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Enlargement of pituitary tumor after adrenalectomy is called as?: (A) Nelson s syndrome, (B) Steel Richardson syndrome, (C) Hamman rich syndrome, (D) Job s syndrome | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Nelson s syndromeREF: Schwartzs Principles of Surgery 9th edition chapter 38. Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal "Nelson's syndrome is the rapid enlargement of a pituitary adenoma that occurs after the removal of both adrenal glands"Approximately 30% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalecto... | |
Drug not used for Pseudomembranous colitis: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Vancomycin, (C) Fidaxomycin, (D) Streptogramins | Answer is D. All except streptogramins are used. Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis is metronidazole,in resistant cases vancomycin given orally. Fidaxomycin is newer class of macrolide type of antibiotic used specially for PMC Ref:KDT 6/e p799 | |
False about xenon anesthesia: (A) Slow induction and slow recovery, (B) Minimal cardiovascular side effects, (C) Low solubility in blood, (D) Explosive in nature | Answer is B. It has been shown that, compared to other anesthetic regimens, Xenon anesthesia produces the highest regional blood flow in the brain, liver, kidney and intestine. In conclusion, the most impoant positive effectsof Xenon are cardiovascular stability, cerebral protection and ourable pharmacokinetics. Ref ga... | |
Which of the following is the most common congenital cardiac defect?: (A) TOF, (B) Transposition of great aeries, (C) Ventricular septal defect, (D) Atrial septal defect | Answer is C. VSD is the most common congenital hea diseaseTOF is the commonest cyanotic congenital hea disease(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2194 - 2195) | |
All of the following are Light's criteria for exudative I pleural effusion:: (A) Pleural fluid protein to serum protein > 0.5, (B) Pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH > 0.6, (C) Pleural fluid LDH is > 2/3 times the normal upper limit for serum, (D) Pleural fluid ADA to Serum ADA <16 | Answer is D. Answer is D (Pleural fluid ADA and Serum ADA <16): Ratio of Pleural fluid ADA and Serum ADA <16 is not pa of Light's Criteria. Light's criteria, rely on a comparison of the chemistries in the pleural fluid to those in the blood, to establish the cause of the effusion as transudate or exudates. According to... | |
Pulsus bisiferiens is seen in all, except -: (A) Aoic regurgitation + Aoic stenosis, (B) obstructive cardiomyopathy, (C) Hyperophic cardiomyopathy, (D) Tetralogy of Fallot | Answer is D. pulsus bisferiens, , is a sign where, on palpation of the pulse, a double peak per cardiac cycle can be appreciated. Bisferious means striking twice. Classically, it is detected when aoic insufficiency exists in association with aoic stenosis, but may also be found in isolated but severe aoic insufficiency... | |
A 45 years Female came with a 4 cm nodule in thyroid which on FNAC revealed papillary cell carcinoma. Level III lymphnodes are also involved. How do you treat this patient?: (A) Hemithyroidectomy + Central lymph node dissection, (B) Subtotal thyroidectomy, (C) Total thyroidectomy + Modified radical neck dissection, (D)... | Answer is C. None | |
A 69-year-old man comes to the physician because of the gradual onset of pain, tingling and hyperesthesia in the medial aspect of his right arm. Shortly thereafter, he develops erythema and then an outbreak of vesicles on the medial aspect of his right arm extending from his medial epicondyle to the wrist. After severa... | Answer is B. None | |
WHO defi nes adolescent age between -: (A) 10-19 years, (B) 10-14 years, (C) 10-25 years, (D) 9-14 years | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10-19 years o Adolescence is usually the period 10 to 20 yr. | |
All of the following can be administrated in acute hypertension during labour EXCEPT: (A) IV Labetalol, (B) IV Esmolol, (C) IV Hydralazine, (D) IV Nitroprusside | Answer is D. Nitroprusside can cause severe hypotension. It is powerful arteriolar and venodilator. It is contraindicated in eclampsia. | |
Difference between neurosis and psychosis is: (A) Severity, (B) Insight, (C) Clinical features, (D) Duration | Answer is B. B i.e. Insight | |
Which of the following is / are autoimmune disease:: (A) Sjogren's syndrome., (B) Mikulicz's disease., (C) Rheumatoid arthritis., (D) All of the above. | Answer is D. Rheumatoid arthritis is reported in about 15 percent cases of Sjogren’s syndrome. | |
Fatty change is seen in?: (A) Brain, (B) Kidney, (C) Adrenal, (D) Bladder | Answer is B. * Fatty change is particularly common in the liver but may occur in other non - fatty tissues as well e.g. in the heart, skeletal muscle, kidneys (lipoid nephrosis or minimum change disease) and other organs.* Fatty change, steatosis or fatty metamorphosis is the intracellular accumulation of neutral fat w... | |
Health education charts serially flashed to the group as the talk is being given is called as: (A) Flannel graph, (B) Flash cards, (C) Flip charts, (D) Exhibition charts | Answer is C. None | |
All are structures passing between base of skull and superior constrictor except (Repeat Q 2008 ): (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (B) Pharyngobasilar fascia, (C) Eustachian tube, (D) Levator veli palate\ | Answer is A. Ans: a (Glossopharyngeal nerve) Ref: Chaurasia 4th ed pg 223 fig. 14.18, pg 225The structures passing between the superior constrictor and the base of skull (sinus of morgagni):A-L-A-auditory tubelevator veli palateascending palatine artery"Auditory tube is about 3.6 cm long and is divided into an outer bo... | |
Inhaled sodium cromoglycate :: (A) Prevents the antigen antibody combination, (B) May cause cardiac arrhythmias, (C) Is of benefit in preventing exercise induced bronchial spasm, (D) Is effective in alleviating an acute episode of allergic asthma | Answer is C. None | |
A 45 year old male presented with palpitations, tachycardia & anxiety. His BP is 158/90 mmHg. The patient also has mild depression and is presently taking citalopram, labetalol & amlodipine to control his blood pressure. 24-hour urine total metanephrines are ordered and show an elevation of 1.5 times the upper limit of... | Answer is A. Investigations done in pheochromocytoma 24 hour urinary fractionated metanephrine 24 hour urinary catecholamines 24 hour urinary vanillylmandelic acid level IOC- Plasma fractionated metanephrine levels 24-hour urine total metanephrines has high sensitivity & value of three times the upper limit of normal i... | |
Which of the following is not useful for coagulation: (A) Plasmin, (B) Thrombin, (C) Calcium, (D) Fibrin | Answer is A. None | |
Area number for Motor area include: (A) 4 & 6, (B) 1, 2 & 3, (C) 5 & 7, (D) 16 & 18 | Answer is A. 4 & 6 {Description: Bradman's areas of Cerebral cortex) | |
First sound by child is:: (A) Sibilant, (B) Bilabial, (C) Fricative, (D) Monolabial | Answer is B. Most children are able to produce the bilabial sounds (made with the lips) of “b, p, m, w” first, since these are sounds visible on the lips.
They may also produce sounds (linguo-alveolar) such as “d, n, t” early on as well.
These sounds are called linguo-alveolar, since they are produced with the tongue b... | |
Function of coenzyme is to: (A) Enhance the specificity of apoenzyme, (B) Accept one of the cleavage products, (C) Activate the substrate, (D) Increase the active sites of apoenzyme | Answer is C. Enzymes may be simple proteins , or complex enzymes, containing a non -protein pa, called the prosthetic group. The prosthetic group is called the co-enzyme.It is heat stable. The protein pa is named as apoenzyme.It is heat labile.The two poions combined together are called the HOLOENZYME. First group of c... | |
Auto antibody in Sjogrens syndrome is?: (A) Anti centromere antibody, (B) Anti Ro & anti La, (C) Anti ds DNA, (D) Anti RNP | Answer is B. Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 131,(green box=Pathogenesis) Most patients with primary sjogren syndrome have auto antibodies to the ribo-nucleoprotien (RNP) antigensSS-A(RO) and SS-B(la). | |
An 85-year old male cigar smoker with no notable medical history presented with black discoloration and hairy appearance ofthe tongue, which had lasted several years. He said he did not use bismuth- containing compounds. This condition could be treated with all of the following except -: (A) Topical antibiotics, (B) Di... | Answer is A. Treatment is by reassurance, as the condition is benign, and then by correction of any predisposing factors.This may be cessation of smoking or cessation/substitution of implicated medications or mouthwashes, applying topical retinoids. Generally direct measures to return the tongue to its normal appearanc... | |
Politzer bag maneuver used to test:: (A) Eustachian tube, (B) Larynx, (C) Esophagus, (D) Nasal cavity | Answer is A. Politzer bag maneuver used to test Eustachian tube Designed for those who can`t perform Valsalva test Politzer bag is connected to rubber tube- Tube is placed in one nostril and other is closed-Air is blown with pressure by pressing the bulb-Air enters nasopharynx - opens eustachian tube & enters middle ea... | |
Poisoning by irritants may be mistaken for :: (A) Peritonitis, (B) Cholera, (C) Gastroenteritis, (D) Intestinal obstruction | Answer is C. C i.e. Gastroenteritis | |
Argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in:: (A) Angle closure glaucoma, (B) Angle recession glaucoma, (C) Secondary glaucoma, (D) Open angle glaucoma | Answer is D. In Argon Laser Trabeculoplasty (ALT) Laser beam is focused on trabecular meshwork Opens up the pores of trabecular meshwork. So that more Aqueous can flow through it in faster time Lowers Intra ocular pressure Typically done in open angle glaucoma Trabecular meshwork After ALT | |
PANDAS are associated with which of the following infection?: (A) Pseudomonas, (B) Streptococcus, (C) Staphylococcus, (D) Neisseria | Answer is B. PANDAS is sho for Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections. A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet feve... | |
Which of the following is absolutely essential for wound healing: (A) Vit D, (B) Carbohydrates, (C) Vit C, (D) Balanced diet | Answer is C. refrobbins 7/e p 114;9/e p106 synthesis of collagen. It is also a highly effective antioxidant protecting cells from damage by free radicals. Studies have shown that the vitamin can help speed thehealing process of wounds. | |
Binocular single vision is tested by ?: (A) Amsler grid, (B) Synoptophore, (C) Maddox rod, (D) Cardboard test | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Synoptophore Grades of binocular single vision There are three grades of binocular single vision, which are best tested with the help of a synoptophore. 1. Grade-I - Simultaneous perception It is the power to see two dissimilar objects stimultaneously. It is tested by projecting two dissi... | |
Final centre for horizontal movement of eye is:: (A) Abducent nucleus, (B) Trochlear nucleus, (C) Oculomotor nucleus, (D) Vestibular nucleus | Answer is A. Ans. Abducent nucleus | |
ACRTI-RADS scan for thyroid nodule characteristics include all except:: (A) Margin, (B) Echogenicity, (C) Vascularity, (D) Shape | Answer is C. Ans: (c) VascularityColl Radiol 2017 May, 14(5), Page 587-595ACR TI-RADS is a reporting system for thyroid nodules on ultrasound proposed by the American College of Radiology.It is based on the following characteristic of the lesion:CompositionEchogenicityShapeMarginEchogenic fociRecommendationsTR1: No FNA... | |
For cephalometric projection, what should be the distance between source and the subject?: (A) 5 feet, (B) 6 feet, (C) 7 feet, (D) 9 feet | Answer is A. Distance between source and the subject = 5 feet.
Distance between film and the subject = 15 cm. | |
In meiosis chromosome number is: (A) Doubled, (B) Halved, (C) Reduced to one fourth, (D) Will not alter | Answer is B. .Ans b: (Ref: NCERT text book) | |
Ocular manifestations of neurofibromatosis: (A) Neurofibromas of lids & Orbit, (B) Glioma of optic nerve, (C) Congenital glaucoma, (D) All the above. | Answer is D. Ocular - a,b,c
Cutaneous - cafe-au-lait spots to neurofibromota. | |
Triple deformity of knee joint is seen in: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Trauma, (C) Malignant tumour, (D) Sarcoidosis | Answer is A. TB KNEE has two stages. In late stage it shows TRIPLE DEFORMITY- Posterior Subluxation External Rotation Flexion Other condition showing triple deformity of knee-Rheumatoid Ahritis REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | |
The rate of mixed whole stimulated saliva increases with age in which of the following age group (according to Crossner): (A) 1-2 year of Age, (B) 5-15 year of Age, (C) 3-4 year of Age, (D) Above 15 years | Answer is B. Crossner reported that in children from 5 to 15 years of age, the rate of mixed whole stimulated saliva increases with age, and boys have consistently higher rates than girls. Saliva substitutes, as well as fluoride and chlorhexidine rinses, are reported to enhance remineralization and promote resistance ... | |
Following are radiological evidence of Achalasia cardia except not related -radiology: (A) Smooth narrowing of esophagus, (B) Dilated touous esophagus, (C) Absence of air in the fundus, (D) Exaggerated peristalsis | Answer is D. . | |
Most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction in children is: (A) Volvulus, (B) Inguinal hernia, (C) Intussusception, (D) None | Answer is C. None | |
Optic tract is related to :: (A) Olivary mucleus, (B) Lat. Geniculate body, (C) Medial geniculate body, (D) Trapezoid body | Answer is B. B. i.e. Lateral geniculate body | |
The T wave on an ECG tracing represents which of the events in the cardiac cycle?: (A) Atrial depolarization, (B) Atrial repolarization, (C) Ventricular depolarization, (D) Ventricular repolarization | Answer is D. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and is longer in duration than depolarization (i.e., conduction of the repolarization wave is slower than the wave of depolarization). The P wave represents the wave of depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria, and is usually 0.08 to... | |
Which of the following is a specific risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus?: (A) Smoking, (B) Nickel industry worker, (C) Mustard gas exposure, (D) Wood workers | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Wood workers * Paranasal sinus cancer is uncommon and represents only 0.2 to 0.8% of all malignancies.* Cancer of paranasal sinus constitutes 3% of all carcinomas of the aerodigestive tract.* The majority of paranasal sinus malignancies (50-80%) originate within the maxillary sinus antrum... | |
A pharmaceutical company develops a new antihypertensive drug. Samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12. One group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month; the other group is given a placebo according to the sa... | Answer is A. Here, a pharmaceutical company develops a new anti-hypertensive drug; samples of 24 hypertensive patients, randomly selected from a large population of hypertensive people, are randomly divided into 2 groups of 12, and one group is given the new drug over a period of 1 month & the other group is given a pl... | |
Chlamydia are isolated by :: (A) Enzyme immune assay, (B) Yolk sac inoculation, (C) Direct immunofluorescence, (D) Micro immunofluorescence | Answer is B. Isolation of chlamydiae can done by :
Inoculationinto yolk sac/embryonated eggs of 6-8 day old chick embryo which may be pretreated by streptomycin or polymyxin
Inculation into experimental animals (mice)
Tissue/cell culture :
Preferred mode
Commonly used cell lines are McCoy and HeLa cells.
Cell cultures ... | |
Indirect pulp capping procedures on primary molars are
indicated when:: (A) Removal of decay has exposed the pulp, (B) A tooth has a Larger long-standing lesion with a history of continuous pain, (C) The carious lesion has just penetrated the dentinoenamel junction, (D) The carious lesion is suspected of producing an e... | Answer is D. None | |
A 50 yr. old male presented with chronic breathlessness and intermittent jaundice. He denies smoking and alcohol abuse. Lung and liver specimens revealed the following findings respectively What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Hemochromatosis, (B) Cystic fibrosis, (C) Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, (D) Wilsons di... | Answer is C. The lung specimen reveals diffusive panacinar emphysema. The liver biopsy shows PAS positive diastase resistant deposits. Both the above clues point towards option C. - Option A hemochromatosis would show pearls stain on liver biopsy. - Cystic fibrosis would show bronchiectasis. | |
Peripheral neuropathy can be as a side effect of all of the following anti-retroviral drugs, EXCEPT:: (A) Lamivudine, (B) Didanosine, (C) Stavudine, (D) Zalcitabine | Answer is A. Peripheral neuropathy is a rare side effect of Lamivudine. Side effects of lamivudine are headache, fatigue, nausea, anorexia and abdominal pain. Predominant side effect of stavudine is peripheral neuropathy. Predominant side effect of Zalcitabine is peripheral neuropathy, other side effects asssociated wi... | |
Apical lung tumor causes: (A) C/L horner syndrome, (B) Post ganglionic fibres involved, (C) 1deg neuron injury, (D) Loss of sweating on same side of face | Answer is D. Apical lung cancer/ Pancoast tumor causes - 2deg neuron injury (Preganglionic sympathetic fibres) I/L horner syndrome (Cervical sympathetic chain and ganglion involved) Loss of sweating on same side of face 1deg sympathetic neuron injury occurs in Wallenberg syndrome 2deg sympathetic neuron (preganglionic ... | |
Recurrence is common in pleomorphic adenoma because of:: (A) Metastasis, (B) Incomplete capsule, (C) Highly aggressive nature, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Pleomorphic Adenoma:
Local enucleation should be avoided because the entire tumor may not be removed or the capsule may be violated, resulting in seeding of the tumor bed. With adequate surgery the prognosis is excellent, with a cure rate of more than 95%. The risk of recurrence appears to be lower for t... | |
Drug used in alzheimer's disease are all EXCEPT:: (A) Biperidin, (B) Donepezil, (C) Rivastigmine, (D) Memantine | Answer is A. Ans. (a) BiperidinRef.: Harrison 19th ed. / 2601-02Alzheimer's disease is most common cause of dementia.Drugs Used in the Treatment of Alzheimer's are:* Acetycholine esterase inhiitors:# Donepezil# Tacrine# Galantamine* Rivastigmine: Carbamate derivative of physostigmine* Memantine: NMDA glutaminergic anta... | |
Which of the following is an intermediate-acting local anaesthetic which is an amino amide causing methemoglobinemia?: (A) Procaine, (B) Prilocaine, (C) Etidocaine, (D) Ropivacaine | Answer is B. Prilocaine causes methemoglobinemia, hence it is largely limited to dentistry. This effect is a consequence of the metabolism of the aromatic ring to o-toluidine. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. Methemoglobinemia is mo... | |
Multidrug therapy is given for: (A) Syphilis, (B) Leprosy, (C) Herpetiformis, (D) Icthyosis Vulgaris | Answer is B. B i.e. Leprosy | |
What is phacoanaphylactic Uveitis?: (A) Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery, (B) Uveitis following cataract extraction in automiimune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, (C) Uveitis seen with phacoemulsification cataract surgery, (D) Uveitis associated with fungal comeal ... | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uveitis as a result of lens tissue induced inflam mation following cataract surgery o Due to cataract extraction or lens trauma, lens matter induces inflammation in the uveal tissue, called phacoanaphylactic/phacotoxic uveitis:# Phacoanaphylaxis/lens-induced uveitis occurs in the setting ... | |
Point source epidemic tends to -a) Continue over one incubation periodb) Produce multiple peaks in the epidemic curvec) Be explosived) Tail gradually: (A) bd, (B) ac, (C) bcd, (D) da | Answer is B. None | |
Laryngeal papilloma-: (A) Single, (B) Multiple, (C) Seen in children, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Single; 'b' i.e., Multiple & 'c' i.e., Seen in children Laryngeal papilloma o Most common benign tumor of larynx Single or multiple irregular, wa like glottic masses. HPV-6 & 11 may be the causative factor. Treatment is with CO2 laser ablation. a-IFN and indole - 3 - carbinole may also be... | |
Which of the following drug must always be available for emergency use in labour ward if a patient on opoid analgesia?: (A) Fentanyl, (B) Naloxone, (C) Morphine, (D) Bupivacaine | Answer is B. Opoids are used during labor for analgesia. It may cause newborn respiratory depression. Naloxane is a narcotic antagonist capable of reversing this respiratory depression | |
Quincke's disease is: (A) Norwegian scabies, (B) Angioneuritic edema, (C) Seborrhea olessa, (D) Saddle nose | Answer is B. Angioedema is an area of swelling of the lower layer of skin and tissue just under the skin or mucous membranes.The swelling may occur in the face, tongue, larynx, abdomen, or arms and legs. Often it is associated with hives, which are swelling within the upper skin.Onset is typically over minutes to hours... | |
'Mission Indradhanush' includes all of the vaccines except:: (A) BCG, (B) Japanese Encephalitis, (C) Typhoid, (D) Measles | Answer is C. c. Typhoid(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1246, 1292-1293, Ghai 8/e p 197-198)Mission IndradhanushIncludes vaccination against 7 life-threatening diseases (diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B) in the entire country | |
Typhoid carriers harbor bacteria in: (A) Gallbladder, (B) Urinary bladder, (C) Pancreas, (D) Spleen | Answer is A. Salmonella typhi or Salmonella typhimurium can infect the gallbladder. Acute cholecystitis can occur. More frequently, chronic cholecystitis occurs, the patient becoming a typhoid carrier excreting the bacteria in the bile.Ref: Bailey and love 27e pg: 1202 | |
Maximum tourniquet time for the upper limb is ?: (A) 1/2 hour, (B) 1 hr, (C) 1-1/2 hrs., (D) 2 hrs | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1-1/2 hr. In experiment animals tourniquets have been retained for three hours without lasting ill effect but in practice an hour and a half is probably a wise limit. | |
Preferred treatment in a 60years old patient with Maxillary carcinoma involving anterolateral pa of maxilla is: (A) Radiotherapy only, (B) Total/extended Maxillectomy followed by radiotherapy, (C) Radiotherapy followed by total/extened maxillectomy, (D) Total/extended maxillectomy alone | Answer is C. Treatment of maxillary carcinomas: Early cases with Stage I and II squamous cell carcinomas are treated with surgery or radiation with equal results. T3 and T4 lesions are treated by combined modalities of radiation and surgery. Radiation in such cases may be given preoperatively or postoperatively Ref: Dh... | |
Splicing Activity is a functions of: (A) m RNA, (B) Sn RNA editing, (C) r RNA, (D) t RNA | Answer is B. Sn-RNA is involved in RNA splicing.
Sno-RNA → r-RNA modification
mi-RNA & St-RNA → Regulation of gene expression
SP-RNA → RNA-interference (RNA i) | |
In rheumatic hea disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to -: (A) Streptococcus viridans, (B) Staphylococcus aureus, (C) Candida albicans, (D) Salmonella typhi | Answer is B. Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161-162 Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent organisms mainly S. aureus (20-30%), seeding a previously normal valve 2D Echo * The smallest size of vegetation that can be picked up by echo is 2 mm. * Transoesophageal echoca... | |
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by -: (A) Human herpes virus-2, (B) Human herpes virus-4, (C) Human herpes virus-6, (D) Human herpes virus-8 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Human herpes virus-8 Important virusesDisease causedo HHV-8Kaposi sarcomaoHHV-6Roseola infantum, multiple sclerosiso VZVChicken pox, herpes zostero EBVIMN, burkitis lymphoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, nasopharyngeal carcinomao Enterovirus-72Hepatitis Ao Coxsackie-AHerpangina, hand-foot-mout... | |
All are true about acute acalculous cholecystitis except: (A) Distended GB, (B) Vascular cause, (C) Seen in bed ridden patients, (D) Rapid course | Answer is A. Distended GB is seen in scintigraphy Cholescintigraphy demonstrates absent gallbladder filling in acalculous cholecystitis Acalculous cholecystitis Acute inflammation of gallbladder without stones Clinical features Similar to acute calculous cholecystitis Patients may present with only unexplained fever, l... | |
. All of the following forms of porphyria are associated with peripheral neuropathy except: (A) acute intermittent porphyria, (B) hereditary coproporphyria, (C) porphyria cutanea tarda, (D) variegate porphyria | Answer is C. Porphyria is a group of inherited disorders caused by defects in heme biosynthesis. Three forms of porphyria are associated with peripheral neuropathy: acute intermittent porphyria (AIP), hereditary coproporphyria (HCP), and variegate porphyria (VP). The acute neurologic manifestations are similar in each,... | |
True about subendocardial hemorrhages are all, except AIIMS 10; UPSC 11: (A) May be seen after head injury, (B) Involves the right ventricular wall, (C) Continuous pattern, (D) Flame shaped hemorrhages | Answer is B. Ans. Involves the right ventricular wall | |
Pulse deficit more than 10 is seen in-: (A) Ventricular premature contraction, (B) Atnal flutter, (C) Atrial fibrillation, (D) Ventricular fibrillation | Answer is C. Atrial fibrillation (AF or A-fib) is an abnormal hea rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atrial chambers of the hea.Often it stas as brief periods of abnormal beating which become longer and possibly constant over time.Often episodes have no symptoms. Occasionally there may be hea pa... | |
Recontouring and selective grinding procedures are carried out in complete denture to:: (A) Decrease the vertical dimension of occlusion, (B) Decrease cuspal height, (C) Enhance curve of spee, (D) Remove occlusal disharmony | Answer is D. None | |
Anti U1 RNP is a feature of:: (A) SLE, (B) MCTD, (C) Sclerorema, (D) CREST | Answer is B. MCTD | |
Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ?: (A) Disinfecting power, (B) Parasitic clearance, (C) Dietary requirement, (D) Statistical correlation | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disinfecting power Traditional testing of disinfectants Two traditional tests for determining the efficiency of disinfectants are :? 1) Rideal-Walker test : Phenol is taken as the standard with unit as phenol coefficient (pheno1=1) 2) Chick-Main test : The disinfectant acts in the presenc... | |
30-year-male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with -: (A) Antimitochondrial antibody, (B) Anti-endomysial antibody, (C) Anti-smooth muscle antibody, (D) Antinuclear antibody | Answer is B. None | |
Feature (s) of DiGeorge syndrome is/are all except:: (A) Results from failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, (B) Absent thyroid, (C) Absent parathyroid glands, (D) B cell defect | Answer is D. D. B cell defectDiGeorge Syndrome {Thymic Hypoplasia) Robbins 9th/24lDiGeorge syndrome is a T-cell deficiency that results from failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. The latter give rise to the thymus, the parathyroids, some of the C cells of the thyroid, and the ultimobranchia... | |
The following are part of Hamstrings -a) Semitendinosusb) Semimembranosusc) Gracilisd) Short head of biceps femorise) Sartorius: (A) ac, (B) ab, (C) ad, (D) bc | Answer is B. Hamstrings
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus
- Long head of biceps femoris
- Ischial head of adductor magnus | |
A person is having painless lymphadenopathy. On biopsy, binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area is seen. On IHC CD 15 and CD 30 were positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Nodular sclerosis, (B) Large granular lymphocytic lymphoma, (C) Lymphocyte depletion type, (D) Lymphocyte predominant ... | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Nodular sclerosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 606-611)Binucleated owl shaped nuclei with clear vacuolated area refers to Lacunar cells.Lacunar cells are seen in the nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's diseaseLacunar cells have delicate, folded, or multilobate nuclei and abundant pale cytoplasm that is ... | |
Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis -: (A) Dry tap (hypocellular), (B) Megaloblastic cells, (C) Microcytic cells, (D) Thrombocytosis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dry tap (hypocellular) Myelofibrosiso The hallmark of primary myelofibrosis is rapid development of obliterative marrow fibrosis,o Myelofibrosis suppresses bone marrow hematopoiesis, leading to peripheral blood cytopenias.o This results in extensive extramedullary hematopoiesis in the spl... | |
A 60-years old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is –: (A) Vitreous hemorrhage, (B) Retinal detachment, (C) Central retinal artery occlusion, (D) Cystoid macular edema | Answer is B. Late complications of cataract surgery are cystoid macular oedema, retinal detachment, epithelial in growth, fibrous in growth, vitreous touch syndrome, after cataract.
Retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous) presents with sudden painless loss of vision with floaters and photopsia. | |
Which of the following can cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease-: (A) Immigration of healthy persons, (B) Increased cure rate of disease, (C) Longer duration of illness, (D) Decrease in population | Answer is C. Ref: Parks 23rd edition Disease will be Prevalent so long it exist in the community. Longer the duration of the illness, longer will it persist in the community and hence higher will be its prevalence. | |
Commonest thyroid tumor in MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasia) -: (A) Follicular, (B) Papillary, (C) Anaplastic, (D) Medullary | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medullary o Thyroid tumor is seen in MEN II, and is medullary carcinoma of thyroid. | |
What is a placental cotyledon:: (A) All branches from one stem villi, (B) Area supplied by one spiral aery, (C) Quaer of placenta, (D) Area drained by one terminal villi | Answer is A. Functional unit of the placenta is called a fetal cotyledon or placentome,which is derived from a major primary stem villus. These stem villi pass down through the intervillous space to anchor onto the basal plate.About 60 stem villi persist in human placenta. Thus each cotyledon(totalling 15-29) contains ... | |
Thrombosis is initiated by: (A) platelet activation, (B) endothelial damage, (C) Coagulation cascade, (D) vasoconstriction of vessels | Answer is B. ref : robbins 10th ed | |
Investigation of choice for diagnosis and staging of renal cell carcinoma: (A) USG, (B) CECT, (C) IVP, (D) MRI | Answer is B. IOC - CECT.
IOC if renal vein or IVC involved - MRI. | |
Which of the following amino acid takes a role in detoxification of ammonia normally in the human body?: (A) Glutamine, (B) Alanine, (C) Methionine, (D) Glycine | Answer is A. Ammonia is produced in the body during normal protein metabolism and by intestinal bacteria, primarily those in the colon. The liver plays a role in the detoxification of ammonia by conveing it to urea, which is excreted by the kidneys. Striated muscle also plays a role in detoxification of ammonia, which ... | |
Delusion of Nihilism and Early morning insomnia are characteristic features of -: (A) Mania, (B) Major depression, (C) Personality disorder, (D) Schizophrenia | Answer is B. Nihilistic delusion, insomonia and early morning awakening are seen in depression | |
Reliability means -: (A) Number of times the same results on repeated trials, (B) Number of times variation is seen, (C) Extent of accuracy, (D) Level of simplicity | Answer is A. Repeatability (reliability)
Repeatability means, the test must give consistent results when it is repeated more than once on the same individual under same conditions.
That means the results of test are precise (exact), So repeatability is some time called precision, reliability or reproducibility. | |
A pregnant female has past history of embolism in puerperium. What medical management she should take in next pregnancy to avoid this: (A) Cumpulsory prophylaxis with warfarin sta at 10 weeks, (B) To take warfarin after delivery, (C) Chance of thromboembolism increases by 12% in next pregnancy, (D) Does not need anythi... | Answer is B. Ans. is b i.e. To take Warfarin after delivery Friends venous thromboembolism in pregnancy, is one of those topics which we donot study in detail during undergraduation. So, I am giving in brief, all the impoant points you need to remember : Venous thromboembolism in pregnnacy : Venous thromboembolism is t... | |
A woman trying to get pregnant has a sister whose child has an autosomal recessive disease characterized by dysfunction of mucus-secreting cells. As a result, this child has abnormally thick mucus that tends to precipitate into dense plugs that obstruct the pancreatic ducts, bronchi, and bronchioles, as well as the bil... | Answer is B. The disease described is cystic fibrosis, which phenotypically presents with meconium ileus, deficiencies of pancreatic enzymes, pulmonary obstruction and infection leading to progressive pulmonary damage and ultimate respiratory failure. The most frequent mutation in this autosomal recessive disorder is a... | |
Bacterial cell wall is composed of all except -?: (A) Muramic acid, (B) Teichoic acid, (C) Glucosamine, (D) Mucopeptide | Answer is B. Bacteria are usually single-celled, except when they exist in colonies. ... The major component of the bacterial cell wall is peptidoglycan or murein. This rigid structure of peptidoglycan, specific only to prokaryotes, gives the cell shape and surrounds the cytoplasmic membrane. Ref:Ananthanarayan & panik... | |
A 27-yrs-old woman has been feeling low for the past 2 weeks. She has little energy and has trouble concentrating. She states that 6 weeks ago she had been feeling very good, with lots of energy and no need for sleep. She states this pattern has been occurring for at least the past 3 years, though the episodes have nev... | Answer is C. Cyclothymic disorder *Cyclothymic disorder is characterized by recurrent periods of mild depression alternating with periods of hypomania. *This pattern must be present for at least 2 years (1 year for children and adolescents) before the diagnosis can be made. *During these 2 years, the symptom-free inter... | |
Which of the following condition is associated with hepatomegaly with liver pulsation?: (A) Mitral Stenosis, (B) Mitral Regurgitation, (C) Tricuspid Regurgitation, (D) Pulmonary Hypeension | Answer is C. Characteristic features of Tricuspid regurgitation are marked hepatomegaly and systolic pulsations of the liver. Hepatic pulsation in tricuspid regurgitation is caused by reversed systolic blood flow in the great veins. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2012, Chapter 10; The Cleveland Clinic Ca... | |
Which of the follwing gas given off in a fire is most commonly known to cause metabolic poisoning?: (A) HCN, (B) CO, (C) CO2, (D) H2S | Answer is B. Ans. B. CO. (Ref. Bailey & Love 26th ed. Pg. 386; Summary box 28.3)Metabolic poisoning in burns:# There are many poisonous gases that can be given off in a fire, the most common being carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion that is often produced by fires in enclosed spaces. This is the usual c... | |
Roll back malaria programme focused mainly on ?: (A) IEC campaigns for community awareness, (B) Insecticide treated bed nets, (C) Development of larvivorus fishes for eradication of larvae., (D) Presumptive treatment of malaria case | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Insecticide treated bed nets The main strategies of Roll Back Malaria initiative are : a) Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and community level. b) Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets. c) Ensure ad... | |
Influenza vaccine cause ?: (A) Local swelling, (B) Fever, (C) Itching, (D) All of above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Mild problems following inactivated flu vaccine: Soreness, redness, or swelling where the shot was given Hoarseness Sore, red or itchy eyes Cough Fever Aches Headache Itching Fatigue If these problems occur, they usually begin soon after the shot and last 1 or 2 days. Moderat... | |
The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague -: (A) Mus musculus, (B) Tatera indica, (C) Rattus Rattus, (D) Rattus norvegicus | Answer is B. - the reservoir of plaque is wild rodents, filed mice gerbils and skunks. - in India, the wild rodent Tatera indica is the main reservoir. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:293 <\p> | |
A 35-year-old man developed headache, nausea, vomiting, and sore throat 8 weeks after returning from a trip abroad. He eventually refused to drink water and had episodes of profuse salivation, difficulty in breathing, and hallucinations. Two days after the patient died of cardiac arrest, it was learned that he had been... | Answer is D. Rabies is caused by a rhabdovirus, a minus-sense, single-stranded, non-segmented RNA virus with an enveloped, bullet-shaped virion). The virus infects a wide range of warm-blooded animals, including humans. The virus is widely disseminated within the infected animals, with high levels in saliva. If the ani... | |
A 22-year-old primigravida at 11 weeks of gestational age has a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg obtained during a routine visit. . The patient denies any headache, visual changes, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. Her repeat BP is 160/90 mm Hg, and urinalysis is negative for protein. Which of the following i... | Answer is B. Chronic hypeension is defined as BP >140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation, or hypeension first diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation and persistent after 12 weeks postpaum. The average prevalence of hypeension in women aged 18 to 39 years is approximately 5-7 percent. | |
Height of children in 2-10 years of age is increased by-: (A) 2 cm/year, (B) 4 cm/year, (C) 6 cm/year, (D) 10 cm / year | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 cm/year "After 4 years, the child gains about 5 cm in height every year, until the age of 10 years" -- O.P. Ghai. "An average child gains approximately 7-8 cm in height between the age of 2-6 years and 6-7 cm in height between 6-12 years". -- Nelson Amongst given option, 6 cm/year is th... | |
Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:: (A) Skin biopsy, (B) Patch test, (C) Prick test, (D) Estimation of serum IgE levels | Answer is B. Ans: B (Patch test) Ref: Eczema. In: Thappa DM. editor. Essentials in Dermatology, 2nd,edn.. New Delhi: jaypee brothers medical publishers (P) Ltd 2009:99-113. & Atopic dermatitis. Eczema and non infectious immunodeficiency disorders. In: James WD. Berger TG, Elston DM. editors. Andrew's diseases of the sk... | |
Children with apathy, general weakness, loosening of the skin, marasmic features also has X3B Xerophthalmia features. Eye finding will be: (A) Corneal ulcer with thickening, (B) Corneal ulcer with full thickness, (C) Hyperemia, (D) Conjunctival xerosis | Answer is B. (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 467 - 470)X3A Corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting less than a one-third corneal surfaceX3B corneal ulceration/keratomalacia affecting more than a one-third corneal surfaceXS corneal scar due to xerophthalmia XF Xerophthalmic fundus | |
A perforated peptic ulcer is treated by all except: (A) Under running of vessel, (B) H.pylori eradication, (C) Highly selective Vagotomy, (D) Omental patch | Answer is A. The most impoant component of the operation of perforated peptic ulcer is a thorough peritoneal toilet to remove all of the fluid and food debris. If the perforation is in the duodenum it can usually be closed by several well-placed sutures, closing the ulcer in a transverse direction as with a pyloroplast... | |
Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding. The drug that should not be used is -: (A) Sodium bicarbonate, (B) Calcium gluconate, (C) Glucose with insulin, (D) Resins | Answer is B. calcium gluconate immediately antagonises the cardiac effects of hyperkalemia, whereas the others are used to correct hyperkalemia. (reference : harrisons principles of internal medicine,19E page- 312) |
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