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Which is the most common cause of male infertility: (A) Smoking, (B) Varicocele, (C) Epididymitis, (D) Idiopathic | Answer is B. Varicocele is the most common cause of male infertility. | |
Sterile vegetations are seen in all except: (A) SLE, (B) Infective endocarditis, (C) Rheumatic fever, (D) Marantic endocarditis | Answer is B. Infective endocarditis is a serious infection mandating prompt diagnosis and intervention. Microbial invasion of hea valves or mural endocardium--often with destruction of the underlying cardiac tissues--characteristically results in bulky, friable vegetations composed of necrotic debris, thrombus, and org... | |
BASDAI criteria is indicated in: (A) Ankylosing spondylitis, (B) Rheumatic Ahritis, (C) Kawasaki Disease, (D) Any autoimmune disease | Answer is A. BASDAI(Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis disease activity index) Used to know effectiveness of drug therapy On a scale of 1-10 it is measured by various factors like discomfo, pain, morning stiffness etc If the value is >4 there is suboptimal control of disease | |
A patient has Rinne test +ve for left ear and weber test is lateralized to right ear, what type of deafness may be seen in this case?: (A) Left conductive HL, (B) Right conductive HL, (C) Left sensorineural HL, (D) Right sensorineural HL | Answer is C. Tuning fork tests and their interpretation Test Normal Conductive deafness SN deafness Rinne AC>BC (Rinne +ve) BC>AC (Rinne -ve) AC>BC Weber Not lateralized Lateralized to poorer ear Lateralized to better ear. | |
The blood pressure regulatory system that is labeled as a buffer system is: (A) Baroreceptor, (B) Chemoreceptor, (C) Kidney, (D) CNS ischemic response | Answer is A. Baroreceptor system opposes either increases or decreases in aerial pressure, it is called a pressure buffer system, and the nerves from the baroreceptors are called buffer nerves.Ref: Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 13th edition. Page: 221 | |
A patient requires mild cholinomimetic stimulation following surgery. Physostigmine and bethanechol in small doses have significantly different effects on which of the following ?: (A) Gastric secretion, (B) Neuromuscular junction, (C) Sweat glands, (D) Ureteral tone | Answer is B. None | |
Least common valve involved in rheumatic fever?: (A) Aoic valve, (B) Tricuspid valve, (C) Mitral valve, (D) Pulmonary valve | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pulmonary valve Endocarditis in rneumatic fever Mitral valve involved almost all the cases of Acute Rheumatic Fever. Almost 25% of MR is asociated with aoic regargitation. Tricuspid regurgitation is seen in 10-30% cases. Pulmonary valve involvement is never seen. | |
t(2,8) is associated with:: (A) T cell ALL, (B) B cell ALL, (C) CML, (D) CLL | Answer is B. t(2,8) causing translocation vetween immunoglobulins k chain on chromosome 2 and the myc gene present on chromosome 8 and is seen in Burkitts lymphoma .The translocation results in the increased expression of c-myc resulting in development of neoplasia. (ref Robbins 8th/608) | |
Cause of persistance of a sinus or fistulae includes?: (A) Foreign body, (B) Non dependentt drainage, (C) Unrelieved Obstruction, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is `d' i.e., All of the above | |
Multiple submucosal neuromas is most likely associated with -: (A) Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B, (B) Ovarian carcinoma, (C) Testicular teratoma, (D) Pancreatic beta cell carcinoma | Answer is A. Mucosal neuromas are made up of nerve cells, often with thickened perineurium, intewined with one another in a plexiform pattern. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B is a genetic disease that causes multiple tumors on the mouth, eyes, and endocrine glands. It is the most severe type of multiple endocrine ... | |
Baby born to DM have following except:: (A) Hypercalcemia, (B) Hypokalemia, (C) Hypoglycemia, (D) Obesity | Answer is A. None | |
Daily vitamin A intake: (A) 1000 I.U, (B) 2000 I.U, (C) 3000 I.U, (D) 4000 I.U | Answer is D. None | |
Not an indication for cholecystectomy for asymptomatic gallstones: (A) Diabetes, (B) Sickle cell anaemia, (C) Procelain GB, (D) In high prevalence areas CA GB | Answer is A. Indications of prophylactic Cholecystectomy Cardiac transplant recepients Lung transplant recipients Chronic TPN requirements Recepients of biliopancreatic diversion (bariatric patient) Children with hemoglobinopathy (sickle cell, thalassemia and spherocytosis) Asymptomatic gallstone >=3cm Stone associated... | |
Trident hand is seen in –: (A) Achondroplasia, (B) Mucopolysaccharidosis, (C) Diphyseal achlasia, (D) Cleidocranial dystosis | Answer is A. Trident hand is seen in achondroplasia. | |
A Hand radiograph of a child given suggests the diagnosis of?: (A) Scurvy, (B) Rickets, (C) Hyperparathyroidism, (D) Osteogenesis imperfecta | Answer is B. The Wrist radiograph shows a immature skeleton and the lower ends of radius and ulna showing cupping,splaying and fraying suggestive of Rickets | |
Earliest feature of vitamin deficiency is:: (A) Conjunctival xerosis, (B) Nyctalopia, (C) Retinopa thy, (D) Pain | Answer is A. Conjunctival xerosis | |
Release of histamine and leukotrienes from mast cells is prevented by:: (A) Zileuton, (B) Nedocromil sodium, (C) Zafirlukast, (D) Fexofenadine | Answer is B. nedocromil and sod.cromoglycate- mast cell stabilizers Sodium cromoglycate (Cromolyn sod.) is a synthetic chromone derivative which inhibits degranulation of mast cells (as well as other inflammatory cells) by trigger stimuli. Release of mediators of asthma-like histamine, LTs, PAF, interleukins, etc. are ... | |
Which layer involved in blister formation in a superficial partial thickness burn:: (A) Epidermis, (B) Dermis, (C) Papillary dermis, (D) Reticular dermis | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Papillary dermisRef: Surgery Sixer 2nd edition, Page 892* First degree: Involves only epidermis* Second degree: Involves epidermis and some part of dermis. (Also known as partial thickness burns)Further divided into:* Superficial second degree or superficial partial thickness involves upper part o... | |
A laboratory technician was accidentally exposed to a HIV serum positive sample, which of the following shall be the role of zidovudine in treatment of this patient ?: (A) Protects against acquiring the HIV infection, (B) Makes the patient seronegative, (C) Delays the progression of disease, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
RBC cast is seen in?: (A) Minimal change disease, (B) Renal vein thrombosis, (C) Bladder schistomiasis, (D) Rapidly progressive Glomerulo-nephritis | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Rapidly progressive Glomerulo-nephritisRef: Robbiris pathology 9th ed. /912-915* RBC casts are a feature of glomerular damage. Normally < 3 RBC/HPF are going to leak. But in case of glomerular damage the number of RBC in urine will exceed the limit mentioned above and these RBC get impinged on tam... | |
A 15-year-old girl incurs a cut to the sole of her foot after stepping on a piece of broken glass. On examination, a superficial 0.5-cm laceration ceases to bleed within 5 minutes after application of local pressure. Which of the following substances is released by endothelium and is most likely to counteract platelet ... | Answer is C. Endothelial injury releases glycoprotein tissue factor (factor III) that drives the coagulation process and activates platelets. Adjacent intact endothelium generates prostacyclin (PGI2 ) via arachidonic acid metabolism to inhibit clot propagation beyond where it is needed. PGI2 and nitric oxide are powerf... | |
Large Intracytoplasmic glycogen storage is seen in which of the following malignancy -: (A) Osteosarcoma, (B) Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, (C) Ewing's sarcoma, (D) Leiomyosarcoma | Answer is C. None | |
3. Drug used in the Pseudomonas treatment: (A) Cefixime, (B) Ceftazidime, (C) Ampicillin, (D) Cotrimoxazole | Answer is B. Psedomonas is inherently resistant to most of the antibiotics. Cephalosporins such as ceftazidime ,cefoperazone, ceftolozane and cefepime are used to treat it | |
Host receptor for streptococcus pyogenes is?: (A) CD4, (B) CD21, (C) CD44, (D) CD46 | Answer is D. Ans. (d) CD46(Ref: Wintrobes I2th/pg 2523)CD46 (Complement Membrane Cofactor Protein): It is a receptor to a number of pathogens, such as herpes virus 6, M protein of group A streptococci, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Escherichia coli. | |
Aniseikonia means -: (A) Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs, (B) Difference in the size of cornea in both eyes, (C) Difference in the size of pupil in both eyes, (D) Difference in the size of image formed by the two eyes | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Difference in the size of image formed by the two eyesRef: Parsons 22/e, p. 283, 613Aniseikonia is defined as a condition where the images projected on the visual cortex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size or shape. | |
Which of the following is associated with suicide risk?: (A) Noradrenaline, (B) Serotonin, (C) GABA, (D) Dopamine | Answer is B. Ans. B SerotoninLow concentrations of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA- metabolite of serotonin) in CSF associated with higher suicide risk | |
Most common coagulopathy noted in surgical patients is -: (A) Thrombocytopenia, (B) Afibrinogenemia, (C) Fibrinolysis, (D) Factor VIII defeciency | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thrombocytopenia | |
Which of the following drug is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor ?: (A) Indinavir, (B) Ritonavir, (C) Nelfinavir, (D) Abacavir | Answer is D. None | |
An anterolaternal corodotomy relieving pain in right leg is effective because it interrupts the: (A) Left dorsal column, (B) Left ventral spinothalmic tract, (C) Left lateral spinothalmic tract, (D) Right lateral spinothalmic tract | Answer is C. C i.e. Left lateral spinothalmic tract The anterior/ ventral - spinothalmic tract carries crude touch and pressueQ from opposite half of body; whereas lateralspinothalmic tract carries pain and temperature from the opposite half of body. Therefore any lesion in lateral spinothalmic tract will result in los... | |
Features of Alzheimer include all except: (A) More common in females, (B) Recent memory loss, (C) MMSE useful in diagnosis, (D) Medications offer near 100% cure | Answer is D. Dementia is a chronic organic mental disorder, characterized by the following main clinical features: 1. Impairment of intellectual functions, 2. Impairment of memory (predominantly of recent memory, especially in early stages), 3. Deterioration of personality with lack of personal care. Reference: A sho t... | |
A Neonate is brought with history of not having passed meconium on examination there is no anal opening but a dimple. Investigation of choice is -: (A) X-ray erect posture, (B) X-ray supine posture, (C) Gastrograffin study, (D) Invertogram | Answer is D. • Anorectal malformations are associated with VACTERL abnormalities. | |
M.C. organism in acute osteomyelitis -: (A) Staphylococcus aureus, (B) Salmonella, (C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, (D) Streptococcus pneumonia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Staphylococcus aureus o Acute osteomyelitis may be : -Primary (hematogenous) : - Organisms reach the bone through blood stream.Secondary: - Organism gain emery directly through wound such as in compound fractures or surgical operation,o Hematogenous osteomyelitis is the commonest form of ... | |
Surgical ciliated cyst is often associated with surgeries of the: (A) Maxillary impaction, (B) Mandibular set back, (C) Caldwell Luc procedure, (D) mucocele | Answer is C. None | |
Meningococci differs from gonococci in that they: (A) Are intracellular, (B) Possess a capsule, (C) Cause fermentation of glucose, (D) Are oxidase positive | Answer is B. Meningococci are capsulated, unlike gonococci. Based on their capsular polysaccharide antigens, they are classified into at least 13 serogroups, of which A, B, C, X, Y and W-135 are most impoant. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 230 | |
Which of the following structures passes behind the inguinal ligament? 1. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve 2. Superficial epigastric aery 3. Psoas major 4. Femoral vein 5. Saphenous vein: (A) 1,2 & 3, (B) 3 & 4, (C) 1,3,4 & 5, (D) All | Answer is B. Three small cutaneous aeries (superficial external pudendal, superficial epigastric and superficial circumflex iliac aeries) arising from the femoral aery can be seen a little below the inguinal ligaments.Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve pierces the femoral sheath and overlying deep fascia 2 cm be... | |
Which of the following best responds to sympathectomy?: (A) Buerger's disease, (B) Hyperhydrosis, (C) Raynaud's disease, (D) Acrocyanosis | Answer is B. Hyperhydrosis responds best to sympathectomy . Indications of Sympathectomy (BARA CHEF) Buerger's disease Atherosclerosis producing ischemia of limbs Raynaud's disease Acrocyanosis Erythrocyanosis Frost bite Hyperhydrosis Peripheral vascular insufficiency Causalgia | |
Which is the immunoglobulin which activates complement by alternate pathway?: (A) Ig E, (B) Ig A, (C) Ig M, (D) Ig G | Answer is B. The central process in the complement is the activation of C3 which is the major component of complement. In classical pathway, activation of C3 is achieved by C42 (C3 convease). The activation of C3 without the prior paicipation of C142 is known as alternate pathway. The first example of alternate pathway... | |
Propaganda is defined as –: (A) Forcing of knowledge into mind, (B) Active aquiring of knowledge, (C) Requiring knowledge after thinking, (D) Training of people to use judgment before acting | Answer is A. Health education : Facilitate learning
Propaganda or publicity : Knowledge instilled in the mind of people. | |
K nail work on the pricliple of -: (A) One point fixation, (B) Two point fixation, (C) Three point fixation, (D) Four point fixation | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Three point fixation * K-nail is used for transverse or short oblique fracture of femur, especially in isthemic area.* K-nail (Kuntscher cloverleaf intramedullary nail) provides three points fixation due to elastic deformation.* These three points of fixation are both ends of bone (2 poin... | |
Anemia in chronic renal failure is due to: (A) Decreased erythropoietin production, (B) Iron deficiency, (C) Hypoplastic bone marrow, (D) Decreased folate levels | Answer is A. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 630 The anemia is primarily due to a failure of EPO production by the diseased kidney and a reduction in red cell survival. In ceain forms of acute renal failure, the correlation between the anemia and renal function is weaker. Patients with the hemolytic-uremic syndrome increase e... | |
Primordial prevention is done in a population: (A) With risk factors, (B) Without risk factors, (C) With low prevalence of disease, (D) With disease | Answer is B. Primordial prevention aims at preventing the emergence of risk factors. This is the primary prevention in its purest sense, that is, prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Me... | |
If you are suspecting a child to have Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis clinically. Next, the best investigation is?: (A) Barium meal, (B) USG, (C) CT, (D) MRI | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) USGREF: Schwartz's 9th ed chapter 39, Sabiston Surgery, 18th edition, Page 2058,2059See details of Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis in Surgery 2007See PLATER-38 KEY PLATER-38 KEYHYPERTROPHIC PYLORIC STENOSISContrast study:Elongation + narrowing of the pyloric canal (2-4 cm in length)Dou... | |
Which of the following is not true regarding "thumb sucking": (A) Feels insecurity, (B) Pleasurable sensation, (C) Leads to dental problems, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is None | |
DNA fingerprinting is based on possessing in DNA of -: (A) Constant Tandem Repeat, (B) Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTR), (C) Non-repeatative sequence, (D) Exon | Answer is B. Variable number of tandem (one after another) repeats (VNTR), is unique for any individual & therefore serves as molecular DNA fingerprint. VNTR may be short tandem (microsatellite) or large tandem (minisatellite) repeats. | |
Olympian f"-ow and I hi:odes: (A) CMV inclusion disease, (B) Ectodermal dysplasia, (C) Congenital syphilis, (D) Hyper IgE syndrome | Answer is C. Ans. c. Congenital syphilis Clinical Presentation of Syphilis Early Congenital Syphilis: Snuffles (rhinitis)Q is earliest feature. Lesions are vesicobullousQ, and snail track ulcers on mucosa Clinical Presentation of Syphilis Late Congenital Syphilis: Characterized by Hutchinson's triad (interstitial kerat... | |
Which of the following is the LEAST likely physiological change in pregnancy?: (A) Increase in intravascular volume, (B) Increase in cardiac output, (C) Increase in stroke volume, (D) Increase in peripheral vascular resistance | Answer is D. Blood volume expansion begins early in the first trimester, increases rapidly in the second trimester, and plateaus at about the 30th week. Cardiac output increases approximately 40% during pregnancy, with maximum values achieved at 20-24 weeks' gestation. Stroke volume increases 25-30% during pregnancy, r... | |
A patient is a known case of polyarteritis nodosa. On examination of biopsy, accumulation of amorphous, basic, proteinaceous material in the vessel wall was seen. This finding is suggestive of:: (A) Fibrinoid necrosis, (B) Leucocytoclastic vasculitis, (C) Hyaline arteriosclerosis, (D) Caseous necrosis | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Fibrinoid necrosisFibrinoid necrosis is a form of necrosis, or tissue death, in which there is accumulation of amorphous, basic, proteinaceous material in the tissue matrix with a staining pattern reminiscent of fibrin.How to differentiate from hyaline arteriosclerosis?- please remember in fibrino... | |
Post exposure immunization is given in -a) Rabiesb) Pertussisc) Measlesd) Yellow fever: (A) b, (B) ac, (C) ab, (D) bd | Answer is B. None | |
Inhibition of glycolysis by increased supply of 02 is called ?: (A) Crabtree effect, (B) Pasteur effect, (C) Lewis effect, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pasteur effect Pasteur effect It has been observed that under anaerobic condition a tissue or microorganism utilizes more glucose than it does under aerobic conditions. It reflects inhibition of glycolysis by oxygen and is called pasteure effect. The Pasteur effect is due to inhibition of... | |
The technique of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first described by: (A) Eric Muhe, (B) Philip Moure, (C) Ku semm, (D) Eddie Reddick | Answer is A. History of Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy Dr. Ku Semm, the father of 'Pelviscopy', performed the first laparoscopic appendectomy in 1980 Eric Muhe performed the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 1982. He used a modified operating laparoscope placed at the umbilicus after establishing pneumoperitoneun In ... | |
Which of the following is the most common form of persistent trophoblastic disease that follows a non molar pregnancy?: (A) Choriocarcinoma, (B) Invasive mole, (C) Placental site trophoblastic tumor, (D) Paial mole | Answer is A. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) Invasive mole: Develops after molar pregnancy only. Very rarely follows other gestations PSTT (Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor): may follow any type of gestation Choriocarcinoma: 2/3rd cases after normal delivery, 1/3rd cases after molar pregnancy Epitheloid Tro... | |
All of the following can cause megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia, except:: (A) Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura, (B) Systemic lupus erythematosus, (C) Aplastic anemia, (D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) | Answer is C. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) DIC is an acute, subacute, or chronic thrombohemorrhagic disorder characterized by the excessive activation of coagulation and the formation of thrombi in themicrovasculature of the body. It occurs as a secondary complication of many different disorders.Patients... | |
A person had an accident and came to casualty with contusion on left precordium. There was decrease in breath sounds on left side, trachea deviated to right side and normal heart sounds. Which of the following is the first line of management?: (A) Needle thoracocentesis, (B) Chest tube thoracocentesis, (C) Pericardioce... | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Needle Thoracocentesis* History is clearly indicative of Tension Pneumothorax- hence urgent need is Thoracocentesis at 2nd ICS. MCL. | |
Spastic paraplegia is caused by all of the following, except:: (A) Lead poisoning, (B) Cervical spondylosis, (C) Vitamin B12 deficiency, (D) Motor neuron disease | Answer is A. Cord compression due to Cervical spondylosis, sub acute combined degeneration of cord due to vitamin B12 deficiency, and motor neuron disease involving the upper motor neuron's are all established cause for spastic paraplegia. Causes of spastic paraplegia includes: Thrombosis of anterior spinal aery Inflam... | |
Arrange the following tooth in the order of age of eruption of temporary teeth Upper lateral incisor Lower lateral incisor Lower medial incisor Upper medial incisor: (A) 1-2-4-3, (B) 3-2-1-4, (C) 3-4-1-2, (D) 2-3-4-1 | Answer is C. Eruption sequence of Temporary Dentition Lower medial incisor 6 to 8 months Upper medial incisor 7 to 9 months Upper lateral incisor 7 to 9 months Lower lateral incisor 10 to 12 months First molar 12 to 14 months Canine 17 to 18 months Second molar 20 to 30 months | |
The earliest manifestations of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is :: (A) Ipsilateral papillary dilatation, (B) Contralateral papillary dilatation, (C) Altered mental status, (D) Hemiparesis | Answer is C. Answer is C (Altered mental status) : `Early signs of elevated ICP include drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness (altered mental status). Coma and unilateral papillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention.' -Harrisons | |
All are the pharmacologic therapeutic options for achalasia, EXCEPT:: (A) Nitrates, (B) Beta blockers, (C) Botulinum toxin, (D) Sildenafil | Answer is B. Pharmacologicals therapies are usually ineffective. They can be used as a temporary measures. The agents used are: 1. Nitrates 2. Calcium channel blockers 3. Botulinum toxin 4. Sildenafil- phosphodiesterase inhibitors, effectively decrease LES pressure. Botulinum toxin, injected into the LES under endoscop... | |
A 25-year-old male presented with painless testicular swelling and with history of fever and weight loss. All the following investigations are indicated in this patient, except:: (A) USG scrotum, (B) CT abdomen and pelvis, (C) Chest x-ray, (D) Trans-scrotal biopsy | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Trans-scrotal biopsyRef: Bailey and love, 26th Edition, Pages 1385-1388* Painless testicular swelling in a 25 male with history of fever and weight loss amounts to a diagnosis of malignant testicular swelling, i.e. testicular cancer.* To confirm the histopathological evidence of testicular cancer,... | |
Fat content is highest in _____-: (A) Beef, (B) Mutton, (C) Chicken, (D) Fish | Answer is A. Fat content is highest in beef. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION.PAGE NO - 582 | |
In Scaphoid fracture, impoant views are all except:: (A) AP, (B) Lateral, (C) Oblique, (D) Cone | Answer is D. D i.e. Cone | |
Miyagawa body is characteristically seen in: (A) Kala azar, (B) Syphilis, (C) Granuloma inguinale, (D) LGV | Answer is D. (D) LGV # MIYAGAWA BODIES:> Chlamydia trachomatis (Miyagawa Nella lymphogranulomatosis), the elementary bodies that develop in the intracytoplasmic mi- crocolonies of Lymphogranuloma Venereum.> Lab diagnosis of LGV (Lymphogranuloma Venereum):> The primary lesion usually goes unnoticed and the disease is se... | |
Tom smith's arthritis is due to -: (A) Pyogenic infection in infancy, (B) TB, (C) RA, (D) OA | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pyogenic infection in infancy Tom smith arthritis (septic arthritis of infancy)o Tom smith arthritis is the septic arthritis of hip joint, occurs in infancy. At this stage head of the femur is cartilaginous and is rapidly and completely destroyed by the pyogenic process. Onset is acute wi... | |
8 days after cesarean section a new mother presented with fever of 101.4degF. On examination her uterus is soft and extremely tender. Puerperal infection is confirmed. She mostly have:: (A) Vaginitis, (B) Endometritis, (C) Parametritis, (D) Salpingitis | Answer is B. Most women with fever in the postpaum period have endometritis. Urinary tract infection is the next most common infection. caesarean section is easily the most common identifiable risk factor for development of puerperal infection. Fever and a soft, tender uterus are the most prominent signs of endometriti... | |
Montgomery tube used in ENT procedure is a:: (A) Double barrel tub, (B) Lobster tail tube, (C) Airway tube, (D) Silicone tube | Answer is D. Montgomery tracheal tube is designed to give the surgeon a complete program for creating a secondary airway-from initial incision through long-term tracheostomy care. It is a tracheal cannula system used in place of tracheostomy tubes. The system provides long-term access to the tracheal airway in situatio... | |
Following are the propeies of Biguanides, EXCEPT:: (A) Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis, (B) Not contraindicated in renal dysfunction, (C) Can be used along with sulfonylureas, (D) Don't stimulate insulin Release | Answer is B. Biguanides are contraindicated in patients with renal failure, congestive hea failure, alcoholism and hepatic diseases. Ref: Richard Finkel, Michelle Alexia Clark, Pamela C. Champe, Luigi X. Cubeddu (2009), Pharmacology, 4th Edition, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins Publications, United States Page 292 | |
Difference between active & resting cell depend on which phase of cell cycle:: (A) G0, (B) G1, (C) G2, (D) M | Answer is A. Ans; A (G0) "The cell cycle consists of G, (presynthetic), S (DMA synthesis), G, (premitotic), and SI (mitotic) phases.Quiescent cells are in a physiologic state called Ga. Tissues may be composed primarily of quiescent ceils in Gv but most mature tissues contain some combination of continuously dividing c... | |
Vascular complications of acute pancreatitis include the following except -: (A) Splenic vein thrombosis, (B) Splenic artery aneurysm, (C) Gastroduodenal artery aneurysm, (D) Middle colic artery thrombosis | Answer is D. Acute pancreatitis is rarely associated with arterial vascular complications.
MC vessel affected: Splenic artery.
Other vessels: Superior mesenteric, cystic, and gastroduodenal arteries.
Vascular Thrombosis
Pancreatic inflammation can produce vascular thrombosis.
MC affected vessel: Splenic vein.
In seve... | |
The drug that is never advised in pregnancy is:: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Cyclosporine, (C) Chloroquine, (D) Pyrazinamid | Answer is A. Methotrexate is a analogue of folic acid and it prevents the synthesis of DNA by inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase. It has been extensively used in medical termination of pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy, gestational trophoblastic disease and placenta accreta. It has been included in the "Category ... | |
Graft versus host disease is due to ?: (A) Immunocompetent T cells in graft tissue, (B) Immunocompetent T cells in host, (C) Immunocompetent B cells in graft tissue, (D) Immunocompetent B cells in host | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Immunocompetent T cells in graft tissue Graft versus host disease Graft versus host disease occurs in any situation in which immunologically competent cells or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled patients and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the ... | |
All the following Vasculitis causes necrotizing inflammation: (A) Polyarteritis nodosa, (B) Wegener's granulomatosis, (C) Kawasaki disease, (D) Microscopic polyangitis | Answer is C. Kawasaki disease - Only one Vasculitis non-necrotising. | |
The congenital Anomaly of Gallbladder shown here is: (A) Septum, (B) Diverticulum, (C) Normal, (D) Phrygian cap | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Phrygian cap* Phrygian Cap anomaly is the MC congenital anomaly of GB in which the Fundus of Gallbladder folded upon itself. | |
Painless burn in hand is seen in:: (A) SLE, (B) Syringomyelia, (C) Mononeuritis multiplex, (D) Diabetes mellitus | Answer is B. Syringomyelia is associated with Arnold Chiari malformation type 1 IOC: - MRI spine | |
A sewerage worker presents to OPD with acute febrile illness alongwith jaundice and conjunctivitis. His blood sample was taken and sent to lab . Lab findings are suggestive of kidney failure and elevated hepatic enzymes. Which of following is likely diagnosis ?: (A) Malaria, (B) Leptospirosis, (C) Peussis, (D) Typhoid | Answer is B. Given scenario suggests diagnosis of Weil's disease/ Ictero-haemorrhagic disease/ Leptospirosis Leptospirosis - Caused by Leptospira interrogans Leptospira is an actively motile spirochete Mode of transmission: Zoonotic , by contact with water or moist soil contaminated with rat's urine or dead rats. 3 R a... | |
The most common congenital esophageal anomaly is which of the following?: (A) Esophageal atresia, (B) Esophageal psuedodiveiculum, (C) Congenetal web, (D) Schatzki ring | Answer is A. The most common congenital esophageal anomaly is esophageal atresia, occurring in about 1 in 5,000 live bihs. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition | |
The best site to obtain a swab in acute symptomatic gonorrhea is:: (A) Endocervix, (B) Exudate after prostatic massage, (C) Lateral vaginal wall, (D) Posterior fornix | Answer is A. The best site to obtain a swab in acute symptomatic gonorrhea is Endocervix Diagnosis of Gonococcal infection: Acute Gonorrhea: Chronic Gonorrhea: a) Endocervical Culture - 80-90% sensitivity b) Urethral Discharge - 50% Sensitivity c) Rectal swab a) Morning drop secretion b) Exudate after prostatic massage... | |
All are true about chaperones except: (A) Cause folding of proteins, (B) Are lipid in nature, (C) May have ATPase activity, (D) Include heat shock proteins | Answer is B. chaperones are proteins that assist the covalent folding or unfolding and the assembly or disassembly of other macromolecular structures. Chaperones are present when the macromolecules perform their normal biological functions and have correctly completed the processes of folding and/or assembly. The chape... | |
Millennium Development goals are to be achieved by: March 2012: (A) 2005, (B) 2010, (C) 2015, (D) 2020 | Answer is C. Ans: C i.e. 2015 Governments have set a date of 2015 by which they would meet the Millennium Development Goals/ MDGs, i.e. eradicate extreme povey and hunger; achieve universal primary education; promote gender equality; improve maternal health; combat HIV/ AIDS, malaria and other communicable diseases; en... | |
Most dicient larval control method ent transmission of urban malaria:: (A) Covering overhead tanks, (B) Cleaning of drains, (C) Filling of ditches and cesspools, (D) Uprooting of plants | Answer is B. Ans. b. Cleaning of drains | |
Mood congruent delusion seen in Depression: (A) Delusion of grandeur, (B) Delusion of nihilisim, (C) Delusional parasitosis, (D) Delusion of reference | Answer is B. Nihilistic delusion is seen severe depression where patient denies the existence of himself & world. Also called as "Cotard syndrome". | |
A 46-year-old man sustains a spider bite on his upper eyelid, and an infection develops. The physician is very concerned about spread of the infection to the dural venous sinuses of the brain emissary veins. With which of the following dural venous sinuses does the superior ophthalmic vein directly communicate?: (A) Ca... | Answer is A. The anterior continuation of the cavernous sinus, the superior ophthalmic vein, passes through the superior orbital fissure to enter the orbit. Veins of the face communicate with the superior ophthalmic vein. Because of the absence of valves in emissary veins, venous flow may occur in either direction. Cut... | |
Distichiasis is: (A) Increased number of lashes in the lower eyelid, (B) Growth of eyelashes from Meibomian Orifices, (C) Hyperpigmentation of eyelashes, (D) Increased thickness of eyelashes | Answer is B. Answer- B. Growth of eyelashes from Meibomian OrificesDistichiasis is a rare disorder defined as the abnormal grorvth of lashes from the orifces of the meibomian glands on the posterior lamella of the tarsal plate. | |
Change in length of upper anterior teeth in complete denture teeth setting, which sounds are affected:: (A) f, v, (B) d, t, (C) Dentoalveolar sounds, (D) b, p, m | Answer is A. None | |
A very ill 3-year-old child is brought into the emergency room with a fever. On physical examination, the child has large cervical lymph nodes and a desquamating skin rash that involves the palms, soles, and mouth. This child should be monitored for the development of which of the following conditions?: (A) Abdominal a... | Answer is D. The child has Kawasaki's syndrome (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome). In this disorder, small, medium, and large aeries are affected, with transmural inflammation and variable necrosis. About 20% of affected children have damage to the coronary vessels; some develop coronary aery aneurysms. In 1-2% of cas... | |
All of the follow ing are risk factors for carcinoma gall bladder, except -: (A) Typhoid carriers, (B) Adenomatous gall bladder polyps, (C) Choledochal cysts, (D) Oral contraceptives | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Oral contraceptives No risk of Ca G.B. has been noted with the use of oral contraceptiveso Risk factors for Ca Gall bladder are :i) Gall stonesApproximately 90% of patients with Ca GB have gall stonesSize of the stone has a direct relationship with development of carcinoma, the risk is te... | |
Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with: (A) Subaoic stenosis, (B) Takayasu's aeritis, (C) William syndrome, (D) Coarctation of syndrome | Answer is C. Answer is C and E (William syndrome and Rubella) Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is often associated with various congenital and acquired conditions including Rubella and williams syndrome. | |
Helmet Cells are characteristic of: (A) Hemolytic uremic syndrome, (B) Polysplenia, (C) Spherocytosis, (D) Acanthocytosis | Answer is A. Schistocytes are typically irregularly shaped, jagged, and have two pointed ends. A true schistocyte does not have central pallor.
Helmet cells are also known as schistocytes / triangle cells / burr cells are a Feature of microangiopathic diseases including disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), thr... | |
Blisters are seen in: (A) 1st degree burn, (B) Superficial 2nd degree burn, (C) Deep 2nd degree burn, (D) 3rd degree burn | Answer is B. Superficial second degree burns Involve upper layer of dermis (papillary dermis) Erythematous Blisters are seen Blanch to touch Painful Heals without scarring in 7-14 days Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :506-507 | |
Fetal and maternal blood can be differentiated by: (A) Kleihaurbetke test, (B) Apt test, (C) Bubbling test, (D) Osmotic fragility test | Answer is B. Apt testKleihauer-Betke testSource of SampleMaternal or NeonatalMaternalPrincipleAdding 1% NaOH destroys adult HbA but not fetal HbFAdding acid destroys adult HbA but not fetalHbFAssessment TypeQualitativeQuantitativeResultPositive means blood is of fetal originRepoed in estimated milliliters of fetal bloo... | |
A child with pyoderma becomes toxic and presents with respiratory distress. His chest radiograph shows patchy areas of consolidation and multiple bilateral thin-walled air containing cysts. The most likely etiological agent in this case is –: (A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis, (B) Staphylococcus aureus, (C) Mycobacterium ... | Answer is B. Pneumonia with pneumatoceles (multiple thin-walled breaths of air containing cysts) is s/o staphylococcal pneumonia.
Clinical features of staphylococcal pneumonia
The illness usually follows upper respiratory tract infection, pyoderma or another associated purulent disease.
Besides the usual features of ... | |
Counter transference is -: (A) Patient's feelings towards therapist, (B) Doctor's feelings towards the patient, (C) Psycic connection between patient and diseas, (D) Type of Defence mechanism | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e. Doctor's feelings towards the patient TransferenceTransference is the phenomenon whereby unconsciously transfer feelings and attitudes from a person or situation in the past on to a person or situation in the present. The process is at least partly inappropriate to the present.Characteristi... | |
Phase 4 clinical trials is carried out:: (A) Before the marketing approval of a drug, (B) After a drug is marketed, (C) For drugs used in rare disease, (D) For drugs used in pediatric patients | Answer is B. A new drug/ vaccine is launched in the market after phase III (RCT). Phase IV is 'Post marketing surveillance phase' Is the longest phase in a clinical trial. Should be carried out life long (minimum 10-25 years). Is done for finding 'long term side effects and rare side effects' of the drug. | |
RET proto oncogene is located on which chromosome:: (A) 9, (B) 10, (C) 11, (D) 12 | Answer is B. b. 10(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 595)Important genes and their chromosomal location:Gene (Associated diseases)Chromosomal locationRb (Retinoblastoma)13q14.3p53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome, sarcomas)17q13.1APC (Carcinoma Colon)5q21NF1 (Neurofibromatosis 1)17q11NF2 (Neurofibromatosis 2)22p12WT1 (Wilm's tumor)11p13RET (M... | |
With reference to neoplasia, the term 'tumor progression means: (A) Spread of cancer to distant sites, (B) Rate of growth of tumors, (C) Abi1ity of cancer cells to resemble their normal counterpa, (D) Sequential appearnace of features of increasing malignancy | Answer is D. Multi step.theory of carcinogenesis Phy.attributes are .self sufficient in growth signal .local invasion ,metastasis .karyotic pattern .hormonal response .response to Anti malignant drugs Evading apoptosis All these acquired in a step wise fashion This phenomenon is tumour progression | |
Which of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous is not true -: (A) Foam cells are seen, (B) Associated with tuberculosis, (C) Yellow nodules are seen, (D) Giant cells may be seen | Answer is B. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is relatively rare form of chronic pyelonephritis charecterized by accumulation of foamy macrophages intermingled with plasma cells ,lymphocytes,polymorphonuclear leukocytes, and occational giant cells.Often associated with Proteus infections and obstruction,the lesions s... | |
All of the following are clinical features of myxoma, EXCEPT:: (A) Fever, (B) Clubbing, (C) Hypeension, (D) Embolic phenomenon | Answer is C. Myxomas are benign cardiac tumors. Most commonly it arise from the endocardial surface of the left atrium, and with a stalk it is attached to the interatrial septum close to the fossa ovalis. Myxomas present with obstructive symptoms and signs, and may be sudden in onset or positional in nature, owing to t... | |
Mesentric tumours are: (A) Usually solid, (B) Usually cystic, (C) Highly malignant, (D) Highly vascular | Answer is B. Mesenteric cysts and cystic mesenteric tumors are very rare abdominal growths. They may be localized all over the mesentery, from duodenum to rectum, however, they are mostly found in the ileum and right colon mesentery. There are several classifications of these formations, among which the one based on hi... | |
A 60 yr old smoker came with the history of painless gross hematuria for one day. The investigation of choice would be :: (A) Urine routine and microscopy, (B) Plain x-ray KUB, (C) USB KUB, (D) Urine for malignant cytology | Answer is D. None | |
A patient with autoimmune thyroditis present with hypothyroidism. Which of the following is true: (A) Thyroid peroxidase antibodies, (B) Painless enlargement of thyroid, (C) Common in men, (D) No malignant risk | Answer is A. The major cause of hypothyroidism in adults is Hashimoto thyroiditis, autoimmune-mediated destruction of thyrocytes. The disorder predominates in women Presence of TSH-blocking antibodies, such as thyroid peroxidase antibodies, can be detected The onset, thyroid status and the type of goitre vary profoundl... | |
One of the following disease will show urinary bladder calcification radiologically which resembles fetal head in pelvis:: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Schistosomiasis, (C) Chronic cystitis, (D) Malignancy | Answer is B. A plain film of the abdomen may show areas of grayness in the flank (enlarged hydronephrotic kidney) or in the bladder area (large tumor). Opacifications (stones) may be noted in the kidney, ureter, or bladder. Linear calcification may be seen in the ureteral and bladder walls. Punctate calcification of th... | |
A 20-year-old woman complains of weakness that is worse in the afternoon, worse during prolonged activity, and improved by rest. When fatigued, the patient is unable to hold her head up or chew her food. She often notes diplopia when driving home from work. On physical examination, she has no loss of reflexes, sensatio... | Answer is A. The disease process described is myasthenia gravis (MG), a neuromuscular disease marked by muscle weakness and fatigability. Myasthenia gravis results from a reduction in the number of junctional acetylcholine receptors as a result of autoantibodies. Antibodies cross-link these receptors, causing increased... |
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