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Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cell wall of the following microorganism:: (A) Virus, (B) Gram positive bacteria, (C) Gram negative bacteria, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker in gram-positive than in gram-negative bacteria. Comparison of Cell Walls of Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Bacteria: Component Gram-Positive Cells Gram-Negative Cells Peptidoglycan Thicker; multilayer Thinner; single layer Teichoic acids Present Absent Lipopolysacc... | |
A study was conducted to test if use of herbal tea played any role in prevention of common cold. Data was collected on the number of people who developed cold and those who did not develop cold and this data was tabulated in relation to whether they consumed Herbal tea or not.\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n Herbal tea \r\nConsumed\r\... | Answer is B. According to the question, the data that has to assessed is the nominal data which has been arranged in qualified categories and thus by using a non-parametric test, the Chi square test is used for the analytical study of the test. The student t-test (unpaired and paired t test) and the 'z' test are parame... | |
Involvement of sweat glands and hair follicles is typically seen in which TUBERCULID?: (A) Lichen Scrofulosorum, (B) Military TB, (C) Papulonecrotic type, (D) Lupus vulgaris | Answer is A. Lichen Scrofulosorum Lichenoid eruption of minute papules occurring in children and adolescents with TB Skin colored, closely grouped lichenoid papules occur in perifollicular distribution, mainly found on abdomen,chest, back and proximal limbs. Pathological examination: superficial dermal granulomas surro... | |
In general as consequences of tooth loss bone loss is more in mandible; more in posterior region than anterior region;: (A) Both statements are true, (B) Both statements are false, (C) 1st statement is true, 2nd is false, (D) 2nd statement is true, 1st is false | Answer is A. None | |
A 5yr old child with diarrahoea, how much ORS is to be given according to plan A after each stool: (A) 50 ml, (B) 100 ml, (C) 200 ml, (D) According to thirst | Answer is B. PLAN A : Age Amount of ORS given after each stool amount of ORS to provide for use at home Less than 24 months 50-100ml 500ml/day 2-10 years 100-200 ml 1000ml/day 10 year or more asmuch as wants 2000 ml/day Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI,PG NO:264, 7TH EDITION | |
Ionoising radiation most sensitive in – a) Hypoxiab) S phagec) G2M phased) Activating cell: (A) ac, (B) cd, (C) ad, (D) bc | Answer is B. Cells that are rapidly growing and dividing are radiosensitive.
G2M phase is most radiosensitive. | |
False about Charcot's joint in diabetes mellitus is:: (A) Limitation of movements with bracing, (B) Ahrodesis, (C) Total ankle replacement, (D) Ahrocentesis | Answer is C. Treatment of Charcot's ahropathy- limitation of joint movements by bracing or casting, joint debridement (ahrocentesis) and fusion of joint (ahrodesis). Please remember that replacement is advocated now with advances in treatment but still it will be the least preferred treatment for ankle it can be carrie... | |
In Endodontics Endotec is used: (A) with lateral condensation and heated gutta percha, (B) with cold lateral compaction, (C) with vertical compaction, (D) with Chloro Percha Technique | Answer is A. None | |
Right atrial isomerization syndrome is associated with all of the following except:: (A) Spleen is absent, (B) Always associated with dextrocardia, (C) Cyanosis is present, (D) Bilateral right atria are present | Answer is B. Ans. B. Always associated with dextrocardia Ref: Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 20th/ed p2235ExplanationDetermination of viscera atrial situs (position of atria in relation to abdominal viscera) can be made by radiography demonstration of the position of the abdominal organs and the tracheal bifurcation for... | |
In which system, continuous enumeration of bihs and deaths by enumerator and an independent survey by investigator supervisor is done ?: (A) Decadal Census Enumeration, (B) Sample Registration System, (C) Model Registration System, (D) National Family Health Survey | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sample Registration System | |
Valproic acid causes all EXCEPT: (A) It is an enzyme inducer, (B) It causes obesity, (C) It causes Hirsutism, (D) It causes neural tube defects | Answer is C. It causes Hirsutism REF: KDT 7th ed p. 408 Adverse effects of valproate: Anorexia, vomiting, hea burn are common Drowsiness, ataxia, tremor are dose related Alopecia, curling of hair Increased bleeding tendency, thrombocytopenia Rashes and hypersensitivity phenomenon Asymptomatic rise in serum transaminase... | |
A patient comes to emergency opd with feeling of impending doom, intense anxeity and palpitations. All of the following investigations should be done in emergency except?: (A) T3, T4, TSH, (B) Glucose levels, (C) Hemoglobin, (D) ECG | Answer is C. The symptoms of impending doom and palpitations are suggestive of a panic attack and it is important to rule out hyperthyroidism, hypoglycemia and myocardial infarction. Hence T3, T4, TSH, Glucose levels and ECG has to be done. | |
Which of the following is not a complication of succinylcholine:-: (A) increased IOP, (B) increased ICP, (C) increased BP, (D) decreased hea rate | Answer is C. The following are the side effects of succinyl choline: Cardiovascular effects: Sinus bradycardia Junctional rhythms Ventricular dysrhythmias Hyperkalemia Myalgia Masseter spasm- Succinyl choline can trigger malignant hypehermia Increased intracranial pressure: Succinylcholine may lead to an activation of ... | |
Which of the following lesion has radiographic Soap bubble appearance, with a characteristic feature of 'Pumping action': (A) CGCG., (B) Central hemangioma., (C) Ameloblastoma., (D) OKC. | Answer is B. "Pumping action" is characteristic clinical feature. If tooth in the region of tumour is pushed into the tumor, it will rebound back to the original. | |
Phenylpyruvic acids in the urine is detected by:: (A) Guthrie's test, (B) VMA in urine, (C) Gerhas test, (D) Ferric chloride test | Answer is D. Ferric chloride test is a quantitative test for the detection of phenylketonuria; the addition of ferric chloride to urine give rise to a blue green colour in the presence of phenylketonuria. This colour is due to phenylpyruvate. | |
A 26-year-old woman has episodic hypeension with headache, diaphoresis, and palpitation. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be most useful in evaluating the possibility that pheochromocytoma might be the cause of these findings?: (A) Serum C-peptide, (B) Serum calcitonin, (C) Urinary vanillylmandelic ac... | Answer is C. - Urinary vanillylmandelic acid & metanephrines - metabolites of epinephrine & norepinephrine - markedly elevated in pheochromocytoma. - Serum C-peptide is elevated in insulinoma. - Serum calcitonin is sometimes used to screen for medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. | |
To avoid contraception, DMPA is given:: (A) Monthly, (B) 3 Monthly, (C) 6 Monthly, (D) Yearly | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. 3 monthlyRef: Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p812; Dutta Obs 6th/ed, p548; Park 20th/ed, p433-434; Leon Speroff 7th/ed, p962-963DMPA i.e. depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (depot provera) and Net en are progesterone only injectable contraceptives | |
Which one is not unourable for fetal development-: (A) Herpes, (B) Rubella, (C) Alcohol, (D) Tetracycline | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Herpes Intrauterine rubella infection, and maternal use of alcohol and tetracycline can cause IUGR. Herpes simplex can cause intrauterine infection, but it does not cause IUGR. | |
Heparin helps in the release of the enzyme: (A) Hyluronidase, (B) Lipoprotein lipase, (C) Amylase, (D) Invease | Answer is B. The repeating disaccharide heparin contains glucosamine (GlcN) and either of the two uronic acids (Figure 50-11). Most of the amino groups of the GlcN residues are N-sulfated, but a few are acetylated. The GlcN also carries a sulfate attached to carbon 6.Heparin is found in the granules of mast cells and a... | |
The following is not a Nerve gas -: (A) Sarin, (B) Tabun, (C) Soman, (D) Pyrolan | Answer is D. Sarin, Soman, and Tabun are organophosphate nerve agents while Pyrolan is a carbamate. | |
Which muscle is irritated by inflamed retrocaecal appendix: (A) Psoas major, (B) Gluteus maximus, (C) Quadratus femoris, (D) Obturator internus | Answer is A. Answer- A. Psoas majorIn children with abdominal pain, who hold their right hip in a flexed position to obtain relief from the pain, one should suspect retrocaecal appendicitis causing irritation ofthe psoas muscle. | |
Second pa of duodenum not related posteriorly to?: (A) IVC, (B) Psoas major, (C) Bile duct, (D) Renal aery | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bile duct | |
Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by-: (A) CT. scan, (B) M.R.I., (C) Barium swallow, (D) Angiography | Answer is D. A pulmonary sequestration (bronchopulmonary sequestration)is a medical condition wherein a piece of tissue that ultimately develops into lung tissue is not attached to the pulmonary aerial blood supply.An angiogram/aeriogram has been considered vital in documenting the systemic blood supply,allowing defini... | |
Chemical method of strengthening porcelain
involves: (A) exchange of aluminium and sodium ions, (B) exchange aluminium and potassium ions, (C) exchange of sodium and potassium ions, (D) none of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Blood supply of liver -: (A) 80% hepatic artery, 20% portal vein, (B) 20% hepatic artery, 80% portal vein, (C) 50% hepatic artery, 50% portal vein, (D) 100% hepatic artery | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 20 % hepatic artery, 80 % portal vein Blood supply of livero The liver has dual blood supply20% of blood supply is through the hepatic artery.80% of blood supply is through the portal vein.o Before entering the liver, both the hepatic artery and the portal vein divide into right and left ... | |
Factors ouring fat embolism in a patient with major trauma :: (A) Mobility of, (B) Hypovolemic shock, (C) Resp. failure, (D) All | Answer is A. A i.e. Mobility of | |
X-ray sign of pneumoperitoneum: (A) Steeple sign, (B) Rigler's sign, (C) Golden 'S' sign, (D) 'Bird of prey' sign | Answer is B. Rigler's sign - bowel wall outlined by intraluminal and free peritoneal gas. | |
The amino acid that acts as a precursor in the production of urea is: (A) Arginine, (B) Aspaic acid, (C) Ornithine, (D) Glutamate | Answer is A. (Refer: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th edition, pg no: 265) | |
Medial longitudinal arch is supported by-: (A) Plantar fascia, (B) Sustentaculum tali, (C) Peroneus longus, (D) Peroneus brevis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Plantar fascia Arches of the foot* The arches of the foot are well known features of the foot. There are two longitudinal arches, i.e. medial longitudinal arch and lateral longitudinal arch.* In addition there are two transverse arches, i.e. posterior transverse arch and an anterior trans... | |
True about OPV are all, EXCEPT:: (A) We get quick immune response, (B) It is a live vaccine, (C) It is used in epidemic, (D) Maternal antibody interferes with immune response | Answer is A. Oral polio vaccine is live attenuated vaccine containing (type 1,2,3 polio strain) It was described by Sabin in 1957,i.e. it is also known as Sabin vaccine The vaccine progeny is excreted in the faeces and secondary spread occurs to household contacts and susceptible contacts in community. Non immunized pe... | |
Nutrient aery to fibula arises from: (A) Peroneal aery, (B) Anterior- tibial aery, (C) Posterior tibial aery, (D) Popliteal aery | Answer is A. Nutrient aery to fibula:- The peroneal aery gives off nutrient aery to fibula.Enters the bone on its posterior surface.Nutrient foramen directed downwards. {Reference: BDC 6E} | |
Scabies in adults differs from that in children by –: (A) Not involving face, (B) Non involving genitals, (C) Not involves areola, (D) Involves whole body | Answer is A. Scalp, face, palm and soles are characteristically spared in adult, whereas these areas are involved in infants and young children. | |
A patient was brought to emergency with complaints of high-grade fever and altered sensorium. He was diagnosed to be suffering from meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate empirical treatment option?: (A) Ceftriaxone, (B) Piperacillin--Tazobactam, (C) Penicillin, (D) Cotrimoxazole | Answer is A. Answer- A. CeftriaxoneMeningococcal meningitisTreatment:3rd generation cephalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone is DOC for initial therapyProphylaxis: Rifampicin is DOC for meningococcal prophylaxisANTIBIOTIC RECOMMENDATIONS FOR BACTERIAL MENINGITIS:BACTERIAANTIBIOTIC(IV)DURATIONStreptococcus Pneumo... | |
Sulfasalazine exes its primary action in ulcerative colitis by :: (A) Folic acid synthesis, (B) Formation of prostaglandins (PG), (C) Inhibition of NF-KB Activation, (D) Formation of interleukins | Answer is C. MOA* Inhibition of NF-KB Activation* Inhibition of PG synthesis* Scavenging of Free radicals 5-ASA compounds exe its local anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting leukotriene production (PG synthesis) by inhibition of 5-lipooxygenase activity; also inhibits the production of IL-1 and TNF. Commonly Used 5-AS... | |
Inhibition of prolactin is caused by: (Repeat): (A) Dopamine, (B) Dobutamine, (C) TRH, (D) AT-II | Answer is A. Ans: A (Dopamine) Ref: Pal GK, Pituitary Gland: The Anterior Pituitary. In: Textbook of Medical Physiology, Abuja Publishing House, 2007: 44:332Explanation:Regulation of Prolactin SecretionProlaction Increased by:PRFSleep, stress, breast feedingAlso released by TRH and hormones in the glucagon family (secr... | |
The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be -: (A) Non-contrast computed tomography, (B) CSF examination, (C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), (D) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography | Answer is A. Investigation of choice for acute SAH is non-contrast CT scan. | |
In periodontitis maximum destruction is present in:: (A) Lateral wall of pocket, (B) Root surface, (C) Junctional epithelium, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:: (A) A-T, (B) C-G, (C) A-G, (D) C-T | Answer is B. Triple bond is present between cytosine and guanosine. Ref: Harper's Biochemistry, 24th Edition, Page 403, 25th Edition, Page 404 ; Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 332, 344 | |
HMP shunt occurs in all organs except ?: (A) Liver, (B) Adipose tissue, (C) RBC, (D) Brain | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., BrainHMP is an alternative route for the oxidation of glucose (beside glycolysis).It is also called as "pentose phosphate pathway", "Dickens - Horecker pathway", "Shunt pathway" or "phosphogluconate oxidative pathway".HMP shunt is required for provision of reduced NADPH and fiver-carbon s... | |
A 6 year old boy has been complaining of a headache, ignoring to see the objects on the sides for four months. On examination he is not mentally retarded, his grades at school are good, and visual acuity is diminished in both the eyes. Visual charting showed significant field defect. CT scan of the head showed suprasel... | Answer is B. Suprasellar calcification along with the presence of visual field defects and headache suggests the diagnosis of craniopharyngioma. | |
Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true ?: (A) It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life, (B) It is a diagnostic test, (C) It is an impoant aid to classify type of leprosy disease, (D) BCG vaccination may conve lepra reaction from negative to positive | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., It is a diagnostic test | |
Test for visual acuity in a baby of age <1 year is: (A) Electro retinography, (B) Electro oculography, (C) Snellen's chart, (D) Optical Coherence tomography | Answer is A. Test for visual acuity in an infant is Electro retinography. | |
Inflammation of the perapical tissue is sustained by which of the following: (A) Stagnant tissue fluid, (B) Necrotic tissue, (C) Microorganisms, (D) Pus cells | Answer is C. None | |
Intrauterine growth retardation can be caused by all except –: (A) Nicotine, (B) lcohol, (C) Propranolol, (D) Phenothiazine | Answer is D. Causes of LUG (small for date)
Environmental
Ethnic, racial and geographic
Social and economic status
Nutritional
Maternal
The short stature of mother
Primi or grand multipara
Young / adolescent mother (below 20 years)
Low pre-pregnancy weight
Smoking and tobacco or alcohol abuse
Maternal illness : anem... | |
All of the following fluoroquinolones have been withdrawn Except: (A) Trovafloxacin, (B) Gatifloxacin, (C) Gemifloxacin, (D) Grepafloxacin | Answer is C. Except for Gemifloxacin, all others have been withdrawnTrovafloxacin due to hepatotoxicityGatifloxacin due to hypo/hyperglycemiaGrepafloxacin due to adverse cardiac events | |
The term balanced anesthesia has been given by: (A) Simpson, (B) Fischer, (C) Lundy, (D) Moan | Answer is C. Refer Goodman Gilman 12/e p 528 Term balanced anaesthesia was introduced by Lundy in 1926 | |
Treatment of a 6-year-old child with recurrent UI, mouth breathing, failure to grow with high arched palate and impaired hearing is: (A) Tonsillectomy, (B) Grommet inseion, (C) Myringotomy with grommet inseion, (D) Adenoidectomy with grommet inseion | Answer is D. Mouth breathing with recurrent UI suggest adenoid hyperplasia, treatment is adenoidectomy. Hearing impairment and the option of myringotomy and grommet inseion suggests the patient is also suffering from serious otitis media (glue ear/secretory otitis media), which is one of the complications of adenoid hy... | |
The normal value of P50 on the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve in an adult is:: (A) 1.8 kPa, (B) 2.7 kPa, (C) 3.6 kPa, (D) 4.5 kPa | Answer is C. C i.e., 3.6 K Pa P50 is the P02 at which hemoglobin is half P50 is the index of affinity of hemoglobin for 02. Higher the P50, the lower the affinity of hemoglobin for 02. Under normal condition when: - Hb is normal - PaCO2 is 110 mm Hg - Temperature is 37degC - 2,3 DPG is 15 jtmol/gm of Hb. The value of P... | |
All are the features of Korsakoff's syndrome except :: (A) Confabulation, (B) Retrograde amnesia, (C) Antegrade amnesia, (D) Defective motor skill | Answer is D. "Korsakoff syndrome is an irreversible chronic encephalopathy with antegrade and retrograde amnesia and confabulation". | |
Amount of infectious waste among hospital waste is:: (A) 1.50%, (B) 4.50%, (C) 25%, (D) 12% | Answer is A. None | |
MCardle's syndrome is due to: (A) Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase, (B) Absence of muscle phosphorylase, (C) Deficiency of liver phosphorylase, (D) Deficiency of liver phosphorylase kinase | Answer is A. McArdle disease (also known as glycogen storage disease type V) is a disorder affecting muscle metabolism. The condition is caused by the lack of an enzyme called muscle phosphorylase. This results in an inability to break down glycogen 'fuel' stores. McArdle disease leads to pain and fatigue with strenuou... | |
All are characteristic features of drug induced hepatitis EXCEPT:: (A) Fever, (B) Ahritis, (C) Rash, (D) Neutrophilia | Answer is D. FARE : fever , ahritis , rash and eosinophilia indicates medication induced liver disease Ref : Schiff's diseases of liver , Edition -11 , Page - 5. | |
A woman aged 35 year with delayed cycles and a history of primary infeility. On laparoscopic examination she has a normal uterus with bilateral enlarged ovaries, normal fallopian tubes, chromotubation shows blue dye spillage. What is the most probable cause?: (A) Endometriosis, (B) PCOS, (C) Ovarian cyst, (D) Tubo Ovar... | Answer is B. PCOS (polycystic Ovarian Syndrome) / Stein Leventhal syndrome Features of PCOD / PCOS Obesity Insulin resistance / hyperinsulinemia Hyperandrogenemia Anovulation Metabolic X syndrome Oligomenorrhea Amenorrhoea Rotterdam / Eshre /Androgen excess Society /ASRM criteria Diagnostic requisites : Any 2 out of 3 ... | |
True about social phobia is:: (A) Fear of closed spaces, (B) Irrational fear of situation, (C) Irrational fear of activities, (D) Irrational fear of specified objects | Answer is C. C i.e. Irrational fear of activities | |
Calabar swelling is produced by?: (A) Onchocerca volvulus, (B) Loa loa, (C) Burgia malayi, (D) Wuchereria bancrofti | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Loa - Loa Loiasis . Loiasis is caused by L. Loa (the African eye worm) . Habitat of adult worms is subcutaneous connective tissue of man; often in the sub-conjuctival tissue of the eye. . The worm passes its life cycle in two hosts : - Man - Chrysops (Mango or deer flies) . C/Fs --> Asymp... | |
Modified Ferriman Gallway score is used to Grade: (A) Hirsuitism, (B) Abnormal Uterine bleeding, (C) PCOD, (D) Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia | Answer is A. Modified Ferriman-Gallwey score is the most common method for grading the extent of hirsutism in clinical investigation. Scores hair growth from 0-4 in each of 9 androgen-sensitive areas, including the upper lip, chin, chest, upper and lower abdomen, upper arm, thighs, and the upper and lower back.Scores l... | |
True about nabothian cyst is all except -: (A) Squamous epithelium occludes the mouth of the glands, (B) It is seen in chronic irritation and inflammation, (C) It is a pathology of the cervix, (D) It is pre - malignant | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., It is pre - malignant Nabothian cvsts# Seen in chronic inflammation of cervix.# It is the result of blockage of mouth of the glands of the cervix.# During the process of healing, the squamous epithelium replaces the columnar epithelium.# The blocked glands become distended with secretion ... | |
Which of the following is not used as a sedative, but causes sedation as a side effect :: (A) Digitalis, Antiarrhythmics, (B) Antihistaminics, antidepressants, (C) Macrolides, (D) Benzodiazepines | Answer is B. First generation antihistaminics cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects.
Sedative action of TCAs appears immediately and these drugs (particularly clomipramine, maprotiline and bupropion) lower the seizure threshold.
Benzodiazepines are used as sedative drugs. | |
Half life of factor VIII -: (A) 2-4 hours, (B) 8-12 hours, (C) 6 minutes, (D) 60 days | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 8-12 hours o Half life of various clotting factors (in hours) :-* Firinogen - 100-150# Factor III -6# Factor X - 45-52* Prothrombin -60# FactorVIII-8-12# FactorXI -48-84* Factor V-24# Factor IX - 24# Factor XII - 150 # WVF-30 | |
Dopamine acts on D2 receptors that have an inhibitory effect on prolactin secretion. Now if D2 receptors are blocked, which of the following effects will not be seen:: (A) Visual disturbance, (B) Gonadal dysfunction, (C) Headache, (D) Excessive lactation | Answer is A. None | |
A 32 year old man presents to the emergency room with a severe headache. Nuchal rigidity is found on physical examination. Lumbar puncture demonstrates cerebrospinal fluid with markedly increased lymphocytes. Other cell populations are not increased. Which of the following agents is the most likely cause of his symptom... | Answer is C. The clinically suspected diagnosis is meningitis, which is confirmed by the abnormal cerebrospinal fluid. The markedly increased lymphocytes suggests acute lymphocytic meningitis, which is distinguished from acute pyogenic meningitis (increased neutrophils as well as lymphocytes). Acute lymphocytic meningi... | |
True about Nexplanon is all except: (A) Suppress ovulation, (B) Induces endometrial atrophy, (C) Estrogen subdermal implant, (D) Increases cervical mucus viscosity | Answer is C. Nexplanon is progestin implant. | |
The virus, which spreads by both hematogenous and neural route is ?: (A) Rabies virus, (B) Varicella zoster virus, (C) Poliovirus, (D) E. B. virus | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., PolioVirus | |
What instruction do you give to a mother who is lactating regarding intake of drug?: (A) No advice as most of drug are not secreted into breast milk, (B) Give longer half-life drugs, (C) Tell the mother to feed when it is least efficacious, (D) Lactate Just before she take the next dose, when the plasma concentration o... | Answer is D. ANS. DPlasma concentration of drug varies with time follows the graph as shown below. Certain drugs can be secreted in breast milk and therefore transferred to the infant. Care should be taken to decrease this to the minimum possible levels.Least plasma concentration of the drug will be just before the nex... | |
Which of the following is the richest source of Vitamin C?: (A) Orange, (B) Guava, (C) Cabbage, (D) Amla | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Amla | |
A 85 yr old female developed multiple blisters on trunk and thighs. Nikolsky&;s sign is negative. The lesions came on and off. The most probable diagnosis is: (A) Lichen planus, (B) Pemphigus vulgaris, (C) Bullous pemphigoid, (D) Lepra reaction | Answer is C. Bullous Pemphigoid (BP) * Most common autoimmune bullous disorder with chronic nature; typically in patients over 60 Autoantigen: - * BPAG2 (collagen XVII): 180 kDa (NC16A domain), transmembrane hemidesmosomal protein * BPAG1: 230 kDa, cytoplasmic plaque protein Clinical features:- Often presents with init... | |
Rapid progressive juvenile periodontitis is seen usually at which age?: (A) 6-10 years, (B) 10-20 years, (C) 30-40 years, (D) At any age | Answer is B. None | |
Compensatory mechanism in acute hemorrhage-: (A) Decreased myocardial contractility, (B) Decreased heart rate, (C) Increased heart rate, (D) Increased respiratory rate | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased heart rate Compensatory mechanisms in acute hemorrhageo In acute hemorrhage there is compensatory sympathetic stimulation which causes1) Generalized vasoconstriction with increased total peripheral resistance (TFR).2) Increased heart rate (tachycardia).Increased cardiac contract... | |
ICDS stands for: (A) Integrated child development services, (B) Integrated child development scheme, (C) International child development services, (D) Indian child development scheme | Answer is A. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme- Under ICDS scheme, there is an anganwadi worker for every 400-800 population- The beneficiaries include nursing mothers, pregnant women, other women (15-45 years), children below the age of 6 years and adolescent girls.Park 23e pg: 903 | |
A 45 - year old cirrhotic patient presented with severe haematemesis. The management of choice is :: (A) Whole blood transfusion is the best, (B) Colloids are preferred over crystalloids, (C) Normal saline infusion, (D) IV fluid with diuretics | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' Whole Blood transfusion "Patients with significant hemorrhage, Anaemia or Intravascular volume depletion require Blood transfusion or colloid containing solutions (albumin, Dextran) but whole blood transfusion is the t/t of choice because colloidal solutions are expensive and they have some adv... | |
Pulled up cecum is seen in -: (A) CA colon, (B) Carcinoid, (C) Ileocecal tuberculosis, (D) Crohn's disease | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Ileocecal tuberculosis Tuberculosis of the small intestine occurs in two forms.o Primary infection is usually due to bovine strain of mycobacterium tuberculosis and results from ingesting infected milk. In India the human strain may also cause such primary tuberculosis. This produces hype... | |
Extrapyramidal symptoms are seen with the use of:: (A) Metoclopramide, (B) Domperidone, (C) Prolactin, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than -: (A) 100 gm\/litre, (B) 105 gm\/litre, (C) 110 gm\/litre, (D) 115 gm\/litre | Answer is C. For children between 6months and 6 years, anemia is defined as defined as hb less than 11g/dl.REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 623 | |
The method of presenting data of geographic distribution is:: (A) Histogram, (B) Pie chart, (C) Frequency polygon, (D) Cartogram | Answer is D. None | |
A patient suffering from thyrotoxicosis is given propanolol. Which of the following is not controlled by propranolol given to this patient?: (A) Anxiety, (B) Tachycardia, (C) Tremor, (D) O 2 consumption | Answer is D. The primary role of propranolol in thyrotoxicosis is to attenuate the effects of catecholamines, and it is also a weak inhibitor of extrathyroid conversion of T4 to T3. When given it is useful in reducing the hea rate, tremor, agitation, psychotic behavior, diarrhea, fever and diaphoresis. It doesn't alter... | |
Excessive buying is termed as: DNB 08: (A) Kleptomania, (B) Oniomania, (C) Trichotillomania, (D) Pyromania | Answer is B. Ans. Oniomania | |
Drug of choice for Herpes simplex encephalitis is:: (A) 5-Hydroxy deoxyuridine (5-HU), (B) Acyclovir, (C) Gancyclovir, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Acyclovir is active only against herpes group of viruses; H. simplex type I is most sensitive followed by H. simplex type II > varicella-zoster virus= Epstein-Barr virus; while cytomegalovirus (CMV) is practically not affected. Both H. simplex and varicella-zoster virus have been found to develop resistanc... | |
An electrocardiogram (ECG) in a patient with a systolic ejection murmur that shows an incomplete bundle branch block in the precordial lead is most consistent with:: (A) A secundum ASD., (B) A sinus venosus ASD with PAPVR., (C) An ostium primum ASD., (D) A complete AV canal defect | Answer is A. Many patients with secundum ASDs have an incomplete bundle branch block on their ECG. This is in contradistinction to patients with ostium primum defects, who often have a left axis detion. Although the ECG is not pathognomonic of the defect, the findings are sometimes helpful along with other clinical and... | |
All of the following drugs can be used for intestinal ameobiasis except -: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Chloroquine, (C) Diloxanide furoate, (D) Tinidazole | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine | |
A 60-year old female presented with decreased movements for the last 2 years with rigidity and veical large square wave jerks. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Parkinson's disease, (B) Lewy body dementia, (C) Multisystem atroph, (D) Progressive supranuclear palsy | Answer is D. Ans. d. Progressive supranuclear palsy The most likely diagnosis in a 60-year old female presenting with decreased movements for the last 2 years with rigidity and veical large square wave jerks is progressive supranuclear palsy. "Progressive supranuclear palsy should be considered whenever a middle aged o... | |
The pacemaker potential is due to: (A) Fast Na+ channel, (B) Decrease in K+ permeability, (C) Slow Ca++ channel, (D) Rapid repolarization | Answer is B. . | |
Which of the following acute-phase reactants is responsible for the anemia associated with chronic inflammation?: (A) Fibrinogen, (B) Serum amyloid (SAA), (C) C-reactive protein (CRP), (D) Hepcidin | Answer is D. Acute-phase proteins are plasma proteins, mostly synthesized in the liver, whose plasma concentrations may increase several hundred-fold as part of the response to inflammatory stimuli.
Three of the best-known of these proteins are:
C-reactive protein (CRP).
Fibrinogen.
Serum amyloid A (SAA)... | |
All of the following immunosuppressives cause profound myelosuppression except-: (A) Sirolimus, (B) Cyclosporine, (C) Azathioprine, (D) Mercaptopurine | Answer is B. Pharmacokinetics, mechanism of action, clinical efficacy in organ transplants, adverse effects, and dosage and administration of cyclosporine, a new immunosuppressant, are reviewed .Cyclosporine acts by blocking T-lymphocyte function without causing myelosuppression Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 578 | |
Hea rate increase with one of the following?: (A) Stimulation of trigeminal nerve pain receptor, (B) Increased intracranial tension, (C) Decreased stimulation of Baroreceptors, (D) Increased parasympathetic stimulation | Answer is C. The baroreflex or baroreceptor reflex is one of the body's homeostatic mechanisms that help to maintain blood pressure at nearly constant levels. The baroreflex provides a rapid negative feedback loop in which an elevated blood pressure reflexively causes the hea rate to decrease and also causes blood pres... | |
Glutamine replaced by valine in sickle cell anaemia is characterized by: (A) Non sense mutation of beta chain, (B) Missense mutation of beta chain, (C) Degradation of beta chain, (D) Deletion of beta chain | Answer is B. None | |
Pathologic calcification is seen in: (A) Scleroderma, (B) Lichen planus, (C) Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa, (D) Lupus erythematosus | Answer is A. Systemic sclerosis:
Characterized by ultimate induration and atrophy of skin and fixation of epidermis to deeper subcutaneous tissues. The skin becomes hardened and atrophic and cannot be wrinkled or picked up because of its firm fixation to the deep connective tissue. This contracture of skin gives a mas... | |
Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of -: (A) Right frontal lobe, (B) Right occipital lobe, (C) Left occipital lobe, (D) Left frontal lobe | Answer is A. Horizontal eye movements (Fast one or saccadic) are triggered by the centro lateral frontal lobes i.e. left lateral gaze palsy is caused by right frontal lobe Abducens nuclear lesions produces a complete lateral gaze palsy Ref | |
A patient presented with pus in urine. Urine culture was done which was negative. After a sudden onset renal failure the patient died. On autopsy the following finding was seen in kidney. What is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) TB kidney, (B) Infected renal cysts, (C) Renal cell carcinoma, (D) Renal stones | Answer is A. Ans. (a) TB kidneyThe clinical history is suggestive of sterile pyuria. The gross morphology shows greyish white are caseating necrotic material which is formed in patches, predominantly in the cortical areas involving the while circumference of the kidney. Hence, the first possibility is renal TB. | |
Vesicoureteric reflux is demonstrated by using: (A) DMSA, (B) DTPA, (C) MAG3 - Tc 99, (D) I123 iodocholesterol | Answer is C. C i.e. MAG3 - Tc99 | |
29 yrs male was brought to OPD by his wife giving history of aggressive behaviour with decreased social interaction and lack of self care. O/E grasp reflex present, CT scan would be showing lesion of which lobe ?: (A) Frontal lobe, (B) Occipital, (C) Temporal, (D) Parietal | Answer is A. Frontal lobe lesion manifest as: (Anterior Cerebral Aery occlusion) Aggressive and antisocial behaviour Abulia Apathy Urge incontinence Magnetic gait/Gait apraxia O/E: Primitive reflexes like grasp and rooting reflex are present. | |
Left ureter is related to -a) Quadratus lumborumb) Left gonadal vesselsc) Superior mesenteric veind) Sigmoid mesocolone) Internal iliac artery: (A) abc, (B) bde, (C) ace, (D) bce | Answer is B. Left gonadal artery and sigmoid mesocolon are related to the anterior surface of the abdominal part of the left ureter.
Internal iliac artery is related to the posterior surface of pelvic part of the ureter.
Inferior mesenteric artery (not a superior mesenteric artery) is related to left ureter medially. | |
Which of the following tumor is most commonly associated with superior vena cava syndrome: (A) Lymphoma, (B) Small cell carcinoma, (C) Non small cell carcinoma, (D) Metastasis | Answer is B. Small cell carcinomas are central or hilar in location and are highly associated with superior vena caval syndrome and paraneoplastic syndrome. Ref:Harsh Mohan-Pathology-6th edition,page no:500. | |
All are true about dengue fever, except:: (A) Most common arboviral disease, (B) Its both endemic and epidemic, (C) Unaffected by ambient temperature, (D) Self limiting | Answer is C. Dengue can occur in epidemic and also as endemic. Mosquitoes kept at 260 C fail to transmit the DEN-2 virus so low incidence in ceain seasons explained. Ref: Park, 20th Edition, Pages 220-21 | |
A patient with cerebellar problems and spider angiomas is diagnosed with a combined T-cell and B-cell deficiency known as ataxia- telangiectasia. In addition to a defect in this patient's DNA repair enzymes, which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital secretions, and is als... | Answer is B. IgA antibody is involved in local immunity at the level of the mucous membrane. It also arises early in disease, is short lived, and will disappear similarly as IgM. | |
An ICU patient on atracurium infusion develops seizures after 2 days. The most probable cause is -: (A) Accumulation of landonosine, (B) Allergy to drug, (C) Due to prolong infusion, (D) All the above | Answer is A. Ans: A | |
Body Mass Index is expressed as: March 2012, March 2013 (c, g): (A) Gram/metre2, (B) Gram/ centimetre2, (C) Kilogram/ metre2, (D) Kilogram/centimetre2 | Answer is C. Ans: C i.e. Kilogram/ metre2 Body Mass Index is defined as the weight in kilograms divided by the square of the height in metres (Kg/m2) | |
Most common complication of chronic gastric ulcer is: (A) Tea pot stomach, (B) Adenocarcinoma, (C) Perforation, (D) Haemorrhage | Answer is C. Gastric ulcers like duodenal ulcers cause pain, bleeding, and obstruction and can perforate.The most frequent complication of gastric ulceration is a perforation. Most perforations occur along the anterior aspect of the lesser curvatureHaemorrhage occurs in approximately 35% to 40% of patients.The incidenc... | |
Most effective agent to prevent motion sickness is-: (A) Ephedrine, (B) Nedocromil, (C) Cyproheptidine, (D) Hyoscine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hyoscine o Motion sickness is more easily prevented than cured.o Transdermal hyoscine (scopolamine) is the best agent for the prevention of motion sickness.o Antihistamines can also be used for prevention. | |
Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the ?: (A) Parotid salivary gland, (B) Minor salivary glands, (C) Submandibular salivary gland, (D) Sublingual salivary gland | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Parotid salivary gland Acinic cell tumor These are relatively uncommon tumors, representing only 2 to 3% of Salivary gland tumors. Composed of cells resembling the normal serous acinal cells of salivary glands. Most arise in the parotids - The remainder arise in submandibular glands. Mino... | |
A patient with major depressive disorder brought by her mother complaining that she tried hanging herself. She had so many attempts before and she talks more about deaths. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is suggested. Which of the following is the absolute contraindication to ECT?: (A) Brain rumour, (B) Myocardial dise... | Answer is D. There are no absolute contraindications to the use of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), but some conditions are relative contraindications, they are:Space-occupying intracerebral lesions (except for small, slow growing tumors without edema or other mass effect)Conditions with increased intracranial pressure... |
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