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All are used for cervical ripening, except :: (A) Ergometrine, (B) Oxytocin, (C) Stripping of membranes, (D) Prostaglandins | Answer is A. Ergometrine | |
Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of Oxygen - Hemoglobin dissociation curve?: (A) Increased hydrogen ions, (B) Decreased CO2, (C) Increased temperature, (D) Increased BPG | Answer is B. Bohr effect is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated hemoglobin (deoxyhemoglobin) binds H+ more actively than does oxygenated hemoglobin (oxyhemoglobin). The pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases, so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve shifts to the righ A rise in temperature or a fall in ... | |
What is the ratio of placental weight to fetal weight at term ?: (A) 1:04, (B) 1:05, (C) 1:06, (D) 1:07 | Answer is C. Placenta weighs 500 gm, the propoion to the weight of the baby being roughly 1:6 at term and occupies about 30% of the uterine wall. | |
Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock ?: (A) Adrenaline, (B) Antihistaminic, (C) Glucocoicoids, (D) Epinephrine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenaline o First adrenaline should be given im to raise the blood pressure and to dilate the bronchi. o If the treatment is delayed and shock has developed, adrenaline should be given i.v. by slow injection. | |
Turner's Syndrome is associated with :: (A) 45 chromosomes, (B) Presence of barr bodies, (C) Low FSH levels, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. 45 chromosomes Turners syndrome has karyotype 45X0. (Option "a" is correct) No. of Barr Bodies= Total No of X Chromosomes -- 1 No. of Barr Bodies in Turners = 1 -- 1 = 0 (Option "b- ruled out) In Turner's syndrome ovaries are replaced by Streak Gonads --> Decreased Estrogen levels -- Decrease in negative i... | |
Which drug is used in intracavernous injection for erectile dysfunction?: (A) Epoprostrenol, (B) Alprostadil, (C) Sildenafil, (D) Tadalafil | Answer is B. AlprostadilQ contains naturally occurring prostaglandin E and, hence has vasodilator action. It can be injected into corpora cavernosa or administered intraurethrally. The firm erection is produced within 2 to 3 minutes and may last for 1 hour. Other injectable medications for erectile dysfunction include:... | |
A nursing mother presented with fever and breast tenderness after two weeks postpaum. Which oral antibiotics is ideal for her condition?: (A) Ampicillin, (B) Dicloxacillin, (C) Ceftazidime, (D) Ciprofloxacin | Answer is B. Dicloxacillin:- Anti - staphylococcal penicillin :- B lactamase resistant penicillin. Their use is restricted to the treatment of infection cause by penicillinase producing staphylococci including MSSA. Other drug of this class:- Methicillin Oxacillin Methicillin because of its toxicity (interstitial Nephr... | |
Drug of choice for prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcer disease is: (A) H2 receptor blockers, (B) Proton pump inhibitors, (C) Macrolide antibiotic, (D) Sucralfate | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proton pump inhibitors * PPI are the DOC for peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal), GERD, ZE syndrome, prevention of aspiratory pneumonia and NSAID induced gastric / duodenal ulcers. Note - PGE1 analogue (Misoprostol) is specific drug for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but ... | |
Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a:: (A) ELISA, (B) Immunodot, (C) RIPA, (D) Western Blot | Answer is D. None | |
The most common organism causing acute tonsillitis is:: (A) Staph aureus, (B) Anaerobes, (C) Hemolytic streptococci, (D) Pneumococcus | Answer is C. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci is the M/C bacteria causing acute tonsillitis. other causes are: staph aureus pnuemococci H. Influenza Ref Dhingra 5/e,p 341,6/e,p 288. | |
Dead-born fetus does not show: Kerala 11: (A) Rigor mois at bih, (B) Adipocere formation, (C) Maceration, (D) Mummification | Answer is B. Ans. Adipocere formation | |
A metastatic carcinoma in the brain of an adult, most often comes from primary in the: (A) Stomach, (B) Ovary, (C) Oral cavity, (D) Lung | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Lung | |
Commonly used long bone for identification -: (A) Femur, (B) Radius, (C) Ulna, (D) Humerus | Answer is A. The best long bone for identification is femur. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29 th edition Chapter 4 page,43,45. | |
Prokaryotes doesn't have: (A) Cell membrane, (B) Mitochondria, (C) Ribosome, (D) Cell wall | Answer is B. Ans: b) MitochondriaKingdom protista is divided into Prokaryotes and EukaryotesProkaryotes Bacteria & blue green algaeEukaryotesFungi, slime moulds, other algae & protozoaAlmost all organelle and cell components are absent in prokaryotes which are found in EukaryotesMuramic acid and Diaminopimelic acid (ce... | |
Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by a doctor, staff or hospital is:: (A) Therapeutic misadventure, (B) Vicarious liability, (C) Therapeutic privilege, (D) Diminished liability | Answer is A. Ans. (A). Therapeutic misadventure(Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 33rd edition 2010. Pg: 38)Civil negligenceSimple absence of skill & careCriminal negligenceGross absence of skill & careContributory NegligenceBoth doctor and patient are negligentCorporate Negli... | |
Causes of Hemobilia are All Except-: (A) Trauma to Abdomen, (B) Malignancy, (C) Rupture of hepatic artery aneurysm, (D) Hepatitis | Answer is D. None | |
Ammonia for the urea cycle is supplied by the action of the following enzymes?: (A) Aspaate aminotransferase, (B) Glutamate dehydrogenase, (C) Argininosuccinate synthase, (D) Argininosuccinate lyase | Answer is B. Glutamate dehydrogenase breaks down glutamate to form ammonia and ct-ketoglutarate. Aspaate aminotransferase transfers the amino group from glutamate to oxaloacetate to form aspaate. Ammonia and aspaate both feed into the urea cycle to supply the nitrogen used to synthesize urea. Argininosuceinate synthase... | |
A hirsuite lady with PCOD treatment is:: (A) Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel, (B) Ethinyl estradiol + Desogestrel, (C) Levonorgestrel, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. Ethinyl estradiol + DesogestrelRef: Novak 14th/ed, p 1083, 15th/ed, p 1086 KDT Pharma 6th/ed, p 307OCPs decrease adrenal and ovarian androgen production and reduce hair growth in nearly two thirds of hirsute patients. When an OCP is used to treat hirsutism, a balance must be maintained betw... | |
Which of the following cells do not act as antigen presenting cells. ?: (A) T-cells, (B) B-cells, (C) Macrophages, (D) Osteoclasts | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., T-cellsNote - Osteoclast is a type of macrophage. | |
Phyllodes tumor most commonly presents in ?: (A) 2nd decade, (B) 3rd decade, (C) 4th decade, (D) 6th decade | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 6th decade Phyllodes tumors, like fibroadenomas, arise from intralobular stroma of breast, but are much less common. Although they can occur at any age, most present in the sixth decade, 10 to 20 years later than the peak age for fibroadenomas. | |
Caseous necrosis in granuloma not found in: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Leprosy, (C) CMV, (D) Wegener's granulomatosis | Answer is A. Caseous necrosis is found in the centre of foci of tuberculous infections.(Ref: Textbook of Pathology HARSH MOHAN 6th Edition page no.45) | |
SA node is located in ?: (A) Triangle of Koch's, (B) In crista terminalis, (C) In membranous pa of interventricular septum, (D) Upper pa of interatrial septum | Answer is B. In crista terminalis | |
Step in HMP pathway requiring TPP: (A) G6PD, (B) 6 Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase, (C) Transketolase, (D) Transaldolase | Answer is C. Transketolase requires thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP). | |
An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is:: (A) Parkinsons disease, (B) Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy, (C) Alzheimers disease, (D) None of the above. | Answer is B. Answer is B (Supranuclear gaze palsy): Progressive supranuclear palsy should always be considered when a middle aged/elderly persons presents with a history of repeated falls, & difficulty in downward or horizontal gaze. Steel Richardson syndrome Nature of disorder Is a degenerative disorder where in there... | |
Growth of cranium continues upto:: (A) 2 years, (B) 10 years, (C) 15 years, (D) Grows equally | Answer is C. None | |
The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is indicated by ?: (A) Isoenzyme pattern, (B) Size, (C) Nuclear pattern, (D) ELISA test | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoenzyme pattern Zymodene There are distinct invasive and noninvasive strains of E. histolytica. These strains vary according to their isoenzyme patterns (zymodemes). E. histolytica strains have 22 zymodemes of these 10 zymodemes are invasive and 12 are noninvasive. Zymodemes of E. histo... | |
Function of Health worker female -: (A) Perform 50% of deliveries, (B) Trains dais, (C) Enlist dais of the subcentre, (D) Chlorination of water | Answer is B. Functions maternal and child health Family planning Medical termination of pregnancy Nutrition Dai training Communicable diseases Vital events Record keeping Treatment of minor ailments Team activities (refer pgno:910 park 23rd edition) | |
Most common site of mandibular fracture is: (A) Angle of mandible, (B) Condylar process, (C) Coronoid process, (D) Ramus | Answer is B. Mandibular fractures are typically the result of trauma. This can include a fall onto the chin or a hit from the side. Rarely they may be due to osteonecrosis or tumors in the bone. The most common area of fracture is at the condyle (36%), body (21%), angle (20%) and symphysis (14%). | |
Not gluconeogenic-: (A) Acetyl CoA, (B) Lactate, (C) Glycerol, (D) Alanine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acetyl CoA o Substrates for gluconeogenesis are lactate (lactic acid), pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids (alt amino acids except leucine and lycine), propionate and intermediates of citric acid cycle.. | |
The dominant histologic feature of infarction is:: (A) Liquefactive necrosis, (B) Coagulative necrosis, (C) Chronic inflammation, (D) Scar tissue | Answer is B. Pathognomonic cytologic change in all infarcts is coagulative (ischaemic) necrosis of the affected area of tissue or organ.
In cerebral infarcts, however, there is characteristic liquefactive necrosis.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 112 | |
Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes :: (A) Tremor, aphasia dementia, (B) Ataxia, aphasia, gait disorder, (C) Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, dementia, (D) Gait disorder, urinary incontinence, lower cranial nerve palsy | Answer is C. Answer is C (Gait disorder, Urinary incontinence & Dementia): Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) is a communicating hydrocephalus with a patent aqueduct of sylvius, caused by obstruction to normal flow of CSF over the cerebral convexities and delayed absorption into the venous system. Clinical triad Abnor... | |
In case of IVC obstruction the collaterals which open up are all except ?: (A) Superior epigastric & inferior epigastric vein, (B) Azygos & ascending lumbar vein, (C) Superficial epigastric & iliolumbar vein, (D) Lateral thoracic veins & preveebral vein | Answer is C. Superficial epigastric pain drains into great saphenous vein. Iliolumbar vein drains into internal iliac vein,so these two do not form collateral between SVC & IVC as both of them will be ultimately drained into IVC.All other choices form collaterals between SVC & IVC. | |
A patient is having random plasma glucose levels of 110 mg/ dl and 113 mg/ dl on two separate occasions. What you will advise him: March 2012: (A) Declare him as having Diabetes mellitus, (B) Proceed for oral glucose tolerance test, (C) Declare patient as normal, (D) Check for Glycosylated hemoglobin and if it is raise... | Answer is C. Ans: C i.e. Declare patient as normal Diagnosis of DM Random plasma glucose levels of more than 200 mg/dl along with symptoms suggesting diabetes, confirms the diagnosis Random plasma glucose ranging between 140-198 mg/dl is an indication to perform oral glucose tolerance test The use of HbA1c for diagnosi... | |
A 20yr old patient with swelling in waist joint Histopathology shows spindle cells and verrocay bodies Most likely diagnosis: (A) schwannoma, (B) Neurofibroma, (C) Neuroma, (D) Lipoma | Answer is A. Histopathology of Schwannoma shows Antoni A pattern Antoni B pattern and verrocay bodies/ ref : robbins 10th ed | |
A solution contains 2x10-3 mol/L of a weak acid (pK=3.5) and 2x10-3 mol/L of its conjugate base. Its pH is best approximated by which one of the following?: (A) 4.1, (B) 3.9, (C) 3.5, (D) 3.1 | Answer is C. Buffers consist of solutions of acid-base conjugate pairs, such as acetic acid and acetate.a. Near its pK, a buffer maintains the pH of a solution, resisting changes due to addition of acids or bases. For a weak acid, the pK is often designated as pKa .b. At the pKa , and are equal, and the buffer has its ... | |
In new drug designing. problern arises in: (A) Decreasing interaction of drug with target proteins, (B) Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins, (C) Decreasing potency of drugs, (D) Decreasing potency of drugs | Answer is B. Ans. b. Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins | |
Common salt can be used as a chemical antidote for washing the stomach in case of oral poisoning by: (A) Mercuric sulphide, (B) Silver nitrate, (C) Copper sulphate, (D) Lead bicarbonate | Answer is B. . | |
In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected?: (A) Subcutaneous fat, (B) Muscle, (C) Liver, (D) Brain | Answer is D. In asymmetric IUGR, brain growth (head circumference) - spared | |
Pain in hypogatric region may arise from: (A) Uterus, (B) Left colon, (C) Urinary bladder, (D) Gallbladder | Answer is A. Refer to diagram above Pain in Hypogastrium Urine infections Appendicitis Diveicular disease Inflammatory bowel Pelvic pain (Gynae) | |
Organism commonly associated with wearing of soft lens:: (A) Acanthamoeba, (B) Aspergillus, (C) Staphylococcus aureus, (D) Psedomonas aeruginosa | Answer is A. refer : AK KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTHALMOLOGY 6TH EDITION pg 100
Mode of infection of Acanthamoeba
Contact lens wearers using home-made saline (from contaminated tap water and saline tablets)
is the commonest situation recognised for acanthamoeba infection in western countries.
Other situations include ... | |
For early diagnosis of ca stomach which method is used -: (A) Endoscopy, (B) Staining with endoscopic biopsy, (C) Physical examination, (D) Ultrasound abdomen | Answer is B. Endoscopy with multiple biopsies and brush cytology is the investigation of choice for gastric cancer. | |
A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and respiratory distress. The nurses report that the child's bowel movements are greasy and have a pungent odor. A sweat-chloride test is positive. Which of the following mechanisms of disease is the most likely cause of steatorrhea in this child?: (A) Abnorma... | Answer is D. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting children, which is characterized by (1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function, and (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, the liver, and the reproduc... | |
Which of the following is not true about transmission -: (A) Legionella may be transmitted through water aerosols, (B) Listeria may be transmitted through refrigerated food, (C) Leptospirosis may be transmitted through water contaminated with rat urine, (D) Tetanus may be transmitted through dust and droplets | Answer is D. None | |
MRI is the investigation of choice in all of the following except:: (A) Syringomyelia, (B) Brain stem tumors, (C) Skull bone tumors, (D) Multiple sclerosis | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Skull bone tumors* MRI is best for soft tissue tumors* CT is best for Bone tumors* Imaging modality of choice to detect cerebral necrosis - PET scan.* IOC for Leptomeningeal Carcinomatosis-Gadolinium enhanced MRI | |
A country has crude birth rate 25 per 1000 and crude death rate 10 per 1000. What is the growth rate of that country -: (A) 2.50%, (B) 5.00%, (C) 15%, (D) 1.50% | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1.5% * Growth rate = Crude birth rate - Crude death rate.* Thus, growth rate = 25-10=15 per 1000 or 1.5% | |
Xanthurenic acid in the urine is suggestive of deficiency of which vitamin?: (A) Vitamin B6, (B) Vitamin B12, (C) Folic acid, (D) Thiamine | Answer is A. Xanthurenic acid is formed in the side reaction of kynurenine. Kynurenine which is a intermediate of tryptophan metabolism requires vitamin B6 dependent enzyme kynureinase for its normal metabolism. In pyridoxine(Vit B6) deficiency kynurenine is metabolized to xanthurenic acid which is excreted unchanged i... | |
Which of the following statements about lamivudine is FALSE :: (A) Possess Anti-HIV and anti–HBV activity, (B) Dose lower for blocking HIV replication than HBV replication, (C) Should not be used as monotherapy in HBV/HIV infected patients, (D) Anti–HBe seroconversion occurs in minority of patients | Answer is B. None | |
A 56 year old diabetic man, Damu who regularly consumes nearly 120g alcohol per day, was referred by the PHC physician with history of fatigue, cough with putrid smelling sputum and fever. He has anemia, weight loss, pyorrhea and gingivitis. His chest X-Ray showed some findings which helped the doctor to diagnose his p... | Answer is D. This is a tricky question, here we have a patient with alcoholism with frequent aspirations. On the top of that the patient is diabetic too. He is complaining of fever, weight loss, cough with expectoration with foul smelling sputum, so the first d/d is lung abscess due to anaerobes. Let us see the explana... | |
Destruction of fat in acute pancreatitis is due to: (A) Lipase and trypsin, (B) Secretion, (C) Lipase and elastase, (D) Cholecystokinin and trypsin | Answer is A. Pathophysiology AP is the final result of abnormal pancreatic enzyme activation inside acinar cells Colocalization hypothesis: Cathepsin B-mediated intra acinar cell activation of the digestive enzymes leads to acinar cell injury and triggers an Inflammatory response Digestive enzymes are released which co... | |
Warm-antibody immunohemolytic anemia is seen in all except -: (A) SLE, (B) α- Methyladopa ingestion, (C) Quinidine, (D) Infectious mononucleosis | Answer is D. None | |
Which one of the following is not true for an α-helix: (A) It is one of the most important secondary structure, (B) It has a net dipole moment, (C) All hydrogen bonds are aligned in the same direction, (D) Long stretches of left handed α-helices occur in proteins | Answer is D. Right-handed (clockwise) α-helix is more stable and therefore is the usual α-helix pattern found in the natural secondary structure. Left-handed α-helix is not common.
α-helix is the most common secondary structure in proteins.
α-helix has an overall dipole moment: amino terminus of an alpha helix is posit... | |
Decidualization of endometrium is due to: (A) Estrogen, (B) Progesterone, (C) Inhibin, (D) FSH | Answer is B. Progesterone is responsible for decidualization of endometrium. | |
A pateint with cervix cancer is mised by a screeing test and later diagnosed with advanced disease. This time interval is called: (A) Lead time, (B) Screening time, (C) Serial interval, (D) Generation time | Answer is A. .lead time is actually the advantage gained by screening.the priod between the diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means.detection programmes should therfore concentrate on those conditions where the time lag between the disease&;s onset and its final critical point is sufficiently long to ... | |
Exclusive milk ingestion can manifest as?: (A) Scurvy, (B) Beri-Ben, (C) Phryenoderma, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is 'None' | |
Enzyme alpha naphtyl esterase is present in ?: (A) Neutrophil, (B) Eosinophil, (C) Lymphocyte, (D) Monocyte | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e., Monocyte | |
Drug not causing enzyme inhibition is: (A) Phenobarbitone, (B) Omeprazole, (C) Disulfiram, (D) Diltiazem | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenobarbitone Drugs that induce microsomal enzymes* Phenobarbitone* Carbamezepine* Phenytoin* Omeprazole* Rifampin* Clofibrate* Glucocorticoids* Meprobamate* Isoniazid* Ritonavir* Chloral hydrate* Glutethimide* Phenylbutazone* Chronic alcohol intake* Griseofulvin* Cigarette smoking* DDT*... | |
Consistent change in particular direction over a period of time: (A) Sporadic, (B) Endemic, (C) Secular trend, (D) Pandemic | Answer is C. None | |
Characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is: (A) Keratin pearls, (B) Foam cells, (C) Nuclear palisading, (D) Psammoma bodies | Answer is C. The characteristic finding is of ovoid cells in nests with a single 'palisading' layer. It is only the outer layer of cells that actively divide, explaining why tumour growth rates are slower than their cell cycle speed would suggest.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 605 | |
All are true about premature rupture of membrane (PROM) except:: (A) Amnioinfusion is done, (B) Amoxiclav antiobiotic should be given, (C) Aseptic cervical examination, (D) Steroid is used | Answer is A. Answer is option 1 Because amnioinfusion with warm saline can be performed in the presence of variable decelerations due to cord compression in oligohydraminos. TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS, SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN, 2nd EDITION,pg:526 | |
Paial claw hand is caused by lesion involving the:March 2010, March 2013 (a, b): (A) Radial nerve, (B) Ulnar nerve, (C) Median nerve, (D) Anterior interosseous nerve | Answer is B. Ans. B: Ulnar Nerve | |
The inferior hypogastric plexus is located -: (A) Anterior to the aorta, (B) Behind the kidney, (C) Between layers of anterior abdominal wall, (D) On the side of rectum | Answer is D. Inferior Hypogastric plexus is located on the side of the rectum. | |
Complete mole is -: (A) 46XY, (B) 46XX, (C) 45XY, (D) 45 XX | Answer is B. Ans-B i.e., 46XX "In general, complete moles have a 46XX karyotype (85%), the molar chromosomes are derived entirely from father. Infrequently, the chromosomal pattern may be 46, XY or 45, Y". | |
The major advantage of alternate day prednisone therapy for conditions such as asthma –: (A) There is less adrenal suppression, (B) More effective, (C) More convenient, (D) Less expensive | Answer is A. Measures that minimize hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis suppression -
Use shorter acting steroids
Use lowest possible dose
Use for shortest period
Give entire daily dose at a time
Switch to alternate - day therapy | |
Following is not true concerning amyloidosis (NOT RELATED): (A) Amyloidosis associated with multiple myeloma has the poorest prognosis, (B) Fine - needle biopsy of subcutaneous abdominal fat is a simple & reliable method for diagnosing secondary systemic amyloidosis, (C) Hepatic amyloid disease produces hepatomegaly bu... | Answer is D. Amyloidosis of the spleen characteristically is not associated with leukopenia & anaemia. all other options are true | |
In a female,basi-occiput fuses with basi-sphenoid at the age of: (A) 20 years, (B) 23 years, (C) 27 years, (D) 17 years | Answer is A. Basal suture: the basiocciput fuses with basisphenoid by about 18- 22 years in females and 19- 24 years in males. Metopic suture: closes from 2-8 years. In some cases, the metopic suture will not close and may be associated with other congenital anomalies like hydrocephalus and meningocele with asymmetry o... | |
Cervical cone biopsy in a case of carcinoma cervix causes all, except:: (A) Bleeding, (B) Cervical stenosis, (C) Infection, (D) Spread of malignancy | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. Spread of malignancyRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p406; Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p421; Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p635Complications of Cone biopsy are:* HemorrhageQ* Sepsis (infection)Q* Cervical stenosisQ* Pregnancy complications which include:- Mid trimester abortionsQ- Preterm laborQ- Cervical dystociaQAlso K... | |
Swine flu is ca used by ?: (A) H1N1, (B) H5N1, (C) H3N1, (D) H3N3 | Answer is A. Swine infkuenza, a new H1N1 Virus causes swin flue<\p> REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.503 | |
Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is:: (A) Serum transferrin, (B) Serum ferritin, (C) Serum iron, (D) Hemoglobin | Answer is B. Evaluation of iron status in the body can be done by: Serum ferritin: 'Most sensitive tool for evaluation of iron status' , especially in populations with low prevalence of anemia. Hemoglobin concentration: A relatively insensitive index of nutrient depletion. Serum iron concentration: Normal range is 0.80... | |
The preferred treatment of verrucous carcinoma of the larynx is -: (A) Pulmonary surgery, (B) Electron beam therapy, (C) Total laryngectomy, (D) Endoscopic removal | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following fungi has not been cultured -: (A) Sporothrix, (B) Rhinosporidium, (C) Acremonium, (D) Blastomyces | Answer is B. (B) (Rhinosporidium) (558- C.P. Baveja 4th)* Rhinosoridium seeberi fungus has not been cultured.* Diagnosis depends on the demonstration of sporangia.* Many fungi develop relatively slowly and cultures should be retained for at least 2-3 weeks (in some cases up to 6 weeks before discarded. Yeasts usually g... | |
Which of following techniques tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy -: (A) FISH, (B) RT-PCR, (C) QF-PCR, (D) Microarray | Answer is D. FISH (Fluorescent in situ hybridisation) and PCR (polymerase chain reaction) like RT-PCR and QF PCR tests can detect specific aneuploidy.
Whereas, microarray-based CGH (comparative genomic hybridization) test can be used as high-resolution whole-genome scan for the detection or screening of unknown (non-sp... | |
Which of the following occurs along with glucose transport into a cell: (A) Sodium symport, (B) Sodium anteport, (C) Potassium transport, (D) Amino acid transport | Answer is A. Na+- Glucose co-transport. Glucose is reabsorbed 100% in Proximal Tubule | |
Which of the following is not a 'heterophile reaction':: (A) Weil Felix test, (B) Paul Bunnell test, (C) Frei's test, (D) Cold agglutinin test | Answer is C. Frei's test is not a heterophile reaction Frie's test is used in the diagnosis of LGV. Antigen made from sterile pus aspirated from previously unruptured LGV abscesses, produces a reaction in patients with lymphogranuloma inguinale when injected intradermally. Heterophile reactiion Similar antigens on diss... | |
Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis?: (A) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis, (B) Choroiditis, (C) Eales' disease, (D) Acute Retinal necrosis | Answer is B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis used to be most common manifestation of tuberculosis, but now it is causes by staphylococcus Eales' disease (periphlebitis retinae ) occur in tuberculosis but it is not very common. Acute retinal necrosis occurs in Herpes simplex and varicella infection not in tuberculosis. Chor... | |
Carbon di oxide is transpoed in plasma as:September 2005: (A) Dissolved form, (B) Carbamino compounds, (C) Bicarbonate, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. D: All of the aboveCO2 is carried in blood in three different waysMost of it (about 70% - 80%) is conveed to bicarbonate ions by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells5% - 10% is dissolved in the plasma5% - 10% is bound to hemoglobin as carbamino compounds | |
All are true statements regarding use of sodium fluoride in the treatment of otosclerosis except:: (A) It inhibits osteoblastic activity, (B) Used in active phase of otosclerosis when Schwaz sign is positive, (C) Has proteolytic activity (bone enzymes), (D) Contraindicated in chronic nephritis | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. It inhibits osteoblastic activity The most useful medication which prevents rapid progression of cochlear otoscierosis is sodium fluoride Mechanism of Action It reduces osteoclastic bone resorption and increases osteoblastic bone formation, which promote recalcification and reduce bone remod... | |
Newborns have transplacentally acquired immunity against all of the following diseases except –: (A) Measles, (B) Pertusis, (C) Diphteria, (D) Poliomyelitis | Answer is B. None | |
In Kluver-Bucy animals, lesion is in:: (A) Prefrontal coex, (B) Corpus callosum, (C) Pituitary gland, (D) Amygdala | Answer is D. Kluver-Bucy syndrome refers to the changes in behavior due to bilateral destruction of anterior poions of temporal lobes & amygdala on both sides. It is characterised by: The animal is not afraid of anything, It has extreme curiosity about everything, It has a tendency to place everything in its mouth, The... | |
Cryoglobulins are present in blood in which of the following clinical scenarios: (A) Macroglobulinaemia, (B) SLE, (C) Myeloma, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Cryoglobulins if present in blood, form precipitates in patients serum when it is cooled down. They are a type of abnormal immunoglobulin disorder Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 102 | |
Serum sickness occurs after -: (A) Injection with foreign serum, (B) Injection with own serum, (C) Injection with normal saline, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Injection with foreign serum o Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity (immune complex mediated) reaction that results from the injection of heterologous or foreign protein or serum.o Certain medications (eg, penicillin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ) have also been associat... | |
Chancroid is caused by:: (A) Treponema pallidum, (B) Leishmania donovani, (C) Haemophilus ducreyi, (D) Donovania granulomatis | Answer is C. Ans. c (Haemophilus ducreyi). (Ref. Textbook of microbiology by Ananthanarayan 6th/ 311.)VulvovaginitisAdherent yellowish discharge, pH >5, fishy amine odor in KOH, clue cells, gram - cell dominateBacterial vaginosisOvergrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, anaerobesClue cells, gram - rodsMetronidazoleVulvovagi... | |
Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor in neuroblastoma?: (A) MYCN amplification, (B) High mitosis-karyorrhexis index, (C) Evidence of gangliocytic differentiation, (D) Mutations of neuritogenesis genes | Answer is C. Unourable prognostic factors in neuroblastoma: Stage 3, 4 Age >18 months Absence of evidence of schwannian stroma and gangliocytic differentiation High Mitosis-karyorrhexis index (>200/5000 cells) Near-diploid (segmental chromosome losses; chromothripsis) MYCN Amplified Chromosome 1p loss Chromosome 11q lo... | |
'Hot Potato' voice is characteristically seen in: (A) Pterygomandibular space infection, (B) Retropharyngeal space infection, (C) Pre tracheal space infection, (D) Lateral pharyngeal space infection | Answer is D. None | |
In CPR, chest compressions are done:: (A) On the upper part of sternum, (B) On the xlphisterum, (C) On the middle of the lower part of the sternum, (D) On the left side of the chest | Answer is C. None | |
Not a cause of acute anal pain is:: (A) Perianal abscess, (B) Thrombosed hemorrhoids, (C) Acute anal fissure, (D) Fistual in ano | Answer is D. None | |
Overall most common trisomy is: (A) Trisomy 21, (B) Trisomy 18, (C) Trisomy 16, (D) Trisomy 13 | Answer is C. Most common Trisomy overall is Trisomy 16. Most common Trisomy in live birth is Trisomy 21. | |
In camera trial of a rape case hearing is done under ?: (A) 376 IPC, (B) 327 CrPC, (C) 53 CrPC, (D) 375 IPC | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. 327 CrPC S. 327 CrPC (2) -The inquiry into and trial of rape or an offence under sec.376 IPC shall be conducted in camera and it is not lawful for any person to print or publish any matter in relation to such proceedings except with the permission of cou. | |
A mill-wheel type of murmur during laparoscopy suggests: (A) Tension pneumothorax, (B) intra-abdominal bleeding, (C) Gas embolism, (D) pre-existing valvular disease | Answer is C. The 'water-wheel' or 'mill-wheel' murmur is classically associated with large intracardiac air emboli and described as a "characteristic splashing auscultatory sound due to the presence of gas in the cardiac chambers." . Most venous air (gas) emboli are iatrogenic . Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 620 | |
Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is -: (A) One bacillus, (B) 1 08-1 01deg bacilli, (C) 102-105 bacilli, (D) 1-10 bacilli | Answer is C. Typhoid and paratyphoid (enteric) fevers Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, which are transmitted by the faecal-oral route, are impoant causes of fever in the Indian subcontinent, sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America. Elsewhere, they are relatively rare. Enteric fevers are caused by infection with Salmonella ... | |
Ocular hallmark of giant cell aeritis is: (A) Papilloedema, (B) CRAO, (C) AION, (D) CRVO | Answer is C. Answer- C. AIONThe most common ocular manifestation of giant cell aeritis is visual loss, most commonly secondary to anterior ischemicoptic neuropathy (AION) due to occlusion of sho posterior ciliary aerities.Ophthalmic aery involvement can lead to sudden blindness which is the most feared complication of ... | |
The following are true of vibro cholerae except: (A) Produces indole and reduces nitrates, (B) Synthesises neuraminidase, (C) Dies rapidly at low temperature, (D) All | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dies rapidly at low temperature . Duration of protection of cholera vaccine is 3-6 months. . Vibrio cholerae does not die at lower temperature, infact it grows at lower temperature (range 16-40degC) | |
In CEAP clinical classification what does C-4b indicate: (A) Edema, (B) Pigmentation or eczema, (C) Healed venous ulcer, (D) Lipodermatosclerosis or atrophie blanche | Answer is D. The CEAP (Clinical - Etiology - Anatomy - Pathophysiology)classifi cation for chronic venous disorders is widely utilised.Clinical classification* C0: no signs of venous disease* C1: telangectasia or reticular veins* C2: varicose veins* C3: oedema* C4a: pigmentation or eczema* C4b: lipodermatosclerosis or ... | |
Which of the following features defines toddler fracture: (A) Subluxation of the radial head, (B) Salter Harris type 3 fracture of the distal fibular epiphysis, (C) Fracture of the distal radius, (D) Spiral fracture of the tibia | Answer is D. Toddler fractures occur in young ambulatory children (from 9 months to 3 years). A toddler&;s fracture is a spiral or oblique undisplaced fracture of the distal shaft of the tibia with an intact fibula. The periosteum remains intact and the bone is stable. These fractures occur as a result of a twisting in... | |
A 15-year-old boy with epilepsy on treatment with a combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except -: (A) Weight gain of 5 kg, (B) Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L,... | Answer is D. None | |
The world health organisation day is -: (A) 7th April, (B) 21st May, (C) 2nd August, (D) 31st December | Answer is A. In 1946 the constitution was drafted by "Technical Preparatory Committee " under the chairmanship of Rene Sand and was approved in the same year by an International Health Conference of 51 nations in New york. The constitution came in to force on 7 th April 1948 which is celebrated every year as "World Hea... | |
Chorda tympani leaves skull through?: (A) Stylomastoid foramen, (B) Petrotympanic fissure, (C) Internal acoustic meatus, (D) Foramen ovale | Answer is B. The chorda tympani arises in the veical pa of the facial canal about 6 mm above the stylomastoid foramen. It runs upwards and forwards in a bony canal. It enters the middle ear and runs forwards in close relation to the tympanic membrane. It leaves the middle ear by passing through the petrotympanic fissur... | |
Klinefelter syndrome karyotype is-: (A) 47XXX, (B) 45X0, (C) 47XXY, (D) 46XX\/145X0 | Answer is C. harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *klinefelter'syndrome is an example of sex chromosome trisomy 47,XXX karyotype | |
Fluoxetine is a -: (A) Noradrenaline uptake inhibitor, (B) Serotonin uptake enhancer, (C) Serotonin uptake inhibitor, (D) MAO | Answer is C. None | |
The viruses causing diarrheal diseasesin infants are -: (A) Rotavirus, (B) Norwalk virus, (C) Adenovirus, (D) Hepatadenovirus | Answer is A. rota virus cause diarrheal disease in childrens REF:<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.561 | |
Ketamine is a: (A) Short general anesthetic agent, (B) Local anesthetic agent, (C) Antidepressive agent, (D) Hypnotic agent | Answer is A. None |
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