instruction stringlengths 29 1.82k | input stringclasses 1
value | output stringlengths 14 22.5k |
|---|---|---|
Which among the following statement regarding skeletal and cardiac muscle is false: (A) Both require calcium for excitation contraction coupling, (B) The excitation contraction coupling of skeletal muscle is independent of extracellular calcium, (C) Both have graded contraction, (D) Plateau phase is seen in action pote... | Answer is C. Ans: c (Both have graded contraction) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/p.79Cardiac action potentialAction potential can be defined as the sequence of changes in the membrane potential in an excitable cell due to opening and closure of differention channels after application of a threshold stimulus.Phases of action pote... | |
A high tracheostomy may be indicated in-: (A) Scleroma of the larynx, (B) Multiple papillomatosis of larynx, (C) Bilateral vocal cord paralysis, (D) Carcinoma of larynx | Answer is D. “It is important (in tracheostomy) to refrain from causing any damage in the region of cricoid cartilage.
An exception to this rule is when a patient has laryngeal malignancy and under these circumstances tracheostomy should be placed high so as to allow resection of tracheostomy site at the time of laryng... | |
A 67 year male smoker presents with haemoptysis and cough. Brochoscopic biopsy revealed undifferented tumour. The immunohistochemical marker that can be most helpful is:: (A) Calretinin, (B) Vimentin, (C) Cytokeratin, (D) GGT | Answer is C. Cytokeratin | |
A 74-year-old man has a 5-hour elective operation for repair of an abdominal aoic aneurysm. He had a small myocardial infarction 3 years earlier. In the ICU on the first postoperative day, he is hypotensive and is receiving dobutamine by continuous infusion.select the best method of physiologic monitoring necessary for... | Answer is B. This patient requires pulmonary aery catheter readings to allow his physicians to assess his volume status and need for ongoing inotropic suppo. Fuhermore, the patient continues to be hypotensive and requires fuher investigation as to the etiology that would subsequently dictate treatment (volume, afterloa... | |
Deficiency of the ' Intrinsic factor of Castle ' causes-: (A) Megaloblastic anemia, (B) Pernicious anemia, (C) Cooley's anemia, (D) Aplastic anemia | Answer is B. Pernicious anemia is a chronic disease resulting from deficiency of Intrinsic factor leading to impaired absorption of Vitamin B12. Megaloblastic anemia is due to deficiency of Cobalamin/folate. Reference: Atlas and text of Hematology, 3rd edition, pg:102. Exam preparatory manual for UGs by Ramdas Nayak pa... | |
Which is true about central retinal aery?: (A) Anastomosis without vessels in or serrata, (B) Is an end aery, (C) Is branch of ciliary aery, (D) Supplies the optic nerve | Answer is B. The central aery of the retina -It is an end aery. It does not have effective anastomoses with other aeries. Occlusion of the aery results in blindness. The intraocular pa of the aery can be seen, in the living, through an ophthalmoscope. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 3 , p... | |
In Citric acid cycle, which enzyme is inhibited by arsenite?: (A) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase, (B) a ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase, (C) Succinate Dehydrogenase, (D) Aconitase | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., a ketoglutarate DehydrogenaseArsenite binds to the sulfhydryl group and hence inhibits the activity of enzymes which have lipoamide in the active site, Hence Arsenite inhibits Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and a ketoglutarate dehydrogenase of citric acid cycle, It is an example for non competiti... | |
Which steroid is formed from cholesterol without hydroxylation -: (A) Progesterone, (B) Glucocoicoid, (C) Mineralocoicoid, (D) Estradiol | Answer is A. Cholesterol is first changed to form pregnenolone (common pathway). For this free cholesterol is released in the cytosol from cholesteryl esters of cytoplasmic lipid droplets and transferred into mitochondria. An enzyme called "cytochrome-P- 450-sidechain cleavage" enzyme (P450 sce) present in inner mitoch... | |
Ohngren's line extends from-: (A) Lateral canthus of the eye to angle of mandible, (B) Medial canthus of eye to angle of mandible, (C) Medial canthus of eye to tragus, (D) Tragus to angle of mandible | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Medial canthus of eye to angle of mandible Qhngren's lineo In head and neck cancer, Ohngren's line is a line that connects the medial canthus of the eye to the angle of the mandibleo The line defines a plane orthogonal to a sagittal plane that divides the maxillary sinus into (1) an anter... | |
Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by :: (A) Intensity of S1 hea sound, (B) Diastolic murmur duration, (C) Opening snap, (D) Intensity of diastolic murmur | Answer is B. Since there is mitral stenosis, more time for blood to enter LV. Therefore, increased transient time, so increase duration of murmur of S1 sound can be loud or soft. If sound is soft it tells us about calcified mitral valves but not of severity | |
Probiotics are useful for -: (A) Necrotizing enterocolitis, (B) Breast milk jaundice, (C) Hospital acquired pneumonia, (D) Neonatal seizures | Answer is A. Probiotics are substances secreted by one organism which stimulates the growth of another.
Probiotics are useful in following conditions:
Rota virus diarrhea
Antibiotic associated diarrhea
Radiation induced diarrhea
Traveller’s diarrhea
Inflammatory bowel disease
Cancers | |
A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for evaluation of skin lesions on her leg. They are not painful or itchy and have developed gradually over time. There is no history of previous trauma to the site either.On physical examination the skin changes have a central depression and raised irregul... | Answer is B. Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is more frequent in females and may antedate other clinical signs and symptoms of diabetes. The plaques are round, firm, and reddish-brown to yellow in color. They most commonly involve the legs but can also involve the hands, arms, abdomen, and head. This in not a staphy... | |
The main function of Vitamin C in the body is -: (A) Coenzyme for energy metabolism, (B) Regulation of lipid synthesis, (C) Involvement as antioxidant, (D) Inhibition of cell growth | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Involvement as antioxidant Vitamin C ( Ascorbic acid)o Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is also called antiscorbutic factor. It is very heat labile, especially in basic medium. Ascorbic acid itself is an active form. Maximum amount of vitamin C is found in adrenal cortex,o Ascorbic acid function... | |
TOC for postmenopausal osteoporosis is-: (A) Raloxifene, (B) Tamoxifene, (C) Estrogen, (D) Alendronate | Answer is D. None | |
Action of superior oblique is following except -: (A) Extortion, (B) Depression, (C) Abduction, (D) Intortion | Answer is A. Superior oblique causes intorsion (not extorsion). | |
Which of the following areas of brain is most resistant to Neurofibrillary tangles in Aizeimer's disease -: (A) Entorhinal coex, (B) Hippocampus / Temporal lobe, (C) Lateral Geniculate Body, (D) Visual Association Area | Answer is C. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN; also called the lateral geniculate body or lateral geniculate complex) is a relay center in the thalamus for the visual pathway. It receives a major sensory input from the retina. The LGN is the main central connection for the optic nerve to the occipital lobe, paicular... | |
Amino acid required for formation of thyroxine-: (A) Tryptophan, (B) Tyrosine, (C) Glutamine, (D) Cysteine | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Tyrosine o The term thyroid hormone denotes both thyroxine (T4) and triodothyronine (T3).o Both T4 and T are iodine derivatives of thyronine.o Thyronine is a condensation product of two molecules of amino acid tyrosine.o Thyroxine is 3, 5, 3', 5' - tetraiodothvronineandT, is 3,5,3'-triiod... | |
Minimal reabsorption from kidney is of -: (A) Na+, (B) Glucose, (C) HCO3-, (D) Urea | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Urea Renal handling of various plasma constrituents in a normal adult human on an average diet. Per 24 Hours SubstanceFitteredReabsorbedSecretedExcretedPercentage ReabsorbedNa+ (mEq)26,00025,850 15099.4K+(mEq)600560a5029093.3C1- (mEq)18,00017,850 15099.2HCO3-mEq)4,9004,900 0100Urea (mmol)... | |
Nagayama spots are seen in:: (A) Measles, (B) Roseola infantum, (C) Mumps, (D) Rubella | Answer is B. Nagayama spots: Roseola infantum Koplik spots- Measles Forchheimer spots- Rubella | |
Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:(AIIMS May 2014, Nov 2013): (A) Amacrine cells, (B) Bipolar cells, (C) Ganglion cells, (D) Rods and cones | Answer is C. Ans. c. Ganglion cells (Ref: Parsons 21st/280-281; www.nebi nlm.nih.gov.57(4) Jul-Aug 2009)Cells most commonly affected in glaucomatous optic atrophy are ganglion cells."Absence of the ganglion cell and nerve fiber layers is a hallmark of glaucoma". Robbins 8/e p1328"Glaucoma, the second leading cause of b... | |
Miriam, a college student with acute rhinitis sees the campus nurse because of excessive nasal drainage. The nurse asks the patient about the colour of the drainage. In acute rhinitis, nasal drainage normally is:: (A) Yellow, (B) Green, (C) Clear, (D) Gray | Answer is C. Normally, nasal drainage in acute rhinitis is clear.
Yellow or green drainage indicates the spread of the infection to the sinuses.
Gray drainage may indicate a secondary infection. | |
Which of the following is not seen in coronal CT paranasal sinuses?: (A) Ostiomeatal complex, (B) Orbit, (C) Sinus cavities, (D) Frontoethmoid recess | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Frontoethmoid recessREF: Sutton 7th ed vol 2 page 1519-1522, Grainger 5th ed chapter 62See previous question | |
After a 26-year-old man's car was roadsided by a large truck, he is brought to the emergency depament with multiple fractures of the transverse processes of the cervical and upper thoracic veebrae. Which of the following muscles might be affected?: (A) Trapezius, (B) Levator scapulae, (C) Rhomboid major, (D) Serratus P... | Answer is B. The Levator Scapulae arise from the transverse processes of the Upper Cervical Veebrae and inses on the medial border of the Scapula. The other muscles are attached to the Spinous Processes of the Veebrae. | |
At what size of mean gestational sac diameter measured on TVS with no embryonic pole is labelled as 'Anembryonic Gestation' -: (A) 15mm, (B) 20mm, (C) 25mm, (D) 30mm | Answer is C. An intrauterine gestational sac is reliably visualized with transvaginalsonography by 5 weeks, and an embryo with cardiac activity by 6 weeks The embryo should be visible transvaginally once the mean sac diameter hasreached 25 mm--otherwise the gestation is anembryonic. Cardiac motion isusually visible wit... | |
The typical appearance of "spider leg" on excretory urography is seen in:: (A) Hydronephrosis, (B) Polycystic kidney, (C) Medullary sponge kidney, (D) Renal cell carcinoma | Answer is B. Diagnosis USG: Enlarged kidney with uniformly medullary echogenicity. IVP in ADPKD Stretching of the calyces by the cysts (spider leg or ball like deformity. Bubble appearance (calyceal distoion) Swiss cheese appearance. CT scan is IOC in ADPKD | |
All take place in mitochondria except: (A) Fatty acid oxidation, (B) EMP pathway, (C) Electron transport chain, (D) Citric acid cycle | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. EMP pathway Embedem Meyerhof Parnas (EMP) pathway or glycolysis occurs in cytosolFor rest see above question | |
The aerial supply of duodenum is / are derived from ?: (A) celiac trunk and inferior mesenteric aery, (B) superior mesenteric aery and inferior mesenteric aery, (C) celiac trunk and superior mesenteric aery, (D) coeliac trunk only | Answer is B. The duodenum develops paly from the foregut and paly from the midgut. The opening of the bile duct into the second pa of the duodenum represents the junction of the foregut and the midgut. Upto the level of the opening, the duodenum is supplied by the superior pancreaticoduodenal aery, and below it by the ... | |
Keoppe nodules are present on -: (A) Cornea, (B) Conjunctiva, (C) Iris, (D) Retina | Answer is C. The pathological reaction in granulomatous uveitis is characterised by infiltration with lymphocytes, plasma cells, with mobilization and proliferation of large mononuclear cells which eventually become epithelioid and giant cells and aggregate into nodules. Iris nodules are usually formed near pupillary b... | |
Feather edge finish line is indicated in cases of:: (A) Tilted abutment, (B) Esthetic areas, (C) Upper canine PVC, (D) Not recommended | Answer is D. None | |
A 36 years male presented with complaint of productive cough and fever for last 2 months. He has undergone kidney transplantation 2 years back. His sputum examination revealed a gram positive filamentous bacteria that showed acid fastness with modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining (1% H2SO4). The most likely etiological agen... | Answer is B. None | |
Commonest operation done for gastric outlet obstruction with peptic ulcer is: March 2007: (A) Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy, (B) Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy, (C) Highly selective vagotomy with pyloroplasty, (D) Gastrojejunostomy | Answer is A. Ans. A: Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomyGastric outlet obstruction is manifested by obstruction at the level of the pylorus, which is the outlet of the stomach. Patients may develop vomiting, which may be projectile but non-bilious in nature, nausea or abdominal pain. An unusual finding that may lea... | |
A 30 year old presents with nausea, weakness, headache and impaired vision and high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Most likely cause is:: (A) Methanol, (B) Ethanol, (C) Ethylene glycol, (D) Amphetamine | Answer is A. Methanol | |
Amongst the following, which carries the least chance of transmitting HIV infection: September 2010: (A) Heterosexual Intercourse, (B) Blood transfusion, (C) Veical transmission, (D) IV drug abusers | Answer is A. Ans. A: Heterosexual Intercourse. Heterosexual Intercourse is the most common route but the chance of infection is less (0.30%) ,looking to the other options. Average per act risk of getting HIVby exposure route to an infected source Exposure routeChance of infection Blood transfusion 90% Childbih (to chil... | |
Outstanding clinical performance of dental amalgam restoration is related to its: (A) Compressive strength, (B) Tensile strength, (C) Corrosion, (D) Creep | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following are true regarding Legionella except.: (A) Legionella can be grown on complex media, (B) L. pneumophila serogroup 1 is the most common serogroup isolated from humans, (C) Legionella are communicable from infected patients to others, (D) L. pneumophila is not effectively killed by polymorphonuclear ... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Legionella are communicable from infected patients to othersRef: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1014; Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 401* No man to man transmission occurs.* Aspiration is predominant mode of transmission. Other modes include aerosolization, direct instillation into lungs.* Aerosolizatio... | |
The triad of cirrhosis, hemochromatosis and diabetes are referred to as: (A) Silver diabetes, (B) Diabetes mellitus, (C) Diabetes insipidus, (D) Bronze diabetes | Answer is D. None | |
Which is not true about Fragile X syndrome ?: (A) Large testis, (B) Pigmented nevi, (C) Large ear present, (D) No large nose | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pigmented nevi Fragile - X syndrome Fragile - X syndrome is the prototype of diseases in which the mutation is characterized by a long repeating sequence of three nucleotides. o In fragile X syndrome,trinucleotide repeat mutation involve CGG on non coding region. o Clinical features of fr... | |
The product, which is obtained by calcining gypsum under steam pressure at 120-130°C or by dehydrating gypsum in the presence of sodium succinate, is: (A) Alpha - hemihydrates, (B) Beta - hemihydrates, (C) Calcium sulphate dihydrate, (D) Orthorhombic anhydrate | Answer is A. None | |
Autoimmune thyroiditis is associated with all except -: (A) DM, (B) Mysthenia gravis, (C) Sly, (D) Psoriasis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Psoriasis o Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto thyroiditis) patients are at increased risk for developing other autoimmune disease :- i) Endocrine : Type 1 DM, autoimmune adrenalitis. ii) Non-endocrine : SLE, mysthenia gravis, sjogren syndrome. o These patients are also at increased risk f... | |
In Aspirin mechanism of action: (A) Lipooxygenase decreased, (B) Cyclooxygenase decreased, (C) Phospholipase, (D) Increased Lipoxygenase | Answer is B. (B) Cyclooxygenase decreased # Aspirin acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme, thereby inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.> Leukotriens acts by inhibiting Lipooxygenase> Steroids acts by inhibiting phospholipase | |
Slow or soft start polymerization is seen in: (A) L.E.D. light cure units, (B) Laser light cure units, (C) Quartz-Tungsten-Halogen Light cure units, (D) PAC light cure units | Answer is C. None | |
A farmer visiting a orchard gets unconscious, excessive salivation , constricted pupils and fasciculation of muscles, treatment staed with: (A) Atropine, (B) Neostigmine, (C) Physostigmine, (D) Adrenaline | Answer is A. A i.e. Atropine | |
In follicular carcinoma chromosomal translocation is?: (A) PAX8 -PPARrl, (B) RET - PTC, (C) ALK -NMP1, (D) JAK - TEL | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAX8- PPARrl Various genes involved in thyroid carcinomas arePapillaryo Tyrosine kinase receptors RET or NTRK1o RAS mutationo BRAF oncogeneFollicularo RAS oncogene (NRAS, HRAS and KRAS)o PAX8- PPARrl translocationMedullaryo RETprotooncogne. | |
An absolute contraindication of MRI is:: (A) Automatic Cardioverter-defibrillators, (B) Prosthetic cardiac valves, (C) Insulin pump, (D) Cochlear implants | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Automatic Cardioverter-defibrillators MR is considered among the safest imaging modalities for patients, even at very high field strengths, more than 3-4 tesla. But Ferromagnetic objects under magnetic field can be vulnerable to 4 adverse effects: Movement (causing structural injury), Curr... | |
Mandibular nerve does not supply:: (A) Buccinator, (B) Masseter, (C) Tensor tympani, (D) Temporalis | Answer is A. Buccinator is supplied by facial nerve (7th nerve).
Mandibular nerve is nerve of 1st branchial arch & supplies all muscles derived from it, i.e. | |
Which of the following is used to differentiate between hypercalcemia of malignancy from primary hyperparathyroidism?: (A) Hydrocoisone suppression test, (B) Glucose challenge test, (C) 24 hour urine calcium measurement, (D) Percentage of ionized calcium | Answer is A. Answer- A. Hydrocoisone suppression testlf doubt exists, hyilrocokone suppression test is of value.If the test is performed as originally described, (120 mg hydrocoisone per day for 10 days, correcting the serum calcium for haemodilution), it provides an excellent discrimination, since significant suppress... | |
Normal facial index is:: (A) 65 - 75%, (B) 75 - 80%, (C) 80 - 90%, (D) 100% | Answer is C. None | |
Contraindication of Enteral nutrition :a) Intestinal obstructionb) Severe Pancreatitisc) Severe diarrhoead) IBDe) Intestinal fistula: (A) abce, (B) abc, (C) acd, (D) ace | Answer is A. None | |
"Hair on End" appearance is seen in:: (A) Thalassemia, (B) Scurvy, (C) Rickets, (D) Hemochromatosis | Answer is A. Thalassemia | |
Acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis will have all of the following features, except ?: (A) Microscopic haematuria, (B) Raised blood urea level, (C) Raised serum creatinine level, (D) Hypoalbuminaemia | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypo albuminaemiao Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by nephritic syndrome whereas hypoalbuminemia is a feature of Nephrotic syndrome.o Clinical features of Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis | |
A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, which decreases on lying down position. What is the most probable diagnosis –: (A) Acute Epiglottitis, (B) Laryngotracheobronchitis, (C) Foreign body aspiration, (D) Retropharyngeal abscess | Answer is B. This child has : -
3 days history of upper respiratory tract infection.
Followed by stridor
These features suggest the diagnosis of croup.
Clinical manifestations of Croup
Most patients have an upper respiratory tract infection with some combination of -
Rhinorrhea
A mild cough
Phar... | |
cGMP is second messenger for which of the following harmone: (A) Atrial natriuretic factor, (B) Nitric acid, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) and Nitric acid (NO) user cGMP as second messenger. | |
Investigation of choice in an unstable patient with suspected intraabdominal injury is: (A) DPL, (B) USG, (C) CT scan, (D) X-ray abdomen | Answer is B. The investigation of choice in an unstable patient with suspected intraabdominal injury is ultrasound. Focused abdominal sonar for trauma(FAST) is a technique whereby ultrasound(sonar) imaging is used to assess the torso for the presence of free fluid, either in the abdominal cavity, and is extended into t... | |
The correlation between IMR and Socio Economic status is best depicted by –: (A) Correlation (+1), (B) Correlation (+0.5), (C) Correlation (– 1), (D) Correlation (– 0.8) | Answer is D. None | |
In lepromatous leprosy the single drug dapsone is continue for -: (A) 9 days, (B) 90 days, (C) 1 years, (D) 10 years | Answer is C. In lepromatous leprosy the single drug is continued to one year. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 297 | |
A knownHIV positive patient is admitted in anisolation ward after an abdominal surgery followingan accident. The resident docter who changed hisdressing the next day found it to be soaked in blood hich of the following would be the right method ofchoice of descarding the dressing -: (A) Pour 1% hypochloric on the dress... | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Put the dressing material directly in an appropriate bag and send for incineration o This waste category lies in category No. 6 o No.6 category of solid wastes consists of : Items contaminated with blood and fluid containing u Cotton dressings Soiled plaster casts o Linen o Beddings Other... | |
Most common organ involved in congenital Tb is?: (A) Liver, (B) Pancreas, (C) Kidney, (D) Lung | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Liver Congenital tuberculosis Although it is rare as mother having tuberculosis primarily present with infeility. Tuberculous bacilli sometimes pass throgh umblical vein and may develop focus in liver (hepatic complex). When neonate aspirate amniotic fluid containing bacilli then develop ... | |
In E. coli true is -: (A) ETEC is invasive, (B) EPEC acts via cAMP, (C) Pilli present in uropathogenic type, (D) ETEC causes HUC | Answer is C. None | |
Organism identified by interferons:: (A) Staphylococcus, (B) Leptospira, (C) Campylobactor, (D) M. tuberculosis | Answer is D. Ans. is. 'd' i. e., M. tuberculosis | |
Trantas spots are seen in: (A) Vernal conjunctivitis, (B) Eczematous conjunctivitis, (C) Ophthalmia nodosa, (D) Tularaemia | Answer is A. VERNAL KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS (VKC) OR SPRING CATARRHIt is a recurrent, bilateral, interstitial, self-limiting, allergic inflammation of the conjunctiva having a periodic seasonal incidence.Signs of vernal keratoconjunctivitis can be described in following three clinical forms:1. Palpebral form: Usually uppe... | |
Screening is done because of all except:: (A) Testing for infection or disease in population or in individuals who are not seeking health care, (B) It is defined presumptive identification of unrecognized disease, (C) Search for unrecognized disease or defect by means of rapidly applied test, examinations or other proc... | Answer is D. Screening is testing for infection or disease in populations or in individuals who are not seeking health care. It is defined presumptive identification of unrecognized disease. E.g. serological testing for AIDS virus in blood donors, neonatal screening, pre-marital screening for syphilis . Search for unre... | |
Which of the following drug can cause thyroid dysfunction ?: (A) Amiodarone, (B) Ampicillin, (C) Ibutilide, (D) Acyclovir | Answer is A. None | |
Hepatitis can be a complication of ......: (A) Halothane, (B) Enflurane, (C) Methoxyflurane, (D) Enflurane | Answer is A. Metabolic byproduct of halothane can cause autoimmune hepatitis. Halothane hepatitisis rare with an incidence of 1 per 35,000 cases but very fatal, with amoality of 50-75%. It is an immune mediated due to antibodies against highly reactive trifluoroacetyl chloride which is a metabolite of halothane. Risk f... | |
Tinea versicolor is seen with: (A) Pityrosporum orbiculare, (B) Candida infection, (C) Epidermophyton, (D) Trichophyton | Answer is A. Tinea versicolor is caused by Pityrosporum orbiculare (also called Malassezia furfur). | |
Doppelganger is-: (A) Shadow following person, (B) Feeling of double of oneself, (C) Indentification of stranger as familiar, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., Feeling of double of oneself Doppelgangers (subjective double) is the delusion that there is double of oneself. A person feels that double of himself exists elswhere. | |
All of following are true about neonatal sepsis except-: (A) Premature babies are predisposed to sepsis, (B) Late initiation of breast feeding is a predisposition, (C) Most common transmission of infection is through nursery personel, (D) Premature rupture of membranes predisposes to sepsis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Most common transmission of infection is through nursery personal o Early onset sepsis is caused by organisms prevalent in the maternal genital tract. o Late onset sepsis is caused by organisms of the external environment of home or hospital and the infection is transmitted most frequentl... | |
Maxillary first molar has how many roots?: (A) 1 facial and 2 lingual, (B) 1 lingual and 2 facial, (C) 1 mesial and 2 buccal, (D) 1 mesial and 1 distal | Answer is B. None | |
Deltoid ligament is attached to all, Except:: (A) Medial malleolus, (B) Medial cuneiform, (C) Spring ligament, (D) Sustentaculum tali | Answer is B. Medial cuneiform The ankle or the talocrural joint has 2 ligaments: the medial collateral (or deltoid ligament) and the lateral collateralligamentMedial collateral ligament (or deltoid ligament)It consists of two sets of fibres, superficial and deep. Both pas have a common attachment above to the apex and ... | |
True about Penicillin G: (A) It can be given orally, (B) It is has broad spectrum activity, (C) Used for treatment rat bite fever, (D) Probenecid given along with PnG decrease its direction of action | Answer is C. Ans. c. Used for treatment of rat bite fever Penicillin G MOA: It inhibits cell wall synthesis b.y interfering with the transpeptidation reactiondeg. b-lactam antibiotics and are used in the treatment of bacterial infections caused by susceptible, usually Gram-positive, organisms. Acid-labile, destroyed by... | |
All of the following are true about pulp space infection except -: (A) It is also called as felon, (B) It is a painless condition, (C) It may lead to necrosis of finger pulp, (D) It is infection of small compartments in the pulp formed by vertical septa | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., It is a painless condition Felon/Whitlowo Fingertip pulp is divided into numerous small compartments by vertical septa that stabilize the pad. Infection occurring within these compartments can lead to abscess formation, edema, and rapid development of increased pressure in a closed space.... | |
All are true except:: (A) The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age, (B) The embryonic nucleus is situated between the two Y sutures, (C) Congenital blue dot cataracts are associated with development of senile cataract at an early stage, (D) Zonular cataracts typically affect the outer pa of the fet... | Answer is A. Ans. The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age | |
Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation:: (A) Allograft, (B) Autograft, (C) Xenograft, (D) Isograft | Answer is D. Answer is D (Isograft) : "Although the best graft is an Autograft, a renal graft can obviously not he an Autograft...silly." So the best renal graft is an Isoqraft from an individual twin. IsOgrall: Is a graft from a different individual genetically identical with recipient e.g. identical twin. Aulograft: ... | |
Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is increased due to ?: (A) An increase in CO2, (B) Raise in the temperature, (C) Higher value, (D) A decrease in 2,3 DPG | Answer is D. ANSWER: D A decrease in 2,3 DPG | |
In the cross section of brain in the below pic, the tracts have been labeled, which of them are concerned with pain and temperature.: (A) B, (B) C, (C) A, (D) S and T of C | Answer is C. Pain and temperature are carried by the spinothalamic tract (STT) towards the VPL (ventro-postero-lateral) nucleus of thalamus.
Pain is carried by the lateral STT whereas anterior STT carries the crude touch sensations.
Spinothalamic tracts carry sensations contra-laterally hence the area of sensation los... | |
Positive predictive value of a test does not depends upon: (A) Incidence of disease, (B) Specificity, (C) Prevalence of disease, (D) Sensitivity | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following diuretics acts at the nephron's distal tubule?: (A) Ethacrynic acid, (B) Furosemide, (C) Hydrochlorothiazide, (D) Mannitol | Answer is C. The thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, benzthiazide) promote diuresis by inhibiting reabsorption of NaCl, primarily in the early distal tubule. Ethacrynic acid and furosemide are both loop diuretics. They act by inhibiting electrolyte reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of ... | |
What is choledocholithotomy: (A) Removal of ureteric stone, (B) Removal of gall stone, (C) Removal of gall bladder, (D) Removal of common bile duct stone | Answer is D. Choledocholithotomy is a procedure in which we are draining the CBD and removing the stones by a longitudinal incision in the duct. Reference:Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25 th edition ,page no:1126 | |
All the following are criteria for diagnosing severe aplastic anemia except:: (A) BM cellularity <25%, (B) Reticulocyte <1%, (C) Platelet <20k, (D) ANC<1500 | Answer is D. D i.e. ANC <1500Ref: WHO, Hematopoietic System, page 221Explanation:Criteria for Aplastic Anemia (ASH)ClassificationCriteriaSevereBM cellularity <25% (or<50%if <30% of BM is hematopoietic cells) AND >2 of the following:* Peripheral blood neutrophil count <0.5x109/L* Peripheral blood platelet count <20x109/... | |
Ferruginous bodies are commonly seen in:: (A) Silicosis, (B) Asbestosis, (C) Bagassosis, (D) Byssinosis | Answer is B. Inorganic paicles may become coated with iron containing proteinaceous material, these bodies are called ferruginous bodies. They mimic asbestos bodies and can be seen in patient with asbestosis but is not specific hence asbestosis is the best answer. Ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in Asbestosis... | |
Cerebral perfusion pressure in children is:: (A) 11-15 mm Hg, (B) 16-20 mm Hg, (C) 20-40 mm Hg, (D) 40-60 mm Hg | Answer is D. - Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated as the difference between the systemic mean aerial pressure (MAP) and the intracranial pressure (ICP) - The normal range of CPP is thought to be approximately 50 to 150 mm Hg in healthy adults, and 40 to 60 mm Hg, in children. Normal CPP (mm Hg) 2-6 yrs - 5... | |
Which of the following statements is true about the epidemiological determinants of measles -: (A) Measles virus survives outside the human body for 5 days, (B) Carriers are important sources of infection, (C) Secondary attack is less than that of rubella, (D) Incidence of measles is more in males than females | Answer is C. SAR of some important infectious diseases
Measles → 80%
Rubella → 90 - 95%
Chickenpox → 90%
Pertussis → 90%
Mumps → 86% | |
Right Gastric Aery is a branch of :: (A) Coelic Trunk, (B) Hepatic aery, (C) Gastroduodenal aery, (D) Splenic aery | Answer is B. Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. It turns to the left and runs upwards along the the lesser curvature of the stomach and ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery which is a branch of the coeliac trunk. Coeliac trunk: Arises at the ... | |
The most common side effect of neuraxial opioid is:: (A) Nausea & vomiting, (B) Pruritus, (C) Urinary retention, (D) Sedation | Answer is B. Pruritus is the most common side effect with neuraxial opioids. It may be generalized but is more likely to be localized to the face, neck or upper thorax. Treatment 1. naloxone 2. antihistaminic. 3. propofol | |
What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis :-: (A) Colonoscopy, (B) Sigmoidoscopy, (C) Rectal biopsy, (D) Tongue biopsy | Answer is C. Answer is C (Rectal biopsy): Rectal biopsy is single best answer amongst the options provided. The systemic amyloidosis offer a choice of biopsy sites. Abdominal fat aspirates or renal or rectal biopsies are often preferred'. - Harrison | |
Alkaptonuria is caused by defect in which of the following enzymes?: (A) Enolase, (B) Homogentisate oxidase, (C) Pyruvate carboxylase, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Alkaptonuria was first recognized and described in the 16th century. Characterized in 1859, it provided the basis for Garrod's classic ideas concerning heritable metabolic disorders. The defect is lack of homogentisate oxidase. The urine darkens on exposure to air due to oxidation of excreted homogentisate... | |
MC abdominal organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen is -: (A) Spleen, (B) Liver, (C) Pancreas, (D) Stomach | Answer is A. None | |
26 year old man died while playing. His autopsy of the heart revealed myocyte hypertrophy. Diagnosis is -: (A) HOCM, (B) DCM, (C) Arrythmogenic cardiac problem, (D) Restrictive cardiomyopathy | Answer is A. None | |
The right coronary aery arises from ?: (A) anterior aoic sinus, (B) left posterior aoic sinus, (C) right posterior aoic sinus, (D) inter aoic sinus | Answer is A. Right coronary aery is smaller than the left coronary aery. It arises from the anterior aoic sinus. Left coronary aery is larger than the right coronary aery. It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. FIG REF : B D Cha... | |
Which of the following marker is used to diagnose rhabdomyosarcoma -: (A) Desmin, (B) Synaptophysin, (C) Myeloperoxidase, (D) Cytokeratin | Answer is A. . Desmin | |
Hashimoto's thyroiditis,all are TRUE except-: (A) Neutrophilic infiltration, (B) Maximum incidence in children, (C) Pain in hyoid, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, there is a marked lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid with germinal center formation, atrophy of the thyroid follicles accompanied by oxyphil metaplasia, absence of colloid, and mild to moderate fibrosis. Its incidence increases with age (mean age at diagnosis is 60 yrs). Pa... | |
Post mortem staining gets fixed after -: (A) 2-3 hrs., (B) 3-4 hrs., (C) 5-6 hrs., (D) 6-7 hrs. | Answer is D. Postmortem staining get fixed in 6-12 hours. | |
The following muscle is an opener of the glottis: (A) Lateral cricoarytenoid, (B) Posterior cricoarytenoid, (C) Transverse arytenoid, (D) Inter arytenoids | Answer is B. 1. Muscles which abduct the vocal cords: only posterior cricoarytenoids( safety muscles of larynx) 2. Muscles which adduct the vocal cords: * lateral cricoarytenoids * transverse aenoid * cricothyroid *thyroarytenoids 3. Muscles which tense the vocal cords: cricothyroid 4.muscles which relax the vocal cord... | |
Malonate competetively inhibits-: (A) Fumarate dehydrogenase, (B) Succinate thiokinase, (C) Aconitase, (D) Succinate dehydrogenase | Answer is D. D i.e. Succinate dehydrogenase | |
Neoplastic transformation in leucopLakia is seen most commonly in: (A) Buccal mucosa, (B) Floor of mouth, (C) Lateral border of tongue, (D) palate | Answer is B. None | |
The operative procedure is known as "microfracture" is done for the: (A) Delayed union of femur., (B) Non union of tibia, (C) Loose bodies of ankle joint, (D) Osteochondral defect of femur | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Osteochondral defect of the femurRef. Various internet sites (www.orthopedics.hss.edu, www.kneeguru.co.uk)Microfracture is an arthroscopic procedure used to treat osteochondral defects (damaged areas of articular cartilage of the knee) | |
Antibiotic structurally resembling Aminoacyl t-RNA and inhibiting protein synthesis in both prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes is?: (A) Azithromycin, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Chloramphenicol, (D) Puromycin | Answer is D. 1. Puromycin is an Aminonucleoside antibiotic derived from the Streptomyces alboniger bacterium. 2. It can causes premature chain termination during translation and the pa of it resembles the 3' end of the Aminoacyl tRNA. 3. It can inhibit protein synthesis in both bacteria as well as humans | |
Which one of the following activities cannot be formed by a 7 month old infant –: (A) Pivot, (B) Cruise, (C) Transfer objects, (D) Enjoy mirror | Answer is B. None | |
How much labial reduction is needed for a porcelain
fused to metal: (A) 0.5 - 1 mm, (B) 1 - 1.5 mm, (C) 1.5 - 2 mm, (D) 1.75 - 2 mm | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following is not a prokinetic?: (A) 5HT4 agonist, (B) D2 blocker, (C) Macrolides, (D) Diphenoxymethane | Answer is D. Prokinetic drugs. - These are drugs which promote gastrointestinal transit and speed gastric emptying by propulsive motility.D2blocker example Domperidone. 5HT4 agonistexample cisapride. Metoclopramide. Macrolidesacts on motilin receptor. Hence, Diphenoxymethane is the answer. | |
DIC is common in which AML -: (A) Nonocytic (M5), (B) Promyelo cytic (M3), (C) Erythrocytic (M6), (D) Megakaryocytic (M7) | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Promyelocytic Tumor cells in acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3) release procoagulant and fibrinolytic factors that cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.