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Which of the following virus is from Herpes virus family?: (A) Rubella, (B) Measles, (C) Rabies, (D) EBV | Answer is D. A VIRINAE B VIRINAE VIRINAE Includes HSV 1 HSV 2 HHV 3 Affects Ganglionic cells Includes HHV 5 HHV 6 HHV 7 Affects salivary glands Includes HHV 4 HHV 8 Affects B cells HHV - 3 - varicella zoster HHV - 4 - EBV HHV - 5 - Cytomegalo virus HHV - 8 - Kaposi saroma causing virus HSV - 1 - Herpes simplex virus 1 ... | |
False about PCOS: (A) High FSH/LH ratio, (B) Bilateral ovarian cyst, (C) Hirsutism, (D) Increased risk of diabetes melitus | Answer is A. In PCOS, LH:FSH ratio is increased Shaw's Textbook of gynaecology,16th edition page no 432 | |
A 30-year-old male on methotrexate 7.5 mg once daily for arthritis attends clinic for starting family. Wife takes no other medication apart from OCP. What should be the advice before conceiving?: (A) Husband should stop methotrexate and wife should continue contraception for 3 months, (B) Husband should stop methotrexa... | Answer is A. Ans: A (Husband should stop methotrexate and wife should continue contraception for 3 months) Ref: Internet Source (e Therapeutic Guidelines Complete --Use of Anti-Rheumatic Drugs in Pregnancy) and Textbook of Management of Psoriasis by Nikhil YawalkarExplanation:Methotrexate interferes with the biosynthes... | |
Which of the following is considered the MOST impoant risk factor for necrotizing enterocolitis?: (A) Perinatal asphyxia, (B) Polycythemia, (C) Prematurity, (D) Respiratory distress syndrome | Answer is C. Prematurity is the most impoant risk factor for necrotizing enterocolitis, although term infants also sometimes develop the condition. Clinical series have repoed that between 60 and 95% of affected babies are premature, and the incidence is markedly increased in babies born at lower gestational ages. Many... | |
After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs ?: (A) 3 - 5 days, (B) 7 - 9 days, (C) 10 - 12 days, (D) 13 - 15 days | Answer is B. 7 - 9 days "From the time a feilized ovum enters the uterine cavity from the fallopian tube (which occurs 3-4 days after ovulation) until the time ovum implants (7-9 days after ovulation) the uterine secretions called uterinemilk provide nutrition for the early dividing ovum" "At the time of implantation, ... | |
All of the following are clinical features of MEN-II EXCEPT: March 2004: (A) Pituitary tumour, (B) Phaeochromocytoma, (C) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid, (D) Neuroma | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Pituitary tumour Pituitary tumours are a pa of MEN-I/ Wermer syndrome | |
Type of collagen present in cornea ?: (A) Type I, (B) Type II, (C) Type III, (D) Type IV | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type I | |
Caplan's syndrome is: (A) Splenomegaly + Neutropenia, (B) Rheumatoid Arthritis + Pneumoconiosis, (C) Pneumoconiosis + Splenomegaly, (D) Pneumoconiosis + Neutropenia | Answer is B. Rheumatoid Arthritis + Pneumoconiosis nodules = Caplan's syndrome.
Neutropenia + Splenomegaly + Nodular RA = Felty's syndrome. | |
Parotid duct opens at: (A) 1st PM, (B) 1st molar, (C) 2nd upper molar, (D) 2nd lower molar | Answer is C. None | |
Profunda femoris aery at its origin lies on which side of the femoral aery ?: (A) Medial, (B) Lateral, (C) Posterior, (D) Posteromedial | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., LateralProfunda femoris aery arises from lateral side of femoral aery about 4 cm below the inguinal ligament. | |
A patient treated for infeility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites the probable cause is: (A) Uterine repture, (B) Ectopic pregnancy rupture, (C) Multifetal pregnancy, (D) Hyperstimulation syndrome | Answer is D. Ovarian Hyperstimulation syndrome It is an iatrogenic complication of ovulation induction with exogenous gonadotropins and clomiphene-induced cycles Charecteristic feature of OHSS is an increase in capillary permeability resulting in fluid shift from intravascular to extravascular spaces Mechanism of Actio... | |
A 42-year-old man presents with long-standing abdominal pain after meals, which is relieved by over-the-counter antacids. The patient has lost 9 kg (20 lb) in the past year. Physical examination reveals peripheral edema and ascites. Laboratory studies show decreased serum albumin but normal serum levels of transaminase... | Answer is B. Menetrier disease /Hyperplastic hypersecretory gastropathy Mean age 30-60 years Rare disorder associated with excessive secretion of transforming growth factor (TGF)-a, which is an EGF receptor (EGFR) ligand, and hyperactivation of the epidermal growth factor receptor on gastric epithelial cells. Excessive... | |
A middle-aged male comes to the outpatient depament (OPD) with the only complaint of hoarseness of voice for the past 2 years. He has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a poion of both cords was seen. Management would include all except:: (A) Cessation o... | Answer is B. The mentioned symptoms indicate that either it is pachydermia laryngitis or it can be early carcinoma: Both the conditions can be distinguished by biopsy only In either conditions: smoking is a causative factor and should be stopped. Regular follow up is a must in either of the conditions. Bilateral cordec... | |
Antibody found in patients of myaesthenia gravis is directed against: (A) Acetycholine, (B) Acetycholine receptors, (C) Acetycholine vesicles in nerve terminal, (D) Actin-myosin complex of the muscle | Answer is B. *myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease,most commonly caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors in the post junctional membrane of the neuromuscular junction ,which are found in around 80%of affected patients. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2378 | |
All are true foe annular pancreas except: (A) Upper GI series is IOC, (B) Duodenal obstruction present, (C) ERCP is done, (D) Non - rotation of gut | Answer is A. upper GI series is not the investigation of choice.They are plain X-ray abdomen,ERCP and Radioscopic study , Barium meal. SRB,5th,712 | |
Which of the following liver enzymes is predominantly mitochondrial?: (A) SGOT (AST), (B) SGPT (ALT), (C) GGT, (D) 5' Nucleotidase | Answer is A. In old literature, it was called as serum glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase (SGOT). AST needs pyridoxal phosphate (vitamin B6) as co-enzyme. Normal serum level of AST ranges from 8 to 20 U/L. It is a marker of liver injury and shows moderate to the drastic increase in parenchymal liver diseases like hepa... | |
The normal P wave is biphasic in lead: (A) V1, (B) LII, (C) aVF, (D) aVR | Answer is A. The normal P wave in lead V1 may be biphasic with a positive component reflecting right atrial depolarization, followed by a small (<1 mm2 ) negative component reflecting left atrial depolarization. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1455 | |
Mycosis cells are altered :: (A) T Lymphocytes, (B) Monocytes, (C) b lymphocytes, (D) Eosinophils | Answer is A. A. i.e. T lymphacytis | |
Following periodontal surgery the epithelial attachment
healing is completed in: (A) 2 weeks, (B) 4 weeks, (C) 6 weeks, (D) 8 weeks | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following are indices to define obesity, EXCEPT:: (A) Chandler's index, (B) Corpulence index, (C) Quetlet's index, (D) Body mass index | Answer is A. Various indices used to detect obesity include: Corpulence index Quetlet's index/ Body mass index Ponderal index Broca index Lorentz's formula Ref: Park 21st edition, page 369. | |
Surfactant appears in amniotic fluid at the gesta?tional age of :: (A) 20 weeks, (B) 32 weeks, (C) 36 weeks, (D) 26 weeks | Answer is B. Ans. is b i.e. 32 weeks Friends, I had to search a lot for this answer but all in vain. Only Nelson Paediatric throws some light on this issue : "Pulmonary surfactant is a heterogenous mixture of phospholipids and proteins secreted into the saccular or alveolar sub-phase by the type ll pneumocytes. Its pre... | |
For termination of pregnancy, consent is needed from: (A) Only woman, (B) Only husband, (C) Both paners, (D) Consent not needed | Answer is A. Pregnancy can only be terminated on the written consent of the woman. Husband's consent is not requiredPregnancy in a minor girl (below the age of 18 years) or lunatic cannot be terminated without written consent of the parents or legal guardianReference: Textbook of Obstetrics; Sheila Balakrishnan | |
The usefulness of a 'screening test' in a community depends on its -: (A) Sensitivity, (B) Specificity, (C) Reliability, (D) Predictive value | Answer is A. Screening refer to 'the search for unrecognized disease or defect by means of rapidly applied tests, examinations or other procedures in apparently healthy individuals'
For screening a disease the most important parameter is sensitivity
Sensitivity is defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly... | |
The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:: (A) In a difficult intubation, (B) In cardiopulmonary resuscitation, (C) In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery, (D) In a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity | Answer is D. D i.e. In a patient with large tumor of the oral cavity | |
Ratio of lung weight to body weight is calculated in: (A) Fodere's test, (B) Plocquet's test, (C) Breslau's second life test, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Plocquet's test is one of the tests for live birth.
Before respiration: Ratio of lung weight to body weight is I/70.
After respiration: Ratio is 1/35. | |
Which of the following is a false physical parameter during pregnancy?: (A) It's a prothrombotic condition, (B) Blood fibrinogen levels are increased, (C) Clotting and bleeding times are reduced, (D) There is lowering of serum protein levels | Answer is C. On an average the non pregnant levels of blood fibrinogen is 260mg%. But in pregnancy it can reach an average value of 388 mg% (288 - 576 mg%) even then the clotting and bleeding times remains unchanged. Ref: Mudaliar and Menon's Clinical Obstetrics, 9th Edition, Page 41. | |
Chocolate agar is ?: (A) Basal medium, (B) Enrichment medium, (C) Enriched medium, (D) Simple medium | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Enriched medium | |
Asprin is not given in a patient who is already on heparin because aspirin causes :: (A) Platelet dysfunction, (B) Aspirin inhibits the action of heparin, (C) Enhanced hypersensitivity of heparin, (D) Therapy of heparin cannot be monitored | Answer is A. None | |
Which of these is the characteristic feature of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis-: (A) Sub epithelial deposits, (B) Foamy cells, (C) Splitting of glomerular basement membrane, (D) Sub endothelial deposits. | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' > 'd' ie splitting of glomerular basement membrane > sub endothelial deposits Both the features mentioned in the options d & c are present in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is of 2 typesTYPE I characterized byDeposition of subendothelial* immun... | |
Main hormone acting upon uterus to initiate labor-: (A) Oxytocin, (B) Estrogen, (C) Progesterone, (D) Cortisole | Answer is A. Ans-A i.e., Oxytocin Oxytocino Oxytocin is a nonapeptide,o It is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with vasopressin (ADH).o Both oxytocin and ADH are synthesized within the nerve cell bodies in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus; are transported down the axon and stored i... | |
Non -sterile hypopyon is seen in -: (A) Pneumococcus infection, (B) Pseudomonas infection, (C) Fungal infection, (D) Gonococcal infection | Answer is C. In fungal ulcer, usually a big hypopyon is present even if the ulcer is small.Unlike the bacterial ulcer,the hypopyon may not be sterile as the fungi can penetrate into the anterior chamber without perforation. Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,6th edition,page no.106 | |
A highly specific inhibitor that targets the phosphorylation activity of TFIIH is added to an in vitro transcription reaction. Which one of the following steps is most likely to be affected?: (A) Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequence, (B) Promoter clearance, (C) Recruitment of TFIID, (D) Open promoter complex ... | Answer is B. Most likely to be affected by inhibitor that targets the phosphorylation activity of TFIIH is promoter clearance Transcription factor II H has two activities : Helicase Kinase -Unwinds the DNA -Phosphorylates the TFIIH- Promoter clearance. | |
Occlusal morphology is given by:: (A) Okeson, (B) Bencher, (C) Kennedy, (D) Knol | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following histopathological changes are seen in psoriasis except?: (A) Hyperkeratosis, (B) Acanthosis, (C) Dyskeratosis, (D) Parakeratosis | Answer is C. Dyskeratosis is premature &abnormal keratinization below the level of stratum corneum,seen in Bowen's disease,SCC,Dyskeratosis congenita. | |
X-ray of a patient shows the following changes: Bulbous ends of long bones, normal appositional bone growth and there is failure of physiologic root resorption. Lab finding shows myelophthisic anemia. What can be the probable diagnosis?: (A) Fibrous dysplasia, (B) Osteomyelitis, (C) Osteopetrosis, (D) Paget's disease | Answer is C. OSTEOPETROSIS:
Roentgenographic features:
Medullary cavities are replaced by bone and the cortex is thickened.
Density of bone may be such that, the roots of the teeth are nearly invisible on dental roentgenogram.
Ends of long bones are bulbous called Erlenmeyer's flask deformity.
In osteopetrosis, there ... | |
A 70-year-old male has a pathologic fracture of femur. The lesion appears a lytic on X-rays film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from fracture site is most likely to show which of the following?: (A) Diminished and thinned trabecular bone, (B) Sheets of atypical plasma cells, (C) Metastatic p... | Answer is B. Old patient along with lytic circumscribed punched out X-ray appearance suggests multiple myeloma Multiple myeloma most often presents as multifocal destructive bone tumors composed of plasma cells throughout the skeletal system. It shows sheets of atypical plasma cells. | |
Not a common complication of hemithyroidectomy: (A) Hypoparathyroidism, (B) Reactionary hemorrhage, (C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, (D) External laryngeal nerve palsy | Answer is A. As parathyroids on the opposite side are preserved and not dealt with during surgery hypoparathyroidism is not seen after hemithyroidectomy. | |
Diet given to pregnant lady under ICDS is: (A) 3000Kcal with 60grams of protein, (B) 800Kcal with 25grams of protein, (C) 500Kcal with 12grams of protein, (D) 600Kcal with 18grams of protein | Answer is D. In ICDS supplementary nutrition is given to children below 6 years, nursing and expectant mothers from low-income group.Each child 6-72 months of age get 500 Cal and 12-15Gm of proteinSeverely malnourished child 6-72 months of age get 800 Cal and 20-25Gm of proteinEach pregnant and nursing women to get 600... | |
Pulpotomy is not indicated in-: (A) Small pulp exposure since 1 hour, (B) Pulp exposure in permanent tooth with open apex, (C) Pulp exposure in permanent tooth with closed apex treated immediately after injury, (D) Insufficient crown structure remaining | Answer is A. If the patient is seen within an hour or two after the injury, if the vital exposure is small, and if sufficient crown remains to retain a temporary restoration to support the capping material and prevent the ingress of oral fluids, the treatment of choice is direct pulp capping.
If the pulp exposure in a... | |
The site at which 1,25-hydroxylation of Vitamin-D takes place in the kidneys is:: (A) Collecting ducts, (B) Glomerulus, (C) Proximal convoluted tubules, (D) Distal convoluted tubules | Answer is C. Proximal convoluted tubules | |
Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused by -: (A) Adenovirus 3 and 7, (B) Adenovirus 11, 21, (C) Adenovirus 40, 41, (D) Adenovirus 8, 19 | Answer is A. Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused most commonly by serotypes 3 and 7, but serotypes 2, 4 and 14
also, have been documented as etiologic agents.
Ocular infections caused by Adenovirus -
i. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis → Serotypes 8, 19, 37
ii. Follicular conjunctivitis → Serotypes 3,7
iii. Pharyngoc... | |
Emergency contraceptive drugs are:: (A) Levo-norgestrel, (B) Estrogen + progesterone, (C) Mifepristone, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Postcoital (emergency) contraception : 1. Levonorgestrel 0.5 mg + ethinylestradiol 0.1mg taken as early as possible but within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse and repeated after 1 2 hours. Progesterone and estrogen combination can also be used in emergency contraception. 2. levonorgestrel 3. ulipristal... | |
The following are features of primary hyperladosteronism EXCEPT: March 2013: (A) Polyuria, (B) Hypeension, (C) Hypokalemia, (D) Hyperkalemia | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Hyperkalemia Conn's syndrome 3asic pathology: Hyperaldosteronism Features: - Hypeension, - Decreased K., - I-olyuria, - Poiydypsia and - Proximal myopathy | |
Ring sequestrum causes:: (A) Typhoid osteomyelitis, (B) Chronic osteomyelitis, (C) Amputation stump, (D) Tuberculosis osteomyelitis | Answer is C. Sequestrum is the dead bone separated out from the living bone by the granulation tissue. The factors responsible for bone death in chronic osteomyelitis are: raised intravascular pressure Vascular stasis and small vessel thrombosis periosteal stripping bacterial toxins Sequestrum is the hall mark of chron... | |
Following represents fetal hypoxia except:: (A) Excessive foetal movements, (B) Meconium in vertex presentation, (C) Fetal scalp blood pH > 7.3, (D) Heart rate < 100 | Answer is C. Normal fetal scalp pH ranges from 7.25 to 7.35.
Fetal hypoxia is indicated by ‘acidosis’ or fall in fetal scalp pH to values below normal (Not by increase).
It is used to corroborate the significance of fetal CTG (Cardiotocography).
Interpretation of Fetal Scalp blood sampling | |
Which of the following has the highest cholesterol content: (A) chylomicrons., (B) intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs)., (C) LDL., (D) HDL. | Answer is C. None | |
Incubation period of herpes zoster is: (A) 7-14 days, (B) 1 month, (C) 1-2 years, (D) 3-6 months | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is physiological uncoupler-: (A) Thermogonin, (B) 2, 4nitrophenol, (C) 2, 4Dinitrophenol, (D) Oligomycin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.* Thermogenin o Amongst the given options, a, b and c are uncouplers.o However, only thermogenin, among these three is a natural (physiological) uncouplex.Uncoupleso As the name suggests, these componds block the coupeling of oxidation with phosphorylation. These compounds allow the transfe... | |
Most common mode of treatment for laryngomalacia is:: (A) Reassurance, (B) Medical, (C) Surgery, (D) Wait and watch | Answer is A. In most patients laryngomalacia is a self-limiting condition. Treatment of laryngomalacia is reassurance to the parents and early antibiotic therapy for upper respiratory tract infections. Tracheostomy is required only in severe respiratory obstruction. Surgical intervention (supraglottoplasty i.e. reducti... | |
Sensory fiber with least conduction velocity:September. 2005: (A) C- fiber, (B) Alpha fiber, (C) beta fiber, (D) Gamma fiber | Answer is A. Ans. A: C- fiberAlpha fibers are the thickest (fiber diameter of 12-20 micrometer) and fastest conduction velocity (of 70-120 mis) whereas C-fibers are the thinnest (fiber diameter of 0.3-1.2 micrometer) and slowest conduction velocity (of 0.5-2 m/s) | |
Which of these structures appears radiopaque?: (A) Maxillary sinus, (B) Nasal fossa, (C) Nasal septum, (D) Mental foramen | Answer is C. Radiopaque refers to that portion of the radiograph that appears light or white. Radiopaque structures are dense and absorb or resist the passage of the X-ray beam, E.g., Enamel, dentin and bone.
Nasal septum
On the panoramic radiograph, it appears as a vertical radiopaque partition that divides the nasal ... | |
Coliform test is for -: (A) Air pollution, (B) Water contamination, (C) Sound pollution, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Water Contomination Bacteriological indicators of w ater contaminationo Presence of following organism indicate fecal contamination of water.Coliform : by all practical point of view it is assumed that all coliform are fecal in origin unless a non-fecal origin can be proved.Fecal streptoc... | |
Seoli cell secrets: (A) Androgen binding protein, (B) Testosterone, (C) LH, (D) FSH | Answer is A. Androgen binding protein is a protein secreted by testicular Seoli cells along with inhibin and mullerian inhibiting substance. Androgen binding protein probably maintains a high concentration of androgen in the seminiferous tubules.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 421 | |
High plasma protein binding of a drug results in:-: (A) Decreased glomerular filtration, (B) High volume of distribution, (C) Lowers duration of action, (D) Less drug interaction | Answer is A. * High plasma protein binding (PPB) of a drug decreases its distribution into tissue and thus lower the volume of distribution. * As only free drug can be metabolized or excreted, high PPB usually increases the duration of action. * With higher PPB, there is more chance of getting displaced by other drugs ... | |
Polypeptide capsule is seen in: (A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae, (B) Clostridium welchii, (C) Staphylococcus aureus, (D) Bacillus anthracis | Answer is D. None | |
Earliest fetal anomaly to be detected by USG: March 2013: (A) Hydrocephalus, (B) Achndroplasia, (C) Anencephaly, (D) Spina bifida | Answer is C. Ans. C i.e. Anencephaly | |
Treatment of depression with suicidal tendencies is?: (A) Clozapine, (B) Mitrazapine, (C) ECT, (D) Olenzapine | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) ECTREF: Kaplan synopsis 10th ed p. 557ECT is therapy of choice depression with:Suicidal tendencyPsychomotor retardationPsychotic and delusional features with somatic syndromeIntolerance , contraindication, refractory to drugs | |
A 32 year old male presents with a laceration he sustained after stepping on broken glass at the beach. The examination reveals an 8cm cut on the medial plantar aspect of the left foot. Which peripheral nerve block is appropriate?: (A) Saphenous nerve, (B) Sural nerve, (C) Posterior tibial nerve, (D) Superficial perone... | Answer is C. Posterior tibial nerve * The posterior tibial nerve innervates the sole of the foot. To perform a peroneal nerve block, 1 percent lidocaine is injected into the subcutaneous tissue lateral to the posterior tibial aery at the upper border of the medial malleolus. * None of the other nerves listed supply the... | |
Complication of positive pressure ventilation –: (A) Pneumothorax, (B) Bradycardia, (C) Decreased ventilation, (D) Arrhythmias | Answer is A. PEEP & CPAP can cause barotrauma which may result in pneumothorax, pneumoperitoneum, penumopericardium/ cardiac tamponade. | |
The most common cause of conductive deafness in children is: (A) ASOM, (B) Wax, (C) Serous otitis media, (D) Otosclerosis | Answer is C. SEROUS OTITIS MEDIA, SECRETORY OTITIS MEDIA, MUCOID OTITIS MEDIA, "GLUE EAR" This is an insidious condition characterized by accumulation of nonpurulent effusion in the middle ear cleft. The fluid is nearly sterile. The disease affects children of 5-8 years of age. Hearing loss. This is the presenting and ... | |
Drug of choice in absence seizure-: (A) Carbamazepine, (B) Phenytoin, (C) ACTH, (D) Ethosuximide | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ethosuximide | |
A young girl has had repeated infections with Candida albicans and respiratory viruses since the time she was 3 months old. As pa of the clinical evaluation of her immune status, her responses to routine immunization procedures should be tested. In this evaluation, the use of which of the following vaccines is contrain... | Answer is D. Recurrent severe infection is an indication for clinical evaluation of immune status. Live vaccines, including BCG attenuated from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, should not be used in the evaluation of a patient's immune competence because patients with severe immunodeficiencies may develop an overwhelming in... | |
Choanal atresia is due to the persistence of: (A) Bucconasal membrane, (B) Oropharyngeal membrane, (C) Laryngotracheal fold, (D) Tracheoesophageal fold | Answer is A. Choanal atresia
Choana, also called posterior nares, is an opening in the posterior part of each nasal cavity, through which the nasal cavity communicates with nasopharynx.
Choanal atresia is a congenital anomaly characterized by closure of one or both posterior nasal cavies (i.e., choana). It is due to t... | |
Cells seen at the function between two layers ofplacenta are?: (A) Hofbauer cell, (B) Hofmann cells, (C) Amniogenic cells, (D) Uterine natural killer cells (UNK) | Answer is A. Ans. is'a'i.e., Hofbauer cellHofbauer cells (HBCs) are placental macrophages that are present in the core of villus.Major cell type in placenta include syncytiotrophoblasts which line intervillous space and are in direct contact of maternal blood.Underlying stromal cells adjacent to fetal capillaries large... | |
Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is -: (A) Lung, (B) Liver, (C) Kidney, (D) Skin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Kidney [Ref: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">o Cyclophosphomide is primarily metabolized (80%) and metabolites are excerted in urine.o 10 to 20% is excreted unchanged in urine and 4% i... | |
HPV with low risk sexually transmitted types include: (A) 6 & 11, (B) 16 & 18, (C) 26 & 53, (D) 73 & 82 | Answer is A. (A) 6 & 11# GENITAL INFECTIONS: Since cervical and female genital infection by specific HPV types is highly associated with cervical cancer, those types of HPV infection have received most of the attention from scientific studies.> HPV infections in that area are transmitted primarily via sexual activity.>... | |
Infection by which virus gives rise to the following skin lesions?: (A) Herpesvirus, (B) Measles virus, (C) Varicella zoster virus, (D) Parvovirus | Answer is C. c Varicella zoster virusSimultaneous presence of various types of skin lesions including macules, papules & vesicles are suggestive of Chicken Pox', caused by Varicella zoster virus | |
Action of Antidote of heparin (Protamine) is based on:: (A) Competitive antagonism, (B) Chemical antagonism, (C) Non competitive antagonism, (D) Toxic reaction | Answer is B. Chemical antagonism | |
Breast milk storage in a refrigerator is upto ?: (A) 4 hrs, (B) 8 hrs, (C) 12 hours, (D) 24 hrs | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 24 hrs Breast milk o Can be stored at room temperature --> For 8-10 hours o In a refrigerator --> For 24 hours o In a freezer --> -20degc for 3 months | |
Currarino triad includes:: (A) Pre-sacral meningocele + Sacral defect + Tethered cord, (B) Ectopia vesicae + Anorectal malformation + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect, (C) Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + Presacral mass, (D) Tethered cord + Anorectal malformations + Ectopia vesicae | Answer is C. Currarino triadorASP triad: - Anorectal malformation or congenital anorectal stenosis - Sacrococcygeal osseous defect (always present) - Classically, hemisacrum with intact first sacral veebra ("sickle-shaped sacrum") - Mild (hypoplasia) to severe (agenesis) of sacrum and coccyx - Presacral mass (various t... | |
The International Neuroblastoma Staging System (INSS) stage 4S includes metastasis to all the following except: (A) Liver, (B) Skin, (C) Bone marrow, (D) Bone | Answer is D. INSS stage 4S refers to neuroblastoma in children younger than 1 yr of age with dissemination to liver, skin, and/or bone marrow without bone involvement and with a primary tumor that would otherwise be staged as INSS stage 1 or 2. Reference: Nelson; Neuroblastoma; Page no: 2463 | |
Anuria is defined passing Less than _____ ml urine/day: (A) 400ml, (B) 3L, (C) 100ml, (D) 1000ml | Answer is C. Anuria <100ml.
Oliguria < 400ml. | |
At the superficial inguinal canal increased abdominal pressure leads to closure by approximation of crura in the opening. This defect is seen in an aponeurosis formed by which of the following muscles?: (A) Fascia tranversalis, (B) External oblique, (C) Internal oblique, (D) Erector spinae | Answer is B. Ans. is'b'i.e., External oblique(Ref: BDC &/e Vol. II p. 212, 213; Ramesh Babu p. 219)Examinar is asking about superficial inguinal ring which is triangular defect in external oblique aponeurosis.Superficial inguinal ring is an anatomical structure in the anterior abdominal wall. It is a triangular shaped ... | |
Heller's myotomy is done for: September 2007, 2009, 2010: (A) Esophageal carcinoma, (B) Pyloric hyperophy, (C) Achalasia cardia, (D) Inguinal hernia | Answer is C. Ans. C: Achalasia cardia Achalasia is associated with loss of ganglion cells in the esophageal myenteric plexus. These impoant inhibitory neurons induce LES relaxation and coordinate proximal-to-distal peristaltic contraction of the esophagus Achalasia is an esophageal motor disorder characterized by incre... | |
Proton pump inhibitors suppress gastric add secretion by inhibition of-: (A) H+/Cl- ATPase pump, (B) H+/ K+ ATPase pump, (C) Na/Cl- ATPase pump, (D) Na+/K+ ATPase pump | Answer is B. None | |
Which of following anatomical information may assist you during post-partum tubal sterilization.: (A) Fallopian tube lies anterior to round ligament., (B) Round ligament lies anterior to fallopian tube., (C) Uteroovarian ligament lies anterior to round ligament., (D) Fallopian tube lies posterior to uteroovarian ligame... | Answer is B. Round ligament originates below and anterior to origin of fallopian tube. | |
Features of alcoholic liver disease -: (A) Fatty changes, (B) Pericellular fibrosis, (C) Mallory bodies seen, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. is AllPathology of alcoholic liver diseaseSteatosis (fatty liver)o Microvesicular fatty change o Later changes to macrovesicular fatty changeAlcoholic hepatitiso Hepatocellular necrosis o Ballooning degeneration o Mallory bodieso Neutrophilic infiltration Perivenular and perisinusoidol fibrosis --*cen... | |
Which of the following is the commonest tumour of thyroid -: (A) Anaplastic carcinoma, (B) Follicular carcinoma, (C) Papillary carcinoma, (D) Medullary carcinoma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Papillary 'Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of all thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." - SchwartzIncidence of primary malignant tumors of thyroid gland (Harrison 17/e)Type of ... | |
SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with:: (A) Mediastinal fibrosis, (B) Lymphoma, (C) Lung cancer, (D) TB mediastinitis | Answer is C. If the superior or inferior vena cava is obstructed, the venous blood causes distention of the veins running from the anterior chest wall to the thigh.The lateral thoracic vein anastomoses with the superficial epigastric vein, a tributary of the great saphenous vein of the leg. In these circumstances, a to... | |
There is a pressure sore extending into the subcutaneous tissue but underlying structures are not involved. Stage of the pressure sore is: (A) Stage 1, (B) Stage 2, (C) Stage 3, (D) Stage 4 | Answer is C. Stage 1Non-blanchable erythema without a breach in theepidermisStage 2Paial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermisStage 3Full-thickness skin loss extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not through underlying fasciaStage 4Full-thickness skin loss through fascia with extensive tissue dest... | |
The fluidity of the plasma membrane is increased by: (A) Arachidonic acid, (B) Cholesterol, (C) Palmitic acid, (D) Stearic acid | Answer is A. Cholesterol maintains the fluidity of the membrane. Cholesterol acts as a buffer to modify the fluidity of membranes. A lipid bilayer made up of only one type of phospholipid changes from a liquid state to a rigid crystalline state (gel state) at a characteristic freezing point. This change in state is kno... | |
The hard carious dentin is removed with: (A) Excavator, (B) Bur at Low speed, (C) Bur at high speed, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. None | |
In transverse lie, the presentation is:: (A) Veex, (B) Breech, (C) Brow, (D) Shoulder | Answer is D. Transverse lie The long axes of the fetal and maternal ovoid are approximately at right angles to each other and the shoulder is presenting at pelvic inlet.The baby may be directly across the mother&;s abdomen,when it is a transverse lie,or obliquely across with the head or breech in one iliac fossa ,when ... | |
Infection of CNS spreads to inner ear through: (A) Cochlear aqueduct, (B) Endolymphatic sac, (C) Vestibular aqueduct, (D) Hyle fissure | Answer is A. The scala tympani is closed by a secondary tympanic membrane. It is also connected with subarachnoid space through aqueduct of cochlea Reference: Dhingra 6th edition. | |
Resting membrane potential of a neuron is: (A) -9mV, (B) -50mV, (C) -70mV, (D) -100mV | Answer is C. In neurons, the resting membrane potential is usually about - 70mV, which is close to the equilibrium potential for K+. Because there are more open K+channels than Na+ channels at rest Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology;25th edition; pg: 90 | |
All of the following are true about Cholesterol Ester Transfer Protein(CETP) , EXCEPT:: (A) Associated with HDL, (B) Facilitates the transfer of cholesterol ester from HDL to LDL, (C) Facilitates the transfer of triacylglycerol from LDL to HDL, (D) Facilitates the transfer of triacylglycerol from HDL to LDL | Answer is D. Cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP): Facilitates the transfer of cholesterol ester from HDL to VLDL, IDL and LDL in exchange for triacylglycerol. Relieves the product inhibition of the LCAT enzyme. | |
A 27 year old man develops bilateral parotid gland swelling and orchitis, and is generally ill with fever of 102deg F. Which of the following substances is most likely to be significantly elevated in the patient's serum?: (A) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), (B) Amylase, (C) Aspaate aminotransferase (AST), (D) Cerulopla... | Answer is B. The disease is mumps, caused by a paramyxovirus. In children, mumps causes a transient inflammation of the parotid glands, and less commonly, the testes, pancreas, or central nervous system. Mumps tends to be a more severe disease in adults than in children. Mumps in adults involves the testes (causing orc... | |
The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:: (A) White matter, (B) Grey matter, (C) Thalamus, (D) Basal ganglia | Answer is A. A i.e. White matter | |
Duroziez's sign is seen in: (A) Aoic regurgitation, (B) Tricuspid regurgitation, (C) Mitral stenosis, (D) Carcinoid syndrome | Answer is A. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1536 booming "pistol-shot" sound can be heard over the femoral aeries (Traube's sign), and a to-and-fro murmur (Duroziez's sign) is audible if the femoral aery is lightly compressed with a stethoscope. | |
The yeast which shows thick gelatinous capsule and positive for mucicarmine is: (A) Cryptococcus neoformans, (B) Histoplasmosis, (C) Blastomycosis, (D) Paracoccidiomycosis | Answer is A. None | |
Not a sign of blunt trauma?: (A) Sphincter tear, (B) angle recession, (C) Corneal perforation, (D) Retinal dialysis | Answer is C. Rings of Trauma: Hidden signs of Blunt trauma 1.Central Iris: Sphincter Tear 2.Peripheral Iris: Iridodialysis 3.Anterior Ciliary body: Angle recession 4.Separation of ciliary body from scleral spur: Cyclodialysis 5.Trabecular Meshwork: Trabecular Meshwork tear 6.Zonule/ lens: Zonular tear with possible len... | |
Following constitute dietary fibres except :: (A) Pectin, (B) Cellulose, (C) Hemicellulose, (D) Riboflavin | Answer is D. D i.e. Riboflavin | |
A patch test is what type of hypersensitivity?: (A) Type 4, (B) Type 1, (C) Type 2, (D) Type 3 | Answer is A. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS | |
Ganglion of tendons is an example of -: (A) Neoplastic process, (B) Malformation, (C) Amyloid deposition, (D) Myxomatous degeneration | Answer is D. Ganglion
A ganglion is a small cyst located near a joint capsule or tendon sheath. A common location is around the joints of the wrist where it appears as a firm, fluctuant, pea-sized, translucent nodule. It arises as a result of cystic or myxoid degeneration of connective tissue; hence the cyst wall lack... | |
Epidemiological Web of Causation theory was given by: (A) Louis Pasteur, (B) Robe Koch, (C) McMahon and Pugh, (D) None | Answer is C. The 'web of causation' considers all the predisposing factors of any type and their complex interrelationship with each other. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 41 | |
A 57 year old male suffering from acute pancreatitis develops sudden onset breathlessness with a CVP< 18mmHg. The chest xray shows bilateral infiltrates. The possible diagnosis is -: (A) ARDS, (B) Myocardial infarction, (C) Congestive left heart failure, (D) Pulmonary embolism | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., ARDS ARDS Criteria 1. Acute, meaning onset over 1 week or less. 2. Bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema must be present and may be detected on CT or chest radiograph. 3. PF ratio < 300 mmHg with a minimum of 5 cmH20 PEEP (or CPAP). 4. C VP < 18 mmHg. X-Ray showing bilateral... | |
Intravenous immunoglobulin is given in-a) Kawasaki diseaseb) GB syndromec) Heart blockd) Atrial fibrillatione) Myasthenia gravis: (A) abc, (B) bcd, (C) abe, (D) acd | Answer is C. None | |
Action potential is produce by: (A) Sodium Influx, (B) Sodium Efflux, (C) Potassium Influx, (D) Potassium Efflux | Answer is A. (A) Sodium Influx # Action potential is due to opening of Na+ channels causing "Na+ influx"> As the membrane potential is increased, sodium ion channels open, allowing the entry of sodium ions into the cell. This is followed by the opening of potassium ion channels that permit the exit of potassium ions fr... | |
Fat provides ____________ of body's calories: (A) 40%, (B) 30%, (C) 50%, (D) 75% | Answer is B. None | |
Therapeutic drug monitoring is required for: March 2010: (A) Sulfonamides, (B) Metformin, (C) Cycloserine, (D) Gentamycin | Answer is D. Ans. D: Gentamycin |
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