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Which of the following drugs is effective against pseudomonas infection?: (A) Ampicillin, (B) Ceftriaxone, (C) Colistin, (D) Cefixime | Answer is C. Polymyxin 8 and Colistin Polymyxin and colistin were obtained in the late 1940s from Bacillus polymyxa and B. colistinus respectively. They are active against gramnegative bacteria only; all except Proteus, Serratia and Neisseria are inhibited. Both have very similar range of activity, but colistin is more... | |
Infliximab ?: (A) CD 20 antagonist, (B) IL6 antagonist, (C) Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha, (D) Chimeric antibody against Her2-neu | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha | |
Alpha methyldopa primarily used for: (A) Pregnancy induced hypeension, (B) Renovascular hypeension, (C) First line agent in hypeension, (D) Refractory hypeension | Answer is A. Methyldopa was primarily used in the past but is now used widely for pregnancy induced hypeension. Refer katzung 11e p173 | |
Figure of 8 appearance is seen in: (A) Paracoccidiomycosis, (B) Coccidiomycosis, (C) Blastomycosis, (D) Sporotrichosis | Answer is C. None | |
A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exeion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Chronic idiopathic utricaria, (B) Heat uicaria, (C) Solar uicaria, (D) Cholinergic uicaria | Answer is D. D i.e. Cholinergic Uicaria | |
All are features of Lobar pneumonia except: (A) Homogeneous consolidation, (B) Air bronchogram sign present, (C) Segmental consolidation, (D) Typical of pneumococcal infection | Answer is C. Consolidation in Lobar pneumonia in Non - segmental. | |
Frame shift mutation DOESN'T occur in multiples of:: (A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 5 | Answer is B. Ans: (b) 3Ref: Harper's Biochemistry 30th edn. / 417-18* Frame-shift mutations* The genetic code is read in form of triplets of nucleotides which are known as codons.* If one or two base pairs from the code are removed or inserted, the genetic code will be misread from that change onwards, because the gene... | |
Among the following, which one is considered as 'pathologic problem' while planning treatment in orthodontics?: (A) Tendency of lower jaw and teeth to be behind upper, (B) Deep overbite, (C) Minimal attached gingiva in lower anterior region, (D) Decalcification | Answer is C. Inadequate attached gingiva around crowded incisors indicates the possibility of tissue dehiscence developing when the teeth are aligned, especially with non-extraction (arch expansion) treatment.
proffit page 173 | |
Best view for nasal bone ?: (A) Lateral, (B) Towne's, (C) Cald-well, (D) Submentoveical | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral | |
Which of the following is true regrading spinal cord and neuraxial blockade: (A) Spinal cord ends at S1 in adults, (B) Spinal anaesthesia is given below L3 level in children, (C) Dural sac extends upto S2 in children, (D) Spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 in children | Answer is B. Spinal cord ends at upper border of L3 in children , and at lower border of L1 in adults. The dural sac extends upto S3 in children and S2 in adults. | |
Poorest prognosis in AML is seen in which cytogenetic abnormality -: (A) Monosomy 7, (B) No cytogenetic abnormality, (C) t (15, 17), (D) inv. 16 | Answer is A. None | |
Mysthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivity: (A) Type I, (B) Type II, (C) Type III, (D) Type IV | Answer is B. None | |
All are seen in ARDS, except :: (A) Pulmonary edema, (B) Decreased tidal volume, (C) Hypercapnia, (D) Decreased compliance | Answer is C. Answer is C (Hypercapnia): ARDS results in Type I Respiratory failure and is characterized by normal or low PaCO2 (Hypocapnia) and not Hypercapnia (see previous explanation on types of respiratory failure). ARDS (Acute Respiratory distress syndrome) ARDS is an acute form of lung injury characterized by: In... | |
The highest E.S.R. is seen in following conditions except:: (A) Polymyositis rheumatica, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Temporal activities, (D) Polycythemia rubra | Answer is D. Polycythemia rubra | |
Pit viper beongs to -: (A) Viperidae, (B) Elapidae, (C) Sea snakes, (D) Crotalidae | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Crotalidae o Poisonous snakes are divided into six families:Viperidae - Russell's viper, gaboon viper, saw scaled viper, puff adder. They are found in all parts of world except America.Crotalidae - Rattlesnakes, pigmy rattlesnakes, copperheads, pit viper & bush master. They are found in A... | |
"Pointing index" is due to paralysis of:: (A) Median nerve, (B) Ulnar nerve, (C) Radial nerve, (D) Auxiliary nerve | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Median nerve Pointing index:On asking the pt. to make a fist, it is noticed that the index finger remains straight.This is d/t Paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and that of lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle (to the index finger) in median nerve palsy at a ... | |
A 25 years old female comes to your clinic for evaluation of infertility. A hysterosalpingogram reveals Asherman's syndrome. What symptoms will the patient have?: (A) Menorrhagia, (B) Oligomenorrhea, (C) Polymenorrhea, (D) Hypomenorrhea | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. HypomenorrheaThe typical presenting symptom in adenomyosis is hypomenorrhea, i.e. less blood loss during menstruation. | |
Anticancer drug also used in RA, produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis: (A) Cyclophosphamide, (B) Busulfan, (C) Procarbazine, (D) Mesna | Answer is A. Cyclophosphamide IMPOANT POINTS ON HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS: Drugs causing: Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Metabolite responsible: Acrolein - In Cyclophosphamide Chloracetaldehyde - In Ifosfamide Treatment: Mesna. Nitrogen mustards: 1. Cyclophosphamide: Powerful vesicant Prodrug - Activated by hepatic biotransfor... | |
Hyponasal voice is seen in all except: (A) Adenoids, (B) Nasal Polyp, (C) Cleft palate, (D) Habitual | Answer is C. Causes of hyponasality are Common cold Nasal allergy Nasal polyp Nasal growth Adenoids Nasopharyngeal mass Familial speech pattern Habitual Ref: PL Dhingra; Textbook of EAR, NOSE and THROAT; edition 7; Page - 357 | |
Filled sealants are better than unfilled due to:: (A) High viscosity, (B) High strength, (C) Cotton application, (D) Low abrasion | Answer is D. None | |
Receptor for HIV?: (A) CD4, (B) CD3, (C) CD5, (D) CD56 | Answer is A. Ans. (a) CD4 | |
While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:: (A) Upper border of the rib., (B) Lower border of the rib, (C) Lower border of the rib, (D) In anterior pa of intercostal space. | Answer is A. A i.e. Upper border of rib: | |
In circulatory biomechanics which of the following is true?: (A) Blood viscosity is increased in anemia, (B) Blood viscosity is decreased in polycythemia, (C) Cardiac output is increased in anemia, (D) Cardiac output is decreased in Beri-Beri | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cardiac output is increased in anemia Cardiac output is increased in conditions which cause decrease in peripheral vascular resistance :- Exercise AV fistula or shunt Severe anemia Thyrotoxicosis Wet beri-beri About other options Blood viscosity is low in anemia and high in polycythemia. | |
Local anesthetic that is not used topically is?: (A) Lignocaine, (B) Dibucaine, (C) Tetracaine, (D) Bupivacaine | Answer is D. Bupivacaine REF: Miller 6th e p. 590 Topical ( surface ) anesthetics Not used as surface (topical) ) anesthetics * Lignocaine * Procaine * Tetracaine * Bupivacaine * Dibucaine * Mepivacaine * Prilocaine * Cocaine | |
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum which cause scrofula, belongs to which groups of atypical mycobacteria -: (A) Photochromogens, (B) Scotochromogens, (C) Non-photochromogens, (D) Rapid growers | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Scotochromogens | |
Which of the following is best for transport of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature –: (A) Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC), (B) Transport incubator, (C) Thermacol box, (D) Hot bottle | Answer is A. "Preferably mother should accompany and baby can be transported in KlI4C position. Even father can provide KII/IC during transport if mother can not a company | |
cove sensitization is used for: (A) PTSD, (B) hysteria, (C) brain injury, (D) alcohol use | Answer is D. In cove sensitization also called as imagined punishment, the individual who wants to quit alcohol will be asked to think about adverse consequences of taking alcohol like getting arrested for drunken driving or facing a accident underintoxicated state. He would be told to dream as if if he is drunk and li... | |
A 6 month old baby brought to emergency depament with features of cardiac failure. On examination, she found to have developmental delay and a large tongue. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. The most probable diagnosis is:: (A) Pompe disease, (B) Von Gierke's disease, (C) Forbe's Disease, (D) McArdle's dise... | Answer is A. The type of glycogen storage disease that primarily involves the hea is Pompe disease (GSD IIa) in which acid maltase, necessary for hydrolysis of the outer branches of glycogen, is absent. There is marked deposition of glycogen within the myocardium. Affected infants are well at bih, but symptoms of growt... | |
Which of the following complement components attaches to the crystallizable fragment of immunoglobulin M ?: (A) C5b, (B) C5a, (C) Clqrs, (D) C4b2a | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clqrs Only IgM and IgG activate or fix complement the classic pathway. Of the IgGs, only IgG subclasses 1, 2 and 3 fix complement; IgG4 does not.CI, which is bound to a site in the Fc region, is composed of three proteins: Clq, CI r and Cls. Clq is an aggregate of polypeptides that bind t... | |
All of the folowing opens into middle meatus except:: (A) Middle ethmoidal air sinuses, (B) Maxillary sinus, (C) Posterior ethmoid sinuses, (D) Frontal air sinus | Answer is C. Superior Meatus The superior meatus lies below the superior concha. It receives the openings of the posterior ethmoid sinuses.Middle MeatusThe middle meatus lies below the middle concha. It has a rounded swelling called the bulla ethmoidalis that is formed by the middle ethmoidal air sinuses, which open on... | |
RPD is indicated in all except: (A) Long edentulous span, (B) Multiple edentulous spaces, (C) Excessive loss of alveolar bone, (D) Distal abutment Loss | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following instruments is shown below?: (A) Retinoscope, (B) Direct ophthalmoscope, (C) Indirect ophthalmoscope, (D) Slit lamp biomicroscope | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Slit lamp biomicroscope. | |
About cushing syndrome, true Is -: (A) Low dose dexamethasone suppress coisone secretion, (B) CA of adrenal is more common than adenoma, (C) Pituitary adenoma size > 2 cm (usually), (D) ACTH secretion is the commonest cause | Answer is D. most cases the cause is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia due to hyper secretion of pituitary ACTH or ectopic production of ACTH by a non pituitary source ( Harrison 17 pg 2255) | |
Best test for Small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates is :: (A) Lund meal test :, (B) Shilling test, (C) D-Xylose test, (D) Follacin test | Answer is C. Answer is C (D-xylose test) D-xylose absorption test is the most commonly employed test for carbohydrate absorption - Harrison An endoscopic mucosal biopsy is the more specific test and is now considered essential. As endoscopic small intestinal biopsy' is not provided in the options 'D-xylose test' is the... | |
A Thirty five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is -: (A) Muscle Biopsy, (B) CPK levels, (C) Edrophonium test, (D) Single fiber EMG | Answer is D. None | |
String sign is a radiological feature of -: (A) Crohn's disease, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) Ileocecal tuberculosis, (D) Ischemic colitis | Answer is C. String sign → Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, Ileocecal tuberculosis.
String sign of Kantor → Crohn's disease
String of bead sign → Small bowel obstruction | |
Alarm system (a reminder technique for digit sucking in mature children) was developed by:: (A) Massler, (B) Norton and Gellin, (C) Benjamin, (D) Pinkham | Answer is B. Norton and Gellin developed 3 alarm system. | |
Which level of prolactin definitely suggest hyperprolactinemia?: (A) 200 ng/mL, (B) 150 ng/mL, (C) 50 ng/mL, (D) 100 ng/mL | Answer is A. Elevations in prolactin may cause amenorrhea or galactorrhea. Amenorrhea without galactorrhea is associated with hyperprolactinemia in approximately 15% of women. In patients with both galactorrhea and amenorrhea, approximately two-thirds will have hyperprolactinemia; of those, approximately one-third will... | |
Bulge sign in knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation-: (A) 100 ml, (B) 400 ml, (C) 200 ml, (D) < 30 ml | Answer is D. BULGE TEST is a useful method of testing when there is very little fluid in the joint.Usually occurs in medial meniscal injury. It can detect even 30 ml of fluid accumulation. After squeezing any fluid out of the suprapatellar pouch,the medial compament is emptied by pressing on the inner aspect of the joi... | |
An 11-year-old boy was brought to the pediatric OPD with multiple abscesses over his face, chest, and back. The child has a history of recurrentrespiratory infections. On examination, he has atopic excoriating skin and multiple cold abscesses on his back. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Hyper IgE syndrome, (B... | Answer is A. From the above clinical history and examination, the most probable diagnosis is Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome). It is an autosomal dominant primary immunodeficiency disease caused by a mutation of STAT3 gene. Neutrophils do not generate an immune response, probably due to a defect in chemotaxis. Patie... | |
Material used in verterbroplasty is :: (A) Isomethyl methacrylate, (B) Isoethyl methacrylate, (C) Polyethyl methacrylate, (D) Polymethyl methacrylate | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Polymethyl methacrylate Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are interventional radiologic procedures for the treatment of the intense pain refractory to medical management or bracing caused by vertebral compression fracture associated with osteoporosis, tumors, and trauma.Vertebroplasty and kyp... | |
All of the following are false regarding Vacuum assisted closure Except -: (A) Due to negative pressure , bacterial counts decrease and cell proliferation increases in the wound., (B) Continuous pressure of +125 mm hg is applied., (C) It causes interstitial edema , thereby increasing blood flow and better healing., (D)... | Answer is A. VACUUM ASSISTED CLOSURE/NEGATIVE PRESSURE WOUND THERAPY(NPWT) NPWT promotes wound healing by applying a vacuum through a special sealed dressing. Continued vacuum draws out the fluid (interstitial fluid) from wound and increase blood flow to the area. As a result, bacterial counts decrease and cell prolife... | |
Which of the following is not found in cerebral palsy?: (A) Hypotonia, (B) Microcephaly, (C) Ataxia, (D) Flaccid paralysis | Answer is D. Cerebral palsy is a static encephalopathy and a disorder of posture and movement often associated with seizures and deficit in the motor, language, and social milestones due to insult to the developing brain.MICROCEPHALY is a feature of cerebral palsy because of insult to the developing brain.DYSTONIC CP i... | |
When observations are made before and after the exposure to the factor, it is -: (A) Chi-square test, (B) Unpaired T-Test, (C) Paired T-Test, (D) ANOVA test | Answer is C. Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than 2 groups Mc Nemar test : 1 group. ( before and after intervention) Quantitative: Paired T test: 1 group Student T test/ unpaired T test: 2 groups Anova: more than 2 groups. | |
The symmetrical radiopacities marked with arrow are most likely:: (A) Genial tubercle, (B) Mental ridges, (C) Mylohyoid ridges, (D) Both 1 and 2 | Answer is B. On periapical radiographs of the mandibular central incisors, the mental ridge (protuberance) may occasionally be seen as two radiopaque lines sweeping bilaterally forward and upward toward the midline. They are of variable width and density and may be found to extend from low in the premolar area on each ... | |
An absent kidney is found in: (A) 1:200 individuals, (B) 1:700 individuals, (C) 1:1400 individuals, (D) 1:5000 individuals | Answer is C. About 1 in 1400 people have a single kidney. Sometimes a ureter and renal pelvis are present with no kidney. The contralateral kidney is typically hyperophied. Reference: page 1282 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 26th edition ( note : according to 27th edition Complete absence of one kidney occur... | |
A 50 years old male presents with massive splenomegaly. His differential diagnosis will include all, except: (A) Chronic mycloid leukemia, (B) Polycythemia rubra vera, (C) Hairy cell leukemia, (D) Aplastic anemia | Answer is D. Diseases Associated with massive splenmegaly.
Chronic myclogenous leukemia
Gaucher's disease
Lymphomas
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Hairy cell leukemia
Sarcoidosis
Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Polycythemia vera
Diffuse splenic human giomatosis | |
For cast restorations the cavity wall should have a taper of: (A) 30-45 degree, (B) 5-10 degree, (C) 2-5 degree, (D) none of the above | Answer is C. None | |
All of the following statements regarding nasolabial cyst are TRUE, EXCEPT:: (A) Arises from odontoid epithelium, (B) Presents submucosally in anterior nasal floor, (C) Bilateral, (D) Usually seen in adults | Answer is A. Nasolabial cyst are common developmental cyst arising outside the bone in the nasolabial fold below the alae nasi. It usually affects women in their 4th to 5th decade. Microscopically the cyst is lined by non cililated pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of cho... | |
Darrier's sign is seen in -: (A) Darrier's disease, (B) Urticaria pigmentosa, (C) Allergic vasculitis, (D) Atopic dermatitis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Urticaria pigmentosao Urticaria pigmentosa is a familial cutaneous disorder characterised by generalised distribution of red brown macules,o Each lesion represents a collection of mast cells in the dermis with hyperpigmentation of overlying epidermis,o The most characteristic features is ... | |
Melatonin is secreted by parenchymal cells of pineal gland. Fever causes:: (A) Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level, (B) Resetting of skin temperature, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level | |
Which of the metabolic abnormality is seen in multiple myeloma?: (A) Hyponatremia, (B) Hypokalemia, (C) Hypercalcemia, (D) Hyperphosphatemia | Answer is C. None | |
An adult presented with hematemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. CT scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At laparotomy neoplastic growth was obser... | Answer is C. Palliative procedures like palliative paial gastrectomy, anterior gastrojejunostomy, Devine's exclusion procedure, luminal stenting in proximal inoperable growths, chemotherapy are used in inoperable cases. * In early carcinoma proper lymph nodal clearance is impoant. Antrectomy is also called as hemi-gast... | |
Which of the following is an anti-coagulant for atrial fibrillation in a patient with prior history of stroke, with reduced risk of haemorrhage?: (A) Vitamin K antagonists, (B) Apixaban, (C) Clopidogrel, (D) Ticlopidine | Answer is B. Anticoagulants are the treatment of choice in patients with atrial fibrillation and prior stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin have long been the mainstay of therapy, but a new set of anticoagulants has emerged as a reasonable alternative that may indeed prove t... | |
The cause of oedema in nephritic syndrome: (A) Increase in plasma protein concentratn, (B) Decrease plasma protein concentratn, (C) Reduced plasma osmotic pressure, (D) Sodium and water retention | Answer is D. Robbins page no p922 Glomerular diseases presenting with a nephritic syn- drome are often characterized by inflammation in the glomeruli. The nephritic patient usually presents with hematuria, red cell casts in the urine, azotemia, oliguria, and mild to moderate hypeension. Proteinuria and edema are common... | |
Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes :: (A) History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology, (B) Clinical examination, mammography, biopsy/cytology, (C) History, clinical examination, ultrasonography, (D) Observation, ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology | Answer is B. Triple assessment comprises of :
Clinical examination (palpation).
Radiological imaging (mammography or USG).
Pathological assessment (Biopsy or cytology). | |
EC O157:H7, shiga toxin-producing strain of E. coli can be distinguished from other strains of E.coli by using the following medium:: (A) Hektoen agar, (B) Sorbitol, (C) Blood agar, (D) LJ medium | Answer is B. Shiga toxin-producing E coli (STEC) are named for the cytotoxic toxins they produce. There are at least two antigenic forms of the toxin referred to as Shiga-like toxin 1 and Shiga-like toxin 2. STEC has been associated with, Hemorrhagic colitis Severe diarrhea Hemolytic uremic syndrome resulting acute ren... | |
Amylin is secreted by which cell of pancreas?: (A) Alpha cells, (B) Beta cells, (C) Gamma cells, (D) Delta cells | Answer is B. Amylin, or islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP), is a 37-residue peptide hormone. It is cosecreted with insulin from the pancreatic b-cells in the ratio of approximately 100:1.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 315 | |
Putrefaction process is delayed by :: (A) Peritonitis, (B) Ansarca, (C) Carbolic acid, (D) Sepsis | Answer is C. Carbolic acid delays the process of putrefaction.
Peritonitis, ansarca, sepsis enhances the process of putrefaction. | |
Initial preferred investigation for thyroid nodule is:: (A) FNAC, (B) Radionucleide test, (C) Thyroid function test, (D) USG | Answer is C. Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test(TFT) Investigation of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC Solitary Thyroid Nodule: Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test (TFT) If TFT is raised, next investigation is thyroid scan , (For hot nodules, RAI ablation or surgery is ... | |
Longest fetal diameter:: (A) Biparietal, (B) Suboccip tobregmatic, (C) Occipitofrontal, (D) Mentovertical | Answer is D. Ans is d, i.e. MentoverticalFetal diameters-AP diameters are always longer than Transverse diameter of fetal head.Longest diameter is-Mentovertical diameter (14 cms) followed by submentovertical diameter. | |
Which of the following is an impoant distinguishing characteristic of H. pylori as compared to Campylobacter species?: (A) Oxidase production, (B) Catalase production, (C) Urease production, (D) Curved shape | Answer is C. Both Campylobacter and Helicobacter Belong to the family Campylobacteriaceae. Both are GNspiral-shaped or comma-shaped bacteria. Catalase and oxidase positive. Urease however, is produced only by Helicobacter. | |
True about Hepatocellular Carcinoma ?: (A) Most prevalent malignancy, (B) Commonest liver tumor, (C) HBV predisposes, (D) Patient present in early stage | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. HBV predisposes Most common cancers in the world are --> Lung > Breast > Colorectal. As already stated before, HCC presents quite late and thus only 15-20% cancers are resectable. Most patients with unresectable lesions die within a year after diagnosis. | |
From A drugs which acts through inhibition of integrase activity of virus ?: (A) Raltegravir, (B) Tiprinavir, (C) Enfuviide, (D) Etravirine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Raltegravir | |
A 33 yr /M has history of A, now complaints of pain left hip. On examination there is Flexion, External Rotation of left lower limb is present. There is 7 cm shoening of left lower limb, there is a gluteal mass felt which moves with the movement of femoral shaft, most probable diagnosis could be?: (A) Anterior dislocat... | Answer is D. Anterior dislocation is ruled out because it will have Flexion Abduction External Rotation with lengthening and anterior femoral head (Mass that moves with femur shaft is femur head). Central dislocation is ruled out because it will have shoening and femur head palpable on per rectal examination. Posterior... | |
C-reactive proteins are -: (A) Alpha-1 globulin, (B) Beta-1 globulin, (C) Alpha-2 globulin, (D) All | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta-1 globulin C-reactive is a nonspecific inflammatory acute phase protein. It is a beta globulin which is produced in the liver. | |
Wood's lamp is made up of -: (A) 9% nickel oxide with 6% barium silicate, (B) 9% nickel oxide with 9% barium silicate, (C) 6% nickel oxide with 6% barium silicate, (D) 9% nickel oxide with barium silicate | Answer is D. Wood's Lamp It is a low intensity ultraviolet light(360nm) emitted by a high pressure mercury lamp fitted with a special filter made up of 9% nickel oxide and silica. | |
In carcinoid syndrome, the ap of hea mostly affected is:: (A) Outflow tract of RV, (B) Inflow tract of RV, (C) Inflow tract of LV, (D) Outflow tract LV | Answer is B. Answer is B (Inflow tract of RV) The most commonly involved valve in, carcinoid syndrome is tricuspid valve which forms the inflow tract of Right ventricle. Most commonly involved pa of hea : Inflow tract of RV (Tricuspid valve) Second most commonly involved pa of hea : Outflow tract of RV (Pulmonic valve) | |
Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction: (A) Rowe's, (B) Bristows, (C) Ashs, (D) Walshams | Answer is A. None | |
Premature atherosclerosis causing death is seen in:: (A) Fabry's disease, (B) Vitamin E deficiency, (C) Abetalipoproteinemia, (D) Spinocerebellar ataxia | Answer is A. Fabry's disease is an X-linked dominant disorder. Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum is another name for it. Neuropathy usually stas in the childhood. It is overshadowed by complications arising from the associated premature atherosclerosis that lead to death by the fifth decade of life. ALSO KNOW: Fabry's di... | |
Pharmacovigilance means:: (A) Monitoring of drug safety, (B) Monitoring of unethical trade of drugs, (C) Monitoring pharma students, (D) Monitoring drug efficacy | Answer is A. Pharmacovigilance has been defined by the WHO as the ''science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problems'' The information generated by pharmacovigilance is useful in educating doctors about the adverse drug rea... | |
When the black band of a CPITN probe is completely visible while in gingival sulcus, it means: (A) The individual has advanced periodontal disease, (B) The individual has pockets between 4 and 5 mm, (C) The individual needs comprehensive periodontal surgery, (D) The individual has calculus and needs scaling and oral hy... | Answer is D. None | |
Ligament of poupart is: (A) Linea alba, (B) Pectineal ligament, (C) Lacunar ligament, (D) Inguinal ligament | Answer is D. Ligament of poupart is another name for Inguinal ligament | |
Individuals with alcoholic cirrhosis of the liver may develop severe hepatotoxicity after doses of acetaminophen that are not toxic to individuals with normal liver function. This increased sensitivity to acetaminophen's toxicity is due to :: (A) Decrease availability of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, (B) Decreased hepato... | Answer is B. None | |
The chromosomal complement of a primary oocyte is-: (A) 23X, (B) 23Y, (C) 46XX, (D) 46XY | Answer is C. Ans- (C) Primary oocyte | |
Most affernt fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual coex is:: (A) Layer 1, (B) Layer 2 and 3, (C) Layer 4, (D) Layer 5 and 6 | Answer is C. Most fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) end in layer 4 of the primary visual coex. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 22nd Edition, Page 161; Berne and Levy Physiology, 5th Edition, Page 129. | |
A 40 year old male brought to the emergency room with a stab injury to the chest.On examination pt is found to be hemodynamically stable. The neck veins are engorged and the hea sounds are muffled .The following statements are true for this pt except -: (A) Cardiac tamponade is likely to be present, (B) Echocardiogram ... | Answer is D. Pericardial tamponade Pericardial tamponade must be differentiated from tension pneumothorax in the shocked patient with distented neck veins It is most commonly the result of penetrating trauma. Characterized by Beck's Triad (MDH) : Muffled hea sounds, distended neck veins & Hypotension Diagnosis Chest X-... | |
Nagler's reaction is shown by ?: (A) Clostridium tetani, (B) Clostridium welchii, (C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis, (D) Mycobacterium leprae | Answer is B. None | |
Using a lens of +14D, magnification of fundus of an emmetropic eye in indirect ophthalmoscopy is: March 2013 (e): (A) 5 times, (B) 10 times, (C) 15 times, (D) 25 times | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. 5 times | |
The characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia is: (A) Stupor, (B) Rigidity, (C) Negativism, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. (D) All of the above | |
A diabetic with orbital cellulitis and maxillary sinusitis shows hyaline, narrow, septate and ranching hyphae with invasion of the blood vessels fungus on microscopy. Which is the causative fungus ?: (A) Candida, (B) Rhizospora, (C) Aspergillus, (D) Histoplasma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Aspergillus Diagnosis of Aspergillus infection: o Histologic examination of affected tissue reveals either infarction, with invasion of blood vessels by many fungal hvphae, or acute necrosis, with limited inflammation and hyphae. o Aspergillus hyphae are hyaline, narrow, and septate, with... | |
Partogram is used to -: (A) Assess the fetal well-being in labour, (B) Assess the condition of the baby at birth, (C) Record the events of pregnancy, (D) Assess the progress of labour | Answer is D. Ans: D | |
Mcdonald stitch is applied in the following conditions except:: (A) Incompetent os, (B) Septate uterus, (C) Placenta previa, (D) Bad obstetrical history | Answer is C. Contraindications to Circlage operation:
Intra uterine infection
Ruptured membranes
H/o vaginal bleeding
Severe uterine irritability
Cervical dilatation > 4 cm | |
In early stages, how is acute alveolar abscess is diagnosed:: (A) No change., (B) A diffuse radiolucency., (C) PDL widening., (D) None of the above. | Answer is C. PDL widening can be the method for diagnosing the acute alveolar abscess in early stage, while chronic alveolar abscess presents as more distinct radiographic lesion. | |
Specific reason to disallow the sample for culture -: (A) Sample brought within 2 hr of collection, (B) Sample brought in sterile plastic container, (C) Sample brought in formalin, (D) Sample obtained after cleaning the collection site | Answer is C. Sample brought in formalin are not allowed for culture,as it may loose it's characteristic propeies specific to that organism. Ref ananthnarayana and panikers microbiology textbook | |
The spirometer can estimate all the following except: (A) Total lung capacity, (B) Forced expiratory volume in 1 second, (C) Peak expiratory flow, (D) Vital capacity | Answer is A. The total lung capacity (TLC), about 6,000 mL, is the maximum amount of air that can fill the lungs (TLC = TV + IRV + ERV + RV Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:326,327,328 | |
Epidural anaesthesia decrease risk of – a) Headacheb) Hypotensionc) Meningitisd) Arachnoiditis: (A) abc, (B) ad, (C) bc, (D) acd | Answer is D. As dura is not punctured in epidural anesthesia, chances of postdural puncture headache, meningitis and arachnoiditis are less. | |
Gamma Carboxylation of what requires vitamin K: (A) Glutamine, (B) Glutamic Acid, (C) Glycine, (D) Aspaate | Answer is B. Biochemical functions of Vitamin K The functions of vitamin K are concerned with blood clotting process. lt brings about the post- translational (after protein biosynthesis in the cell) modification of ceain blood clotting factors. The clotting factors ll (prothrombin), Vil, lX and X are synthesized as ina... | |
Which of the following is not an anti androgenic drug ?: (A) Flutamide, (B) Spironolactone, (C) Finasteride, (D) Cypionate | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cypionate | |
12 years old male presented with intensely itchy grouped vesicles on buttock, trunk and scalp. On exposure to wheat they exaggerate. Diagnosis is -: (A) Herpes simplex, (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis, (C) Pemphigus vulgaris, (D) Bullous impetigo | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e. Dermatitis herpetiformis o Among given options only dermatitis herpetiformis is a gluten sensitivity disorder and aggravates on on eating gluten (wheat, rye, barley).Other features in favour of diagnosis areo Intense itching (characteristic feature)o Distribution of lesion - buttock, trunk ... | |
Causes of a painless limp in infancy includes:: (A) Congenital dislocation of hip, (B) Infantile coxa vara, (C) Poliomyelitis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Painless Limp Painful Limp 1-3 years age group: DDH Cerebral palsy Muscular dystrophy Infantile coxa vara 4-10 years age: Limb length discrepancy Poliomyelitis Legg Calve Pehes disease Slipped capital femoral epiphysis Osteochondritis dissecans -Lateral surface of medial femoral condyle Ahritis/Synovitis/O... | |
Functions of plasmin are all except-: (A) Fibrinolysis, (B) Activation of collagenase, (C) Destruction of VWF, (D) Stabilization of fibrin | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stabilization of fibrin * Plasmin is a proteolytic enzyme which belongs to serine protease family.* Its function are:-i) Fibrinolysis by break down of fibrin - It is the major function.ii) Activation of Collagenaseiii) Break down of matrix proteins (fibrin, fibronectin, thrombospondin, la... | |
What is the extent of spinal cord in an adult?: (A) Lower border of L1, (B) Tip of Coccyx, (C) Upper border of L3, (D) S2 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lower border of LI * Spinal cord begins at foramen magnum and, in adults, ends at lower border of LI.StructureExtends uptoAdult spinal cordInfant spinal cordLower border of L} or upper border of L2Upper border of L3 vertebraeFilum terminalePiamaterTip of coccyxDural sheathSubdural spaceSu... | |
Which of the following are common physiological problems in neonates:: (A) Erythema toxicum, (B) Transitional stools, (C) Mongolian spots, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D. All of the aboveNeonates may have minor physiological peculiarities which are of no serious consequences. These include(i) Regurgitation of milk (most neonates take out small amount of curdled milk soon after feed. Child is usually active and vomitus is never yellow or green colour)(ii) Transitiona... | |
The following is a marker of acute hepatitis B infection-: (A) DNA polymerase, (B) Hepatitis core antigen, (C) Anti HBs, (D) IgG to core antigen | Answer is A. HBV-DNA can be measured by PCR in the blood. Viral loads are usually in excess of 105 copies/mL in the presence of active viral replication, as indicated by the presence of e antigen. In contrast, in individuals with low viral replication, who are HBsAg- and anti-HBe-positive, viral loads are less than 105... | |
Binding of gp 120 causes:: (A) Infection of target cell, (B) Facilitation of co-receptor, (C) Fusing of virus and target cell, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. b. Facilitation of co-receptor | |
Following is not a variety of entropion ?: (A) Pathological, (B) Spastic, (C) Cicatrix, (D) Involutional | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pathological | |
Tendon Xanthomas are seen in: (A) Familial hyper cholesterolemia, (B) Familial hyper lipidemia, (C) Familial beta lipoprotenemia, (D) Familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency | Answer is A. None | |
All or none law refers to:: (A) Action potential, (B) Resting potential, (C) Membrane potential, (D) None | Answer is A. Action potential | |
If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing, it is inferred that the measurement is:: (A) Precise, (B) Accurate, (C) Specific, (D) Sensitive | Answer is A. Criteria of screening test
Acceptability – The test should be acceptable to population to which it is going to be applied.
Repeatability (reliability, precision, reproducibility) – The test must give consistent results when repeated more than once on the same individual or material under the same condi... |
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