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Example of asymmetric mixed-onium chlorofumarate is:: (A) Rocuronium, (B) Vecuronium, (C) Gantacurium, (D) Atracurium | Answer is C. Gantacurium represents a new class of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers called asymmetric mixed-onium chlorofumarates. Ref: Miller's anesthesia-7th ed , Chapter 29. | |
The optic cup is an evagination of which of the following?: (A) Telencephalon, (B) Diencephalon, (C) Mesencephalon, (D) Metencephalon | Answer is B. The optic cup and its derivatives--the retina and optic nerve--develop from the diencephalon. | |
Best treatment for gas gangrene: (A) Surgical debridement, (B) Debridement with tetanus toxin, (C) Debridement with iv penicillin, (D) Debridement with polyvalent antitoxin | Answer is C. "High-dose penicillin G and clindamycin, along with third-generation cephalosporins, should be given intravenously until the patient's toxicity abates. The mainstay of management is early surgical excision of the necrotic tissue " Bailey and love 26th edition Pg 430 | |
Radium emits which of the following?: (A) b, g, (B) a, b, g, (C) a, b, (D) Neutrons | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., a, b, g o Radium emits a, b and g rays. Radium also produces neutrons when mixed with beryllium. | |
The attachment of the Actinomyces species to the tooth surface is facilitated by:: (A) Fimbriae., (B) Cillia, (C) Flagella., (D) Capsule. | Answer is A. None | |
A 45 year old male presents with 4 X 4 cm, mobile right solitary thyroid nodule of 5 months duration. The patient is euthyroid. The following statements about his management are true except: (A) Cold nodule on thyroid scan is diagnostic of malignancy, (B) FNAC is required in fuher management of patient, (C) The patient... | Answer is A. Malignancy is present in 15% to 20% of cold nodules and in less than 5% of hot nodules. Although suggestive, malignancy of a nodule can be neither confirmed nor excluded based on radionuclide uptake. Note :Option "Patient should undergo hemithyroidectomy if FNAC repo is inconclusive " is controversial. Clo... | |
Duration of action of flumazenil is:: (A) 5 minute, (B) 10 minute, (C) 20 minute, (D) 1-2 hours | Answer is D. Flumazenil is absorbed orally ;oral bioavailability is ~16% but its not used orally .On I.v .injection ,action of flumazenil stas in seconds &last for 1-2 hours ;elimination t1/2 is 1 hour due to rapid metabolism. REF: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
Cryptococcal meningitis is common in:: (A) Renal transplant recipient, (B) A gamma globulinemia, (C) Neutropenia, (D) IgA deficiency | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Renal transplant recipientPredisposing factors of cryptococcal meningitis are AIDS, hematologic malignancies, transplant recipients and patients on immunosuppressive or steroid therapy. | |
All of the following structures can be viewed through a bronchoscope, EXCEPT:: (A) Trachea, (B) Vocal cords, (C) Subcarinal lymph nodes, (D) First segmental division of bronchi | Answer is C. Subcarinal lymph nodes are mediastinal lymph nodes located around the carina on the other side of the tracheal wall and hence not visualized on bronchoscopy. Involvement of subcarinal nodes may be suspected on bronchoscopy by widening and fixity of the carina and/or paralysis of the vocal cords but these n... | |
Hyperesthesia over the region of 12th is called: (A) Murphy’s sign, (B) Boa's sign, (C) Moynihan's sign, (D) Aaron's sign | Answer is B. Boa's sign is present in acute cholecystitis | |
With regard to the malignant behavior of leiomyosarcoma, the most impoant criterion is: (A) Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells, (B) Tumor cells in lymphatic channels, (C) Lymphocyte infiltration, (D) The number of mitoses per high power field | Answer is D. Option 4 is correct=the number of mitosis per high power field Leiomyosarcomas typically take the form of soft, hemorrhagic, necrotic masses. The diagnostic features of ove leiomyosarcoma include tumor necrosis, cytologic atypia, and mitotic activity. Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 694,heading... | |
In which case Immunoguided surgery is done: (A) CA colon, (B) CA pancreas, (C) CA jejunum, (D) CA anal canal | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' ie Ca Colon Radioimmunoguided surgery (RIGS) is a new technology capable of detecting minimal neoplastic lesions using radiocolloids, intraoperatively. It has numerous uses in oncology, it uses colloid radiotracers, monoclonal antibodies or non-immunological tracers. Its uses are Radioguided Occ... | |
The maxillary sinus open intlo middle meatus at the level of:: (A) Hiatus semilunaris, (B) Bulla ethmoidalis, (C) Infundibulum, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 151,209. | |
Dutcher bodies are seen in?: (A) Brain, (B) Liver, (C) Spleen, (D) Bone marrow | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bone marrow * In multiple myeloma plasma cells can infiltrate the bone marrow diffusely or may be present in sheet like masses that completely replace normal elements.* Plasma cells may be normal plasma cells but mostly they are atypical plasma cells (variants of plasma cell) produced by ... | |
Treatment of choice for placental site trophoblastic disease is -: (A) Observation, (B) Surgery, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Radiotherapy | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., SurgeryPlacental Site Trophoblastic TumorArises from the placental bed trophoblasts and invades the myometrium.Most of these tumors run a benign course, malignancy is rare.Tumor is resistant to chemotherapy.Hysterectomy is the recommended treatment. | |
Most common site of GIST is: (A) Stomach, (B) Small intestine, (C) Large intestine, (D) Spleen | Answer is A. Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are the most common sarcomatous tumors of the GI tract. Originally thought to be a type of smooth muscle sarcoma, they are now known to be a distinct tumor derived from the interstitial cells of Cajal, an intestinal pacemaker cell. The... | |
PSA is measured in which units: (A) gm/ml, (B) mg/ml, (C) mcg/ml, (D) ng/ml | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., ng/ml Prostate specific antigen* It is a glycoprotein produced only in the prostatic cells (both benign & malignant). It facilitates liquefaction of semen.* It is neither sensitive nor specific for early prostate carcinoma (it is prostate specific and not prostate cancer specific)y nevert... | |
In Angle's classification for malocclusion, key tooth is:: (A) MB cusp of Permanent Max. 1st molar, (B) DB cusp of Permanent Max. 1st molar, (C) MB cusp of Permanent Max. 2nd molar, (D) MB cusp of Permanent Mand. 1st molar | Answer is A. Angle’s postulate was that the upper first molars were the key to occlusion and that the upper and lower molars should be related so that the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper molar occludes in the buccal groove of the lower molar. If the teeth were arranged on a smoothly curving line of occlusion ... | |
Which is the most common type of persistent delusional disorder ?: (A) Delusion of persecution, (B) Somatic delusion, (C) Delusion of jealousy, (D) Delusion of grandeur | Answer is A. Ans. A. Delusion of persecution Delusion of persecution is the most common type of persistent delusional disorder. | |
All age groups are included in numerator of dependency ratio except -: (A) 0-5 years, (B) 5-10 years, (C) 20-60 years, (D) > 65 years | Answer is C. Numerator in dependency ratio includes:-
i) 0-14 years (option a & b)
ii) > 65 years (option d) | |
True about Type 1 diabetes mellitus: (A) Decreased hepatic Glucose output, (B) Increase glucose uptake, (C) Increased lipolysis, (D) Decreased protein catabolism | Answer is C. * Patients may become hyperglycemic in poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus . The reason being - due to lack of insulin to stimulate uptake and utilization of glucose and also because in the absence of insulin which antagonize the actions of glucagon, there is increase in gluconeogenesis from amino a... | |
Vitamin k associated clotting factors are: (A) 9,10, (B) 1,5, (C) 7,8, (D) 1,81 | Answer is A. Ref Robbins 8/e 118-119 ; 9/e p 119 Physiologic Effects of Vitamin K Vitamin K serves as an essential cofactor for a carboxylase that catalyzes carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on vitamin K-dependent proteins. The key vitamin K-dependent proteins include: Coagulationproteins: factors II (prothrombin... | |
Anti-parkinsonism drug that is selective COMT inhibitor?: (A) Entacapone, (B) Ropinirole, (C) Pergolide, (D) Pramipexole | Answer is A. Ans. a (Entacapone) (Ref. KDT 6th/pg. 415)ADRENERGIC DRUGSSr NoStep/siteActionDrugResponse1.Synthesis of NAInhibition Utilization of same synthetic pathwaya-methyl-p-tyrosine a-methyl dopaDepletion of NAReplacement of NA by a-methyl NA(false transmitter)2.Axonal uptakeBlockadeCocaine, desipra- mine, guanet... | |
Loop of Henle handles the following ions except:: (A) Na+, (B) K+, (C) CI?, (D) Urea | Answer is D. D i.e. UreaIn the thick ascending limb, a carrier co-transpos one Na+, one K.' and 2C1-Q from the tubular lumen into the tubular cells. | |
A 25 year old man undergoes orchiectomy for a testicular tumor. Microscopically, the tumor shows a variety of patterns, including lobules containing large cells with watery cytoplasm, structures resembling primitive glomeruli, syncytiotrophoblast, and shafts of undifferentiated cells with focal glandular differentiatio... | Answer is C. This is a mixed testicular tumor. Mixed patterns occur in 60% of testicular tumors, with the most common pattern being teratoma (not present in this patient), embryonal carcinoma, yolk sack tumor, and hCG-containing syncytiotrophoblast. This patient's tumor also contains elements of seminoma. The prognosis... | |
Following antimicrobials are termed as type I calcimimetics that mimic the stimulatory effect of calcium, on the calcium sensing receptor to inhibit PTH secretion by the parathyroid gland EXCEPT:: (A) Streptomycin, (B) Hamycin, (C) Neomycin, (D) Gentamicin | Answer is B. None | |
Hormone synthesized as peptide precursor is/are: (A) Insulin, (B) PTO, (C) Renin, (D) Thyroid hormone | Answer is A. Insulin- A polypeptide hormone secreted by the islets of Langerhans and functioning in the regulation of the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats, especially the conversion of glucose to glycogen, which lowers the blood glucose level.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 431 | |
The derivative of midgut among the following is: (A) Rectum, (B) Appendix, (C) Liver, (D) Stomach | Answer is B. HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:188Caecum and appendixThe caecal bud is a diveiculum that arises from the post aerial segment of the midgut Loop. The caecum and appendix are formed by the enlargement of this bud. The proximal pa of the bud grows rapidly to form the caecum. Its distal ... | |
Kidney cortex contains:: (A) Loop of henle, (B) Pyramids, (C) Collecting tubule and duct, (D) Calyces | Answer is C. Ans. C Collecting tubule and ductRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. II pg. 315-16* The kidney consists of an outer renal cortex and an inner renal medulla that contains the renal pyramids which drain into - Calyx - Pelvis.* Cortex forms a continuous smooth outer zone with a number of projections (cortical columns) tha... | |
X-linked muscular dystrophy is?: (A) Myotonic dystrophy, (B) Spinal muscular atrophy, (C) Neurogenic muscular atrophy, (D) Duchene muscular dystrophy | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Duchenne's muscular atrophy X-linked Recessive disordersMusculoskeletalHematologicalImmuneMetabolicNervous* Duchene muscular dystrophy* Chronic granulomatous disease* Hemophilia A & B* G-6-PD deficiency* Agamma - globulinemia* Wiskott - Aldrich synd.* Diabetes insipidus* Lesch Nyhan syndr... | |
The diagnostic test for rickettsial infection is:: (A) Weil-felix reaction, (B) WIDAL, (C) Sabin test, (D) Culture | Answer is A. Weil-felix reaction | |
Synchysis refers to: (A) Collapse of the vitreous, (B) Black spots in front of the eyes, (C) Liquefaction of the vitreous, (D) Detachment of the vitreous | Answer is C. VITREOUS LIQUEFACTION (SYNCHYSIS) Vitreous liquefaction (synchysis) is the most common degenerative change in the vitreous. Causes of liquefaction: 1. Degenerations such as senile, myopic, and that associated with retinitis pigmentosa. 2. Post-inflammatory, paicularly following uveitis. 3. Trauma to the vi... | |
Subclinical infection is seen in all except: (A) Mumps, (B) Poliomyelitis, (C) Measles, (D) Rubella | Answer is C. None | |
A 52 year old female presents with groin pain. Physical examination reveals a bulge in the groin area immediately inferior to the inguinal canal. The physician suspects that the patient has a femoral hernia containing a loop of small intestine. Which of the following structures is located immediately medial to the hern... | Answer is D. A femoral hernia exits the abdominal cavity through the femoral ring to enter the femoral canal. The femoral ring is bounded medially by the lacunar ligament. Compression of the herniated intestine against the sharp edge of the lacunar ligament may cause strangulation of the intestine. The other borders of... | |
Vitamin D from the skin or diet is metabolized primarily in the liver to 25-hydroxyvitamine D3. What is the rate limiting enzyme in Vitamin D synthesis?: (A) 25 cholecalciferol, (B) 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, (C) 24, 25- dihydroxycholecalciferol, (D) 7-dehydrocholesterol | Answer is B. Vitamin D from the skin or diet is metabolized primarily in the liver to 25-hydroxyvitamine D3. 25D is the 'storage' form of vitamin D and is used to determine the vitamin D status of individuals. The last and rate limiting step in the synthesis of 'active' 1,25D is catalyzed by the mitochondrial enzyme 1 ... | |
Features of Von Willebrand disease are -: (A) | BT and | PTT, (B) | PT and | PTT, (C) | PT, (D) | CT | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., | BT and | PTT Von willebrand diseaseo Von willebrand disease is characterized by the deficiency of vWF, while the synthesis of factor VIIIc is normal,o vWF has two major function: -i) Helps in platelet adhesionii) Stabilizes factor VIIIc.o So, deficiency of vWF results in manifestation o... | |
The design of choice for endodontic microsurgery is the:: (A) Sulcular flap., (B) Sulcular partial-thickness flap., (C) Sulcular full-thickness flap., (D) Envelope flap. | Answer is C. The design of choice for endodontic microsurgery is the sulcular full-thickness flap
The mucogingival flap or Luebke-Ochsenbein flap is preffered for crowned anterior teeth for esthetic reasons. This flap which includes scalloped horizontal incision provides a guide for meticulous repositioning of the flap... | |
All of the following can cause DIC during pregnancy except:: (A) Diabetes mellitus, (B) Amniotic fluid embolism, (C) Intrauterine death, (D) Abruptio placentae. | Answer is A. Ans. is a, i.e. Diabetes mellitusDIC is a pathological condition associated with inappropriate activation of coagulation and fibrinolytic system. It is a secondary phenomenon resulting from an underlying disease state.Obstetric conditions associated with DIC:More commonLess common* Intrauterine fetal death... | |
The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of
mandible is: (A) Transosseous wiring, (B) Intermaxillary fixation, (C) Plating on the Lateral side of the body of the mandible, (D) Plating at the inferior border of the mandible | Answer is D. None | |
The mother of a newborn boy is alarmed that her baby regurgitates at every feeding. An endoscopic examination reveals that the child's esophagus is almost completely occluded. This finding represents an example of which of the following errors of morphogenesis?: (A) Aplasia, (B) Atresia, (C) Dysplasia, (D) Dysraphic an... | Answer is B. Atresia refers to defects caused by the incomplete formation of a lumen. Many hollow organs originate as strands and cords of cells whose centers are programmed to die, thus forming a central cavity or lumen. Atresia of the esophagus is characterized by partial occlusion of the lumen, which was not fully e... | |
Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is: (A) MRI, (B) CT, (C) X ray, (D) Echo | Answer is D. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is usually the initial investigation of suspected pericardial disease. It is cheap and widely available and has high accuracy for detecting pericardial effusions and signs of tamponade. TTE is also helpful for guiding diagnostic or therapeutic pericardiocentesis. Restri... | |
True about hepatocelluar ca is -: (A) Associated with HBV and HCV, (B) Cirrhosis is predisposing factor, (C) Fibrolamellar variety is not associated with cirrhosis, (D) All | Answer is D. Answer is 'a' i.e. Associated with HBV & HCV; 'b' i.e. Cirrhosis is a predisposing factor; 'c' i.e. Fibrolamellar variety is not associated with cirrhoris "All patterns of hepatocellular carcinomas have a strong propensity for invasion of vascular channels." - Robbins | |
A patient is having thick, gray coating on the throat and tonsils, followed with fever, chills and swollen glands in the neck. Microscopic examination of nasopharyngeal or pharyngeal swab showed gram positive organism with a special stain. The constitutes of the stain are:-: (A) Crystal violet. Gram's iodine, (B) Tolui... | Answer is B. Gram positive organism causing gray colored coating (pseudomembrane) is Corynebacterium diphtheriae . So the specific stain is Albe stain. Contents of Albe stain:-Stain A- glacial acetic acid, malachite green ,toluidine blueStain B- KI + I2 | |
Which of the following is known as abdominal policeman?: (A) Omentum, (B) Spleen, (C) Liver, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. In the early twentieth century, the British surgeon Rutherford Morison noted that the omentum tended to wall off areas of infection and limit the spread of intraperitoneal contamination. He termed the omentum the abdominal policeman. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 35. | |
Hernia with highest rate of strangulation is?: (A) Direct inguinal hernia, (B) Indirect inguinal hernia, (C) Femoral hernia, (D) Incisional hernia | Answer is C. Femoral hernia REF: Sabiston 18th ed chapter 44 The likelihood of strangulation and need for hospitalization also increase with aging. Strangulation, the most common serious complication of a hernia, occurs in only 1% to 3% of groin hernias and is more common at the extremes of life. Most strangulated hern... | |
A 63-year-old man with hearing loss in his left ear complains of a loss of taste and drooling from the left side of his mouth. A CT scan shows a tumor compressing the nerve entering the skull through which of the following openings?: (A) Foramen ovale, (B) Foramen rotundum, (C) Internal acoustic meatus, (D) Jugular for... | Answer is C. The tumor is compressing the facial nerve, which runs through the internal acoustic meatus along with the vestibulocochlear nerve, which provides sense of taste to the anterior two thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani and also mediates all of the facial muscles, except the muscles of mastication. Th... | |
Which of the following statements regarding ANB angle is false?: (A) It measures the magnitude of skeletal jaw discrepancy, (B) Vertical height of the face influences this angle, (C) Position of the sella influences this angle, (D) Position of the nasion influences this angle | Answer is C. The ANB angle indicates the magnitude of the skeletal jaw discrepancy. The magnitude of the ANB angle, however, is influenced by two factors other than the anteroposterior difference in jaw position. One is the vertical height of the face. As the vertical distance between nasion and points A and B increase... | |
Cholinomimetic drugs can be used for the treatment of all the following conditions except.: (A) Closed angle Glaucoma, (B) Bradycardia, (C) Cobra bite, (D) Myasthenia gravis | Answer is B. Ans. (B) Bradycardia(Ref KDT 8th/e p114)Cholinomimetic drug will cause bradycardia as an adverse effect and thus cannot be used for its treatment. | |
A 19 year old young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of nasal decongestants, presented with abrupt onset of fever with chills & rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, moderate proptosis & chemosis. On examination optic disc is congested. Most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Cavernous ... | Answer is A. Patient is suffering from cavernous venous thrombosis, as a complication of chronic ethmoidal sinusitis. The facial veins make clinically impoant connections with the cavernous sinus through the superior ophthalmic veins. Cavernous sinus thrombosis usually results from infections in the orbit, nasal sinuse... | |
Following sign is seen in which condition:: (A) Medial medullary syndrome, (B) Lateral medullary syndrome, (C) Benedict syndrome, (D) Millar Gubler syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. A. Medial medullary syndromeImage shows one sided deviation of tongue, i.e. paralysis of XIIth nervea. This occurs in Medial Medullary syndrome or Dejerine syndromeb. It occurs due to occlusion of anterior spinal arteryc. It is characterized by Ipsilateral XIIth nerve paralysis with contralateral hemi... | |
ESR in increased in -: (A) Sickle cell anemia, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Polycythemia vera, (D) Thalassemia | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Multiple myelomaFactors affecting ESR 1. Plasmao RBCs carry a negative electric charge, whereas plasma carries a postive charge.o Any condition in plasma that increases its positive charge, increases rouleaux formation and increases ESR by lengthening stage I.o Following factors increase ... | |
Signature fracture of skull is seen in -: (A) Gutter fracture, (B) Depressed fracture, (C) Ring fracture, (D) Sutural separation | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Depressed fracture | |
Light entering the eye passes through which retinal layer first?: (A) Inner nuclear layer, (B) Outer nuclear layer, (C) Outer plexiform layer, (D) Retinal ganglion layer | Answer is D. The most anterior layer of the retina, through which light passes first, is the retinal ganglion layer. Light then passes through the other cell layers of the retina until it reaches the photoreceptors in the posterior region of the retina. Visual processing/Phototransduction occurs in the opposite directi... | |
Paltauf's hemorrhages are seen in: AP 11; NEET 13: (A) Brain, (B) Lungs, (C) Hea, (D) Liver | Answer is B. Ans. Lungs | |
Least common quadrant for breast carcinoma is: (A) Upper outer, (B) Upper inner, (C) Lower outer, (D) Lower inner | Answer is D. Most common quadrant for breast carcinoma upper outer quadrant. | |
All of the following are features of mumps except _______: (A) Caused by paramyxovirus, (B) Aseptic meningitis is a complication, (C) Orchitis is a complication in adults, (D) Incubation period is less than 2 weeks | Answer is D. *Mumps is an acute viral infection characterised by painful enlargement of the salivary glands,most commonly the parotid glands.It is caused by an RNA virus of the genus paramyxovirus in the family paramyxoviridae. *It follows an incubation period of 2-4 weeks. Complications include epididymoorchitis in ad... | |
Which of the following does not changes in the old age:: (A) GFR, (B) Glucose tolerance, (C) Haematocrit, (D) Blood pressure | Answer is C. C i.e. Hematocrit | |
A 16-year-old male complains of nasal obstruction, nasal blockage, a mass is seen in the nasopharynx with minimal extension into sphenoid sinus. What is the stage of nasopharyngeal fibroma?: (A) IA, (B) IB, (C) IIA, (D) IIB | Answer is B. Ans. B. IB* Angiofibroma is the most common benign tumor of the nasopharynx.* It is typically seen in young adolescent males, i.e. occurs near puberty, hence called juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.Clinical features:* Recurrent episodes of profuse epistasis* Unilateral nasal obstruction* Nasal bones le... | |
Which antimalarial drug is known to cause neuropsy-chiatric adverse reaction?: (A) Aesunate, (B) Aimisnin, (C) Quinine, (D) Mefloquine | Answer is D. Adverse effects :Mefloquine is bitter in taste; common reaction is dizziness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain and sinus bradycardia. These are usually mild and largely dose related, but may be severe in some. Major concern has been a variety of neuropsychiatric reactions (disturbed sense of bal... | |
The most sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency is: (A) Serum T4 levels, (B) Serum T3 levels, (C) Urine iodine excretion, (D) Neonatal hypothyroidism | Answer is D. Ans. d. Neonatal hypothyroidism | |
Dementia is produced by deficiency of vitamin: (A) Vitamin A, (B) Vitamin D, (C) Thiamine, (D) Pyridoxine | Answer is C. (C) Thiamine # DEMENTIA is the progressive decline in cognitive function due to damage or disease in the brain beyond what might be expected from normal aging.> Although dementia is far more common in the geriatric population, it may occur in any stage of adulthood.> This age cutoff is by definition, as si... | |
Local anaesthetic injected directly into the tissue -: (A) Infiltration anaesthesia, (B) Nerve block, (C) Field block, (D) Bier's block | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Infiltration anaesthesia Infiltration anaesthesiao It is the injection of local anaesthetic directly into tissue without taking into consideration the course of cutaneous nerve.o It can be so superficial as to include only the skin, it also can include deeper structureso It is used for mi... | |
A 40 year old female patient complains of excessive bleeding. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. Blood grouping test reveals presence of antigen A and antigen B. This system for blood grouping consists of 3 major allelic genes which are located o... | Answer is B. → This system consists of 3 major allelic genes; those are A, B and O.
→ They are located on long arm of chromosome 9.
→ These genes control the synthesis of blood group antigens A and B.
→ Based on the presence or absence of antigen A and antigen B, blood is divided into 4 groups i.e A, B, AB and O. | |
Fibrous pericardium in supplied by: (A) Pericardiophrenic Nerve, (B) Phrenic Nerve, (C) T2 to T6 intercostal nerves, (D) Vagus nerve | Answer is B. Fibrous pericardium in supplied by phrenic Nerve. Visceral pericardium does not have somatic sensation. | |
A 70-years-old retired military person with good previous medical record complains of bi-temporal headache which is decreased in lying down position. He states that he gets relief by giving pressure over bilateral temples. The patient also complains of loss of appetite with feeling feverish. Diagnosis is:: (A) Chronic ... | Answer is A. Ans. a. Chronic tension headache (Ref: Harrison 19/e p107t, p2587t, 2593-2594, 18/e p122, 2849)Tension-type Headache:Tension-type headache (TTH) is commonly used to describe a chronic head-pain syndrome characterized by bilateral tight, bandlike discomfortQ.Pain typically builds slowly, fluctuates in sever... | |
In basal body temperature method, after the rise of temperature, the unsafe period lasts for :-: (A) 24 hours, (B) 48 hours, (C) 72 hours, (D) 120 hours | Answer is C. - In BBT, the rise of temperature signifies ovulation. - Since maximum survival of ovum post ovulation is 3 days, the unsafe period is 3 days post rise of body temperature. Other natural methods of contraception are: Calender method / feile period method/ safe period method/ rhythm method Cervical mucus me... | |
Hypercalcemia is associated with all Except:: (A) Hyperparathyroidism, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Milk alkali syndrome, (D) Celiac disease | Answer is D. Answer is D (Celiac disease): Celiac disease is not a cause for hypercalcemia. Hyperparatlzyroidism, Sarcoidosis and Milk alkali syndrome, may all lead to hypercalcemia. | |
Which is the best screening test to evaluate hearing in a neonate?: (A) Pure Tone Audiometry, (B) Stapedial Reflex, (C) Otoacoustic Emissions, (D) Brainstem evoked auditory response | Answer is C. Otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) are objective, noninvasive, and rapid measures (typically less than 2 minutes) used to determine cochlear outer hair cell function. OAE testing is commonly used in newborn hearing screening because of its speed and noninvasive nature. It is also used in confirming pure-tone tes... | |
A Toxic doses, zero order kinetics is seen in: (A) Pencillin, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Valproate, (D) Carbamazepine | Answer is B. Phenytoin follows nonlinear (or zero-order) kinetics at therapeutic concentrations, because the rate of metabolism is close to the maximum capacity of the enzymes involved Ref-KDT 6/e p31 | |
The use of combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with an increased incidence of:: (A) Bacterial vaginosis, (B) Chlamydial endocervicitis, (C) Vaginal was, (D) Genital herpes | Answer is B. There is an overall reduction in the incidence of PID with OCPs but Chlamydial PID may increase. This is classically an indolent PID where the patient has no pain, no discharge. | |
Post-moem staining' is distinguished from bruise by all except: (A) Occurs in dependent pas, (B) Edges are clearly Defined, (C) Absent in areas of body under pressure, (D) Extravasation of blood into surrounding tissues occur | Answer is D. Extravasation of blood into surroundings tissues is not possible in postpaum staining. Ref synopsis of forensic medicine laxminarayana 4e | |
All are true about Glomus body tumor except: (PGI May 2010): (A) Also k/a chemodectoma, (B) Also k/a paraganglinoma, (C) Common in older age, (D) Brain Metastasis is common | Answer is D. Ans: D (Brain..) Chemodectomas (Glomus Body Tumors) Dewta 7th/720-22# These are uncommon group of neoplasms that may originate anywhere glomus bodies are found.# The lesions are rare before the age of 20, there is a female predominance in some series, and the lesions may occur in multiple sites in about 10... | |
Blood supply of premolars comes from:: (A) Same source as that of molars, (B) Same source as that of anteriors, (C) Posterior superior alveolar artery, (D) Both 1 and 3 | Answer is D. None | |
The most common site of implantation in ectopic pregnancy is -: (A) Ampulla, (B) Fimbriae, (C) Body, (D) Infundibulum | Answer is A. Ans-A Ampulla .The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is a fallopian tube (as if and in fallopian tube the most common site is Ampulla (55%).Sites of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube in decreasing order of frequency :AmpullaIsthmusInfundibulumInterstitial | |
An epidemiologic study observes increased numbers of respiratory tract infections among children living in a community in which most families are at the poverty level. The infectious agents include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae. Most of the children have had pneumonitis and... | Answer is A. Vitamin A is important in maintaining epithelial surfaces. Deficiency of this vitamin can lead to squamous metaplasia of respiratory epithelium, predisposing to infection. Increased keratin buildup leads to follicular plugging and papular dermatosis. Desquamated keratinaceous debris in the urinary tract fo... | |
Bullous impetigo is caused by ?: (A) Streptococcus, (B) Staphylococcus, (C) Staphylococcus, (D) Y. Pestis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Staphylococcus Impetigo Impetigo is a highly contagious, Gram-positive bacterial infection of superficial layer of epidermis. Impetigo occurs in Two forms : ? 1. Non - bullous impetigo (Impetigo contagiosa) It is the most common bacterial infection of children (occurs mainly in children i... | |
Hand over mouth exercise (HOME) is an effective behavioral modification technique in the age group of:: (A) 3 to 6 years, (B) Under 3 years, (C) 6 to 9 years, (D) Above 9 years | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following are the objective tests of refraction ?: (A) Retinoscopy, (B) Refractometry, (C) Keratometry, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above | |
In substantia nigra, the major neurotransmitter is:: (A) Dopaminergic, (B) Acetylcholine, (C) Noradrenaline, (D) GABA | Answer is A. Ans. A. Dopaminergica. There is a system of dopaminergic neurons in nigrostriatal dopaminergic system with cell bodies in substantia nigra and axon endings in caudate nucleus.b. In Parkinson's disease there is loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigrawhich leads to striatal dopamine depletion.c. A... | |
Rh negative mother, ICT negative was given Anti D at 28 week of pregnancy. Which of the following is the follow up schedule?: (A) Give another dose of Anti D within 72 hour postpaum depending on the baby blood group and DCT, (B) Give another dose of Anti D 72 hour postpaum irrespective of baby blood group, (C) Anti-d i... | Answer is A. Anti D in Rh negative women: Anti-D immune globulin is given prophylactically to all D negative, unsensitized women at approximately 28 weeks' gestation, and a second dose is given after delivery if the newborn is D-positive. There are various recommendations regarding a second dose after 6 weeks of the fi... | |
Which of the following pigments accumulates in liver in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?: (A) Monoglucuronate bilirubin, (B) Epinephrine metabolite, (C) Bilirubin pigment, (D) Melanotic pigment | Answer is B. Ans. b (Epinephrine metabolite) (Ref. Robbins Pathologic basis of disease 7th/ 887-888; Table 18-4)Dubin-Johnson syndrome# Hereditary defect in hepatocellular excretion of bilirubin glucuronides across the canalicular membrane due to absence of the canalicular protein, the multidrug resistance protein 2 (M... | |
Floor of 4th ventricle has ?: (A) Infundibulum, (B) Vagal triangle, (C) Mammillary body, (D) Tuber cincrium | Answer is B. Floor of 4th ventricle (Rhomboid fossa) It is diamond or rhomboidal shaped and is formed by posterior surface of pons (upper triangular pa or pontine pa) and dorsal surface of medulla (lower triangular pa or medullary pa) junction of pons and medulla forms intermediate pa. Features of 4th ventricle are :? ... | |
Visual acuity is a measure of:: (A) Light sense, (B) Form sense, (C) Contrast sense, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Ans. Form sense | |
Precancerous lesion of gall bladder is: (A) Porcelain gall bladder, (B) Mirrizi syndrome, (C) Cholesterosis, (D) Acalculous Cholecystitis | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' ie Porcelain gall bladder "The calcified porcelain' gallbladder is associated with more than a 20% incidence of gallbladder carcinoma. These gallbladders should be removed, even if the patients are asymptomatic" - Schwartz SurgeryMirizzi SyndromeBiliary obstruction may occur in cases of acute ch... | |
A 35 yr old male female singer presents with complains of hoarseness, vocal fatigue & pain in neck on prolonged phonation. Direct laryngoscopy shows bilateral pin head size swelling on Ant.1/3 & post 2/3 junction of vocal cord. What could be the probable diagnosis ?: (A) Vocal polyp, (B) Vocal nodule, (C) Acute laryngi... | Answer is B. Vocal nodule (singer's or screamer's node) Seen symmetrically on the free edge of vocal cord, at the junction of anterior one third, with the posterior two thirds (i.e. area of maximum vibration of cord). Vocal nodules are bilateral. Mostly seen in teachers, vendors, actors or pop singers as they speak in ... | |
Lowest risk of malformations is seen with which of the following antiepileptic drug?: (A) Phenobarbitone, (B) Valproate, (C) Lamotrigine, (D) Carbamazepine | Answer is C. A metanalysis of 31 studies found lamotrigine and levetiracetam to carry the lowest risk of malformations(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | |
Column concept of spine stability was given by -: (A) Denis, (B) Frenkel, (C) Wilson, (D) Todd | Answer is A. REF : textbook of ohopedics, John ebnezer, 4th edition ,pg.no.311 Three column concept of spine stability was given by Denis *The anterior column consists of anterior half of the veebral body , anterior pa of the disk & anterior longitudinal ligament. * The middle column consists of posterior half of the b... | |
Kernig's sign is seen in: September 2009: (A) Viral encephalitis, (B) Pyogenic meningitis, (C) Brain abscess, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Ans. B: Pyogenic Meningitis The main clinical signs that indicate meningism are nuchal rigidity, Kernig's sign and Brudzinski's signs. None of the signs are paicularly sensitive; in adults with meningitis, nuchal rigidity was present in 30% and Kernig's or Brudzinski's sign only in 5%. Nuchal rigidity is t... | |
In osteogenesis imperfecta the defect is in the:: (A) Synthesis of type I collagen, (B) Mineralisation of osteoid, (C) Osteoclast function, (D) Osteoblast formation | Answer is A. Ans; a (Synthesis of type I collagen) Ref: Robbins, ed, p. 1279Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to deficiency in the synthesis of Type I collagen structures affected are - bone, joints,eyes, ear, skin and teethCytogenetic abnormality:Mutation in the genes that codes for a1, and a2 chains of collagen autosoma... | |
A 28-year-old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years) and has oLigomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following are the most appropriate investigations -: (A) Serum electrolytes, (B) Plasma cortisol, (C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasoun... | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following muscles is responsible for abduction of vocal cord: (A) Posterior cricoarytenoid, (B) Lateral cricoarytenoid, (C) Cricoarytenoid, (D) Transverse arytenoid | Answer is A. None | |
A 30 year old male patient was on Isoniazid therapy for Tuberculosis.He developed rashes on exposed pas of body.He has disoriented memory. Family members gives history of diarrhea also.What is the diagnosis?: (A) Isoniazid neuropathy, (B) Tuberculosis skin lesions, (C) Niacin deficiency, (D) Some other drugs has caused... | Answer is C. Isoniazid inhibits the endogenous syntheisis of Niacin so,the patient developed dermatitis,diarrhea,dementia. Prolonged treatment with Isoniazid leads to Pyridoxine deficiency,which is required for endogenous synthesis of niacin Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition | |
Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is associated with:: (A) Ovarian agenesis, (B) Absent fallopian tube, (C) Vaginal atresia, (D) Bicornuate uterus | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. Absent fallopian tubeTo understand why distal part of fallopian tube is present:Mullerian ducts grow downward, therefore there will be cases where there will be well formed abdominal ostia associated with hypoplasia or absence of the remainder of the tubes, uterus and vagina or the tubes an... | |
What is the most common cause of failure of radiotherapy for stage II cervical carcinoma?: (A) Liver metastasis, (B) Bone metastasis, (C) Para-aortic node metastasis, (D) Resistance of the central tumor | Answer is C. In stage II cervical cancer, the incidence of nodal involvement is 25%-40%. Most tumors are not radioresistant, and distant metastasis (i.e., a more advanced stage) are a late complication of more advanced stages of the disease. | |
A young male presented with dyspnea, bleeding and petechial hemorrhage in the chest after 2 days following fracture shaft of the femur right side. Most likely cause is:: (A) Air embolism, (B) Fat embolism, (C) Pulmonary thromboembolism, (D) Amniotic fluid embolism | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Fat embolism* Fat embolism usually manifests following Long bone fractures* MC after Closed fractures > Open fractures* MC in Young (more bone marrow) > Old* MC in Long bones (Femur) > Pelvis> Smaller bones* 90% will develop fat emboli after traumatic fracture but only 1-5% develop fat embolism sy... | |
Which is not an endogenous catecholamine ?: (A) Dopamine, (B) Dobutamine, (C) Adrenaline, (D) Noradrenaline | Answer is B. None | |
The patient is being administered i.v. quinine following which he developed restlessness and sweating, the most likely cause is :: (A) Hypoglycemia, (B) Cinchonism, (C) Arrhythmias, (D) Sweating | Answer is A. None | |
A female with H/o oligohydramnios during her pregnancy, brings her newborn baby to OPD, on noticing asymmetric thigh folds in her child. The examiner performs flexion, IR and abduction, which produces a click sound. Which is the test done by the examiner?: (A) Oolani test, (B) Von Rosen test, (C) Mc Murray's test, (D) ... | Answer is A. Clinical Diagnosis - DDH based on the following 1. Abduction is limited (especially in flexion) 2. Asymmetric thigh folds Oolani's Test--the first two alphabets O and R (Oolani for Reduction) and for Reduction we do abduction of hip. It is similar to 2nd pa of Barlow's test McMurray circumduction test is u... | |
Most desirable structure to anastomose with esophagus is:: (A) Stomach, (B) Jejunum, (C) Colon, (D) Duodenum | Answer is A. Ans. (a) StomachRef Schackelford Page 256 7th edition* Best conduit for esophageal replacement-- Stomach* Best conduit for short segment replacement of esophagus-- Jejunum* Best conduit in cases of corrosive injury to stomach and esophagus-- Colon | |
WHO recommended dose of misoprostol in the treatment of post partum hemorrhage is: (A) 400 mcg oral, (B) 600 mcg sublingual, (C) 800 mcg sublingual, (D) 1000 mcg oral | Answer is C. Ans. (C) 800 mcg sublingual(Ref: WHO recommendations for prevention and treatment of PPH 2012)According to WHO 2012 recommendationsOxytocin is drug of choice for treatment and well as prevention of post partum hemorrhage.Alternatives are ergometrine, fixed dose combination of oxytocin and ergometrine and m... |
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