Parks 23rd edition pg 848 The several measures of variation or dispersion of which the following are widely known : RangeThe mean or Average detion The standard detion . Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7% | |
Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction due to: (A) Irreversible pulmonary vasocontriction hypoxia, (B) Reversible pulmonary vasoconstriction due to hypoxia, (C) Direct blood to poorly ventilated areas, (D) Occurs hours after pulmonary vasoconstriction | Answer is B. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV), also known as the Euler-Liljestrand mechanism, is a physiological phenomenon in which small pulmonary aeries constrict in the presence of alveolar hypoxia (low oxygen levels). Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2334 |
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